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Presbyterian Ladies’ CollegeA College of the Uniting Church in Australia

ATAR Course Examination, 2019Semester 2

Question/Answer Booklet

12 ATAR Human BiologyStudent WACE No: in figures

in words

TIME ALLOWED FOR THIS PAPER

Reading time before commencing work: ten minutesWorking time: three hours

MATERIALS REQUIRED/RECOMMENDED FOR THIS PAPER

To be provided by the supervisorThis Question/Answer bookletMultiple-choice answer sheet

To be provided by the candidateStandard items: Pens (blue/black preferred), pencils (including coloured), sharpener,

correction fluid/tape, eraser, ruler, highlighters

Special Items: non-programmable calculators approved for use in this examination

IMPORTANT NOTE TO CANDIDATES

No other items may be taken into the examination room.

It is your responsibility to ensure that you do not have any unauthorised material. If you have any unauthorised material with you, hand it to the supervisor BEFORE reading any further.

This page has been intentionally left blank

3 Human Biological Science ATAR 12 2018

Structure of this paper

Section Suggested working time

Number of questions available

Number of questions to be attempted

Available marks

Student’s score

SECTION ONE:Multiple-choice 40 minutes 30 All 60

SECTION TWO:Short answers 90 minutes 10 All 100

SECTION THREE:Extended answers 50 minutes 3 2 40

Total marks 200

100 %

Instructions to candidates

1. Please ensure you write your student number in the space provided on page 1.

2. Answer the questions according to the following instructions.

Section One: Answer all questions on the separate Multiple-choice Answer Sheet provided. For each question shade the box to indicate your answer. Use only a blue or black pen to shade the boxes. If you make a mistake, place a cross through that square, do not erase or use correction fluid, and shade your new answer. Marks will not be deducted for incorrect answers. No marks will be given if more than one answer is completed for any question.

Sections Two and Three: Write your answers in this Question/Answer Booklet.

3. You must be careful to confine your responses to the specific questions asked and to follow any instructions that are specific to a particular question.

4. Spare pages are included at the end of this booklet. They can be used for planning your responses and/or as additional space if required to continue an answer. Planning: If you use the spare pages for planning, indicate this clearly at the top of the

page. Continuing an answer: If you need to use the space to continue an answer, indicate in the

original answer space where the answer is continued, i.e. give the page number. Fill in the number of the question(s) that you are continuing to answer at the top of the page

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Section One: Multiple-choice 30% (60 Marks)

This section has 30 questions. Answer all questions on the separate Multiple-choice Answer Sheet provided. For each question shade the box to indicate your answer. Use only a blue or black pen to shade the boxes. If you make a mistake, place a cross through that square, do not erase or use correction fluid, and shade your new answer. Marks will not be deducted for incorrect answers. No marks will be given if more than one answer is completed for any question.

Suggested working time for this section is 40 minutes.

1. Below is a list of steps used in the creation of a DNA profile using gel electrophoresis.

i. DNA being negatively charged, migrates to the positive electrodesii. PCR is run to amplify the amount of DNAiii. Loading dye is added to samplesiv. DNA image is transferred to a membranev. All samples are treated with restriction enzymesvi. Samples are loaded into wells and electricity is switched on

Which of the following identifies the correct order of steps for conducting gel electrophoresis?

(a) iii i v(b) iii iv v(c) v iv iii(d) iii i iv

2. Some rare autosomal recessive conditions confer an advantage to those that are heterozygous for the condition in certain environmental situations. Which of the following diseases shows this?

(a) Diabetes(b) Hyperthyroidism(c) Tay-Sachs(d) Alzheimer’s

3. Which of the following is an example of natural passive immunity?

(a) vaccinations(b) becoming infected with the disease(c) antibodies passed through breast milk(d) being injected with antibodies

4. The function of PCR is to

(a) determine the sequence of bases in a DNA molecule.(b) produce multiple copies of a DNA molecule.(c) create a DNA fingerprint for identification purposes.(d) create a banding pattern on agarose gel.

Human Biological Science ATAR 12 2019 5

5. The ascending tracts contained in the white matter of the spinal cord

(a) carry sensory information to the brain. (b) conduct nerve impulses down the spinal cord to lower motor neurons.(c) contain motor axons to carry nerve impulses away from the peripheral nervous system.(d) carry sensory information away from the brain.

6. Treatment for diabetes mellitus using gene therapy could include

(a) injecting stem cells into the pancreas of the diabetes patient.(b) infecting the patient’s pancreatic cells with modified viral cells containing the insulin producing

gene.(c) fitting the patient with an insulin pump.(d) transferring healthy pancreatic tissue from a donor into a patient suffering from diabetes

mellitus.

7. Which of the following statements is a correct statement about the somatic division of the peripheral nervous system?

(a) Its control is usually involuntary.(b) There are two synapses in the efferent pathways.(c) Its control is usually voluntary.(d) It only uses the neurotransmitter noradrenaline.

8. The part of the brain responsible for the autonomic regulation of osmotic pressure is the

(a) medulla oblongata.(b) hypothalamus.(c) cerebrum.(d) cerebellum.

9. Which of the following shows correct pairings of endocrine organ and the hormone it produces?

(a) pineal gland, melatonin; anterior pituitary gland, growth hormone; adrenal cortex, adrenaline(b) posterior pituitary gland, oxytocin; anterior pituitary gland, prolactin; ovaries, follicle stimulating

hormone(c) ovaries, oestrogen; thymus, thymosins; adrenal cortex, noradrenaline(d) adrenal medulla, cortisol; testes, androgens; anterior pituitary gland, growth hormone

10. Jason has been feeling unwell and goes to his doctor for a diagnosis. He describes his symptoms to the doctor and they include weight loss, fatigue, sweating, anxiety, and rapid heartbeat. Jason is most likely suffering from

(a) Diabetes mellitus Type 1. (b) Hashimoto’s disease.(c) Alzheimer’s disease.(d) Grave’s disease.

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11. Helper T cells

(a) activate B and T cells.(b) are involved in antibody production.(c) become cytotoxic cells.(d) Inhibit macrophage activity.

12. A researcher for a drug company was testing a new type of antibiotic on mice who were infected with a species of bacteria known to be killed by the antibiotic. He gave 5 mg once a day to half of the mice and 10 mg to the other half of the group of mice. The mice who received the 10 mg of antibiotic recovered fully from their infection.

The independent and dependent variables are:

(a) the mice and the antibiotic respectively.(b) the dose of antibiotic and the recovery from the infection respectively.(c) the recovery from the infection and the dose of antibiotic respectively.(d) 5 mg of antibiotic and 10 mg of antibiotic respectively.

Question 13 refers to the diagram below.

13. The structure labelled ‘E’ could be described as

(a) an afferent neuron carrying information away from the spinal cord.(b) an interneuron transferring information from the afferent neuron to the efferent neuron.(c) an efferent neuron carrying information away from the spinal cord.(d) an afferent neuron carrying information into the spinal cord.

14. Which of the following is not an example of an application of gel electrophoresis?

(a) paternity testing(b) testing genetic material at crime scenes(c) testing for disease genes(d) amplifying DNA


15. Sharon was involved in a car accident, her head colliding with the airbag with great force. She survived the crash, but found it difficult to initiate movement. This dysfunction is most likely due to damage to her

(a) cerebellum.(b) spinal cord at the lumbar level. (c) motor cortex.(d) sensory cortex.

Questions 16 refers to the diagram below.

16. Which part of the brain controls voluntary body movements including posture and balance?

(a) A(b) B(c) C(d) D

17. The refractory period

(a) prevents the action potential from travelling backwards and limits the frequency of nerve impulses travelling down a neuron.

(b) limits the frequency of nerve impulses travelling along a neuron and determines threshold.(c) prevents more than one action potential taking place at a specific point on a neuron and

determines the amount of sodium and potassium that can enter and exit the cell.(d) starts and stops at resting membrane potential in order to prevent a further action potential

taking place at the same point on the neuron.

18. When comparing the nervous and endocrine systems, which of the following pairings is correct?

Characteristic Nervous System Endocrine System

(a) Nature of message Chemical Electrochemical

(b) Type of response Local and specific General and widespread

(c) Time taken to respond Very slow Very fast

(d) Duration of response Long lasting BriefQuestion 19 refers to the image shown below.

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19. Which is the correct pairing of the labelled parts of the neuron?

(a) 1; axon terminals, 2; cell body, 3; nucleus, 4; Schwann cell(b) 1; dendrites, 2; axon, 3; nucleus, 4; myelinated sheath(c) 1; axon terminals, 2; axon hillock, 3; nucleus, 4; Schwann cell(d) 1; dendrites, 2; cell body, 3; nucleus, 4; myelinated sheath

20. The population of the dark variety of the peppered moth increased in industrial areas of Britain following the increase in production of pollution, due to the burning of coal during the Industrial Revolution. The increase in the dark form was due to

(a) dark moths being resistant to pesticides.(b) a change in the population of birds.(c) an increase in the mutation rate.(d) a change in selection pressure.

21. Which is the best definition for an antigen?

(a) any substance capable of causing a specific immune response(b) any organism that causes disease(c) a substance produced in B-lymphocytes that stops bacterial proliferation(d) a substance that is used in all vaccines

22. Which of the following shows the correct definition for the two main types of antibiotics?

(a) Bactericidal antibiotics kill bacteria; Bacteriostatic stop bacteria entering the cell(b) Bactericidal antibiotics kill bacterial infected cells; Bacteriostatic stop bacterial reproduction(c) Bactericidal antibiotics kill bacteria; Bacteriostatic stop bacterial reproduction(d) Bactericidal antibiotics kill bacterial infected cells; Bacteriostatic stop bacteria entering the cell

Use the graph below to answer question 23.


23. At which point on the graph above would a person be experiencing vasoconstriction of the skin arterioles?

(a) W(b) X(c) Y(d) Z

Question 24 refers to the diagram below of the forelimb of different organisms.

24. Which principle of comparative anatomy does the image show?

(a) vestigial organs(b) homologous structures(c) analogous structures(d) embryology

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25. If a species becomes separated into two separate non-breeding populations, the separate gene pools might change over time to a point where the two populations can no longer interbreed. This is an example of

(a) founder effect.(b) speciation.(c) random genetic drift.(d) a bottleneck event.

Question 26 refers to the following information:

A Human Biology student did an investigation to measure the change in mass of two deshelled eggs, one in a salt solution and one in distilled water. After completing the experiment, she decided to repeat it with two new pairs of eggs.

26. Repeating the experiment helps to improve its

(a) reliability.(b) validity.(c) measurement error.(d) accuracy.

27. According to several theories about the evolution of hominins, bipedalism evolved due to

(a) disease epidemics that occurred due to increased population density. (b) rising sea levels that isolated some populations.(c) a shift from predominantly forest surroundings to grasslands.(d) an increase in the number of other species inhabiting the trees.

Question 28 refers to the illustration below.

28. Using the method of stratigraphy, which of the following statements regarding the ages of the sedimentary rock layer outcrops is correct?

(a) Outcrop 1 is the oldest, Outcrop 2 is younger than 4.(b) Outcrop 4 is the oldest, Outcrop 3 is younger than 1.(c) Outcrop 2 is the oldest, Outcrop 3 is younger than 1.(d) Outcrop 3 is the oldest, Outcrop 1 is younger than 4.


Use the table below to answer questions 29 and 30.

Species Bipedal Sagittalcrest

Gracile

forms

C shapedspine

S shapedspine

1 + + - - +

2 + - + - +

3 + - + - +

4 - + - + -

Key: + trait present, - trait absent

29. Which phylogenetic tree correctly represents the information in the table above?Correct answer is (d)

30. The species most likely to be Paranthropus robustus is species

(a) 1(b) 2(c) 3 (d) 4

End of Section One

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Section Two: Short answer 50% (100 Marks)

This section has ten (10) questions. Answer all questions. Write your answers in the spaces provided.

Spare pages are included at the end of this booklet. They can be used for planning your responses and/or as additional space if required to continue an answer. Planning: If you use the spare pages for planning, indicate this clearly at the top of the page. Continuing an answer: If you need to use the space to continue an answer, indicate in the original

answer space where the answer is continued, i.e. give the page number. Fill in the number of the question(s) that you are continuing to answer at the top of the page.

Suggested working time for this section is 90 minutes.

Question 31 (15 marks)

Some fossils of Aboriginal people were found in Victoria, very close to a river. The fossils were dated at about 45000 years old. The method used to date the remains was Carbon-14 dating.

(a) State two (2) disadvantages of the Carbon-14 dating method. (2 marks)

Description MarksAny two of: The remains must contain carbon The remains cannot be more than 70000 years old The ratio of C12 to C14 is not constant over time Technique requires a minimal amount/3g of remains to be tested

1-2

Total 2

Part (b) refers to the table below with data representing the decay rate of Carbon-14 over time.

Number of half lives Age (years) Radioactive decay (nuclei/sec/gram)

0 0 20

1 5730 10

2 11460 5 (1)

4 22920 (1) 1.25

5 28650 0.625 (1)

10 57300 (1) 0.0195

(b) Fill in the missing gaps in the table above. (4 marks)

(c) Define the term “half life”. (1 mark)

Description MarksThe time taken for half of a quantity of radioactive material to decay 1

Total 1


(d) Graph the data from the table on the grid provided on the next page. (5 marks)

Description MarksTitle – Radioactive decay of C14 (½) vs age in years (½) 1Correctly labelled axes – independent on x-axis (½) dependent on y axi-s (½) 1Units are correct - Years (½) and (nuclei/sec/gram) (½) 1Correct scale – deduct (½) for inconsistent scales for each axis. 1Correct/accurate plotting – deduct (½) per incorrect plotting to max of 1 1

Total 5Deduct 1 if bar graphDeduct (½) if data points not joined by a line

The archaeologist who discovered the human remains also discovered a wooden tool nearby, thought to be associated with the fossils. It was found to have a decay rate of 2.5 nuclei/sec/gram.

(e) Use your graph to determine the approximate age of the tool. (1 mark)Description Marks

20000 (Accept a range of 18500-21500) 1Total 1

(f) Based on your answer to (g), state whether or not the tool is likely to have been used by the fossilised human. Justify your answer. (2 marks)

Description MarksVery unlikely 1The tools are much younger than the fossils 1

Total 2

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The diagram below shows the glands of the endocrine system.

(a) Complete the table below on the selected endocrine glands C and D. (4 marks)

Organ Name a hormone produced by the endocrine gland

Outline the function of this hormone

C Thyroxine (1) Increases metabolic rate (1)

D Parathyroid hormone (1) Increases level of calcium in the blood (1)


(b) Cortisol and glucagon are both hormones that work to increase glucose levels in the blood. However, they differ in their mode of action. Cortisol is a lipid soluble hormone and glucagon is a water-soluble hormone.

In the table below:i. contrast the mode of action of these two hormones and ii. describe one (1) way in which they increase blood glucose levels.

(6 marks)

Description Mark

Part i. Contrast

Cortisol passes through the cell membrane 1

Glucagon binds to receptors on the membrane 1

Cortisol binds directly to the DNA 1

Glucagon has a secondary messenger 1

Total 4

A labelled diagram that illustrates any of the above points can be used in students’ answers

Part ii. Describe

Cortisol – glycogenolysis in the liver / gluconeogenesis in the liver 1

Glucagon - glycogenolysis in the liver / gluconeogenesis in the liver from amino acids/proteins

1

(c) Hypothyroidism is a disorder of the endocrine system. State two possible causes and two methods that could be used to treat the symptoms of this disorder.

(4 marks)Description Mark

Any two causes from the following:

Deficiency in thyroxine1-2Hashimoto’s disease

Deficiency in TSHA low iodine diet

Any two treatments from the following:

Iodine enriched diet1-2

Synthetic Thyroxine hormonesSynthetic TSH hormones

Total 4

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In March 2019 in Hubei Province, China, thousands of fossils washed up on a beach. These fossils were a particularly unusual find because they were soft-bodied organisms including many species of jellyfish, sea anemones and algae and much of their soft tissue was preserved.

(a) In the table below compare and contrast the conditions required for the fossilisation of soft-tissue compared with hard tissue, such as teeth and bone. (3 marks)

Soft-tissue Hard tissueCompare

Both tissues Low oxygen/rapid burial (1)

Contrast

acidic deposit (e.g. peat) (1) alkaline deposit (1)

(b) What four conditions are usually required for a fossil to form? (4 marks)

Description Mark

Rapid burial 1

Presence of hard parts of the organism 1

Absence of decay causing microorganisms 1

A long period of stability 1

Total 4

(c) The fossil record is incomplete and does not account for all of the organisms that have existed. Describe three reasons for the incomplete nature of the fossil record.

(3 marks)

Description Mark

Any three of the following

Fossilisation is rare/not all organisms have become fossils

1-3Very few of the fossils that exist have been discovered/Fossils have been destroyed (by industry or agriculture)

Accurate dating of fossils cannot always occur/carbon dating limited to organisms less than 60000 years old


Very few fossils of whole organisms exist/mostly fragments found

Total Any 3

Question 34 (7 marks)Biochemical comparative protein studies can provide evidence for evolution. Ubiquitous proteins such as cytochrome C, can be used for comparison of different species.

(a) Describe what a ubiquitous protein is. (1 mark)

Description MarksProteins that are found in all in living species 1

Total 1

Parts (b) and (c) refer to the table below showing the differences in amino acids in the cytochrome C protein sequence between humans and other species of animals.

Species compared with humansNumber of differences in amino acid

sequence compared with human cytochrome C

Chimpanzee 0Gorilla 0

Rhesus monkey 1Rabbit 9

Tuna fish 21

(b) Describe how this data can provide evidence for evolution. (3 marks)

Description MarksAll living organisms have cytochrome c/ this ubiquitous protein 1Some of the amino acids are found at the same positions in every cytochrome C molecule

1

The more similarities between the number of the same amino acids the more recent the common ancestor/the less differences the further apart the ancestor

1

Total 3

(c) Draw a phylogenetic tree that depicts the relationships between the species in the table. Include Homo sapiens in your diagram. (3 marks)

Tuna Rabbit Rhesus Monkey ChimpanzeeGorilla Homo sapiens

Description Marks

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Drawing of lines with relative distance is correct 1Correct labelling for Tuna, Rabbit and Rhesus monkey 1Correct labelling of great apes and human 1

Total 3


A researcher wanted to study the relationship between environmental temperature and the volume of sweat produced by young people in a controlled environment.

She recruited 20 healthy volunteers between the ages of 16-20 years. The volunteers were seated in a room initially at 22oC. The researcher gradually increased the temperature of the room and measured the volume of sweat produced by each volunteer in a 20 minute period at each temperature.

The average volume of sweat produced at each temperature is shown in the table below.

Temperature of the room (oC) Volume of sweat (mL)

22 50

32 200

38 550

42 820

47 1270

(a) Suggest a hypothesis for this experiment. (1 mark)

Description MarksAs room temperature increases the volume of sweat produced (by healthy young people) will increase 1

Total 1

(b) Identify three (3) variables that were controlled in the experiment. (3 marks)

Description MarksAny three of:

Age of volunteers Activity/seated Time period for each temperature when sweat is measured Volunteers are healthy

1-3

Total 3

(c) Describe two (2) other variables that should have been controlled by the researcher. (2 marks)

Description MarksAny 2Average weight/mass of volunteers 1Volume of fluid intake prior to the experiment 1Humidity in the room 1

Total 2


Sweating is one mechanism used by the body to maintain body temperature at a constant level.

(d) Explain how the body detects the rise in temperature and responds to maintain a constant body temperature. (5 marks)

____________________________________________________________________________

____________________________________________________________________________

____________________________________________________________________________

____________________________________________________________________________

____________________________________________________________________________

____________________________________________________________________________

____________________________________________________________________________

____________________________________________________________________________

____________________________________________________________________________

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(e) If the researcher had also measured urine output, describe the trend in volume and concentration of urine produced as the room temperature increased. (2 marks)

Description MarksThe volume of urine would decrease 1The concentration of urine would increase 1

Total 2

(f) Name the hormone that would have been secreted during this experiment that affected urine output, and state where it is produced. (2 marks)

Description MarksAntidiuretic hormone (ADH) 1Hypothalamus 1

Total 2

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(a) Inflammation is the body’s response to an invading pathogen. In the table below outline the role of each substance listed in the inflammatory response.

(3 marks)

Role in the inflammatory responseHistamine Increases blood vessel diameter and permeability of capillaries (1)

Heparin Prevents blood clotting in the immediate area (1)

Phagocytes Engulf and destroy pathogens/cell debris by phagocytosis (1)

The diagram below represents a particular action of antibodies on E. coli.

(b) Name this action of antibodies. (1 mark)

Description Mark

Agglutination 1

Total 1

(c) Describe three (3) other ways antibodies can act on pathogens. (3 marks)

Description Mark

Any three of the following for 1 mark each

Combine with foreign enzymes or toxins inactivating them

1-3

Bind to the surface antigens on viruses preventing them from entering cellsBind to the surface antigens on bacteria to coat them and make them more easily consumed by phagocytesDissolve organisms


React with soluble substances making them insoluble sophagocytes can consume them

Total 3


Human mitochondrial DNA (mtDNA) contains 37 genes, all of which are involved in protein synthesis and cellular respiration. Comparison of mitochondrial DNA has allowed scientists to track differences in mtDNA sequences between human groups to show migration patterns around the world of our original ancestors. These differences in sequences are due to mutations.

(a) Name two (2) environmental factors that can give rise to mutation. (2 marks)

Description Mark

UV radiation1-2X-Rays

Ionising radiationCertain chemicals

Total 2

(b) How is mitochondrial DNA inherited? Why does this feature make it suitable for tracking human movement over time? (3 marks)

Description Mark

Mitochondrial DNA is found in the cytoplasm on the egg/ovum and will be identical to your mothers mtDNA/ maternally inherited

1

All mutations will be passed on to all offspring 1

The gradual mutations will appear in different geographical areas at different times

1

Nuclear DNA is also prone to mutation. These mutations can be somatic or germline.

(c) Describe two (2) possible consequences of acquiring a somatic mutation. (4 marks)

Description Mark

Nothing/ no effect the body’s immune system will destroy cells that contain (somatic)

mutations/changes in DNA have no effect on protein synthesis

11

Cancer The mutations will interrupt the cell cycle and the cell will replicate

uncontrollably

11

Total 4

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(d) Describe the relationship between mutations and the change in gene pools over time due to natural selection. (4 marks)

Description Mark

Mutations increase the variation in a population 1

Mutations will be negative, neutral or positive 1

Positive mutations will increase in the population 1

Natural selection occurs as gene pools shift to increase the favourable mutation

1

Total 4


Julia was walking to her car in a shopping centre carpark. She was concentrating so much on her phone that she didn’t realise that she had walked into the middle of the road. A driver sounded their horn so that she would move out of the way. It startled her and she dropped the phone. Her heart started to race and she found that she was sweating.

(a) Name the division of the nervous system that was causing Julia’s responses. (1 mark)

Description MarksSympathetic nervous system 1

Total 1

(b) Describe three (3) responses, other than those stated in the question, that she would have experienced and explain the purpose of these responses. (3 marks)

Description MarksAny three of: Pupils dilate Bronchioles/airways dilate Vasoconstriction in internal organs ½ such as digestive system organs ½ Vasodilation of blood vessels in skeletal muscles Decreases activity of digestive system Increases glycogenolysis/release of glucose in the liver Salivary secretions reduced Relaxation of bladder muscles Secretion of adrenaline ½ by adrenal cortex ½

1-3

Total 3


In 1780, the remote island of Pingelap in the South Pacific was hit by a tsunami. Only 20 people survived. Currently, 1:10 of the Pingelap population is colour blind compared to a normal population in which 1:40 000.

(a) Name the evolutionary mechanism that led to the rise in colour blindness of the Pingelap population. (1 mark)

Name MarksFounder effect 1


Total 1

(b) Explain why this rise in colour blindness took place after the tsunami rather than before the tsunami. (4 marks)

Describe MarksLimited gene pool after tsunami 1Colour blind allele more prevalent in small population 1Wide gene pool in large population before tsunami 1Colour blind allele less common due to large size of gene pool 1

Total 4____________________________________________________________________________


The order, Primates, is represented by a large number of animals with similar features, ranging from very small tarsiers to the much larger gorillas, as demonstrated in the photographs below.

The reduction in the size of the face and jaw that has occurred in primates has implications for the evolution of the teeth, olfaction and vision.

(a) Describe how, over time, each of these features has changed from the primitive to the more advanced primates, including humans. (6 marks)

Description MarksTeethHave become smaller in size 1Reduced in number (from 36 to 32) 1OlfactionReduced sense of smell/less reliance on sense of smell 1Olfactory to optical shift – more reliance of sight 1Any two of: Vision – fully forward-facing eyes from eye sockets that face sideways/

development of stereoscopic vision Eye socket development for protection Development of rods and cones for colour vision Bigger brain/skull allows for larger occipital lobe/area for vision

1-2

Total 6Figures 3 & 4 below compares the hand of an ape with the hand of a human.

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(b) Suggest what the difference in hand structure tells us about the lifestyle of both the ape and the human. (4 marks)

Suggest MarksApes prehensile, elongated fingers / grasping 1Suggests arboreal lifestyle/wrap digits around tree branches 1Human opposability of the thumb 1Suggests ability to manipulate small objects with precision 1

Total 4Section Three: Extended answer 20% (40 Marks)

This section contains three (3) questions. You must answer two (2) questions. Make sure you clearly indicate which question you are answering and write your answers in the space provided.

Spare pages are included at the end of this booklet. They can be used for planning your responses and/or as additional space if required to continue an answer.

Planning: If you use the spare pages for planning, indicate this clearly at the top of the page.

Continuing an answer: If you need to use more space to continue an answer, indicate in the original answer space where the answer is continued, i.e. give the page number. Write the number of the question(s) that you are continuing to answer at the top of the additional space page.

Responses could include clearly labelled diagrams with explanatory notes; lists of points with linking sentences; clearly labelled tables and graphs; and annotated flow diagrams with introductory notes.

Suggested working time: 50 minutes.

Question 41 (20 marks)Homo habilis, Homo erectus, Homo neanderthalensis and early Homo sapiens sapiens are all human ancestors who used tools.

(a) For each species, name the tool culture used, describe a tool manufactured and briefly describe what the tool may have been used for.

(12 marks)

Name and describe (no marks for information in brackets) Marks(Homo habilis) Oldowan tool culture 1 Pebble choppers/ scrapers

Any 2Simple pebble tools/ minimal flakingUsed for cutting food/ meat

(Homo erectus) Acheulean tool culture 1


Hand axeAny 2Tear drop shaped/ bifacial flaked tools

Hunting/ cutting food

(Homo neanderthalaensis) Mousterian tool culture 1Finely faked tools

Any 2Tools refined for purposeTools were used for purposes other than hunting/food preparation

(Homo sapiens) Solutrean/ Magdalenian/Aurignacian tools 1Tools made from several types of material (bone, antler, wood)

Any 2Tools designed for purposeSpear tips, blades & tools for making tools (specialised tool use description)

Total 12

Genetic diseases can influence the gene pools of specific populations. Thalassemia and sickle-cell anaemia are two such genetic diseases.

(b) Compare and contrast thalassemia and sickle cell anaemia. In your answer, discuss the causes and symptoms that may be experienced by a person suffering from thalassemia and sickle cell anaemia and state which populations may be most affected by the diseases.

(8 marks)

Compare and contrast MarksBoth are types of anaemia 1Both lead to fatigue and weakness due to low O2 1Both provide heterozygotes resistance to malaria 1Both can be fatal if homozygous for the condition 1Thalassemia Sickle cellMediterranean decent Most common in African

populations 2Small red blood cells Sickle shaped red blood cells 2

Total 8

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Question 42 (20 marks)Susan and her mother Lesley are working in a basement fixing a leaking gas heater. The space is very small and poorly ventilated and, after a while, both of them notice an increase in the rate and depth of their breathing. As they noticed the increased respiratory rate, they have rushed up the stairs and opened windows until their breathing rates returned to normal.

(a) Describe the homeostatic mechanism that caused the increased breathing rate in this situation. In your answer describe how the body detects and maintains gas concentrations in the blood.

(12 marks)

Description Mark

Stimulus:High blood CO2 concentrations or ↑H+ or ↓pH

1

Receptor:Chemoreceptors 1

In the carotid and aortic bodies, medulla oblongata 1

Modulator:Medulla oblongata 1

Effector:Diaphragm 1

Intercostal muscles 1

Sympathetic NS 1

Response:Increase rate and strength of diaphragm contraction. 1

Intercostal muscles contract to allow deep breathing 1

Increase sympathetic nerve impulses 1


Feedback:Negative feedback achieved 1

Breathing rate and depth returned to normal/ original stimulus reversed 1

Total 12

(b) The message to increase the rate and depth of breathing is controlled by nervous impulses. Describe how an unmyelinated nerve cell transmits an impulse.


Any eight of the following

Impulse passed at each point of the membrane/impulse does not jump between nodes of Ranvier

1-8

Resting membrane potential is -70mVStimulus is received and voltage gated sodium channels open allowing Na+ to enter neuronIf threshold of – 55 mV is reached -then Na+ flood into the neuron causing a rapid depolarisation (action potential)Sodium gates close and potassium gates openK+ flood out of the neuron causing repolarisationHyperpolarisation occurs and potassium gates closeThe Na+/K+ pump, pumps three Na+ out and two K+ into the neuronThis restores the original ion concentration and the resting membrane potential to -70mV

Total 8

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Recombinant organisms are created to manufacture a variety of products for humans to use.

(a) Describe the steps involved in creating a recombinant organism for the manufacture of a human hormone or vaccine.


Any 10 of the following

Use PCR to amplify the gene of interest from the pathogenic organism/human DNA

1-10

Use restriction enzymes to cut out the gene of interest from the pathogenic organism/human DNAproducing ‘sticky ends’/staggered endsIsolate a plasmid from a bacterium which will act as a vectorUse the same restriction enzymes to cut the plasmid producing ‘sticky ends’Insert the gene of interest into the plasmidTreat the plasmid with DNA ligase to combine the gene of interest to the plasmid in a process called ligationReinsert the plasmid into the bacteriumAllow the bacterium to manufacture the hormone/vaccine in a nutrient brothTake samples of the brothPurify the samples to isolate the hormone/vaccinePackage the hormone/vaccine in a form that humans could consume

Any 10 Total 10


There are several different types of vaccines that have been manufactured for different uses. The decision to vaccinate or not can be influenced by various issues.

(b) Describe two different risk factors associated with vaccinations. (4 marks)

Description Mark

Any two risk factors with correct description

Risk factor one

Allergic reaction 1

Egg is often used as a medium and many people have an allergy to eggs/ yeast can be used which people can be allergic to 1

Risk factor two

Cross species viral contamination 1

Impossible to completely isolate one virus from others in the animal tissue culture 1

Risk factor three

Contract the disease 1

(In individuals with a weakened immune system) live-attenuated vaccines can mutate becoming virulent

1

Total 4

(c) How do vaccinations provide immunity against disease? (6 marks)

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Description Mark

Vaccines contain dead/attenuated/sub units/toxoids derived from the pathogen.

1

This vaccine will be recognised by your B-lymphocytes 1

B-Lymphocytes will become sensitised, enlarged and divide into many clones 1

Most B-lymphocytes become plasma cells and secrete antibodies 1

Some B-lymphocytes become memory cells 1

Memory cells stay in the body and will flood the body with antibodies/react much faster if the person becomes infected with the pathogen which prevents illness. 1

Total 6

End of Exam


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Spare grid for question 36 (c)


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