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[KVPY SAMEPLE PAPER – 3 STREAM – (SX)] RJ VISION PVT. LTD (NO. 1 COACHING OF GUJARAT)

2

PPAARRTT –– 11 ((OOnnee MMaarrkkss QQuueessttiioonn))

MATHS

1. Sides of a triangle ABC; a, b, c are in G.P. If „r‟

be the common ratio of this G.P., then

(1)

,

2

15r

(2)

,

2

15r

(3)

2

15,

2

15r

(4)

2

35,

2

15r

Ans. (3)

2. 351 when divided by 8 leaves the remainder

(1) 1 (2) 6

(3) 5 (4) 3

Ans. (4)

3. A class contains 3 girls and four boys. Every

Saturday five students go on a picnic, a

different group of students is being sent each

week. During the picnic, each girl in the group

is given a doll by the accompanying teacher.

All possible groups of five have gone once, the

total number of dolls the girls have got is:

(1) 21 (2) 45

(3) 27 (4) 24

Ans. (2)

4. ABC is an equilateral triangle such that the

vertices B and C lie on two parallel lines at a

distance 6. If A lies between the parallel lines

at a distance 4 from one of them then the

length of a side of the equilateral triangle is

(1) 8 (2) 3/88

(3)

3

74

(4) 1

Ans. ()

5. Normal PO, PA and PB („O‟ being the

origin) are drawn to 2y = 4x from P(h, 0).

If AOB /2 , then area of quadrilateral

OAPB is equal to

(1) 12 sq. Units (2) 24 sq. Units

(3) 6 sq. Units (4) 18 sq. Units

Ans. (2)

6. The equation of tangents drawn from the point

(0, 4) to the hyperbola x2 – 4y2 = 36 are

(1) 5x – 6y + 24 and 5x + 6y – 24 = 0

(2) x – 4y + 16 = 0 and x + 4y – 16 = 0

(3) 2x – y + 4 = 0 and 2x + y – 4 = 0

(4) None of these

Ans. (4)

7. The range of the function f(x) = x2 + 2

1

x 1+

is

(1) [1, ) (2) [2,)

(3)

3,

2 (4) None of these

Ans. (1)

8. If f(x) is a continuous function x R and

the range of f(x) = (2, 26 ) and g(x)

=

a

xf )( is continuous x R [.]

denotes the greatest integer function), then

the least positive integral value of a is:

(1) 2 (2) 3

(3) 6 (4) 5

Ans. (3)

9. Let g(x) be the inverse of the function f(x)

and f'(x) 3

1

1 x=

+. Then g'(x) is :

(1) ( )( )

3

1

1 g x+ (2)

( )( )3

1

1 f x+

(3) 1 + (g(x))3 (4) 1 + (f(x))3

Ans. (3)


3

10. The number of value of k for which the

equation x3 – 3x + k = 0 has two different roots

lying in the interval (0, 1) are

(1) 3

(2) 2

(3) infinitely many

(4) No value of k satisfies the requirement.

Ans. (3)

11. ABCD is a parallelogram with ˆ ˆ ˆAC i 2j k

and ˆ ˆ ˆBD i 2j 5k

. Area of this

parallelogram is equal to:

(1) 5 / 2 sq. units (2) 2 5 sq. Units

(3) 4 5 sq. units (4) 5 sq. Units

Ans. (2)

12. A company manufactures T. Vs at two

different plants A and B. Plant 'A' produces 80

% and B produces 20 % of the total

production. 85 out of 100 TVs produced at

plant A meet the quality standards while 65

out of 100 T.Vs produced at plant B meet the

quality standard. A T.V. produced by the

company is selected at random and is not

found to meeting the quality standard. Find

the probability that selected T.V. was

manufactured by the plant B.

(1) 19

7

(2) 20

7

(3) 15

7

(4) 10

7

Ans. (1)

13. If sin, sin and cos are in G.P, then roots of

the equation x2 + 2x cot + 1 = 0 are always.

(1) Equal (2) Real

(3) Imaginary (4) Greater than 1

Ans. (2)

14. The value of

))]1(sin(tan1cos[tanlim xx

is equal to

(1) -1

(2) 2

(3)

2

1

(4) 2

1

Ans. (4)

15. The values of a for which both the roots of the

equation (1 – a2)x2 + 2ax – 1 = 0 lie between 0

and 1 are given by

(1) a > 2

(2) 1 < a < 2

(3) – < a <

(4) none of these

Ans. (1)

16. If is a complex cube root of unity, then the

value of

2 2

2 2

a b c a b c

c a b b c a

+ w + w + w + w+

+ w + w + w + w is

(1) 1

(2) 0

(3) 2

(4) – 1

Ans. (4)

17. If first and (2n-1)th terms of an A.P. , G. P.

and H.P. , are equal and their nth terms

are a, b, c respectively , then

(1) a + c = 2b

(2) a + c = b

(3) a b c

(4) ac –b2 = 0

Ans. (3, 4)


4

18. If minimum value of 1 2 1 2(sin x) (cos x)- -+ is

k

p 2

, then value of k is

(1) 4 (2) 6

(3) 8 (4) None of these

Ans. (3)

19. For what value of a and b, the equation

(sin2x – cos 2x) dx = bax2sin2

1 holds

good?

(1) a = –4

5, b is any arbitrary constant

(2) a = 5

4

p, b any arbitrary constant

(3) a = – 4

, b any arbitrary constant

(4) a = 4

, b any arbitrary constant

Ans. (1)

20. The area of the region consisting of points

(x, y) satisfying |x y | 2 and x2 + y2 2 is

(1) 8 – 2 sq. Units

(2) 4 – 2 sq. Units

(3) 1 – 2 sq. Units

(4) 2 sq. Units

Ans. (1)

PHYSICS

21. Number of particles is given by 12

12

xx

nnDn

crossing a unit area perpendicular to X- axis in

unit time, where 1n and 2n are number of

particles per unit volume for the value of x

meant to 2x and .1x Find dimensions of D

called as diffusion constant

(1) 20 LTM (2) 420 TLM

(3) 30 LTM (4) 120 TLM

Ans. (4)

22. The plates of a capacitor are charged to a

potential difference of 320 volts and are then

connected across a resistor. The potential

difference across the capacitor decays

exponentially with time. After 1 second the

potential difference between the plates of the

capacitor is 240 volts, then after 2 and 3

seconds the potential difference between the

plates will be

(1) 200 and 180 V (2) 180 and 135 V

(3) 160 and 80 V (4) 140 and 20 V

Ans. (2)

23. A thermodynamic system undergoes cyclic

process ABCDA as shown in figure. The work

done by the system is

(1) 00VP (2) 002 VP

(3) 2

00VP (4) Zero

Ans. (4)

24. The moment of inertia of a rod of length l

about an axis passing through its centre of

mass and perpendicular to rod is I. The

moment of inertia of hexagonal shape formed

by six such rods, about an axis passing

through its centre of mass and perpendicular

to its plane will be

(1) 16I (2) 40 I

(3) 60 I (4) 80 I

Ans. (3)

25. If the earth suddenly stopped in its orbit

(assume orbit to be circular) the time that

would elapse before it falls into the sun is

(1) 1

T2

(2) 1

T2 2

(3) 1

T4 2

(4) 1

T8 2

Ans. (3)

P

3P0

2P0

P0

V0 2V0

C B

V A D

O


5

26. In Young's double slit experiment, the intensity

on the screen at a point where path difference

is is K. What will be the intensity at the point

where path difference is 4/

(1) 4

K (2)

2

K

(3) K (4) Zero

Ans. (2)

27. A long straight wire along the z-axis carries a

current I in the negative z direction. The

magnetic vector field

B at a point having

coordinates (x, y) in the z = 0 plane is

(1) )(2

)ˆˆ(22 yx

jxiyIo

(2)

)(2

)ˆˆ(22 yx

jyixIo

(3) )(2

)ˆˆ(22 yx

iyjxIo

(4)

)(2

)ˆˆ(22 yx

jyixIo

Ans. (1)

28. Shown in the figure is a circular loop of radius

r and resistance R. A variable magnetic field of

induction teBB 0 is established inside the

coil. If the key (K) is closed, the electrical

power developed right after closing the switch

is equal to

(1) R

rB 220 (2)

R

rB 3010

(3) 5

4220 RrB

(4) R

rB 4220

Ans. (4)

29. Two identical electric lamps marked 500 W,

220 V are connected in series and then joined

to a 110 V line. The power consumed by each

lamp is

(1) W4

125 (2) W4

25

(3) W4

225 (4) 125 W

Ans. (1)

30. In stationary waves, antinodes are the points

where there is

(1) Minimum displacement and minimum

pressure change

(2) Minimum displacement and maximum

pressure change

(3) Maximum displacement and maximum

pressure change

(4) Maximum displacement and minimum

pressure change

Ans. (4)

31. The rest energy of an electron is 0.511 MeV.

The electron is accelerated from rest to a

velocity 0.5 c. The change in its energy will be

(1) 0.026 MeV (2) 0.051 MeV

(3) 0.079 MeV (4) 0.105 MeV

Ans. (3)

32. A simple pendulum has time period T1. The

point of suspension is now moved upward

according to equation 2kty where

2/1 secmk . If new time period is T2 then ratio

2

2

21

T

T will be

(1) 2/3 (2) 5/6

(3) 6/5 (4) 3/2

Ans. (3)

33. Three rods of the same dimension have

thermal conductivities 3K, 2K and K. They are

arranged as shown in fig. Given below, with

their ends at 100oC, 50oC and 20oC. The

temperature of their junction is

(1) o60 C (2) o70 C

(3) 50o C (4) 35o C

Ans. (2)

R

K

B

100oC

50oC

20oC

3K

2K

K


6

34. The potential energy of a body is given by,

U = 2BxA (Where x is the displacement). The

magnitude of force acting on the particle is

(1) Constant

(2) Proportional to x

(3) Proportional to 2x

(4) Inversely proportional to x

Ans. (2)

35. The equation of state of some gases can be

expressed as V

R

V

aP

2 Where P is the

pressure, V the volume, the absolute

temperature and a and b are constants. The

dimensional formula of a is

(1) ][ 25 TML (2) ][ 251 TLM

(3) ][ 21 TML (4) ][ 25 TML

Ans. (1)

36. A smooth uniform rod of length L and mass M

has two identical beads of negligible size,

each of mass m , which can slide freely along

the rod. Initially the two beads are at the

centre of the rod and the system is rotating

with angular velocity 0 about an axis

perpendicular to the rod and passing through

the mid point of the rod (see figure). There are

no external forces. When the beads reach the

ends of the rod, the angular velocity of the

system is

(1) 0 (2) mM

M

12

0

(3) mM

M

2

0

(4)

mM

M

6

0

Ans. (4)

37. A large open tank has two holes in the wall.

One is a square hole of side L at a depth y

from the top and the other is a circular hole of

radius R at a depth 4y from the top. When the

tank is completely filled with water the

quantities of water flowing out per second from

both the holes are the same. Then R is equal

to

(1) L2 (2) 2

L

(3) L (4) 2

L

Ans. (2)

38. Two identical billiard balls are in contact on a

table. A third identical ball strikes them

symmetrically and come to rest after impact.

The coefficient of restitution is

(1) 3

2 (2)

3

1

(3) 6

1 (4)

2

3

Ans. (1)

39. A radioactive nucleus is being produced at a

constant rate per second. Its decay constant

is . If N0 are the number of nuclei at time

t = 0, then maximum number of nuclei

possible are

(1)

(2)

0N

(3) N0 (4) 0N

Ans. (1)

40. A plane electromagnetic wave of wave

intensity 6 W/m2 strikes a small mirror area 40

cm2, held perpendicular to the approaching

wave. The momentum transferred by the wave

to the mirror each second will be

(1) 27 /104.6 smkg

(2) 28 /108.4 smkg

(3) 29 /102.3 smkg

(4) 210 /106.1 smkg

Ans. (4)

L/2 L/2


7

CHEMISTRY

41. Using MO theory, predict which of the

following species has the shortest bond

length?

(1) 2

2O

(2)

2O

(3)

2O

(4) 2

2O

Ans. (1)

42. Which of the following has been arranged in

order of decreasing dipole moment?

(1) CH3Cl > CH3F> CH3Br > CH3l

(2) CH3F > CH3CI > CH3Br > CH3l

(3) CH3CI > CH3Br > CH3l > CH3F

(4) CH3F > CH3CI > CH3l > CH3Br

Ans. (1)

43. Consider the following sets of quantum

numbers.

NO. n l m s

(I) 3 0 0 2

1

(II) 2 2 1 2

1

(III) 4 3 - 2 2

1

(IV) 1 0 -1 2

1

(V) 3 2 3 2

1

Which of the following sets of quantum

number is not possible?

(1) (ii), (iii) and (iv)

(2) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)

(3) (ii), (iv) and (v)

(4) (i) and (iii)

Ans. (3)

44. Consider the following carbocations:

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) 23 HCCH

The relative stabilities of these carbocations

are such that-

(1) d < b < c < a

(2) b < d < c < a

(3) d < b < a < c

(4) b < d < a < c

Ans. (1)

45. The pair of structures represents:

(1) Enantiomers

(2) Position isomers

(3) Conformers

(4) None

Ans. (2)

46. The ratio of cationic radius to anionic radius in

an ionic crystal is greater than 0.732. Its

coordination number is

(1) 6 (2) 8

(3) 1 (4) 4

Ans. (2)

47. CH3CH2Cl NaCNX 2Ni/H

Y acetic

anhydride Z

Z in the above reacting sequence is :

(1) CH3CH2CH2NHCOCH3

(2) CH3CH2CH2NH2

(3) CH3CH2CH2CONHCH3

(4) CH3CH2CH2CONHCOCH3

Ans. (1)


8

48. In the reduction of nitric – oxide, 50% of

reaction was completed in 108 s, when initial

pressure was 336 mm Hg and in 147 s, when

initial pressure was 288 mm Hg. Find the

order of the reaction.

(1) 2 (2) 3

(3) 4 (4) 5

Ans. (2)

49. In which pair do both the species have the

same electronic configuration?

(1) KrSe ,2

(2) 32 ,CrMn

(3) ClNa ,

(4) 2, ZoNi

Ans. (1)

50. Which of the following chloride will exclusively

give 2-methyl but-2-ene on dehydrohaloge-

nation by a strong base?

(1) 2-Chloro-2-methyl butane



(4) None of these

Ans. (4)

51. The relative stability of the compounds

(I) (II)

(III) (IV)

CH3 – CH = CH2 CH2 = CH2

(V) (VI)

is in the order-

(1) I > II > III > IV > V > VI

(2) VI > V > IV > III > II > I

(3) I > III > V > II > IV > VI

(4) II > I > IV > III > V > VI

Ans. (1)

52. Oxidation number of metal in metal carbonyl

is-

(1) + 2 (2) + 1

(3) – 2 (4) Zero

Ans. (4)

53. A solution was prepared by dissolving 0.02

moles of acetic acid (HOAC: pKa = 4.8) in

water to give 1 liter solution. What is the pH?

(1) 3.25 (2) 4.5

(3) 4.8 (4) 2.0

Ans. (1)

54. The compound which does not show

paramagnetism:

(1) [Cu(NH3)4CI2]

(2) [Ag(NH3)2CI]

(3) NO

(4) NO2

Ans. (2)

55. An endothermic reaction with high activation

energy for the forward reaction is given by the

diagram:

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

Ans. (3)

56. tert-Butyl methyl ether on heating with HI of

one molar concentration gives

(1) CH3OH + (CH3)3CCI

(2) CH3I + (CH3)3COH

(3) CH3I + (CH3)3CCI

(4) None of these

Ans. (2)

P

R

Po

ten

tial

en

ergy

Reaction coordinate

P R

Po

ten

tial

en

ergy

Reaction coordinate

Po

ten

tial

en

ergy

R

P

Reaction coordinate

Po

ten

tial

en

ergy

P

R

Reaction coordinate


9

57. Arrange the following in order of decreasing

N – O bond length :

322 NO,NO,NO

(1) 223 NONONO

(2) 223 NONONO

(3) 232 NONONO

(4) 232 NONONO

Ans. (2)

58. What is the expression for Kc at 250o for this

reaction?

2NH3 ⇌ N2(g) + 3H2(g)

(1) 2RT

PK

cK

(2) RT

PK

cK

(3) 2RTKc

K p

(4) RTKc

K p

Ans. (1)

59. Benzene on treatment with propyl chloride in

presence of AlCl3 gives mainly:

(1) Toluene

(2) Ethylbenzene

(3) Propylbenzene

(4) Isopropylbenzene

Ans. (4)

60. The correct statement regarding F centre is

(1) Electron are held in the voids of crystals

(2) F centre produces colour to the crystals

(3) Conductivity of the crystal increases due to

F centre

(4) All

Ans. (4)

BIOLOGY

61. Which of the following animals has both

endoskeleton as well exoskeleton?

(1) Cockroach

(2) Sponge

(3) Snake

(4) Frog

Ans. (3)

62. Which statement is false? Bacteria are

involved in :

(1) Animal diseases

(2) Decomposing dead organic matter

(3) Food digestion in animal

(4) Alcohol production in beer

Ans. (4)

63. The biochemical component of erythrocyte

membrane determining blood group is:

(1) Lipoprotein

(2) Glycoprotein

(3) Phosphoprotein

(4) Hemoprotein

Ans. (2)

64. What letter indicates the end of meiosis I?

(1) A (2) B

(3) C (4) D

Ans. (3)

65. Cyanide is a metabolic poison as at:

(1) Inhibits the enzymes of TCA cycle

(2) Stops protein synthesis

(3) Inhibits glycolysis

(4) Inhibits the enzymes cytochrome oxidize

and blocks tissue respiration.

Ans. (4)


10

66. A man is brought to court in apaternity case.

He has blood type B, Rh positive. The mother

has blood: group B, Rh negative. The child‟s

blood type is A, Rh negative. Which

statement about the man is correct?

(1) He is the father

(2) He might be the father

(3) He is not the father

(4) He might not be the father

Ans. (3)

67. If father shows normal genotype and mother

shows a carrier trait for hemophilia.

(1) A male child has 50% chances of active

disease.

(2) All the female children will be carriers.

(3) Female child has probability of 0.5 to have

active diseases

(4) All the female children will be normal.

Ans. (1)

68. A dwarf plant was infected naturally by a

fungus. The infection resulted in excessive

lengthening of the stream of the plant. The

secretion of the fungus most likely contains:

(1) Auxin (2) Gibberellin

(3) Cytokinin (4) Abscisic acid

Ans. (2)

69. A long term global cycle which is linked by

water and in which sea floor rising plays an

important role is:

(1) Water cycle

(2) Carbon cycle

(3) Phosphorus cycle

(4) Nitrogen cycle

Ans. (3)

70. Long term stability of a community depends

on :

(1) Type of its biotic components

(2) Resource partitioning

(3) Biodiversity

(4) Succession

Ans. (3)

71. In a cardiac output of 5250 ml per minute,

with 75 heartbeats per minute, the stroke

volume is:

(1) 70 ml (2) 80 ml

(3) 355 ml (4) 460 ml

Ans. (1)

72. After pollination, which of the following events

is crucial for fertilization to occur in flowering

plants?

(1) Sperm swim to the egg and the polar

nuclei

(2) Petals close around the reproductive parts

(3) Meiosis occurs within the pollen grain

(4) A pollen tube grows from the stigma to

the ovule

Ans. (4)

73. Which of the following serve as the anchoring

junctions between the cells?

(1) Tight junctions

(2) Gap junctions

(3) Desmosomes

(4) Nexuses

Ans. (3)

74. Some drugs are given to patient to help his

body to accept new kidney from donor. They

are:

(1) Diluretic

(2) Antidiluretic

(3) Antibiotic

(4) Immunosupressants

Ans. (4)

75. Carbon dioxide is called a “green-house” gas

because:

(1) Its concentration is always high in green

house.

(2) It is involved in photosynthesis.

(3) It absorbs infra-red radiation.

(4) It emits visible radiation (i.e. light)

Ans. (3)


11

76. What is “carrying capacity” of a population?

(1) The rate at which the density of individuals

increase over time.

(2) The maximum number of individuals

which can be supported in given

environment.

(3) The proportion of individuals which are

most responsible for population growth.

(4) The minimum number of individuals

necessary to avoid extinction of the

population.

Ans. (2)

77. Which of the following is true for

biogeographic regions?

(1) Each represents a different climatic

region.

(2) They are influenced mainly by relatively

recent events.

(3) Different biogeographic regions do not

contain any of the same biomes

(4) They are mainly the result of movement

of land masses.

Ans. (4)

78. A swamp that has many aquatic plants

growing in it is suddenly polluted. As a result

of the pollution, all of the plants die. Shortly

after the pollution, which of the following

would decrease in concentration in the water

of the pond?

(1) Oxygen

(2) Carbon dioxide

(3) Nitrogen in the form of nitrate and

ammonium

(4) Phosphate

Ans. (1)

79. Which of the following hormones is not found

in plants?

(1) GA (2) ABA

(3) 2, 4-D (4) IAA

Ans. (3)

80. Cotylendons are the first leaves produced by

the embryos of vascular plans. Which of the

following is not a physiological function of

cotyledons?

(1) Absorption of carbohydrates from the

endosperm

(2) Photosynthesis

(3) Storage of proteins

(4) Vegetative propagation

Ans. (4)

PPAARRTT –– 22 ((TTwwoo MMaarrkkss QQuueessttiioonn))

MATHS

81. If

0,0

0,

1

||

1

)(

x

xxx

xexf , then )(xf is

(1) Continuous as well as differentiable for all x

(2) Continuous for all x but not differentiable

at 0x

(3) Neither differentiable nor continuous at

0x

(4) Discontinuous every where

Ans. (2)

82. The radius of the cylinder of maximum

volume, which can be inscribed a sphere of

radius R is

(1) R3

2 (2) R

3

2

(3) R4

3 (4) R

4

3

Ans. (2)

83. dxx][cot 120

10

, where [.] denotes greatest

integer function

(1) 3cot1cot30

(2) 3cot2cot1cot30

(3) 8 2cot1cot30

(4) None of these

Ans. (2)


12

84. If 1... 121 xxxx nn then the value of

1

1log.....3

log2

log1

log

x

nx

nx

nxxxx

is equal

to

(1) 0 (2) 1

(3) 2 (4) None of these

Ans. (2)

85. If a tangent having slope of 3

4 to the ellipse

13218

22

yx

intersects the major and minor

axes in points A and B respectively, then the

area of OAB is equal to (O is centre of the

ellipse)

(1) 12 sq. unit

(2) 48 sq. unit

(3) 64 sq. unit

(4) 24 sq. Unit

Ans. (4)

86. The number of solution of the equation

xxx cos2sectan lying in the interval

)2,0( is

(1) 0 (2) 1

(3) 2 (4) 3

Ans. (3)

87. If abra and ,3. ra where

kjia 2 and ,2 kjib then r and

are equal to

(1) 5

6,

3

2

6

7 jir

(2)6

5,

3

2

6

7 jir

(3) 5

6,

3

2

7

6 jir

(4) None of these

Ans. (2)

88. If

rrx2

cos

+

r

i2

sin

, then

............. 321 xxx is

(1) –3

(2) –2

(3) –1

(4) 0

Ans. (3)

89. If a, b, c are in A.P. and |a|, |b|, |c| < 1, and

....1 2aax

....1 2bby

.....1 2ccz

Then x, y, z shall be in

(1) A.P.

(2) G.P.

(3) H. P.

(4) None of these

Ans. (3)

90. If

n

r

rxr

Cnx

0

)1( , then

11

2

0

1 1......11n

n

C

C

C

C

C

C

(1) !)1(

1

n

nn

(2) !)1(

1)1(

n

nn

(3)

!

)1(

n

nn

(4)

!

1)1(

n

nn

Ans. (3)


13

PHYSICS

91. If earth suddenly stops rotating about its own

axis, the increase in it‟s temperature will be

(1) Js

R

5

22 (2)

Js

R 22

(3) Js

Rm

5

2 (4) None of these

Ans. (1)

92. Consider a thin uniform spherical layer of

mass M and radius R, if we consider a solid

sphere of mass M and radius R, then the

potential energy of gravitational interaction of

matter forming this solid sphere is

(1)

v2'

v1'

After Collision

(2)

21 GM

2 R-

(3)

23 GM

5 R- (4)

23 GM

2 R-

Ans. (3)

93. A radioactive sample at any instant has its

disintegration rate 5000 disintegrations per

minute. After 5 minutes, the rate is 1250

disintegrations per minute. Then, the decay

constant (per minute) is

(1) 19 : 81 (2) 18 : 92

(3) 81 : 19 (4) 92 : 18

Ans. (1)

94. When photon of energy 4.25 eV strike the

surface of a metal A, the ejected

photoelectrons have maximum kinetic energy

TA eV and de-Brolie wavelength A . The

maximum kinetic energy of photoelectrons

liberated from another metal B by photon of

energy 4.70 eV is eVTT AB )50.1( . If the de

Broglie wavelength of these photoelectrons is

AB 2 , then

(1) The work function of A is 2.50 eV

(2) The work function of B is 4.20 Ev

(3) eVTA 00.4

(4) eVTB 75.2

Ans. (2)

95. A ring has charge Q and radius R. If a charge

q is placed at its centre then the increase in

tension in the ring is

(1) 2

0

Qq

4πε R (2) zero

(3) 2 2

0

Qq

4π ε R (4)

2 2

0

Qq

8π ε R

Ans. (4)

96. Diameter of a plano–convex lens is 6 cm and

thickness at the centre is 3 mm. If the speed of

light in the material of the lens is 2 108

m/sec, the focal length of the lens is

(1) 15 cm (2) 20 cm

(3) 30 cm (4) 10 cm

Ans. (3)

97. In order to quadruple the resistance of a

Uniform wire, a part of its length was uniformly

stretched till the final length of the entire wire

was 1.5 times the original length, the part of

the wire was fraction equal to

(1) 1 / 8 (2) 1 / 6

(3) 1 / 10 (4) 1 / 4

Ans. (1)

98. The fundamental frequency of a closed pipe is

220 Hz. If 4

1 of the pipe is filled with water, the

frequency of the first overtone of the pipe now

is

(1) 220 Hz (2) 440 Hz

(3) 880 Hz (4) 1760 Hz

Ans. (3)

99. A block slides down an inclined plane of slope

with constant velocity. It is then projected up

the plane with an initial speed v0. How far up

the incline will it move before coming to rest

(1)

2

0v

4gsin (2)

2

0v

gsin

(3)

2

0v

2gsin (4)

2

0v

2g

Ans. (3)

0.5l

l


14

100. A small body of mass m is located on a

horizontal plane. The body acquires a

horizontal velocity v0 . Find mean power

developed by the frictional force, during the

whole time of its motion. If coefficient friction

x = 0.27, mass of body m = 1kg, and

V0 = 1.5 m/s

(1) 0mgv (2) 2

mgv 0

(3)

4

0mgv (4)

8

0mgv

Ans. (2)

CHEMISTRY

101. A compound is treated with NaNH2 to give

sodium salt. The compound is –

(1) C2H2 (2) C6H6

(3) C2H6 (4) C2H4

Ans. (1)

102. Which one of the following does not show

mutarotation?

(1) Sucrose (2) Lactose

(3) Maltose (4) Fructose

Ans. (1)

103. An SN2 reaction at an asymmetric carbon of a

compound always gives :

(1) An enantiomer of the substrate

(2) A product with opposite optical rotation

(3) A mixture of diastereomers

(4) A single stereoisomer

Ans. (4)

104. Which of the following will not be soluble in

sodium bicarbonate?

(1) 2, 4, 6-Trinitrophenol

(2) Benzoic acid

(3) o-Nitrophenol

(4) Benzenesulphonic

Ans. (3)

105. What will be de-Broglie wavelength of an

electron moving with a velocity of

5 11.2 10 ms

(1) 96.068 10

(2) 373.133 10

(3) 96.626 10

(4) 76.018 10

Ans. (3)

106. CsBr crystal has bcc structure. It has an edge

length of .3.4 Å The shortest interionic

distance between Cs and Br ions is

(1) Å86.1

(2) Å72.3

(3) Å3.4

(4) Å44.7

Ans. (2)

107. The heat evolved in the combustion of

methane is given by the following equations.

CH4(g) + 2O2(g) CO2(g) + H2O(l); H = -

890.3 KJ

How many grams of methane would be

required to produce 444.15 KJ of heat of

combustion?

(1) 4 g

(2) 8 g

(3) 12 g

(4) 16 g

Ans. (2)

108. Which statement is incorrect?

(1) Ni(CO)4 – Tetrahedral, paramagnetic

(2) [Ni(CN)4]2 – Square planar, diamagnetic

(3) Ni(CO)4 – Tetrahedral, diamagnetic

(4) [NiCI4]2- - Tetrahedral, paramagnetic

Ans. (1)


15

109. The values of H for the combustion of ethene

and ethyne are – 341.1 and – 310.0 K cal

respectively.

Which of the following is a better fuel?

(1) C2H2 (2) C2H4

(3) Both (1) and (2) (4) None of these

Ans. (1)

110. Propanone reacts with iodine in acid solution

as shown in this equation

HIICHOCCHICHOCCHH

23233 )()(

These data were obtained when the reaction

was studied.

33 )( CHOCCH

M

2I

M

H

M

Relative

rate

0.010 0.010 0.010 1

0.020 0.010 0.010 2

0.020 0.020 0.010 3

0.020 0.010 0.020 4

Which is the rate equation for the reaction?

(1) Rate = 233 )( ICHOCCHk

(2) Rate = 233 )( CHOCCHk

(3) Rate = HICHOCCHk 233 )(

(4) Rate = HCHOCCHk 33 )(

Ans. (3)

BIOLOGY

111. Which one of the following statements is

incorrect?

(1) Alternation of generation occurs only in

plants and certain group of algae

(2) All sexually reproducing organisms

alternate haploid and diploid conditions.

(3) The haploid stage f gametes restores the

diploid stage

(4) Variations on different ancestral cycles of

alternation of generation has led to the

diversity among plant life

Ans. (1)

112. Following are some statements regarding

replication of a DNA and transcription.

(1) During the replication even the introns are

replicated whereas introns are not

transcribed during the process of

transcription.

(2) Some of the bases that are incurorated

during replication differ from those that are

incorporated during transcription.

(3) There is no need of unwinding of strands

during transcription whereas replication

process needs the unwinding of DNA

strands.

(4) DNA – RNA hybrid is formed at some

stage during both the processes.

Ans. (4)

113. Sphincter muscular are found at (refer figure)

(1) 12 and 9

(2) 2, 7 and 8

(3) 8 and 10

(4) 14 and 7

Ans. (4)


16

114. Ammonia is a very toxic substance especially

to the brain cells. Injection of very dilute

solutions of it in the blood can comatose a

person. This is because

(1) Toxic 4NH ions are formed which

penetrate easily through the plasma

membrane of brain cells.

(2) Neutral molecules of ammonia readily

combine with glutamine in the blood to

yield toxic glutamine molecules.

(3) Molecules of ammonia readily pass

through the mitochondrial membranes of

brain cells and consume -ketoglutarate

(4) 4NH ions affect the brain cell function by

changing the polarity of the cell

memebranes

Ans. (4)

115. Long distance, competitive, runners are

usually small and wiry and run more slowly

than sprinters, who run much shorter

distances and generally have a large bulk of

muscles. Which of the following best explains

the differences between the two types of

runners?

(1) Long distance runners run more slowly

because lactic acid quickly builds up in

their muscles and causes fatigue.

Sprinters do not run for a long enough for

lactic acid to build up in their muscles.

(2) The large muscles of sprinters increases

the oxygen supply to each muscle,

preventing lactic acid from forming.

(3) Sprinters do not run for long enough for

sufficient lactic acid to build up in their

muscles therefore they can have large

muscles for more power. By being lighter

and running more slowly long distance

runners ensure that their muscles receive

enough oxygen for aerobic respiration.

(4) Sprinters run faster because their large

muscles have more blood running

through them to stop anaerobic

respiration from taking place. Long

distance runners run more slowly

because they are using the energy from

anaerobic respiration, which does not

produce as much ATP as aerobic

respiration.

Ans. (3)

116. A wound making a hole through a person‟s

chest will cause them difficulty in breathing

mainly because:

(1) It would damage the nerves to the

diaphragm.

(2) Air breathed in through the mouth and

nose would escape through the hole.

(3) The negative pressure caused by action

of the diaphragm would be lost through

the hole.

(4) Air would enter the lungs through the hole

instead of the normal route through

trachea and bronchi.

Ans. (3)

117. In a biology lab exam, a student is given two

cultures of single-celled, colourless

organisms. She is told that one culture is of

an organism collected from the Pacific Ocean

and one is of an organism collected from

Lake Winnipeg, but neither culture is

identified. A question on the exam asks the

student to determine which organisms came

from which source. Which experiment would

best provide the answer to the exam

question?

(1) Put some cells of each culture into distilled

water; the cells that burst were from Lake

winnipeg.


17

(2) Put some cells of each culture into

distilled water; the cells that burst were

from the Pacific Ocean.

(3) Put some cells of each culture into a 3M

sucrose solution; the cells that shrank

were from Lake Winnipeg.

(4) Put some cells of each culture into a 3 M

sucrose solution; the cells that shrank

were from the Pacific Ocean.

Ans. (2)

118. Shown aside is a diagram of food web of a

given terrestrial ecosystem. The arrows

represent energy flow and the letters

represent different species. In which species

would a toxic pollutant that accumulates in

animals probably reach the highest

concentration?

(1) Species D (2) Species B

(3) Species C (4) Species E

Ans. (4)

119. Myoglobin when compared with haemoglobin

has a:

(1) Greater affinity for O2 and begins to

release O2 when it is a lower partial.

(2) Greater affinity for O2 and begins to

release O2, when it is at a higher partial

pressure.

(3) Lower affinity for O2 and begins to release

O2, when it is at lower partial pressure.

(4) Lower affinity for O2 and begins to release

O2 when it is at higher partial pressure.

Ans. (1)

120. The human kidney:

(1) Is responsible for the storage of nutrients

such as glycogen.

(2) Concentrates the urine by actively

transporting water out of the filtrate.

(3) produces more dilute urine when the

collecting ducts become less permeable

to water.

(4) Responds to antidiuretic hormone by

increasing urine output.

Ans. (3)

(sample paper 3 stream sx)[kvpy sameple paper – 3 stream – (sx)] rj vision pvt. ltd (no. 1...

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