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SBI Clerks Mock TestNo. of Questions: 200 Marks: 200 Time: 2.15 Hrs.

General Awareness

1. RBI has permitted the NBFC-ND to act as Business Correspondents of banks

with an aim of spreading financial inclusion on 24th June 2014. NBFC-ND

stands for?

1) Non Banking Finance Company at New Delhi

2) Non Banking Finance Company Non-Drawer

3) Non-deposit Non Banking Finance Company

4) New Director Non Banking Finance Company

5) None

2. On 1st July 2014, which committee submitted the report on Data and Information

Management in RBI?

1) Anand Sinha 2) H.R. Khan

3) Arundhathi Bhattacharya 4) Rakesh Mohan

5) D.K. Mohanty

3. Largest domestic issuer of overseas bond is?

1) PNB 2) SBI 3) BOI

4) IOB 5) ICICI

4. RBI was formed on the recommendations of .......... commission.

1) Kelkar 2) Curzon 3) Hilton -Young

4) Minto-morley 5) None

5. Hamara Khaata Hamara Swabhimaan (Our Account Our Pride) scheme to

provide the No frill accounts to poor announced by?

1) Indian Banks Association and SBI

2) RBI and IBA

3) Indian Banks Association and Ministry of Finance

4) SBI and IDBI

5) Ministry of Finance and World Bank

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6. Banks usually share the information of CIBIL at the time of giving credit to the

borrowers. CIBIL stands for?

1) Core Inform Bureau (India) Limited

2) Credit Information Bureau (India) Limited

3) Consumer Information Bureau (India) Limited

4) Credit Information Board (India) Limited

5) Collective Information Bureau (India) Limited

7. In the term 'EMI'. E means ....... (This term used in loans).

1) Ebb 2) Engine 3) End

4) Equated 5) None

8. Savings account cannot be opened by?

1) Teacher 2) House Wife

3) Farmer 4) Person doing Money Laundering

5) Person doing more than two businesses

9. What is the condition for a bank to be called a 'Scheduled Bank'?

1) Its business has crossed Rs.1000-cr mark.

2) Its branch network is over 100.

3) It is included in the second schedule of the RBI Act.

4) It complies with all the above conditions.

5) None

10. PJ Nayak Committee submitted its report to the RBI on 24th May 2014, has

mention about the dual regulation of Public Sector Banks (PSBs) as they are

regulated by the RBI as well as the .........

1) Ministry of Finance

2) Ministry of Commerce and Industry

3) Ministry of Law

4) Ministry of Home Affairs

5) None of above



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11. Regarding Indian Currency the statements relating to RBI given. Pick the

incorrect one?

1) It issues Rs.2 and above paper currency till Rs.1000 paper currency now.

2) It was given power to issue the paper currency denomination up to Rs.10,000.

3) It issues Rs.1 also.

4) Coins Mint by Government of India

5) It acts as the Government's agent for issue and distribution of coins.

12. MICR cheques are familiar these days. In MICR, first three digits say the city

name or district name and next three digits say?

1) branch code 2) bank license code

3) bank name 4) bank head office name

5) None

13. Present CRR is .......

1) 4% 2) 22.5% 3) 8%

4) 7% 5) 9%

14. Union Budget for 2014-15 proposes REITS for infrastructure projects to reduce

pressure on banking system. REITS stands for?

1) Real Estate Investment Trusts

2) Real Estate Innovation Trusts

3) Real Estate Infrastructure Trusts

4) Real Estate Industrial Trusts

5) None of these

15. Which scheme introduced to help in generating awareness and improving the

efficiency of delivery of welfare services meant for women with an initial corpus

of Rs.100 crore in the Union Budget 2014-15?

1) Beti Bachao, Beti Badhao Yojana 2) Beti Bachao, Beti Banhao Yojana

3) Beti Bachao, Beti Padhao Yojana 4) Beti Padhao, Beti Jaman Yojana

5) None

16. First indigenous Anti-Submarine Warship (ASW) joined Indian Naval Ship on

12th July 2014. It is .......

1) INS Kamorta 2) INS Sindur

3) INS Konkan 4) INS Lakor

5) None



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17. FIFA suspended which nation from all international football competitions on 9th

July 2014, alleging the government interference is more in that nation's food ballfederation?

1) Nigeria 2) Brazil

3) Switzerland 4) Sweden

5) Norway

18. Rammasun, the strong typhoon attacked large parts of the ............ on 15th July2014?

1) India 2) Egypt 3) Philippines

4) Italy 5) None

19. 6th BRICS Summit held on 15-16 July 2014 at .......

1) Fortaleza, Brazil 2) Ufa, Russia

3) New Delhi, India 4) Beijing, China

5) None

20. BRICS development bank will be having headquarters at?

1) New Delhi 2) Shanghai 3) Brasilia

4) Johannesburg 5) Moscow

21. India and which nation decided to launch negotiations for civil nuclearcooperation on 8 July 2014. This nation's foreign secretary of state WilliamHague visiting India for this purpose.

1) USA 2) Bulgaria 3) New Zealand

4) UK 5) Germany

22. In the education schemes, MDMS stands for?

1) Mid Day Maintenance Scheme 2) More Day Meal Scheme

3) Mid Dull Meal Scheme 4) Mid Day Meal Scheme

5) None

23. On 11th July, 2014, Supreme Court ordered Union Government to bring wagesunder MGNREGS on par with minimum wages existing under different states.MGNREGS stands for?

1) Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Group Scheme.

2) Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guild Scheme.

3) Mahatma Gandhi National Rozgar Employment Guarantee Scheme.

4) Millennium Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Scheme.

5) Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Scheme



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24. Who was awarded with the prestigious Gandhi Peace Prize for 2013?

1) Dalia lama 2) Barack Obama

3) Chandi Prasad Bhatt 4) Shianzo Abe

5) None

25. Keshari Nath Tripathi took oath as the Governor of?

1) West Bengal 2) UP 3) Odisha

4) Meghalaya 5) None

26. New state formed recently ........

1) Purvanchal 2) Haritha Pradesh

3) Kodagu 4) Telangana

5) Bodo land

27. Who was elected as the 10th president of Israel on 10th June 2014 succeeding

Shimon Peres?

1) Benjamin Netanyahu 2) Francis Holliand

3) Reuven Ruby Rivlin 4) Joe Baden

5) None

28. FIFA 2014 foot ball cup won by ...

1) Germany 2) Italy 3) France

4) USA 5) None

29. Which Indian Ace Tennis Player and Cara Black of South Africa were ranked

career-best fifth in the latest WTA Doubles Rankings?

1) Rushmi Chakravarthi 2) Ankita Bhambri

3) Sania Mirza 4) Manisha Malhotra

5) None

30. On 10th July 2014, UNO released World Urbanization Prospects report. As per it

the most populous city in the world is Tokyo having 38 million populations.

Which city got second rank having 25 million population?

1) New York 2) Milan 3) Jakarta

4) Ottawa 5) New Delhi



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31. 'Land Belongs to the Future - Let's Climate Proof It' is theme of World Day to

Combat Desertification. The World Day to Combat Desertification observed on

........

1) 10th June 2) 17th June 3) 1st July

4) 10th May 5) 10th July

32. Who releases first Encyclopedia on Hinduism, edited by Swami Chidanand

Saraswatiji of the Parmarth Niketan Rishikesh?

1) Abdul Kalam 2) Sonia Gandhi

3) Pranab Mukherjee 4) Narendra Modi

5) None

33. Thailand capital is?

1) Kuala Lumpur 2) Hanoi 3) Canberra

4) Colombo 5) Bangkok

34. Which nation allows dual citizenship for the children of immigrants on 3rd July

2014?

1) USA 2) Canada 3) Germany

4) France 5) Italy

35. Swami and His Friends, Grand Mother's Tale, A Tiger for Malgudi, The Man-eater

of Malgudi, A Horse and Two Goats, The Bachelor of Arts are the books of ........

1) Mulk Raj Anand 2) Raja Rao

3) Vivekananda 4) R.K. Narayan

5) None

36. Flipkart, India's largest e-retailer, on 22 May 2014 acquired the country's biggest

fashion portal?

1) Myntra 2) Snapdeal 3) Amazon

4) e-bay 5) None

37. CCEA headed by .......

1) Commerce Minister 2) Finance Minister

3) Prime Minister 4) President of India

5) None



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38. Marylebone Cricket Club XI on 5th July 2014 won the match played to celebrate

200-years (bi-centenary of Lord's Cricket Ground on 5th July 2014). The team

led by?

1) Steve Waugh 2) Kapil Dev

3) Sachin Tendulkar 4) Shen Warne

5) None

39. Chief Ministers combination given. Locate the wrong option.

1) Assam - Tarun Gogoi

2) Haryana - Bhupinder Singh Hooda

3) Jharkhand - Raman Singh

4) Manipur - Ibobi Singh

5) Meghalaya - Mukul Sangma

40. Pension scheme for farmers and scheme to air-lift doctors to remote areasintroduced on 5th June 2014 by?

1) Uttarakhand 2) Odisha 3) HP

4) Delhi 5) Kerala

General English

Directions (Q.41-45): Pick out the most effective word from the given words to fillin the blank to make the sentence meaningfully complete.

41. The government is planning to set ......... family welfare centres for slums incities.

1) another 2) with 3) for

4) in 5) up

42. Economic independence and education have .......... women more assertive.

1) prepared 2) made 3) marked

4) resulted 5) adjusted

43. In the modern world, the .......... of change and scientific innovation is unusuallyrapid.

1) supplies 2) context 3) pace

4) fantasy 5) requirement

44. The unprecedented economic growth of China has ......... world wide attention.

1) perceived 2) proposed 3) neither

4) astonished 5) attracted



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45. Each business activity .......... employment to people who would otherwise be

unemployed.

1) taking 2) finds 3) creates

4) provides 5) given

Directions (Q.46-55): Read the following passage carefully and answer thequestions given below it. Certain words have been printed in bold to help youlocate them while answering some of the questions.

The importance of communication skills cannot be underestimated, especially

so, in the teaching - learning process. Teaching is generally considered as only fifty

percent knowledge and fifty percent interpersonal or communication skills. For a

teacher, it is not just important to give a lecture rich in content that provides

abundant information about the subject or topic in question, but a successful teacher

develops an affinity with, an understanding of, and a harmonious interrelationship

with her pupils. Building rapport becomes her primary task in the classroom. But

what exactly is rapport? Rapport is a sympathetic relationship or understanding that

allows you to look at the world from someone else's perspective. Making other

people feel that you understand them creates a strong bond. Building rapport is the

first step to better communication - primary goal of all true educators.

Communication skills for teachers are thus as important as their in-depth knowledge

of the particular subject which they teach. To a surprising degree, how one

communicates determines one's effectiveness as teacher. A study on communication

styles suggests that 7% of communication takes place through words, 38% through

voice intonation and 55% through body language.

Much of teaching is about sending and receiving messages. The process of

communication is composed of three elements: the source (sender, speaker,

transmitter or instructor), the symbols used in composing and transmitting of the

message (words or signs), and the receiver (listener, reader or student). The three

elements are dynamically interrelated since each element is dependent on the others

for effective communication to take place. Effective communication is all about

conveying your message to the other people clearly and unambiguously. It's also

about receiving information the others are sending to you, with as little distortion as

possible. Doing this involves effort from both the sender and the receiver. And it's a

process that can be fraught with error, with messages muddled by the sender, or

misinterpreted by the recipient. When this isn't detected it can cause tremendous

confusion, wasted effort and missed opportunity.



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Good communication skills are a prerequisite for those in teaching profession.

Carefully planned and skillfully delivered message can issue invitations to students

that school is a place to share ideas, investigate and collaborate with others.

Effective communication is essential for a well-run classroom. A teacher who is able

to communicate well with students can inspire them to learn and participate in class

and encourage them to come forth with their views, thus creating a proper rapport.

Although this sounds simple obvious, it requires much more than a teacher saying

something out loud to a student. They must also realize that all students have

different levels of strengths and weaknesses.

Directions (Q.46-47): Choose the word which is most OPPOSITE in meaning of

the word printed in bold as used in the passage.

46. Abundant

1) Small 2) Little 3) False

4) Sufficient 5) Rare

47. Muddled

1) skillfully organized 2) Strongly controlled

3) Clearly conveyed 4) Isolated

5) Complicated

Directions (Q.48-50): Choose the word which is most SIMILAR in meaning to the

word printed in bold as used in the passage.

48. Sounds

1) Seems 2) Corrects 3) Noises

4) Takes 5) Silences

49. Affinity

1) Partnership 2) Partiality 3) Weakness

4) Compatibility 5) Discord

50. Degree

1) Extent 2) Goal 3) Affect

4) Situation 5) Direction



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51. Which of the following is/ are essential for effective communication?

(A) Conveying the message clearly.

(B) Not to waste effort and opportunity.

(C) Receiving the information with as little distortion as possible.

1) Only (A) and (C) 2) Only (B)

3) Only (A) 4) Only (C)

5) Only (B) and (C)

52. Which of the following is true about 'rapport' as per the passage?

(A) It is a sympathetic relationship.

(B) It is based on understanding of other people's frame of reference.

(C) It helps in creating a strong bond.

(D) It is important for teachers to build rapport with students.

1) Only (A) and (B) 2) Only (B) and (D)

3) Only (A), (B) and (D) 4) Only (A), (B), and (C)

5) All are true

53. Which of the following must the teachers keep in mind to facilitate learning in

student as per the passage?

1) To control the students such that they do not share ideas with others within the

lecture hours.

2) To maintain rapport with students and compromise on the course content.

3) To realize that all students have different levels of strengths and weaknesses.

4) Only to keep the lecture rich in course content.

5) To ensure that students adhere to her views only.

54. Which of the following are the three elements of communication as per the

passage?

1) Source, Signs and Students 2) Source, Sender and Speaker

3) Signs, Words and Students 4) Instructor, Listener and Reader

5) Transmitter, Student and Receiver

55. Which of the following is the finding of the study on communication styles?

1) The body languages and gestures account for 38% of communication and

outweighs the voice intonation.

2) Only 9% communication is about content whereas the rest is about our tone

and body language.



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3) The tone of our voice accounts for 55% of what we communicate and

outweighs the body language.

4) More than 90% of our communication is not about content but about our tone

and body language.

5) Teaching is fifty percent knowledge and fifty percent interpersonal or

communication skill.

Directions (Q. 56-65): Read each sentence to find out whether there is any

grammatical error in it. The error if any, will be in one part of the sentence.

The number of that part is the answer. If there is 'No error', the answer is (5).

(Ignore the errors of punctuation, if any).

56. The economic disparity (1)/ has grown rapid in (2)/ the era of globalization (3)/

and free market forces. (4)/ No error (5).

57. Research shows that people (1)/ is more sensitive to perceiving (2)/ messages that

are consistent (3)/ with their opinions and attitudes. (4)/ No error (5).

58. Many poverty alleviation schemes (1)/ are not applicable of (2)/ slum dwellers in

metro cities (3)/ as they are above the poverty line. (4)/ No error (5).

59. Rather than considering its (1)/ human capital as a drain on (2)/ resources, India

needs to (3)/ resource develop its into a huge opportunity. (4)/ No error (5).

60. The European nations have (1)/ become one of the (2)/ favourite destinations of

the Indian students (3)/ seek specialized knowledge and training. (4)/ No error

(5).

61. If a credit card bill (1)/ is paid in full and (2)/ on time, none finance (3)/ charges

are levied. (4)/ No error (5).

62. Training have a (1)/ positive effect on (2)/ development of various (3)/ skills and

abilities. (4)/ No error (5).

63. Lack of ability to (1)/ read or write is just one of (2)/ the all barriers that keep (3)/

the poor people under developed. (4)/ No error (5).

64. Science and technology have (1)/ become dominant factors (2)/ affecting our

economic, cultural (3)/ and spiritual development. (4)/ No error (5).

65. A social business sells products (1)/ at a prices that make it self-sustaining, pays

(2)/ no dividends and reinvestment (3)/ the profits in the business. (4)/ No error

(5).



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Directions (Q.66-75): In the following passage, there are blanks, each of whichhas been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and againsteach five words are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Findout the appropriate word in each case.

The latest technology ..(66).. put to use or about to arrive in market must be

..(67).. to all entrepreneurs. The reason is that it may have an ..(68).. effect on

business. Valve radios gave way to transistor radios and with micro chips, technology

is giving way to digital equipment. Business has ..(69).. the same but the technology

has kept changing. A notable feature is that the size of the receivers decreased ..(70)..so did the use of its material and consequently its price. The traditional flour mills are

losing business ..(71)... customers now buy flour ..(72).. from the market. As a result

of this, the business is ..(73)... Following the same lines as technology, the social

trends also go on changing and influence the market. The Indian sarees are being taken

..(74).. by readymade stitched clothes. Every entrepreneur must note such changes in

the environment and also the technology and plan in ..(75).. with these to ensure the

success of his endeavour.

66. 1) to 2) needed 3) decided

4) besides 5) being

67. 1) hoped 2) welcome 3) released

4) known 5) aware

68. 1) approximate 2) huge 3) uniform

4) excellence 5) enormous

69. 1) maintained 2) remained 3) often

4) mentioned 5) become

70. 1) mainly 2) and 3) how

4) also 5) some

71. 1) reason 2) due 3) young

4) as 5) old

72. 1) knowingly 2) ease 3) cheap

4) directly 5) forcefully

73. 1) shrinking 2) blooming 3) returned

4) same 5) small

74. 1) against 2) to 3) over

4) up 5) for



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75. 1) lines 2) relativity 3) accordance

4) proper 5) toning

Directions (Q.76-80): Rearrange the following five sentences (A), (B), (C), (D),and (E) in proper sequence so as to form a meaningful paragraph, and thenanswer the questions given below.

(A) Understandably, the newly married woman herself wants to spend more timewith the family.

(B) They also worry that she might not be able to defend herself in case of trouble.

(C) Once married, the in-laws exert a lot of pressure for similar cause of security.

(D) Initially, the family does not want the 'decent' girl going all around.

(E) Retaining female workers at door-to-door sales jobs is just as hard as ever.

76. Which of the following should be the SECOND sentence after rearrangement?

1) E 2) B 3) D

4) C 5) A

77. Which of the following should be the FOURTH sentence after rearrangement?

1) A 2) C 3) D

4) B 5)E

78. Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence after rearrangement?

1) D 2) B 3) C

4)E 5) A

79. Which of the following should be the THIRD sentence after rearrangement?

1) C 2) A 3) E

4) D 5) B

80. Which of the following should be the LAST (FIFTH) sentence afterrearrangement?

1) B 2) D 3) C

4) A 5) E

Quantitative AptitudeDirections (Q.81-90) : What should come in place of question mark (?) in the

following questions.

81. (8.2% of 365 ) - (1.75% of 108) =?

1) 16.02 2) 28.04 3) 42.34

4) 53.76 5) None of these



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82. [(135)2 ÷ 15 × 32)] ÷ ? = 45 × 24

1) 18 2) 24 3) 36

4) 44 5) None of these

83. (96)2 + (63)2 = (?)2 - (111)2 - 8350

1) 33856 2) 30276 3) 174


84. 4368 + 2158 - 596 - ? = 3421 + 1262

1) 1066 2) 1174 3) 1247


85. 2172 ÷ ? = 1832 - 956 - 514

1) 6 2) 8 3) 10


86. 666.06 + 66.60 + 0.66 + 6.06 + 6 + 60 =?

1) 819.56 2) 805.38 3) 826.44


87. 15.594 - 4.312 - 3.517 - 1.689 =?

1) 6.706 2) 6.760 3) 6.670


88. 205 × ? × 13 = 33625 + 25005

1) 22 2) 27 3) 33


89. 69 ÷ 3 × 0.85 + 14.5 - 3 =?

1) 36.45 2) 23.85 3) 42.95


90. (10)24 × (10)-21 =?

1) 3 2) 10 3) 100


Directions (Q.91-95): What approximate value should come in place of questionmark(?) in the following questions? (You are not expected to calculate theexact value.)

91. (935.82)2 =?

1) 870000 2) 867500 3) 888800

4) 875800 5) 899800



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92. 628.306 + 6.1325 × 44.0268 =?

1) 820 2) 970 3) 1050

4) 1175 5) 900

93. (739% of 383) ÷ 628 =?

1) 10.00 2) 4.50 3) 15.75

4) 19.25 5) 24.15

94. (9795 + 7621 + 938) ÷ (541 + 831 + 496) =?

1) 9 2) 13 3) 17

4) 23 5) 29

95. 814296 × 36 = ? × 96324

1) 326 2) 272 3) 304

4) 358 5) 260

Directions (Q. 96-100): Study the following table carefully to answer the questionsthat follow.

Number of Boys and Girls in Five Streams of College over the years

96. What is the total number of boys, for all the streams together, in the year 2004?

1) 4148 2) 3630 3) 4433


97. The number of boys in Arts stream in the year 2004 is approximately what

percent of the total number of boys for all the years together in Arts stream?

1) 27 2) 34 3) 08

4) 39 5) 16



STREAMSYear Arts Science Commerce Management IT

Boys Girls Boys Girls Boys Girls Boys Girls Boys Girls

2002 556 414 619 505 668 612 770 633 670 5152003 763 608 793 612 781 616 667 439 866 7222004 672 519 540 516 859 713 778 727 781 619

2005 809 602 928 908 870 811 849 729 977 8172006 745 510 884 820 967 819 562 938 990 8082007 698 413 765 616 571 515 1288 1016 1151 1010

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98. What is the ratio of the total number of boys to the total number of girls from all

the streams together, for the year 2007?

1) 2 : 3 2) 14 : 13 3) 52 : 49

4) 213 : 170 5) None of these

99. What is the ratio of the total number of boys to the total number of girls, in the

Management stream for all the years together?

1) 9 : 8 2) 71 : 86 3) 91 : 83

4) 27 : 23 5) None of these

100. What is the average number of Girls from Commerce stream for the given years?

1) 681 2) 675 3) 618


Directions (Q.101-105): Study the graph carefully to answer the questions that

follow:

Number of Girls Enrolled in different Hobby Classes in Various Institutes in a Year.

X-axis: Name of the Institutes

Y-axis: Number of Girls Enrolled

101. What is the respective ratio of total number of girls enrolled in Painting in the

Institutes A and C together to those enrolled in stitching in the Institutes D and E

together?

1) 5 : 4 2) 5 : 7 3) 16 : 23

4) 9 : 8 5) None of these



Painting Stiching Dancing A B C D E

450

400

350

300

250

200

150

100

50

0

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102. Number of girls enrolled in stitching in Institute B forms approximately what

percent of the total number of girls enrolled in stitching in all the Institutes

together?

1) 29 2) 21 3) 33

4) 37 5) 45

103. What is the respective ratio of total number of girls enrolled in Painting, Stiching

and Dancing from all the Institutes together?

1) 45 : 49 : 48 2) 43 : 47 : 48

3) 44 : 47 : 48 4) 47 : 48 : 44

5) None of these

104. Number of girls enrolled in Dancing in Institute A forms what percent of total

number of girls enrolled in all the Hobby Classes together in that Institute?

(rounded off to two digits after decimal)

1) 23.87 2) 17.76 3) 31.23

4) 33.97 5) 20.69

105. What is the total number of girls enrolled in Painting from all the Institutestogether?

1) 1150 2) 1200 3) 1275


Directions (Q.106-110): What should come in place of question mark (?) in thefollowing number series?

106. 12 6.5 7.5 12.75 27.5 71.25 ?

1) 225.75 2) 216.75 3) 209.75

4) 236.75 5) 249.75

107. 16 24 36 54 81 121.5 ?

1) 182.25 2) 174.85 3) 190.65

4) 166.55 5) 158.95

108. 12 12 18 45 180 1170 ?

1) 13485 2) 14675 3) 15890

4) 16756 5) 12285

109. 22 23 27 36 52 77 ?

1) 111 2) 109 3) 113

4) 117 5) 115



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110. 16 14 24 66 256 1270 ?

1) 8564 2) 5672 3) 4561

4) 7608 5) 6340

111. The simple interest accrued on an amount of Rs.19,800 at the end of three years

is Rs.7,128. What would be the compound interest accrued on the same amount

at the same rate in the same period?

1) Rs.8934.6784 2) Rs.8017.5744

3) Rs.7861.8754 4) Can't be determined

5) None of these

112. If the numerator of a fraction is increased by 400% and the denominator is

increased by 500%, the resultant fraction 1021

. What was the original fraction?

5 8 171) 2) 3)

12 13 144

4) 5) None of these 7

113. The ages of Aarzoo and Arnav are in the ratio of 11 : 13 respectively. After 7 years

the ratio of their ages will be 20 : 23. What is the difference in years between their

ages?

1) 4 years 2) 7 years 3) 6 years

4) 5 years 5) None of these

114. One − eigth of a number is 17.25. What will 73% of the number be ?

1) 100.74 2) 138.00 3) 96.42


115. If the sum of three consecutive numbers is more than middle number by 130, then

find the middle number.

1) 64 2) 65 3) 66


116. When prices of coal are reduced by 16% then sale increases by 25%. What will

be effect on sale?

1) 5% increase 2) 5% decrease

3) 5.5% increase 4) 6% decrease

5) None of these



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117. A train running at the speed of 125 kmph crosses a platform in 19.5 seconds. Find

the length of the train.

1) 625 metres 2) 1065 metres

3) 1575 metres 4) Data inadequate

5) None of these

118. What should be added to 13291 to make it divisible by 11?

1) 8 2) 12 3) 15


119. Which of the following fractions are in descending order?

11 13 15 14 17 12 1) , , 2) , ,

9 11 13 13 19 9

9 13 14 15 9 153) , , 4) , ,

11 12 13 13 11 9

5) None of these

120. A certain sum becomes Rs.2735 in 3 years and Rs.3008.5 in 4 years at compound

interest. What is the rate of interest?

1) 10% 2) 15% 3) 20%

4) 25% 5) None of these

Reasoning Ability

121. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which

is the one that does not belong to that group?

1) Horse 2) Dog 3) Camel

4) Cow 5) Fox

122. How many meaningful English words can be formed with the letters RAE using

each letter only once in each word?

1) None 2) One 3) Two

4) Three 5) More than three

123. In a certain code RUST is written as QVRU. How is LINE written in that code?

1) KJMF 2) KJLI 3) KMJF

4) KJME 5) None of these



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124. If the letters in the word DOLPHIN are rearranged as they appear in English

alphabetical order, which of the following letters, will be the fifth from left?

1) O 2) D 3) I

4) L 5) None of these

125. What will come next in the following letter series?

A A C A C E A C E G A C E G I A C E G I

1) K 2) L 3) A

4) B 5) None of these

126. In a certain code 'ke pa lo ti' means 'lamp is burning bright' and 'lo si ti ba ke'

means 'bright light is from lamp'. Which of the following is the code for

'burning' in that language?

1) si 2) pa 3) ti

4) ke 5) None of these

127. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word WONDERS, each of which

has as many letters between its two letters as there are between them in the

English alphabet?

1) One 2) Two 3) Three

4) Four 5) More than four

128. The following groups of alphabets form a certain pattern with regard to their

position in the English alphabetic series. Based up on the pattern, which of the

following five alternatives shall replace the question mark?

AD, FC, HK, MJ, ?

1) NQ 2) OQ 3) OR

4) MP 5) None of these

Directions (Q.129-130): A, B, C and D live on floors 3 to 6 of the same six storeyed

building, A lives on fourth floor. Only one person lives on the floor between A

and B; C does not live on a floor above A's floor.

129. Who lives on a floor immediately above B's floor?

1) A 2) C 3) D

4) A or C 5) B lives on top floor



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130. Who lives on the fifth floor?

1) A 2) B 3) C

4) D 5) None of these

Directions (Q.131-133): Study the rearrangement of letters and digits given below

and answer the questions which follow.

Q 2 3 B 9 V 5 L S R F P

131. If one is subtracted from each of the numbers, which of the following will be the

fourth to the right of the tenth from the right?

1) 4 2) 8 3) 2

4) I 5) None of these

132. If first all the digits are arranged in descending order and then the letters are

arranged in alphabetic order, the position of how many digits and alphabets will

remain unchanged?


4) Three 5) None of these

133. If each of the consonants in the above arrangement is replaced by the letter

preceding it in the alphabetic series, how many vowels will be obtained?

1) Nil 2) One 3) Two

4) Three 5) Four

134. In a certain code 'EXPERT' is written as '$Z%$Q5' and 'PETROL' is written as

'%$5Q#9'. How will 'EXPLORE' be written in that code?

1) $Z%9Q#$ 2) $Z%9#Q$ 3) $Z%9#$Q

4) $Z%9$#Q 5) None of these

135. Sunil walks towards the East from point A, turns right at point B and walks the

same distance as he walked towards the East. He now turns left, walks the same

distance again and finally makes a left turn and stops at point C after walking the

same distance. The distance between A and C is how many times as that of A and

B?

1) Cannot be determined 2) Two

3) Three 4) Four

5) None of these



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Directions(Q.136-140): To answer these questions study carefully the followingarrangement of symbols, digits and letters.

W % 9 3 G 6 H # 7 K $ L 2 ★ B M J © 4 5 E 8 @ Z

136. If all the numbers are deleted from the above arrangement then which of the

following will be seventh to the left of sixth from the right?

1) H 2) J 3) M

4) $ 5) None of these

137. How many such numbers are there in the above arrangement each of which is

immediately preceded by a symbol?

1) One 2) Two 3) Three

4) Four 5) None of these

138. '9W' is to 'GH#' and '$7' is to '2BM' in the same way as '4J' is to .......... in the

arrangement.

1) E@8 2) 58 3) B2L

4) 58Z 5) None of these

139. How many such symbols are there in the above arrangement each of which is

immediately followed by a letter?


4) Three 5) None of these

140. If all the symbols are deleted from the above arrangement then which of the

following will be the fourth to the left of twelfth from the right?

1) 9 2) 3 3) W

4) M 5) None of these

Directions (Q.141 - 145): In each of the questions below are given four statements

followed by three conclusions numbered I, II & III. You have to take the given

statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known

facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions

logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known

facts.

141. Statements: All chillies are garlics.

Some garlics are onions.

All onions are potatoes.

No potato is ginger.



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Conclusions: I. No onion is ginger.

II. Some garlics are potatoes.

III. Some chillies are potatoes.

1) Only I follows 2) Only II follows

3) Only I & II follow 4) Only I & III follow

5) All follow

142. Statements: Some keys are locks.

Some locks are numbers.

All numbers are letters.

All letters are words.

Conclusions: I. Some locks are letters.

II. Some words are numbers.

III. All numbers are words.

1) Only I & II follow 2) Only II & III follow

3) Only I & III follow 4) Only I & either II or III follows

5) All follow

143. Statements: Some windows are doors.

All doors are walls.

No wall is roof.

All roofs are shelters.

Conclusions: I. Some windows are walls.

II. No wall is shelter.

III. No door is shelter.

1) None follows 2) Only II & III follow

3) Only I & III follow 4) Only I follows

5) None of these

144. Statements: All bottles are jars.

Some jars are pots.

All pots are taps.

No tap is tank.



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Conclusions: I. No pot is tank.

II. Some jars are tanks.

III. Some bottles are pots.

1) Only I & III follow 2) Only I & II follow

3) Only II & III follow 4) All follow

5) None of these

145. Statements: Some fish are crocodiles.

Some crocodiles are snakes.

No snake is tortoise.

All tortoises are frogs.

Conclusions: I. No snake is frog.

II. Some snakes are fish.

III. Some fish are frogs.

1) None follows 2) Only I & II follow

3) Only II & III follow 4) Only I & III follow

5) None of these

Directions (Q.146-150): These questions are based on the following information:

‘A @ B' means ‘A is added to B’.

‘A ★ B' means ‘A is multiplied by B’.

‘A # B' means ‘A is divided by B’.

‘A $ B' means ‘B is subtracted from A’.

In each question, some information is given. You have to find out which

expression correctly represents the statement.

146. Total age of 12 boys is 'X' and the total age of 13 girls is 'Y'. What is the average age

(A) of all the boys and girls together?

1) A = (X@Y)#25 2) A = (X$Y)#25

3) A = (X@Y) ★ 25 4) Cannot be determined

5) None of these



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147. Population of state M(P1) is less than half of population of state N(P2) by

1,50,000

1) P2 = (P1#2)$1,50,000 2) P1 = (P2#2)@1,50,000

3) P1 = (P2#2)$ 1,50,000 4) P2 = (P1#2)@ 1,50,000

5) None of these

148. Number of boys (B) in a class is equal to one − fourth of three times the number

of girls (G) in the class.

1) B = (3#G) ★ 4 2) B = (3 ★ G)@4

3) B = (3 ★ G)#4 4) B = (3$G)#4

5) None of these

149. Salary of Mr.X (S1) is more than 40% of Mr.Y's salary (S2) by Rs.8,000

1) S1 = [S2 ★ (400@100)]#8,000 2) S1 = [S2 ★ (400#100)]@8,000

3) S2 = [S1 ★ (400#100)]@8,000 4) S2 = [S1 ★ (400@100)]#8,000

5) None

150. Marks obtained by Sujit in History (H) are 85% of his marks obtained in Science

(M).

1) H = (100#85) ★M 2) H = 85 ★ 100 ★ M

3) H = 85#100#M 4) H = (85#100) ★ M

5) None of these

Directions (Q.151 −− 155): In the following questions, the symbols @, #, $, © and %are used with different meanings as follows:

‘P @ Q' means 'P is not smaller than Q’.

‘P # Q' means 'P is not greater than Q’.

‘P $ Q' means 'P is neither greater than nor equal to Q’.

‘P © Q' means 'P is neither smaller than nor equal to Q’.

‘P % Q' means 'P is neither greater than nor smaller than Q’.

Now in each of the following questions assuming the given statements to be true,find which of the two conclusions I and II given below them is/ are definetely true?

Give answer (1): if only conclusion I is true.

Give answer (2): if only conclusion II is true.

Give answer (3): if either conclusion I or II is true.

Give answer (4): if neither conclusion I nor II is true.

Give answer (5): if both conclusions I and II are true.



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151. Statements: V $ W, W @ T, T # H

Conclusions: I. V © T II. H % W

152. Statements: H © M, M @ E, E $ C

Conclusions: I. C @ M II. H © E

153. Statements: N @ J, J % R, R © H

Conclusions: I. R # N II. N © H

154. Statements: L @ K, K © A, A $ W

Conclusions: I. W $ L II. L # W

155. Statements: J # R, R © D, D @ F

Conclusions: I. F $ R II. F % R

Directions (Q.156 −− 160): Study the following information carefully to answerthese questions:

Eight friends J, K, L, M, N, O, P and Q are sitting around a circle facing thecentre. J is not the neighbour of N. L is third to the right of K. Q is second to the leftof N who is next to the right of L. O is not the neighbour of N or K and is to theimmediate left of P.

156. Which of the following is the correct position of L?

1) To the immediate right of N 2) To the immediate right of Q

3) To the immediate left of M 4) To the immediate left of Q

5) None

157. Which of the following pair of persons represents O's neighbours?

1) L & N 2) P & K 3) M & P

4) N & P 5) None of these

158. Which of the following groups has the first person sitting between the other twopersons ?

1) PKJ 2) JQL 3) QNL

4) LMN 5) None of these

159. Who is to the immediate right of K?

1) J 2) P

3) Q 4) Cannot be determined

5) None of these

160. Who is to the immediate left of O?

1) P 2) L 3) Q

4) M 5) None of these



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Marketing & Computer Knowledge

161. Difference between Direct and Indirect Marketing is ..............

1) Direct Marketing is to Bank's employees, Indirect is to outsiders

2) Direct Marketing is to outsiders, Indirect is to employees

3) Direct Marketing is to Bank's owners, Indirect is to outsiders

4) Direct Marketing is to other Bank's employees, Indirect is to outsiders.

5) None of these

162. Transaction Marketing means..............

1) Marketing only to strangers 2) Mere selling of goods

3) Doing banking transactions 4) All of the above

5) None of these

163. In Marketing it is necessary to identify...

1) Potential sellers 2) Selling employees

3) Potential products and services 4) Key existing and potential customers

5) All of the above

164. NRI is an easy target for effective marketing because..............

1) he likes Indian goods

2) he does not like Indian goods

3) he is easily approachable

4) it is cheaper to contact NRIs

5) There are special products designed for NRIs

165. A DSA helps in..............

1) Boosting direct sales 2) Contacting customers on the net

3) Indirect marketing 4) Direct telemarketing

5) None of these

166. Marketing is required for ..............

1) Boosting production 2) Boosting sales

3) Boosting profits 4) Improving customer service

5) All of the above

167. A cold call is ..............

1) Best way to do marketing 2) A last resort for marketers

3) Marketing random 4) All of the above

5) None of these



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168. A call can be effective by..............

1) Making a phone call

2) Sending an e-mail

3) Calling on friends

4) Service with several facilities

5) Personally calling on prospective customers

169. Good Selling skills involves..............

1) Alertness 2) Knowledge of competition

3) Perseverance 4) Empathy

5) All of the above

170. The discount made on the list price for services made available by the

intermediary is ...

1) Trade Discount 2) Price Discount

3) Cost discount 4) Company discount

5) None of these

171. Marketing activity that concerns the handling and the movement of goods is

1) Planning 2) Implementation

3) Physical Distribution 4) Analysing

5) Control

172. Public relations can be carried out through

1) Media relations 2) Newsletters

3) Special events 4) Sponsorships

5) All the above

173. What are marketing channels?

1) Communication Channels 2) Distribution Channels

3) Service channels 4) All the above

5) None of these

174. Marketing depending on hardcore selling is ..

1) Risky 2) Profitable 3) Worthy

4) All the above 5) None of these



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175. Marketing objectives of the bank are

1) Deposits mobilization

2) Customer services to their satisfaction

3) Increasing customer base

4) Positioning bank brand in customers

5) All the above

176. ......... is an area of buyer need and interest that a bank has a high probability of

profitably satisfying.

1) Internal environment 2) Marketing opportunity

3) Marking analysis 4) All the above

5) None of these

177. Marketing formula STP stands for

1) Segmentation, Targeting, Positioning

2) Segmentation, Targeting, Pricing

3) Satisfaction, Threats, Product

4) Satisfaction, Treating, Presenting

5) None of these

178. A potential loan customer of a bank should possess..

1) Character 2) Capacity

3) Capital and collateral 4) Credit worthiness

5) All the above

179. Who all can be channel intermediaries of banks, under financial inclusion?

1) NGOs/ SHGs 2) Micro-Finance Intuitions (MFIs)

3) Civil Society Organisations (CSOs) 4) Post offices

5) All the above

180. Which of the following statement is false?

1) Banks are allowed to sell gold through its branch network

2) Banks are allowed to mortgage gold jewels form customer only

3) Banks are allowed to sell and purchase gold jewels from customers

4) Banks are allowed to make their own denomination of gold coins for selling

5) All the above



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181. What menu is selected to print?

1) Edit 2) Special 3) File

4) Tools 5) None of these

182. The name a user assigns to a document is called a(n)..............

1) filename 2) program 3) record

4) data 5) None of these

183. A.............. is an electronic device that process data converting it into information.

1) processor 2) computer 3) case

4) stylus 5) None of these

184. ..............are words that a programming language has set aside for its own use.

1) Control words 2) Reserved words

3) Reserved keys 4) Controls structures

5) None of these

185. What are the two types of output devices?

1) Monitor and printer 2) Storage-disks (floppy, CD)

3) Keyboard and mouse 4) Windows 2000, Windows NT

5) None

186. Bank and its employee effectively transforming the service into customer

satisfaction. This service is categorised as ....

1) Service quantity 2) Service productivity

3) Service affected 4) Service improved

5) None of these

187. A(n)..............is a program that makes the computer easier to use.

1) operating stystem 2) application

3) utility 4) network

5) None

188. Connections to the Internet using a phone line and a modem are called ... con-

nections.

1) digital 2) dial-up 3) broadband

4) dish 5) None of these

189. To access a mainframe or supercomputer, users often use a..............

1) terminal 2) node 3) desktop

4) handheld 5) None of these



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190. A flaw in a program that causes it to produce incorrect or inappropriate results is

called a...

1) bug 2) byte 3) attribute

4) unit problem 5) None of these

191. A web site address is a unique name that identifies a specific .............. on the

web.

1) Web browser 2) PDA 3) Web site

4) Link 5) None of these

192. Every component of your computer is either..

1) hardware or software

2) software or CPU/ RAM

3) application software or system software

4) input devices or output devices

5) None of these

193. To make the number pad act as directional arrows, you press the ..............key.

1) numlock 2) caps lock 3) arrow lock

4) shift 5) None of these

194. When creating a word-processed document, this step involves the user changing

how words on the page appear, both on the screen and in printed form.

1) Editing text 2) Inserting tables and indexes

3) Formating text 4) Proofing document

5) None of these

195. The .............. performs simple mathematics for the CPU.

1) ALU 2) DIMM 3) BUS

4) Register 5) None of these

196. Reusable optical storage will typically have the acronym..............

1) CD 2) RW 3) DVD

4) ROM 5) None of these

197. .............. is processed by the computer into information.

1) numbers 2) processor 3) input

4) data 5) None of these

198. Personal computers can be connected together to form a..............

1) server 2) supercomputer

3) enterprise 4) network

5) None of these



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199. A word in a web page that, when clicked opens another document is

called..............

1) anchor 2) hyperlink 3) reference

4) URL 5) None of these

200. The..............of software contains lists of commands and options.

1) title bar 2) menu bar 3) formula bar

4) tool bar 5) None of these

ANSWERS

1-3; 2-5; 3-2; 4-3; 5-3; 6-2; 7-4; 8-4; 9-3; 10-1; 11-3; 12-3; 13-1; 14-1; 15-3; 16-1;

17-1; 18-3; 19-1; 20-2; 21-4; 22-4; 23-5; 24-3; 25-1; 26-4; 27-3; 28-1; 29-3; 30-5;

31-2; 32-3; 33-5; 34-3; 35-4; 36-1; 37-3; 38-3; 39-3; 40-1; 41-5; 42-2; 43-3; 44-5;

45-4; 46-2; 47-3; 48-1; 49-4 ; 50-1; 51-1; 52-5; 53-3; 54-1; 55-4; 56-2; 57-2; 58-2;

59-4; 60-4; 61-3; 62-5; 63-3; 64-5; 65-3; 66-5; 67-4; 68-5; 69-2; 70-2; 71-4; 72-4;

73-1; 74-3; 75-3; 76-3; 77-2; 78-4; 79-5; 80-4; 81-2; 82-3; 83-4; 84-3; 85-1; 86-2;

87-5; 88-1; 89-5; 90-4; 91-4; 92-5; 93-2; 94-1; 95-3.96-2; 97-5; 98-4; 99-3; 100-1;

101-3; 102-2; 103-1; 104-5; 105-5; 106-2; 107-1; 108-5; 109-3; 110-4; 111-2; 112-4;

113-3; 114-1; 115-2; 116-1; 117-4; 118-1; 119-1; 120-1; 121-5; 122-3; 123-1; 124-5;

125-1; 126-2; 127-4; 128-3; 129-5; 130-4; 131-1; 132-3; 133-5; 134-2; 135-2; 136-1;

137-3; 138-5; 139-4; 140-2; 141-3; 142-5; 143-4; 144-5; 145-1; 146-1; 147-3; 148-3;

149-2; 150-4; 151-4; 152-2; 153-5; 154-4; 155-1; 156-2; 157-3; 158-5; 159-1; 160-4;

161-1; 162-5; 163-5; 164-1; 165-1; 166-5; 167-1; 168-5; 169-5. 170-1; 171-3; 172-5;

173-4; 174-1; 175-5; 176-2; 177-1; 178-5; 179-5; 180-3; 181-3; 182-1; 183-1; 184-3;

185-1; 186-2; 187-1; 188-2; 189-3; 190-1; 191-4; 192-1; 193-1; 194-3; 195-1; 196-2;

197-3; 198-4; 199-2; 200-2.



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