SHARADA VIDYANIKETHANA PUBLIC SCHOOL

&

PU COLLEGE

PRATIBHA PRAVEENA SCHOLARSHIP EXAMINATION

INSTRUCTIONS

1. The booklet is your Question Paper. Do not break the seal of this booklet before being instructed to do

so by the invigilator.

2. The question paper Series CODE is printed on the right hand top corner of this sheet.

3. Blank spaces and blank pages are provided in the question paper for your rough work. No additional

sheets will be provided for your rough work.

4. Blank papers, clipboards, log tables, slide rules, calculators, camera, cellular phones, papers and

electronic gadgets are NOT allowed inside the examination hall.

5. Write your name and Form number in the space provided on the back cover of this booklet.

6. The answer sheet, a machine – readable Optical Mark Recognition (OMR), is provided separately.

7. DO NOT TAMPER WITH/MUTILATE THE OMR OR THE BOOKLET

8. On breaking the seal of the booklet check that it contains 9 pages and all the 90 questions and

corresponding answer choices are legible.

9. A candidate has to write his/ her answer in the OMR sheet by appropriate bubble with the help of

Black/Blue ball point pen as the correct answer (s) of the question attempted.

10. Write all information and sign in the box provided on part of the OMR.

11. The duration of test is 2 Hours and question paper contains 90 questions. The Max marks are 360.

Question Paper consists of 4 parts (Physics, Chemistry, Mathematics and Biology). Physics, Chemistry ,

Biology consists of 20 questions and Mathematics consists of 30 questions.

12. All questions are multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (a), (b), (c) and (d) out of

which ONLY ONE is correct.

13. Each correct answer carries 4 Mark, while 1 mark will be deducted for every wrong answer. [Guessing

of answer is harmful]

Pratibha Praveena Page 2

SHARADA VIDYANIKETHANA PUBLIC SCHOOL & PU COLLEGE

Devinagara, Talapady , Mangaluru – 23

PRATIBHA PRAVEENA EXAM 2017 – 18

1. A dise of mass 10 g is kept floating horizontally in air by firing bullets each of mass 5 g , with the same velocity

at the rate of 10 bullets per second. The bullets rebound with the same speed in positive directions. The

velocity of each bullet at the time of impacts is

a. 196 cm/s b. 98 cm/s c. 49 cm/s d. 392 cm/s

2. The work done by a force on a body will be ‘+ve’ if the

a. Body does not move

b. Body moves perpendicular to the direction of the applied force

c. Body moves along the direction of applied force

d. Body moves opposite to the direction of the applied force

3. A 5 kg brick of 20 cm x 10 cm x 8 cm dimensionless lying on the largest base. It is now made to stand with

length vertical. If g = 10 m/s2 then the amount of work done is

a. 3 J b. 5 J c. 7 J d. 9 J

4. A chain of mass M is placed on a smooth table with 1

3 of its length ‘L’ hanging over the edge. The work done in

pulling the chain back to the table is

a. 𝑀𝑔𝐿

3 b.

𝑀𝑔𝐿

6 c.

𝑀𝑔𝐿

9 d.

𝑀𝑔𝐿

18

5. The period of oscillations of a simple pendulum of length L suspended from the root of a vehicle which moves

without friction down an inetined plane of inclination ‘𝛼 ′ is given by

a. 2 𝜋 √𝐿

𝑔 cos 𝛼 b. 2 𝜋 √

𝐿

𝑔 sin 𝛼 c. 2 𝜋 √

𝐿

𝑔 d. 2 𝜋 √

𝐿

𝑔 tan 𝛼

6. The velocity of sound in air is 330 m/s and the velocity of light in air is 3 x 108 m/s. What frequency in Hz does a

BBC station which transmits at 1500 m broadcast

a. 2 x 105 Hz b. 595 x 103 Hz c. 0.22 Hz d. 5 x 10-6 Hz

7. A conductor of resistance 3 Ω is stretched uniformly till its length is doubled. The wire is now bent in the form

of an equilateral triangle. The effective resistance between the ends of any side of the triangle

a. 9/2 b. 8/3 c. 2 d. 1

Pratibha Praveena Page 3

8. The current i and voltage V graphs for a given metallic wire at two different temperatures T1 and T2 are shown

in the figure. It is concluded that

a. T1 > T2

b. T1 < T2

c. T1 = T2

d. T1 = 2T2

9. The resistance of 1 km long copper wire of radius 1 mm and Resistivity is 1.72 x 10-8 Ω m is

a. 55 Ω b. 50 Ω c. 5.5 Ω d. 0.55 Ω

10. A cell of emf ‘E’ and internal resistance ‘r’ sends current 1 A when it is connected to an external resistance

1.9 Ω but it sends current 0.5 A when it is connected to an external resistance 3.9 Ω . The values of ‘E’ and ‘r’

are

a. 0.2 , 0.1 b. 0.1 , 0.2 c. 2 , 0.1 d. 0.1 , 2

11. How will the image formed by a convex lens be affected, if the central portion of the lens is wrapped in black

paper

a. No image will be formed

b. Full image will be formed but is less bright

c. Full image will be formed but without central portion

d. Two images will be formed one due to each exposed half

12. The refractive index of the material of a prism is √2 and the angle of prism is 300. One of its refracting faces is

polished. The incident beam of light will retrace back for angle of incidence

a. 00 b. 450 c. 600 d. 900

13. A coin is placed at the bottom of a beaker containing water (𝜇 = 43⁄ ) to a depth of 12 cm. The height the

coin appears to be raised when seen from vertically above is

a. 3 cm b. 3 m c. 4 cm d. 4 m

14. Water initially at 200C at a height of 1.68 km above the ground falls down on ground. Taking the specific heat

capacity of water to be 4200 J kg-1 k-1, the final temperature of water on reaching ground is ( g = 10 m/s2)

a. 240 C b. 200 C c. 40 C d. 280 C

15. In a pressure cooker, cooking is faster because the increase of vapour pressure

a. Increases specific heat

b. Decrease specific heat

c. Decrease the boiling point

d. Increase the boiling point

16. A current of 3 S is slowing in a linear conductance having a length of 40 cm. the conductor is placed in a

magnetic field of strength 500 G and makes an angle of 300 with the direction of the field. It experiences a

force of magnitude

a. 3 x 10-4 N b. 3 x 10-2 N c. 3 x 102 N d. 3 x 104 N

I

V

T1

T2

Pratibha Praveena Page 4

17. A charge ‘+q’ is moving upwards vertically. It enters a magnetic field directed to the north. The force on the

charged will be towards

a. North b. South c. West d. East

18. The wing span of an aeroplane is 36 am. If the plane is flying at 400 kmph the emf induced between the wings

tips is ( Assume V = 4 x 10-5 T )

a. 16 V b. 1.6 V c. 0.16 V d. 0.016 V

19. In an AC generator a coil with N turns, all of the same area A and total resistance R rotates with frequency W in

a magnetic field B. The maximum value of emf generated in the coil is

a. N A B b. N A B R c. N A B W d. N A B R W

20. The ratio of terms in primary and secondary coils of a transformer is 1 : 20. The ratio of currents in primary and

secondary coils will be

a. 1 : 20 b. 20 : 1 c. 1 : 400 d. 400 : 1

21. The reaction of 6.54 g of zinc and 3.20 g of oxygen produces 9.74 g of zinc oxide, the only compound of theses

elements. How much zinc oxide would be produced if 6.54 g of zinc and 5.00 g of oxygen were mixed and allowed to

react?

a. 7.12 g b. 9.74 g c. 6.89 g d. 8.12 g

22. Calculate the mass of water required to prepare a 4.00 m aqueous solution of NH3 using 25.0g HN3

a. 0.416 kg b. 0.322 kg c. 0.278 kg d. 0.368 kg

23. On a space station, a 10.0-L steel drum of oxygen gas at 25 C and 101.3kPa pressure spings a leak and 8.00g of gas

escapes before the leak is plugged. What is the final pressure of the oxygen in the drum at 25 C?

a. 37.1 kPa b. B. 36.8 kPa c. C. 39.4 kPa d. 38.2 kPa

24. How will you test an ammonia gas?

a. Place a moist red litmus paper in the gas

b. Pass the gas through limewater

c. Place a moist blue litmus paper in the gas

d. Insert a glowing splint into the gas

25. Which salts are insoluble in water?

a. Carbonate salt b. Sulphate salt c. Nitrate salt d. Ethanoate salts

26. All metals below will not react with cold water except:

a. Zinc b. Copper c. Calcium d. Iron

27. The atmosphere contains how many percent carbon dioxide?

a. 0.01 b. 0.08 c. 0.03 d. 0.05

28. What is the color of bromine?

a. Greenish-yellow b. Pale yellow c. Reddish brown d. Purplish black

29. The noble gases occupy 1% of the atmosphere of which _______ is argon.

a. 0.83 b. 0.88 c. 0.90 d. 0.93

Pratibha Praveena Page 5

30. Pewter is metal used for making souvenirs. How many percent of pewter is antimony?

a. 1 b. 3 c. 2 d. 4

31. _____________ is a reaction in which a molecule adds to the two carbon atoms of a double bond.

a. Addition Reaction

b. Hydrogeneration reaction

c. Chlorination reaction

d. Bromination reaction

32. Nonpolar Covalent bond occurs if the difference in electronegativity ranges from

a. 0.00 to 0.40 b. 0.50 to 1.90 c. 1.90 to 2.00 d. 2.00 and up

33. In which of the following reactions is the underlined substance reduced

a. 𝐶𝑙2 +2 𝐹− → 2𝐶𝑙− + I2

b. Zn + H2SO4 → ZnSO4 + H2

c. Fe2+ + H2O2 → Fe3+ + H2O

d. CuO + H2 → Cu + H2O

34. Angle formed between the atoms of water is

a. 104.450 b. 109.550 c. 108.650 d. 109.950

35. IUPAC name of formic acid is

a. Methanoic acid b. Ethanoic acid c. Ethyl acid d. Acetic acid

36. Percentage of gold in 18 carat gold ornament

a. 18 b. 36 c. 65 d. 75

37. Be and Mg have zero electron affinity, because of:

a. Be and Mg have [He] 2s2 and [Ne] 3s2 configuration respectively

b. 2s and 3s orbitals are filled to their capacity

c. Be and Mg unable to accept electron

d. All of the above are correct

38. If a five-star chocolate of 10 rupees , contains 3.42g 0f sugar then the sugar molecules present in two five-star chocolates is (Molecular Weight of Sucrose is 342 g)

a. 12.046 × 1019 b. 12.046 × 1020 c. 12.046 × 1021 d. 12.046 × 1022

39. Ethylene react with hydrogen in presence of H2/Pt the product formed is

a. Ethene b. Ethane c. Ethyne d. Propyne

40. Cinnabar is the ore of

a. Zn b. Hg c. Cu d. Fe

41. The roots of the equation (x+2)2 = 4 (x+1) – 1 are-

a. ±1 b. ± i c. 1,2 d. – 1, –2

42. The roots of the equation (a2 + b2) x2 – 2(bc+ ad) x + (c2 + d2) = 0 are equal, if -

a. ab = cd b. ac = bd c. ad+ bc = 0 d. None of these

43. If 4th term of an AP is 64 and its 54th term is – 61, then its common difference is –

a. 5/2 b. – 5/2 c. 3/50 d. – 3/50

Pratibha Praveena Page 6

44. If the 9th term of an A.P. be zero, then the ratio of its 29th and 19th term is-

a. 1 : 2 b. 2 : 1 c. 1 : 3 d. 3 : 1

45. The fifth term of a GP is 81 and its 8th term is 2187, then its third term is-

a. 3 b. 9 c. 27 d. None of these

46. If third and seventh terms of a GP are 15 and 135 respectively, then its fifth term will be-

a. 5 b. 9 c. 45 d. 90

47. The term independent of y in the binomial expansion of 8

5/13/1 yy2

1

is -

a. sixth b. seventh c. fifth d. None of these

48. The number of ways in which n distinct objects can be put into two different boxes is-

a. n2 b. 2n c. 2n d. None of these

49. If nCn–4= 5 then the value of n is -

a. 5 b. 3 c. 4 d. 6

50. nCr + nCr–1 equals-

a. nCr+1 b. n+1Cr c. n+1Cr–1 d. n+1Cr+1

51. Among 1000 families of a city, 40% read newspaper A, 20% read newspaper B, 10% read newspaper C, 5% read

both A and B, 3% read both B and C, 4% read A and C and 2% read all three newspapers. The number of families

which read only newspaper A is-

a. 140 b. 290 c. 330 d. 340

52. Mean of first n natural numbers is-

a. 2

)1n(n b.

2

)1n(n c.

n2

)1n( d.

2

1n

53. The median of 10, 14, 11, 9, 8, 12, 6 is

a. 10 b. 12 c. 14 d. 11

54. tan2 sec2 (cot2 – cos2 ) =

a. 0 b. – 1 c. 1 d. 2

55. If sin = –2

1 and tan = 1, then lies in which quadrant-

a. First b. Second c. Third d. Fourth

56. tan. tan

3 tan

3 is equal to -

a. tan 2 b. tan 3 c. tan3 d. None

Pratibha Praveena Page 7

57. Two poles of equal heights stand on either side of a 100 meters wide road. At a point between the poles, the

angles of elevation of the tops of the poles are 30º and 60º. The height of each pole is -

a. 25 m b. 325 m c. 3

100 m

d. None of these

58. If the points (4, –4), (–4, 4) and (x, y) form an equilateral triangle, then -

a. x = –4 3 , y = 4 3

b. x = 4 3 , y = –4 3

c. x = 4 3 , y = 4 3

d. None of these

59. Circumcentre of a triangle whose vertex are (0,0), (4,0) and (0,6) is -

a.

2,

3

4

b. (0, 0) c. (2, 3) d. (4, 6)

60. The area of the triangle formed by the points (a, b + c), (b, c + a), (c, a + b) is -

a. a2 + b2 + c2 b. abc c. ab + bc + ca d. 0

61. A bag contains 6 blue, 4 white and 6 red balls. Two balls are drawn at random. The probability that both the balls are

red is-

a. 1/3 b. 1/6 c. 1/8 d. 2/9

62. If

62

1x

75

–

y2

53

21

=

40

44

54

then-

a. x = 1, y = – 2 b. x = – 1, y = 2 c. x = 1, y = 2 d. x = – 1, y = – 2

63. If A and B are matrices of order m × n and n × n respectively, then which of the following are defined-

a. AB, BA b. AB, A2 c. A2, B2 d. AB, B2

64. ~ (p q) is equal to-

a. ~ p ~ q b. ~ p ~ q c. ~ p q d. p ~ q

65. The negations of 'If Ram is tall. Then he is handsome' is -

a. Ram is not tall and he is handsome

b. Ram is tall and he is not handsome

c. Ram is not tall and he is not handsome

d. None of these

66. If (0, 1) and (1, 1) are end points of a diameter of a circle, then its equation is-

a. x2 + y2 –x –2y + 1 = 0

b. x2 + y2 + x –2y + 1 = 0

c. x2 + y2 –x –2y – 1 = 0

d. None of these

67. If (x, 3) and (3, 5) are the extremities of a diameter of a circle with centre at (2, y). Then the value of x and y are-

a. x = 1, y = 4 b. x = 4, y = 1 c. x = 8, y = 2 d. None of these

68. The mean of the squares of first n natural numbers is-

a. 2

1n2 b.

8

1n (n + 1) c.

6

1 n (2n + 1) d.

6

1(n + 1) (2n + 1)

Pratibha Praveena Page 8

69. The points (0, –1); (2, 1); (0, 3) and (–2, 1) are vertices of a -

a. Rectangle b. Square c. Rhombus d. Parallelogram

70. If and are roots of ax2 – bx + c = 0, then (+ 1) ( + 1) is equal to -

a. a

cba b.

a

cba c.

a

cba d.

a

cab

71. Which of the following crop plant is very efficient converter of solar energy and whose net productivity ranges

from 2 kg to 4 kg/m2?

a. Wheat b. Sugar cane c. Bajra d. Rice

72. Solarisation is _________

a. Formation of chlorophyll

b. Effect of solar light

c. Destruction of chlorophyll

d. Utilization of chlorophyll

73. During rainy season doors made up of wood generally swell due to

a. Osmosis b. Bad quality of wood c. Imbibition d. None of these

74. Ozone layer is found in

a. Mesosphere b. Lithosphere c. thermosphere d. stratosphere

75. Which of the following is vestigial in human?

a. Thumb

b. Body hair

c. Conjunctiva

d. Extra abdominal muscles

76. Increase in CO2 concentration slightly higher than 300 ppm around leaf results in

a. Rapid opening of stomata

b. Partial closure of stomata

c. Complete closure of stomata

d. There will be no effect on stomatal opening

77. The organization which has published ‘Red data Book’ is –

a. National Environmental Engineering Research Institute

b. National Wild life Action Plan

c. International Union for conservation of Nature & Natural Resource

d. Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species of Wild Fauna & Flora

78. Gametes of AaBb individual can be

a. Aa,Bb b. AB , ab c. AB,ab,aB d. AB,Ab,aB,ab

79. Which of the following acid is also a vitamin ?

a. Ascorbic acid b. Malic acid c. Formic acid d. Palmitic acid

80. Brunner’s gland is present in

a. Liver b. Duodenum c. Osophagus d. Stomach

Pratibha Praveena Page 9

Best of Luck

81. During photosynthesis , plants

a. Absorb O2, release O2

b. Release O2, absorb CO2

c. Absorb N2, release O2

d. Absorb N2, release NH3

82. Which of the following characteristics is common both in human and adult frog

a. Four chambered heart

b. Internal fertilization

c. Brain

d. Ureotellic mode of excretion

83. Kidney produces a hormone called

a. ADH b. Renin c. Aldosteronl d. ANF

84. Sphygmomanometer is an instrument used to record

a. Systolic pressure

b. Diastolic pressure

c. Both systolic and diastolic pressure

d. None of the these

85. Venom of cobra affects

a. Circulatory system

b. Digestive system

c. Nervous system

d. Respiratory system

86. Sense of smell is perceived by

a. Pituitary b. Hypothalamus c. Olfactony lobe d. Cerebrum

87. During emergency, which of the following hormone is secreted?

a. Aldosterone b. Thyroxine c. Adrenaline d. Calcitonin

88. The type of reproduction seen in Hydra is

a. Budding b. Binary fission c. Multiple fission d. Conidia

89. In the human female, ova is formed in structures called

a. Follicles b. Corpus leutum c. Corpus albicams d. Uterus

90. The main reason for the depletion of ozone layer is the excessive use of

a. CFC’s b. CO c. Nitrous oxide d. H2S