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Time : 3.00 hrs. Marks : 720

Subject Chemistry Physics Biology

Paper --- --- ---

Questions 045 045 090

Marks 180 180 360

Jubilee Test Series : 2017 – 18

P.Y. DESHMUKH SIR’S

Saraswati Coaching Classes, Akola

Instructions to Candidates This booklet is your question paper.

Answers have to be marked on the provided OMR sheet.

Rough work is to be done on question paper itself no rough sheet

is to be used.

Log tables, Slide rule, Calculators, Cellular phones and other

Electronic devices in any form are NOT allowed in the examination

hall.

On the OMR sheet, o Fill up all details including Question paper Code with

black/blue ball-pen only.

o USE ONLY BALL PEN TO DARKEN YOUR ANSWERS.

o Double marking will be considered as mistake.

Marking Scheme

o All 180 questions are compulsory and carry 4 mark for

each questions. o Each wrong answer deduct 1 mark from your score.

21 Jan. 2018 TS P.T.O.

2

Section – A : Physics

1) Consider the following figure, a uniform

magnetic field of 0.2 T is directed along

the positive x-axis. What is the magnetic

flux through top surface of the figure

a) Zero b) 0.8 m-wb

c) 1.0 m-wb d) – 1.8 m-wb

2) A circular coil of 500 turns of a wire

has an enclosed area of 0.1 m2 per

turn. It is kept perpendicular to a

magnetic field of induction 0.2 T and

rotated by 180o about a diameter

perpendicular to the field in 0.1 sec.

How much charge will pass when the

coil is connected to a galvanometer

with a combined resistance of 50

ohms

a) 0.2 C b) 0.4 C

c) 2 C d) 4 C

3) The variation of induced emf (E) with

time (t) in a coil if a short bar magnet is

moved along its axis with a constant

velocity is best represented as

a) b)

c) d)

4) A square loop of side „a‟ and resistance R

is placed in a transverse uniform

magnetic field B. If it suddenly changes

into circular form in time t then

magnitude of induced charge will be

a)

2

(4 1)Ba

R b)

2 11

4

Ba

R

c)

2 11

4

Ba

R

d)

1

42

R

Ba

5) A short-circuited coil is placed in a time-

varying magnetic field. Electrical power is

dissipated due to the current induced in the

coil. If the number of turns were to be

quadrupled and the wire radius halved, the

electrical power dissipated would

a) Halved b) The same

c) Doubled d) Quadrupled

6) In the following figure, the magnet is

moved towards the coil with a speed v and

induced emf is e. If magnet and coil

recede away from one another each

moving with speed v, the induced emf in

the coil will be

a) e b) 2e c) 2

e d) 4e

7) A bar magnet is falling freely inside a long

copper tube and a solenoid as shown in

figure (i) and (ii) respectively then

acceleration of magnet inside the copper

tube and solenoid are respectively

(acceleration due to gravity = g)

a) g, g

b) Greater than g, lesser than g

c) Greater than g, g

d) Zero, lesser than g

8) A rectangular loop is drawn from left to

right across a uniform magnetic field

perpendicular into the plane of the loop

a) The direction of current in position 1

is clockwise

b) The direction of current in position 2

is clockwise

c) The direction of current in position 3

is anticlockwise

d) The direction of current in position 4

is clockwise

9) A short magnet is allowed to fall along

the axis of a horizontal metallic ring.

Starting from rest, the distance fallen by

the magnet in one second may be

a) 4 m b) 5 m c) 6 m d) 7 m

Y

60° 9 cm

Back

Front

10 cm

30°

X

Z

10 cm

4 cm

S N

S N

v

S N

v

v

N

S S

N

2 3 4 1

E

t

E

t

E

t t

E

Saraswati Coaching Classes

21 Jan 2018 TS – 6 P.T.O.

3

10) A square metallic wire loop of side 0.1 m and resistance of 1 is moved with a

constant velocity in a magnetic field of

2 wb/m2 as shown in figure. The

magnetic field is perpendicular to the

plane of the loop, loop is connected to a

network of resistances. What should be

the velocity of loop so as to have a

steady current of 1mA in loop

a) 1 cm/sec b) 2 cm/sec

c) 3 cm/sec d) 4 cm/sec

11) A player with 3m long iron rod runs

towards east with a speed of 30 km/hr.

Horizontal component of earth‟s

magnetic field is 4 × 10–5 wb/m2. If he is

running with rod in horizontal (East-

west) and vertical positions, then the

potential difference induced between the

two ends of the rod in two cases will be

a) Zero in vertical position and 1 × 10–3

V in horizontal position

b) 1 × 10–3 V in vertical position and

zero is horizontal position

c) Zero in both cases d) 1 × 10–3 V in both cases

12) As shown in the figure a metal rod

makes contact and complete the circuit.

The circuit is perpendicular to the

magnetic field with B = 0.15 Tesla. If the resistance is 3, force needed to move

the rod as indicated with a constant

speed of 2m/sec is

a) 3.75 × 10–3 N b) 3.75 × 10–2 N

c) 3.75 × 102 N d) 3.75 × 01–4 N

13) A sphere frame of metallic wire is

moving in a uniform magnetic field )(B

acting perpendicular to the paper inward

as shown. LP and QN are also metallic

wires then find the potential difference

between L and N

a) Zero

b) Bvl

c) 2Bvl

d) 3Bvl

14) A metal conductor of length 1 m rotates

vertically about one of its ends at angular

velocity 5 radians per second. If the

horizontal component of earth's magnetic

field is T4102.0 , then the e.m.f.

developed between the two ends of the

conductor is

a) 5 mV b) 50 V

c) 5 V d) 50 mV

15) A copper disc of radius 0.1 m rotates

about its centre with 10 revolutions per

second in a uniform magnetic field of

0.1 Tesla. The emf induced across the

radius of the disc is

a) 10

V b)

2

10

V

c) 10 mV d) 20 mV

16) In a region of uniform magnetic

induction B = 10– 2 Tesla, a circular coil of radius 30 cm and resistance 2 ohm is

rotated about an axis which is

perpendicular to the direction of B and

which forms a diameter of the coil. If the

coil rotates at 200 rpm the amplitude of

the alternating current induced in the

coil is a) 42 mA b)30 mA

c) 6 mA d) 200 mA

17) A solenoid has 2000 turns wound over a

length of 0.30 metre. The area of its

cross-section is 1.2 × 10–3 m2. Around

its central section, a coil of 300 turns is

wound. If an initial current of 2A in the

solenoid is reversed in 0.25 sec, then the

emf induced in the coil is

a) 6 × 10–4 V b) 4 × 10–3 V

c) 6 × 10–2 V d) 48 mV

18) A coil of wire of a certain radius has 600

turns and a self-inductance of 108 mH.

The self-inductance of another similar

coil of 500 turns will be

a) 74 mH b) 75 mH

c) 76 mH d) 77 mH

19) A coil of Cu wire (radius-r, self

inductance-L) is bent in two concentric

turns each having radius is .2

r The self

inductance now

a) 2L b) L c) 4 L d) L/2

20) An ideal transformer has 500 and 5000

turns in primary and secondary windings

respectively. If the primary voltage is

connected to a 6V battery then the

secondary voltage is

a) 0 b) 60V

c) 0.6 V d) 6.0 V

21) An alternating current of frequency 200

rad/sec and peak value 1A as shown in

the figure, is applied to the primary of a

transformer. If the coefficient of mutual

induction between the primary and the

secondary is 1.5 H, the voltage induced

in the secondary will be

a) 300 V b) 191 V

c) 220 V d) 471 V

22) If the frequency of an alternating current

is 50 Hz then the time taken for the

change from zero to positive peak value

3 3

3 3

3

v l

B

P

Q

v = 2m/s

× × × × × × ×

× × × × ×

× × × × ×

× × × × × × ×

R 50 cm

B = 0.15 T (into page)

v

B

L

P

Q

N

l

l

l

+1

– 1

O

v

B

L

P

Q

N

l

l

l


21 Jan 2018 TS – 6 P.T.O.

4

and positive peak value to negative peak

value of current are respectively

a) 1/200 sec, 1/ 100 sec

b) 1/ 100 sec, 1/200 sec

c) 200 sec, 100 sec

d) None of these

23) In an ac circuit, V and i are given by

100sin(100 ) ,andV t volts .

100sin 1003

i t mA

The power

dissipated in circuit is

a) 104 watt b) 10 watt

c) 2.5 watt d) 5 watt

24) Voltage and current in an ac circuit are

given by

6100sin5

tV and

6100sin4

ti

a) Voltage leads the current by 30°

b) Current leads the voltage by 30°

c) Current leads the voltage by 60°

d) Voltage leads the current by 60°

25) An ac voltage source of E = 150 sin 100

t is used to run a device which offers a resistance of 20 and restricts the flow

of current in one direction only. The

r.m.s. value of current in the circuit will

be

a) 1.58 A b) 0.98 A

c) 3.75 A d) 2.38 A

26) An alternating voltage )100sin(2200 tE

is connected to a 1 microfaracd capacitor

through an ac ammeter. The reading of

the ammeter shall be

a) 10 mA b) 20 mA

c) 40 mA d) 80 mA

27) The frequency for which a F5 capacitor

has a reactance of 1000

1 ohm is given by

a) MHz

100 b) Hz

1000

c) Hz1000

1 d)1000 Hz

28) Let frequency = 50 Hz, and capacitance

C = 100F in an ac circuit containing a

capacitor only. If the peak value of the

current in the circuit is 1.57 A. The

expression for the instantaneous voltage

across the capacitor will be

a) E = 50 sin (100 t – 2

)

b) E = 100 sin (50 t)

c) E = 50 sin (100 t)

d) E = 50 sin (100 t + 2

)

29) In an LR-circuit, the inductive reactance

is equal to the resistance R of the circuit. An e.m.f. )cos(0 tEE is applied to the

circuit. The power consumed in the

circuit is

a)R

E20 b)

R

E

2

20

c)R

E

4

20 d)

R

E

8

20

30) A resistance of 40 ohm and an

inductance of 95.5 millihenry are

connected in series in a 50 cycles/second

ac circuit. The impedance of this

combination is very nearly

a) 30 ohm b) 40ohm

c) 50 ohm d) 60 ohm

31) F

5.2 capacitor and 3000-ohm

resistance are joined in series to an ac

source of 200 volt and 150 sec

frequency. The power factor of the

circuit and the power dissipated in it will

respectively

a) 0.6, 0.06 W b) 0.06, 0.6 W

c) 0.6, 4.8 W d) 4.8, 0.6 W

32) A telephone wire of length 200 km has a capacitance of 0.014 F per km. If it

carries an ac of frequency 5 kHz, what

should be the value of an inductor

required to be connected in series so that

the impedance of the circuit is minimum

a) 0.35 mH b) 35 mH

c) 3.5 mH d) Zero

33) In LCR circuit, the capacitance is

changed from C to 4C. For the same

resonant frequency, the inductance

should be changed from L to

a) 2L b) L/2

c) L/4 d) 4L

34) An LCR series circuit is connected to an external e.m.f. te 100sin200 . The

values of the capacitance and resistance in the circuit are F2 and 100

respectively. The amplitude of the

current in the circuit will be maximum

when the inductance is

a) 100 Henry b) 2/50 Henry

c) 100 Henry d) 2100 Henry

35) In a series resonant LCR circuit, if L is

increased by 25% and C is decreased by

20%, then the resonant frequency will

a) Increase by 10%

b) Decrease by 10%

c) Remain unchanged

d) Increase by 2.5 %

36) In an LCR circuit 100R ohm. When

capacitance C is removed, the current lags behind the voltage by 3/ . When

inductance L is removed, the current leads the voltage by 3/ . The

impedance of the circuit is

a) 50 ohm b) 100 ohm

c) 200 ohm d) 400 ohm

37) In the following circuit diagram inductive reactance of inductor is 24 and

capacitive reactance of capacitor is 48,

then reading of ammeter will be

a) 5 A b) 2.4 A c) 2.0 A d) 10 A

L 240 V C

ac

ammeter


21 Jan 2018 TS – 6 P.T.O.

5

38) An ideal choke takes a current of 8A

when connected to an ac source of 100

volt and 50Hz. A pure resistor under the

same conditions takes a current of 10A.

If two are connected in series to an ac

supply of 100V and 40 Hz, then the

current in the series combination of

above resistor and inductor is

a) 10A b) 8A

c) 25 amp d) 210 amp

39) The self inductance of a choke coil is

10 mH. When it is connected with a 10V

dc source, then the loss of power is

20 watt. When it is connected with

10 volt ac source loss of power is 10

watt. The frequency of ac source will be

a) 50 Hz b) 60 Hz

c) 80Hz d) 100 Hz

40) In a series circuit HLR 9.0,300 ,

FC 0.2 and ./1000 secrad The

impedance of the circuit is

a) 1300 b) 900

c) 500 d) 400

41) In an ac circuit, containing an inductance

and a capacitor in series, the current is

found to be maximum when the value of

inductance is 0.5 henry and a

capacitance of 8 F . The angular

frequency of the input ac voltage must

be equal to

a) 500 rad/sec b) 4105 rad/sec

c) 4000 rad/sec d) 5000 rad/sec

42) When 100 volt dc is applied across a

solenoid, a current of 1.0 amp flows in it.

When 100 volt ac is applied across the

same coil, the current drops to 0.5 amp.

If the frequency of ac source is 50 Hz

the impedance and inductance of the

solenoid are

a) 200 ohms and 0.5 henry

b) 100 ohms and 0.86 henry

c) 200 ohms and 1.0 henry

d) 100 ohms and 0.93 henry

43) A coil of resistance 300 ohm and self

inductance 1.5 henry is connected to an

ac source of frequency .100

Hz

The

phase difference between voltage and

current is

a) o0 b) o30

c) o45 d) o60

44) The instantaneous values of current and

potential difference in an alternating circuit are ti sin and tE cos100

respectively. r.m.s. value of wattless

current (in amp) in the circuit is

a) 1 b) 2/1

c)100 d) Zero

45) The r.m.s. current in an ac circuit is 2 A.

If the wattless current be A3 , what is

the power factor

a)3

1 b)

2

1

c)2

1 d)

3

1

Section – B : Chemistry

46) The basic character of methylamines in

vapour phase is

a) 30>20 > 10 > NH3 b) 20>30 >10>NH3

c) 10> 20 > 30 > NH3 d) None of these

47) What is decreasing order of basicity of

p–, s–, t– ethyl amines and NH3? a) NH3>C2H5NH2 >(C2H5)2NH > (C2H5)3N

b) (C2H5)3N > (C2H5)2NH > C2H5NH2>NH3

c) (C2H5)2NH > C2H5NH2>NH3>(C2H5)3N

d) (C2H5)2NH > (C2H5)3N>C2H5NH2>NH3

48) Identify X in the sequence,

X 2HNO C3H8O 2 2 7

2 4

K Cr O

H SOC3H6O2

a) CH3 – NH – CH2 – CH3

b) CH3 –CH2 – CH3 – NH2

c) (CH3)3N

d) None of the above

49) Primary nitroalkanes on hydrolysis give

a) RCOOH + NH2OH b) RCOOH

c) NH2OH d) RCOR

50) The product D in the following sequence

of reactions is

CH3COOH 3NH A

Heat B 2 5P O

C 2 5Na C H OH D

a) ester b) amine

c) acid d) alcohol

51) The value of Kb is highest in case of

a) p – methoxy aniline b) p – chloroanilne

c) p – nitroanilnie d) p–methyl aniline

52) Aniline and ethylamine resembles in

a) solubility

b) action with HNO2

c) action of Grignard reagent

d) coupling reaction

53) Identify „Z‟ in the change :

C6H5NH2 2 /

280

NaNO HCl

KX

/CuBr HBrZ

54) Among the following compounds

the order of basicity is

a) IV > III > II > I b) II > I > III > IV

c) III > IV > II > I d) I > III > IV > II


21 Jan 2018 TS – 6 P.T.O.

6

55) Choose the correct statement from the

ones given below for two anilium in

a) II is not an acceptable canonical

structure because carbonium ions are

less stable than ammonium ions

b) II is not an acceptable canonical

structure because it is non-aromatic

c) II is not an acceptable canonical

structure because the nitrogen has

10 valence electrons

d) II is an acceptable canonical structure

56) Nitrobenzene can be prepared from

benzene by using a mixture of conc.

HNO3 and conc. H2SO4. In the nitrating

mixture HNO3 acts as a ----

a) base b) acid

c) reducing agent d) catalyst

57) In the chemical reactions

NH2

2 4

,278

NaNO HBF

HCl KA B

the compounds „A‟ and „B‟ respectively are

a) nitrobenzene and chlorobenzene

b) nitrobenzene and fluorobenzene

c) phenol and benzene

d) benzene diazonium chloride and

fluorobenzene

58) Aniline in a set of reactions yielded a

product D.

NH2 2 2NaNO HCuCN

HCl NiA B

2HNO

C D

The structure of the product D would be

a) C6H5NHCH2CH3 b) C6H5CH2OH

c) C6H5CH2NH2 d) C6H5NHOH

59) An organic compound (C3H9N) (A),

when treated with nitrous acid, gave an

alcohol and N2 gas was evolved. (A) on

warming with CHCl3 and caustic potash

gave (C) which on reduction gave

isopropylmethylamine. Predict the

structure of (A).

CH3

a) CH– NH2 b) CH3CH2–NH–CH3

CH3

c) CH3 – N – CH3 d) CH2CH2CH2–NH2

|

CH3

60) Ketones and 10 amine reacts to form

a) amides b) oximes

c) urea d) anils

61) Plots showing the variation of the rate

constant (k) with temperature (T) are

given below. The plot that follows

Arrhenius equation is

62) Consider a reaction aG + bH

Products. When concentration of both

the reactants G and H is doubled, the

rate increases eight times. However,

when concentration of G is doubled

keeping the concentration of H fixed, the

rate is doubled. The overall order of

reaction is ----

a) 0 b) 1 c) 2 d) 3

63) The energy of activation for forward and

backward change for an endothermic

reaction X Y are Ef and Eb

respectively. Which is correct?

a) Eb < Ef b) Eb > Ef

c) Eb = Ef d) No relation between them

64) A reaction, A2 + B2 2 AB occurs by

the following mechanism;

A2 A + A ….(slow)

A + B2 AB + B …(Fast)

A + B AB …(Fast)

Its order would be ---

a) 3/2 b) 1 c) zero d) 2

65) Among the following reaction, the fastest

one is ----

a) burning of coal

b) rusting of iron in moist air

c) conversion of monoclinic sulphur to

rhombic sulphur

d) precipitation of silver chloride by

mixing silver nitrate and sodium

chloride solutions

66) In Arrhenius equation K = /Ea RTe

the

quantity – Ea/RT is referred as

a) Boltzmann factor b) Frequency factor

c) Activation factor d) None of these

67) Which curve represents zero order

reaction?

68) If the concentration units are reduced by

n times, then the value of rate constant

of first order will ----

a) increase by n times

b) decrease by factor of n

c) not change

d) none of these

69) If „a‟ is the initial concentration of a

substance which reacts according to zero

order kinetics and K is rate constant, the

time for the reaction to go to completion

is ---


21 Jan 2018 TS – 6 P.T.O.

7

a) a

K b)

2

Ka c)

K

a d)

2K

a

70) The rate constant of nth order has units ---

a) litre1–n mol1–n sec–1

b) mol1–n litre1–n sec–1

c) mol1–n litre1–n sec–1

d) none of these

71) The rate of reactions becomes 2 times

for every 100C rise in temperature. How

the rate of reaction will increase when

temperature is increased from 300C to

800C?

a) 16 b) 32 c) 64 d) 128

72) In a first order reaction the a/(a – x) was

found to be 8 after 10 minute. The rate

constant is

a) (2.303 x 3 log2)/10

b) (2.303 x 2 log3)/10

c) 10 x 2.303 x 2 log 3

d) 10 x 2.303 x 3log2

73) For A + B C+D, H = –20 kJ mol– 1

the activation energy of the forward

reaction is 85 kJ mol–1. The activation

energy for backward reaction is ---- kJ

mol– 1

a) 65 b) 105 c) 85 d) 40

74) The reaction L M is started with

10 g of L. After 30 and 90 minutes, 5 g

and 1.25 g of L are left respectively. The

order of reaction is

a) 0 b) 2 c) 1 d) 3

75) If a first order reaction the concentration

of reactant decreases from 800 mol/dm3

to 50 mol/dm3 in 2 x 104 sec. The rate

constant of reaction in sec–1 is ---

a) 2 x 104 b) 3.45 x 10–5

c) 1.386 x 10–4 d) 2 x 10–4

76) The half – life period of a first order

chemical reaction is 6.93 minutes. The

time required for the completion of 99 %

of the chemical reaction will be (log2 =

0.301)

a) 23.03 minutes b) 46.06 minutes

c) 460.6 minutes d) 230.3 minutes

77) For a first order reaction a)

products, the concentration of A changes

from 0.1 M to 0.025 M in 40 minutes.

The rate of reaction when the

concentration of A is 0.01 M is

a) 3.47 x 10– 4 M/ min

b) 3.47 x 10– 5 M/ min

c) 1.73 x 10– 4 M/ min

d) 1.73 x 10– 5 M/ min

78) If concentration of reactants is increased

by „X‟, the rate constant K becomes

a) eK/X b) K/X

c) K d) X/K

79) For the reaction A B, the rate law

is; rate = K[A]. Which of the following

statements is incorrect?

a) The reaction follows first order kinetics

b) The t1/2 of reaction depends upon

initial concentration of reactant

c) K is constant for the reaction at a

constant temperature

d) The rate law provides a simple way

of predicting the concentration of

reactants and products at any time

after the start of the reaction

80) 2 A B + C; It would be a zero

order reaction when ---

a) the rate of reaction is proportional to

square of conc. of A.

b) the rate of reaction remains same at

any conc. of A

c) the rate remains unchanged at any

conc. of B and C

d) the rate of reaction doubles if conc.

of B is increased to double

81) For a I order reaction A B the

reaction rate at reactant concentration

0.01 M is found to be 2.0 x 10– 5 Ms – 1.

The half life period of the reaction is

a) 30s b) 300s c) 220s d) 347 s

82) If 60 % of a first order reaction was

completed in 60 minute, 50 % of the

same reaction would be completed in

approximately.

a) 45 minute b) 60 minute

c) 40 minute d) 50 minute

83) The rate constant of a first order

reaction is 3 x 10–6 sec–1. If initial

concentration is 0.10 M, the initial rate is

(M s–1) ---

a) 3 x 10–6 b) 3 x 10–5

c) 3 x 10–8 d) 3 x 10–7

84) Which of the following is correct method

to convert p–toluidine to p – toluic acid?

a) Diazotisation, CuCN, H2/PD

b) CHCl3/NaOH, KCN, Sn/HCl

c) Diazotisation, CuCN/KCN, H2O/ H+

d) Diazotisatoin, NaCN, NaOH

85) The structure of Product X in the

following reaction is

86) C6H6 3

2 4

HNO

H SOP

/Sn HCl Q 2NaNO

HClR

3 2

2

H PO

H OS

The end product S in the given sequence

of reaction is

a) Benzoic acid b) Benzene

c) Phenol d) Chlorobenzene

87) The product „D‟ in the following sequence

of reactions is

NH2

2

( )

Br

aqA 2NaNO

HClB 4HBF

CHeat D

a) 2, 4, 6 – tribromofluorobenzene

b) Fluorobenzene

c) p – bromofluorobenzene

d) Tribromobenzene

88) For a nitration of aniline, which of the

following steps is followed?

a) Direct, nitration using nitrating

mixture (conc. HNO3 + conc. H2SO4)

followed by oxidation


21 Jan 2018 TS – 6 P.T.O.

8

b) Using fuming HNO3 carrying out

reaction at 273 K followed by

hydrolysis

c) Using NaNO2 and HCl followed by

reaction with conc. HNO3 followed by

hydrolysis

d) Acetylation followed by nitration and

hydrolysis

89) Coupling of diazonium salts of following

takes place in the order

a) IV < II < III < I b) IV > III < II < I

c) II < IV < I < III d) I < II < III < IV

90) Cyclohexylamine is stronger base then

aniline because

a) in aniline electron pair is involved in

conjugation

b) in cyclohexylamine electron pair is

involved in conjugation

c) in aniline – NH2 group is protonated

d) in cyclohexylamine nitrogen has a

negative change

Section – C : Biology

91) A sigmoid growth curve is characteristics of

a) Bacteria growing in culture medium

b) Organisms growing in natural habitat

c) All cells, tissue and organs

d) All

92)

A – Leaf B – Leaf

AGR RGR AGR RGR

a) 1 % 1% 2% 2%

b) 100 % 5% 10% 5%

c) 10 cm2 100% 10cm2 10%

d) 0.5 cm2 100% 1.5cm2 100%

93) For growth which one (s) is non-essential –

a) Nutrients b) CO2

c) O2 d) All

94) Under certain conditions regaining the

lost capacity of division by living cells is

called –

a) Dedifferentiation b) Redifferentition

c) Differentiation d) Efficiency index

95) Which one (s) is/are redifferentiated cell(s)?

a) Cork b) Secondary cortex

c) Both d) None

96) The ability of plant to follow different

pathways and produce different

structures in response to environment

and phases of life is termed as –

a) Elasticity b) Growth efficiency

c) Plasticity d) Heterophylly

97) Environmental heterophylly is seen in –

a) Ranunculus (Buttercup) b) Cotton

c) Coriander d) Larkspur

98) PGRs include –

a) Only growth promoters

b) Only growth inhibitors

c) Both growth promoters and growth

inhibitors

d) Only solid hormones, not gaseous

hormones

99) The term “auxin” is used for –

a) IAA b) NAA

c) 2, 4 – D and 2, 4, 5 – T d) All

100) The hormone responsible for

phototropism is –

a) Auxin b) C2H4

c) ABA d) GA

101) The discovery of auxin is traced back to

the work of Charles and Francis Darwin.

In their experiments, they studied

a) Photonastic movement

b) Photoperiodism

c) Phototropism

d) Photosynthesis

102) Which process is not directly affected by

auxin?

a) Apical dominance and root initiation

b) Parthenocarpy

c) Synthesis of – amylase by barley

seeds

d) Leaf abscission

103) Which of the following plant hormones

can cause the base of a shoot to form

new root, prevents fruit and leaf drop at

early stage, to be used as herbicide/

weedicide, also controls xylem

differentiation and helps in cell division –

a) GA b) Cytokinin

c) Auxin d) ABA

104) Removal of shoot tips (decapitation)

means loss of apical dominance and it is

widely applied in –

a) Tea plantation b) Hedge – making

c) Both d) Bolting

105) How many gibberellins have been

reported from fungi and higher plants –

a) Less than 100 b) more than 1000

c) More than 100 d) 100

106) Bolting is –

a) Internodal elongation just prior to

flowering in beet, cabbage and many

plants with rosette habit

b) A type of grafting

c) Nodal elongation in certain plants

d) None

107) Two cytokinins are kinetin and Zeatin.

What is the different between the two?

a) Kinetin is the active form of zeatin

b) Zeatin is the active form of kinetin

c) Zeatin is a synthetic cytokinin and

kinetin is naturally occurring

d) Zeatin is a naturally occuring plant

cytokinin, kinetin is not

20

10

110

100


21 Jan 2018 TS – 6 P.T.O.

9

108) Auxin and cytokinin are antagonistic in

which of the following functions?

a) Cell division b) Phototropism

c) Apical dominance d) Geotropism

109) Cytokinin helps in delay of leaf

senescence by –

a) Increasing more water absorption by

root

b) Increasing rate of translocation of

organic solutes

c) Promoting nutrients mobilization

d) Formation of adventitious buds

110) C2H4 is synthesized in large amounts by–

a) Shoot tip

b) Root tip

c) Young leaves

d) Tissue undergoing senescence and

ripening fruits

111) Which one is stress hormone –

a) ABA b) C2H4

c) GA7 d) IAA

112) The most widely used compound as a

source of C2H4 is –

a) Kinetin b) Zeatin

c) IBA d) Ethephon

113) Which hormone promotes female

flowers in cucumber –

a) ABA b) C2H4

c) GA4 d) GA3

114) Long day plants flower specially when the –

a) Light period is lesser than some

critical length

b) Light period is greater than some

critical period

c) Dark period is less than some critical

length

d) Dark period is more than some

critical length

115) Agar blocks 1 and 2 are kept in the

position shown in the diagram below for

several hours and then transferred on to

two freshly cut coleoptiles.

Which of the following would result after

two days of growth?

116)

Identify Growth (s) and Phase (s) in

above diagrammatic representation –

a) G – I – Arithmetic growth, G – II –

Geometric growth, P – I – Geometric

phase, P – II – Arithmetic phase

b) G – I – Arithmetic growth, G – II –

Geometric growth, P – I – Arithmetic

phase, P – II –Geometric phase

c) G – I – Geometric growth, G – II –

Arithmetic growth, P – I – Geometric

phase, P – II – Arithmetic phase

d) G – I – Geometric growth, G – II –

Arithmetic growth, P – I – Arithmetic

phase, P – II – Geometric phase

117) Match the plant hormones listed in

column A with their major role listed in

column B and select the correct option

from the codes given below –

Column I Column B

A) Auxin i) Fruit ripening

B) Cytokinins ii) Phototropism

C) Abscisic acid iii) Antagonist to GAs

D) Ethylene iv) Stoomatal opening

and closing

v) Growth of laeral

buds

a) A – IV; B – V; C – III, II; D – I

b) A – II; B - IV; C – III, IV; D – I

c) A – II; B – IV, V; C – III; D – I

d) A – III, IV; B – V; C – II; D – I

118) Vernalisation stimulates flowering in

a) Zamikand b) Turmeric

c) Carrot d) Ginger

119) During seed germination its stored food

is mobilized by

a) Ethylene b) Cytokinin

c) ABA d) Gibberellin

120) Which one of the following growth

regulators is known as anti-GA?

a) Abscissic acid b) Ethylene

c) Cytokinin d) Indole acetic acid

121) You are given a tissue with its potential

for differentiation in an artificial culture.

Which of the following pairs of hormones

would you add to the medium to secure

shoos as well as roots?

a) Auxin and abscisic acid

b) Gibberellin and abscisic acid

c) IAA and gibberellin

d) Auxin and cytokinin

122) Plants which disregard the requirement

of a definite day length for the following

are called –

a) Short day plants

b) Long day plants

c) Day neutral plants

d) Long short – day plants


21 Jan 2018 TS – 6 P.T.O.

10

123) Seed dormancy can be broken by the

following combination of chemicals

a) GA3, IAA and ABA

b) KNO3, GA3 and Ethylene

chlorohydrins

c) NAA, 2, 4, 5 – T and IAA

d) ABA, BAP and GA3

124) The primary hormone causing abscission

of leaves is

a) IAA b) Ethylene

c) ABA d) Cytokinin

125) DNA fingerprinting involves identifying

differences in some specific regions in

DNA sequence called as

a) Euchromatin b) Repetitive DNA

c) Genophore d) Heterochromatin

126) Imagine an error occurring during DNA

replication in a cell, so that where there

is supposed to be a T in one of the genes

there is instead a G. What effect will this

probably have on the cell?

a) The amino acid sequence of one of it

kinds of proteins will be completely

changed

b) An amino acid will be missing from

each of its kinds of proteins

c) One of its kinds of proteins might

contain an incorrect amino acid

d) An amino acid will be missing from

one of its kinds of proteins.

127) A sequence of pictures of polypeptide

synthesis shows a ribosome holding two

transfer RNAs. One tRNA has a

polypeptide chain attached to it, the

other tRNA has a single amino acid

attached to it. What does the next

picture show?

a) The polypeptide chain moves over

and bonds with the single amino acid

b) The tRNA with the amino acid leaves

the ribosome

c) The amino acid moves over and

bonds with the polypeptide chain

d) The tRNA with the polypeptide chain

leaves the ribosome.

128) Which of the following is true?

A. „Operon hypothesis‟ was proposed by

Jacob and Monod

B. „One gene – one enzyme theory‟ was

proposed by Beadle and Tatum

C. „Southern blotting‟ is used in DNA

fingerprinting

D. Uracil bases remain present in DNA.

a) B, C b) A, B, C, D

c) B, C, D d) A, B, C

129) Termination of protein synthesis needs

A. 5‟AUG3‟ codon B. 5‟GUG3‟

C. Stop signal/ Non – sense codon

D. Release/ termination factor

a) A, C b) A, B, C, D

c) C, D d) A, B, C

130) Satellite DNA –

A. Is classified in many categories such

as micro – satellites, minisatellites,

etc on the basis of base composition

length of segments and number of

repetitive units

B. Normally does not code for any protein

C. Shows polymorphism

D. Forms the basis of DNA fingerprinting

a) A, C b) A, B, C, D

c) B, C, D d) A, B, C

131) An RFLP is a –

a) DNA probe used for hybridization

b) Variation of a DNA segment cut by

restriction enzyme (s)

c) Recessive form of deleterious allele

d) Restrictive enzyme used to cut DNA

132) A cell is grown in a solution containing

radioactive nucleotides, so that its DNA

is labeled with radioactivity. It is

removed from the radioactive solution

and grown in a normal medium, so that

any new DNA strands it makes will not

be radioactive. In the normal medium,

the cell replicates its DNA and divides.

The two daughter cells also replicate

their DNA and divide, producing a total

of four cells. If a dotted line represents a

radioactive DNA strand and a solid line

represents a non radioactive DNA strand,

which of the following depicts the DNA of

the four cells?

133) If each amino acids weighs 10 mass

units, what is the weight (in mass units)

of the protein, molecule synthesized

from a mRNA molecule which is 600

bases long and in mid position mutation

takes place in UGC (C replace by A)?

a) 2000 b) 1000

c) 3000 d) 6000

134) The base – paired structure of DNA

implies that it

a) can replicate to form identical molecules

b) can be used as a template to make RNA

c) is the hereditary material

d) a and b

135) The molecules that function to replicate

DNA in the cell are

a) DNA nucleoside triphosphates

b) DNA polymerases.

c) Nucleoside polymerases

d) DNAses

136) Using code dictionary selection the

option which correctly fills up the blanks

in the following table.


21 Jan 2018 TS – 6 P.T.O.

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137) An mRNA codon for the amino acid

alanine is GCC. How many alanine

molecules are present in the

polypeptide, containing eight amino

acids, coded for by the following DNA

template?

T C G G C C T A C C G G G C C C A T G C C A A T

a) 0 b) 1

c) 2 d) 3

138) The diagram of the lac operon from E.

coli is shown below. Each letter indicates

its components may be used more than

once.

Which of the following options is correct

in respect of the letters and their

functions –

a) C – the binding site for the repressor

protein, B – the binding site for RNA

polymerase, D – the structural

genes, A – the gene that codes for

the repressor protein.

b) A – the binding site for the repressor

protein, B – the binding site for RNA

polymerase, C – the structural genes,

D – the gene that codes for the

repressor protein.

c) A – the binding site for the repressor

protein, D – the binding site for RNA

polymerase, B – the structural genes,

C – the gene that codes for the

repressor protein.

d) D – the binding site for the repressor

protein, C – the binding site for RNA

polymerase, B – the structural genes,

A – the gene that codes for the

repressor protein.

139) Find the number of phosphodiester

bonds and glycosidic linkages associated

with E. coli DNA respectively –

a) 9.2 x 106 – 2, 9.2 x 106 –2

b) 4.6 x 106 – 2, 4.6 x 106 –2

c) 4.6 x 106 – 2, 4.6 x 106

d) 9.2 x 106 – 2, 9.2 x 106

140) You have obtained a sample of DNA, and

you transcribe mRA from this DNA and

purify it. You then separate the two

strands of the DNA and analyze the base

composition of each strand and of the

mRNA. You obtain the data shown in the

table. Which strand of the DNA serves as

a template for mRNA synthesis?

A G C T U

DNA strand 1 19.1 26.0 31.0 23.9 0

DNA strand 2 24.2 30.8 25.7 19.3 0

mRNA 19.0 25.9 30.8 0 24.3

a) Strand 1 b) Strand 2

c) Both strands 1 and 2

d) Neither strand 1 nor 2

141) The prediction of sequence of amino acid

is ____A____ if the sequence of

nucleotides of mRNA is known. The

prediction of sequence of nucleotide is

concerned m RNA is ____B____ because

the genetic code is ____C____.

a) A–possible, B–impossible, C–universal

b) A–possible, B-impossible,C–degenerate

c) A–impossible, B- possible, C–universal

d) A–impossible, B- possible, C–degenerate

142) Sequencing the whole set of genome

that contains all the coding and non

coding parts is

a) Expressed Sequence Tags

b) Sequence Annoation

c) Microarray

d) Electrophoresis

143) The length of E. coil DNA and length of

DNA in a human 2N cell is –

a) 1.36 mm and 2.2 m respectively

b) 1.36 mm and 2.2 mm respectively

c) 1.36 m and 2.2 m respectively

d) 1.36 cm and 2.2 cm respectively

144) Which suspect would you charge with

the crime?

a) Both suspect 1 and 2

b) Only suspect 1

c) Only suspect 2

d) Neither suspect 1 nor suspect 2

145) Out of 64 codons, the number of codons

with GGG is –

a) 1 b) 2 c) 4 d) 6

146) Ribosomal RNA is actively synthesized in

a) Lysosomes b) Nucleolus

c) Nucleoplasm d) Ribosomes

147) In eukaryotes, Okazaki fragments are

about ____long.

a) 50 base pairs b) 150 base pairs

c) 1 – 500 base pairs

d) 150,000 base pairs


21 Jan 2018 TS – 6 P.T.O.

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148) You have analyzed the DNA isolated

from a newly discovered virus and found

that its base composition is 32 % A,

19 % C, 32 % G, and 19 % T. What

would be a reasonable explanation of

this observation?

a) The virus must be extraterrestrial

b) In some viruses, double – stranded

DNA is made up of base pairs

containing two purines or two

pyrimidines

c) Some of the T was converted to C

during the isolation procedure

d) The genome of the phage is single –

stranded, not double – stranded

149) The enzyme DNA ligase is required

continuously during DNA replication because

a) Fragments of the leading strand must

be joined together

b) Fragments of the lagging strand must

be joined together

c) The parental strands must be joined

back together.

d) 3‟ – deoxynucleoside triphosphate

must be converted to 5‟ –

deoxynucleoside triphosphates

150) The enzyme that restores the

phosphodiester linkage between

adjacent fragments in the lagging strand

during DNA replication is

a) DNA ligase b) Primase

c) Reverse transcriptase d) Helicase

151) The Hershey – Chase experiment

a) Proved semiconservative replication

is the mode for DNA replication

b) Used 32P to label protein

c) Used 35S to label DNA

d) Helped to prove DNA was the genetic

molecule

152) In gel-electrophoresis, all the DNA

fragments move towards the base of the

gel with variable velocities because

a) DNA is positively charged

b) DNA is slightly negatively charged

c) DNA fragments have different

molecular weights

d) both b and c

153) The polymerase chain reaction

a) is a method for sequencing DNA

b) is used to transcribe specific genes

c) amplified specific DNA sequences

d) does not required DNA replication

primers

154) You estimate that cytosine represent

30 % of the total pyrimidine content of

DNA from a mouse cell. Using Chargaff‟s

rules, you determine that the percentage

of total nucleotides in the DNA

represented by adenine is

a) unknown b) 70 %

c) 35 % d) 30 %

155) How many adenylate residues are added

at 3‟ end during the processing of hnRNA

in eukaryotes?

a) 50 – 100 b) 100 – 150

c) 600 – 700 d) 200 – 300

156) nu body of nucleosome consists of

a) H1 and H2A b) H2A and H2B

c) H3 and H4 d) both b and c

157) SNP which is pronounced as „snips‟

stands for

a) Small nuclear protein

b) Single nucleotide particle

c) Single nucleotide polymorphism

d) Small nicking points

158) During translation, the ______site within

the ribosome holds the growing amino

acids chain while the ______ site holds

the next amino acid to be added to the

chain.

a) A, P b) P, A c) A, B d) B, A

159) Escherichia coli cells were grown for

many generations in 15NH4Cl as sole

nitrogen source. Subsequently, these

cells were grown exactly for four

generations in medium containing 14NH4Cl. The DNA from these cells were

isolated and separated. If 15N/15N

represents the two strands of DNA where

both strands have heavy nitrogen; 15N/ 14N as intermediate DNA; and 14N/ 15N

as DNA containing light nitrogen, the

ratios for heavy : intermediate : light

DNA, respectively would be

a) 1 : 0 : 7 b) 1 : 1 : 6

c) 0 : 1 : 7 d) 0 : 8 : 0

160) Which one of the following also acts as a

catalyst in a bacterial cell?

a) r RNA b) tRNA

c) m RNA d) hn RNA

161) In m-RNA base sequence is 5‟AAC CAA

GAC CCC GGG3‟ what is the possible no.

of codons in case of overlapping and non

overlapping respectively.

a) 14, 5 b) 13, 5

c) 12, 5 d) 10, 4

162) If one strand of DNA has the nitrogenous

base sequence at ATCTG, what would be

the complementary RNA strand sequence

a) TTAGU b) UAGAC

c) AACTG d) ATCGU

163) Which enzyme/s will be produced in a

cell in which there is a nonsense

mutation in the lac Y gene?

a) Lactose permease

b) Transacetylase

c) Lactose permease and transacetylase

d) – galactosidase

164) In order to identify the person who

committed a crime. Forensic experts will

need to extract DNA from the tissue

sample collected at the crime scene, and

conduct one of the following procedures

for DNA finger – printing analysis

a) cut the DNA and hybridize with

specific micro-satellite probes

b) cut the DNA and subclone the

fragments

c) determine the sequence of the subclones

d) b followed by c

165) In human genome chromosome no. 1

posses about percent of gene?

a) 15 % b) 10 %

c) 5 % d) 20 %

166) Aminoacylation of tRNA is essential for

a) replication of RNA

b) formation of peptide bond

c) splicing

d) initiation of transcription


21 Jan 2018 TS – 6 P.T.O.

13

167) The nuclear structure observed by

Henking in 50 % of the insect sperm

after spermatogenesis was

a) X body b) Autosome

c) Y chromosome d) nucleolus

168) A 340 A0 long segment of DNA molecule

has 20 thymine nitrogenous bases, what

will be the number of guanine nitrogen

bases in the same segment?

a) 10 b) 40

c) 80 d) 160

169) In 125 amino acid sequence if the codon for

25th amino acid is mutated to UAA, then

a) A polypeptide of 24 amino acids is

formed

b) A polypeptide of 124 amino acids is

formed

c) No polypeptides are found

d) A polypeptide of 25 amino acids is

formed

170) The enzyme peptidyl transferase of

prokaryotes resides in

a) 50S ribosome b) 30S ribosome

c) 40S ribosome d) 60S ribosome

171) The RNA triplet UAG acts as a stop codon

terminating the synthesis of a

polypeptide. The diagram shows a strand

of DNA which codes for four amino acids.

Where would a mutation, introducing a

thymine nucleotide, results in the

termination of transcription?

a) A b) B c) C d) D

172) In sea urchin DNA, which is double

strand, 17 % of the bases were shown to

be cytosine. The percentage of the other

three bases expected to be present in

this DNA are

a) G 17 %, A 33 %, T 33 %

b) G 8.5 %, A 50 %, T 24.5 %

c) G 34 %, A 24.5 %, T 24.5 %

d) G 17 %, A 16.5 %, T 32.5 %

173) Identify the correct order of organization

of genetic material from largest to

smallest

a) Genome, chromosome, gene, nucleotide

b) Chromosome, genome, nucleotide, gene

c) Chromosome, gene, genome, nucleotide

d) Genome, chromosome, nucleotide, gene

174) Balbiani rings are sites of

a) Polysaccharide synthesis

b) RNA and protein synthesis

c) Lipid synthesis

d) Nucleotide synthesis

175)

Find the sequence of nucleotide in

m–RNA produced by transcription of

above given DNA.

a) 5‟ ATCGTACG3‟ b) 5‟CGUACGAU3‟

c) 3‟TAGCATGC5‟ d) 5‟GCATGCTA3‟

176) Find out the sequence of binding of the

following amino acyl t – RNA complex

during translation to an m – RNA

transcribed by a DNA segment having

the base sequence 3‟ATACCCATGGGG5‟.

Choose the answer showing the correct

order of alphabets.

a) I, II, III, IV b) IV, I, II, III

c) I, II, IV, III d) II, I, III, IV

177) Which of the following is required as

inducer (s) for the expression of Lac

operon?

a) Glucose b) Galactose

c) Lactose d) Lactose and galactose

178) Which one of the following is the starter

codon?

a) AUG b) UGA

c) UAA d) UAG

179) The enzyme, which helps to cut one

strand of DNA duplex to release tension

of coiling of two strands is

a) DNA ligase b) DNA polymerase – I

c) Topoisomerase d) Helicase

180) A veterinarian wanted to determine the

pedigree of a bear cub born in the zoo.

Four adult male bear are considered as

possible fathers of the cub.

To find out the father of the cub, the

veterinarian seeked help of the DNA

fingerprinting technology. The results are

shows here

Which male is most likely the father of

the cub?

a) W b) X

c) Y d) Z

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