pt skeleton answers

BI 231 Skeleton Pamela VanZanten, MD Practice Test

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Practice Test Skeletal System

(These topics will not be on the lecture exam)

Axial Skeleton

1. Which of the following is not a part of the axial division of the skeletal system?

a. Skull b. Auditory ossicles c. Hyoid bone d. Pectoral girdle e. Vertebral column

2. Which of the following is a function

of the axial skeleton? a. Provides an attachment for

muscles that move the appendicular skeleton

b. Provides an attachment for muscles that move the head, neck, and trunk

c. Provides an attachment for muscles involved in respiration

d. All of the above e. B and C only

3. The foramen magnum would be

found in the _____ bone. a. Frontal b. Parietal c. Sphenoid d. Occipital e. Temporal

4. The suture that forms the articulation

of the two parietal bones is the _____ suture.

a. Lamboidal b. Rostral c. Coronal d. Squamosal e. Sagittal

5. The calvaria is formed by the _____

bones. a. Frontal, temporal, and parietal b. Frontal, parietal, and occipital c. Temporal, parietal, and

occipital d. Frontal, temporal, and

occipital e. Frontal, temporal, parietal and

occipital

6. Each of the following bones contributes to forming the orbit, except the _____ bone.

a. Lacrimal b. Nasal c. Sphenoid d. Ethmoid e. Frontal

7. The zygomatic arch is formed by the

union of processes from which two bones?

a. Temporal and maxilla b. Frontal and temporal c. Sphenoid and temporal d. Zygomatic and maxilla e. Temporal and zygomatic

8. The external auditory meatus is

found in the _____ bone. a. Sphenoid b. Zygomatic c. Temporal d. Parietal e. Occipital

Scoring: 4 points 90-100 3 points 80-89 2 points 70-79


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9. The prominent bulge just posterior and inferior to the external auditory meatus is the

a. Mastoid process. b. Styloid process. c. Occipital condyle. d. Condyloid process. e. Temporal process.

10. The bony portion of the nasal septum

is formed by the a. Nasal bones. b. Perpendicular plate of the

ethmoid bone. c. Perpendicular plate of the

ethmoid and vomer bones. d. Vomer and sphenoid bone. e. Perpendicular plate of the

ethmoid and sphenoid bones.

11. Each of the following landmarks is associated with the occipital bone except the

a. Superficial nuchal lines. b. Jugular foramen. c. Hypoglossal canals. d. Supraorbital foramen. e. Occipital crest.

12. Ligaments that support the hyoid

bone are attached to the a. Styloid process. b. Mastoid process. c. Articular tubercle. d. Posterior clinoid process. e. Middle concha.

13. The structure that separates the

condylar and coronoid processes of the mandible is the

a. Ramus. b. Angle. c. Styloid process. d. Mandibular notch. e. Mandibular canal.

14. The lower jaw articulates with the temporal bone at the

a. Mandibular fossa. b. Mastoid process. c. Superior clinoid process. d. Foramen rotundum. e. Cribriform plate.

15. Each of the following is associated

with the temporal bone, except the a. Mastoid cells. b. Petrous portion. c. Sella turcica. d. Internal acoustic meatus. e. Tympanic cavity.

16. The hypophyseal fossa or sella

turcica contains the _____ gland. a. Lacrimal b. Pituitary c. Olfactory d. Nasal e. Salivary

17. The bony roof of the mouth is

formed by the _____ bone(s). a. Palatine b. Vomer c. Maxillae d. Sphenoid e. Both A and C

18. The hyoid bone

a. Serves as a base of attachment for muscles that move the tongue.

b. Is part of the mandible. c. Is located inferior to the

larynx. d. All of the above e. A and C only


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19. The bone that serves as a bridge uniting the cranial and facial bones is the

a. Ethmoid. b. Sphenoid. c. Frontal. d. Lacrimal. e. Nasal.

20. The nasal complex consists of all of the following bones except the

a. Zygomatic. b. Ethmoid. c. Sphenoid. d. Frontal. e. Maxillae.

21. The paranasal sinuses are located in all of the following bones except the

a. Frontal. b. Ethmoid. c. Sphenoid. d. Maxillae. e. Zygomatic.

22. The odontoid process is found on the

a. Atlas. b. Axis. c. Sacrum. d. Coccyx. e. Ribs.

23. Costal processes are located on _____ vertebrae.

a. Cervical b. Thoracic c. Lumbar d. Sacral e. Coccygeal

24. Thoracic vertebrae can be distinguished from other vertebrae by the presence of

a. Transverse processes. b. Transverse foramina. c. Facets for the articulation of

ribs. d. Notched spinous processes. e. Costal cartilages.

25. The coccyx is composed of _____

vertebra(e). a. A single b. 3 to 5 fused c. 2 or 3 fused d. 6 fused e. 8 fused

26. All of the following are true of the

sacrum, except that it a. Provides protection for

reproductive, digestive, and excretory organs.

b. Provides a point of attachment for leg muscles.

c. Articulates with the pelvic bones.

d. Articulates with the first pair of ribs.

e. Articulates with the coccyx.

27. The ribs articulate with the _____ of the vertebrae.

a. Spinous process b. Transverse process c. Lamina d. Pedicles e. Neural arch

28. The costal groove would be found on a. Cervical vertebrae. b. Thoracic vertebrae. c. Lumbar vertebrae. d. The sternum. e. Ribs.


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29. The portion of the sternum that articulates with the clavicles is the

a. Manubrium. b. Body. c. Xiphoid process. d. Angle. e. Tuberculum.

30. Sutures can be found at all of the

joints of an adult skull except between

a. The mandible and the cranium. b. The zygomatic bone and the

maxillary bone. c. The occipital bone and the

parietal bone. d. The vomer and the zygomatic

bone. e. None of the above, as they are

all sutures.

31. You witness two of your friends in a fight. Your friend Gregg is hit in the jaw and when looking at him, his face looks misaligned. You immediately take him to the local emergency room and are not surprised to learn that he has a broken

a. Temporal bone. b. Zygomatic bone. c. Mandible. d. External auditory meatus. e. Clavicle.

32. While visiting your friend who

recently gave birth, she comments on her new child’s soft spot. You think to yourself that the correct term for the “soft spot” is

a. Sphenoidal fontanel. b. Anterior fontanel. c. Occipital fontanel. d. Mastoid fontanel. e. Cushion spot.

33. A notched spinous process is said to be

a. Mifid. b. Bifid. c. Trifid. d. Difid. e. Notchy.

34. All of the following are true of

lumbar vertebrae except that a. The superior articular

processes face medially. b. They do not have costal facets. c. The transverse process is

slender and projects dorsolaterally.

d. The vertebral foramen is triangular.

e. They bear little weight.

35. The sternum contains a. The manubrium. b. The jugular notch. c. The body. d. The xiphoid process. e. All of the above

36. While performing cardiopulmonary

resuscitation (CPR) on an unconscious person, you are careful to position your hands correctly to avoid damage to the

a. Ribs. b. Scapula. c. Xiphoid process. d. Sacrum. e. Both A and C

37. Of the following bones, which is

unpaired? a. Vomer b. Maxillary c. Palatine d. Nasal e. None of these


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38. The styloid process, zygomatic process, and auditory ossicles are associated with the

a. Parietal bone. b. Occipital bone. c. Sphenoid. d. Temporal bone. e. Ulna.

39. The membranous areas between the cranial bones of the fetal skull are

a. Fontanels. b. Sutures. c. Wormian bones. d. Foramina. e. Fibrocartilaginous discs.

40. The function of the hyoid is to a. Support the larynx. b. Support the clavicle. c. Support the sternum. d. Support the skull. e. Provide leverage for joint

movement.

41. Vertebrae of the a. Thoracic region are fused. b. Cervical region are fused. c. Coccyx are not fused. d. Coccyx are fused. e. Lumbar region are fused.

42. Lumbar vertebrae are _____ massive

and _____ mobile. a. Least; most b. Most; most c. Least; least d. Not; excessively e. Most; least

43. Ridges that intersect the occipital crest are termed

a. Anterior and posterior nuchal lines.

b. Anterior and superior nuchal lines.

c. Inferior and superior nuchal lines.

d. Superior and posterior nuchal lines.

e. Dorsal and ventral nuchal lines.

44. As you proceed from the head down

the vertebral column a. The vertebrae become larger

and heavier. b. The size of the neural arch

decreases. c. The spinous process becomes

longer. d. All of the above e. A and B only

45. Mick gets into a fight and sustains a

blow to the nose. Which of the following bones might be fractured by this blow?

a. Ethmoid bone b. Sphenoid bone c. Temporal bone d. Mandible e. Parietal bone

46. In a car accident, Tom suffers a

fracture of the alveolar process of his maxillae. As a consequence of this injury he loses

a. Sight. b. His sense of smell. c. Some teeth. d. The ability to form tears. e. Feeling in his lower jaw.


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The Appendicular Skeleton

47. The appendicular skeleton consists of all of the following, except the

a. Bones of the arms. b. Bones of the legs. c. Hyoid bone. d. Bones that connect the limbs to the

axial skeleton. e. Bones at the hands and feet.

48. Which of the following is not a

component of the appendicular skeleton? a. Scapula b. Sacrum c. Femur d. Humerus e. Os coxae

49. The pectoral girdle contains the

a. Humerus. b. Manubrium. c. Sternum. d. Scapula. e. Both A and B

50. Which end of the clavicle is the larger

end? a. Sternal b. Acromial c. Medial d. Superior e. Inferior

51. The small, anterior projection of the

scapula that extends over the superior margin of the glenoid fossa is the

a. Scapular spine. b. Coracoid process. c. Acromion. d. Supraspinous fossa. e. Median process.

52. The clavicle articulates with the scapula at the

a. Acromion process. b. Coracoid process. c. Glenoid tuberosity. d. Scapular spine. e. Subscapular fossa.

53. A landmark found near the proximal end of the humerus would be the

a. Medial epicondyle. b. Lateral epicondyle. c. Greater tubercle. d. Olecranon fossa. e. Capitulum.

54. The depression on the anterior medial surface at the distal end of the humerus is the

a. Olecranon fossa. b. Coronoid fossa. c. Radial fossa. d. Intertubercular groove. e. Radial groove.

55. The bones of the forearm include the a. Humerus. b. Femur. c. Tibia. d. Fibula. e. Radius.

56. The olecranon process is found on the a. Humerus. b. Radius. c. Ulna. d. Femur. e. Tibia.


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57. The process that extends along the lateral border of the shaft of the humerus is the

a. Radial groove. b. Medial epicondyle. c. Lateral epicondyle. d. Deltoid tuberosity. e. Coronoid process.

58. The radius articulates with the

a. Humerus. b. Ulna. c. Scapula. d. Carpals. e. Both B and D

59. The _____ of the radius assists in the

stabilization of the wrist joint. a. Olecranon process b. Coronoid process c. Styloid process d. Radial tuberosity e. Capitulum

60. The bones that form the wrist are the

a. Carpals. b. Tarsals. c. Metacarpals. d. Metatarsals. e. Phalanges.

61. The bones that form the palms of the hands are the

a. Carpals. b. Tarsals. c. Metacarpals. d. Metatarsals. e. Phalanges.

62. The bones that form the fingers are the a. Carpals. b. Tarsals. c. Metacarpals. d. Metatarsals. e. Phalanges.

63. Each of the following bones is part of the pelvic girdle, except the

a. Ilium. b. Ischium. c. Pubis. d. Os coxae. e. Femur.

64. Which of the following is not a part of

the pelvis? a. Sacrum b. Coccyx c. Coxae d. Lumbar vertebrae e. Both B and D

65. What bone articulates with the coxa at

the acetabulum? a. Sacrum b. Femur c. Humerus d. Tibia e. Fibula

66. The superior border of the ilium that acts

as a point of attachment for both ligaments and muscles is the

a. Anterior iliac spine. b. Acetabulum. c. Posterior superior iliac spine. d. Iliac crest. e. Iliac notch.

67. The greater sciatic notch would be found

on the a. Ilium. b. Ischium. c. Pubis. d. Femur. e. Patella.

68. The ischial spine projects above the

a. Ischial notch. b. Ischial tuberosity. c. Ischial ramus. d. Lesser sciatic notch. e. Pubic symphysis.


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69. When seated, the weight of the body is borne by the

a. Ischial tuberosities. b. Posterior inferior iliac spines. c. Iliac crests. d. Obturator foramina. e. Inferior rami of the pubis.

70. The pubic and ischial rami encircle the a. Pubic symphysis. b. Lesser sciatic notch. c. Greater sciatic notch. d. Obturator foramen. e. Acetabulum.

71. The distal end of the tibia articulates with the

a. Talus. b. Fibula. c. Patella. d. Calcaneus. e. Coxa.

72. The medial bulge at your ankle is a

projection from the a. Fibula. b. Femur. c. Tibia. d. Calcaneus. e. Talus.

73. The lateral malleolus is found on the

a. Femur. b. Tibia. c. Fibula. d. Patella. e. Calcaneus.

74. The fibula articulates with the

a. Femur. b. Tibia. c. Patella. d. Navicular. e. Both A and B

75. Which of the following is the heel bone?

a. Talus b. Navicular c. Calcaneus d. Cuboid e. Patella

76. Another name for the first toe is

a. Hallux. b. Pollex. c. Tarsal. d. First cuneiform. e. Phalanx.

77. Which of the following is not a

characteristic of the male pelvis? a. Heavy, rough textured bone b. Heart-shaped pelvic inlet c. Angle of pubic arch greater than

100 degrees d. Relatively deep iliac fossa e. Ilia extend farther above sacrum

78. Compared to the male skeleton, the

female skeleton a. Is larger. b. Is heavier. c. Has a greater angle inferior to the

pubic symphysis. d. Has a smaller average cranium. e. Both C and D

79. The only direct connection between the

pectoral girdle and the axial skeleton is where the

a. Clavicle articulates with the humerus.

b. Clavicle articulates with the manubrium of the sternum.

c. Os coxae articulates with the femur.

d. Vertebral column articulates with the skull.

e. Clavicle articulates with the xiphoid process.


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80. Each os coxae of the pelvic girdle consists of the following three fused bones:

a. Ulna, radius, and humerus b. Ilium, ischium, and pubis c. Femur, tibia, and fibula d. Hamate, capitate, and trapezium e. Femur, patella, and tibia

81. The largest bone of the leg is the a. Tibia. b. Femur. c. Fibula. d. Humerus. e. Calcaneus.

82. What markings found on bones are indicative of nerve pathways?

a. Ridges b. Sulci c. Flanges d. Foramina e. Both B and D

83. The three sides of this bone form a broad

triangle. a. Radius b. Clavicle c. Vertebra d. Sternum e. Scapula

84. The glenohumeral joint, or shoulder joint, is an articulation between which two bones?

a. Humerus and ulna b. Scapula and humerus c. Clavicle and scapula d. Clavicle and humerus e. None of the above

85. The fusion of the ilium, ischium, and

ileus form each os coxae. a. True b. False

86. The prominent portion of the humerus

that is a rounded projection on the lateral surface of the epiphysis, near the margin of the humeral head, is known as the

a. Neck. b. Greater tubercle. c. Lesser trochanter. d. Greater trochanter. e. Lesser tubercle.

87. In the anatomical position, the ulna is

located _____ to the radius. a. Distal b. Proximal c. Medial d. Superior e. None of these

88. Lateral to the coronoid process, the radial

_____ holds the head of the radius in the joint.

a. Notch b. Tendon c. Ligament d. Groove e. Muscle

89. The “pinky finger” is known as metacarpal number I.

a. True b. False

90. Each hand has _____ finger bones.

a. 15 b. 20 c. 14 d. 18 e. 10

91. Which bone is not a composite structure

of the pelvis? a. Coccyx b. Ossa coxae c. Sacrum d. Femur e. None of the above


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92. A male has a _____ pelvic outlet when

compared to the woman’s pelvic outlet. a. Larger b. Longer c. Smaller d. Wider e. Same size

93. The Achilles tendon attaches to which

anatomical structure? a. Cuboid bone b. Calcaneus c. Talus d. Lesser trochanter e. Navicular bone

94. Bone markings are more prominent on a

male skeleton. a. True b. False

95. The only fixed support for the pectoral

girdle is the a. Scapula. b. Clavicle. c. Humerus. d. Sternum. e. Shoulder musculature.

96. Tina falls and fractures her pisiform

bone. What part of her body was injured? a. Upper arm b. Forearm c. Wrist d. Hand e. Shoulder

97. When standing normally, most of your

weight is transmitted to the ground by the a. Talus and calcaneus. b. Talus and cuneiforms. c. Calcaneus and cuneiforms. d. Cuboid and cuneiforms. e. Calacaneus and cuboid.

98. Compared to the hand, the foot a. Has more phalanges. b. Has fewer metatarsals than the

hand has metacarpals. c. Has a more restricted range of

movement. d. Contains ellipsoidal arches that

help distribute body weight. e. Has the same number of tarsals as

the hand has carpals.

99. Because of a developmental defect, Joe is born without clavicles. As a result of this condition, you would expect

a. Him to have less mobility at the shoulder joint.

b. Him to have little use of his arms. c. Him to have an increased range of

motion at the shoulder joint. d. The humerus to not attach at the

scapula. e. A complete lack of mobility of the

shoulder joint.

100. On a field trip you discover a skeleton with the following characteristics. The acetabulum is directed laterally, the ischial spine points medially, and the angle inferior to the pubic symphysis is less than 90 degrees. The long bones of the arms and legs are relatively light and they show definite signs of epiphyseal plates. This skeleton is probably from

a. A young male. b. A young female. c. An elderly male. d. An elderly female. e. Cannot tell on the basis of this

information

pt skeleton answers

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