pcb pcb pre-final round : 05 - iibedu.compcb pre-final round : 05 4 test booklet code-11 date...

This is to certify that, the entries of NEET-2019 Roll No. and Answer Sheet No. have been correctly written and verified.

Candidate’s Signature Invigilator’s Signature

General Instruction01. This questions booklet contains 180 Objective Type Questions (Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs)

Physics [Question No. : 1-45]; 4 (FOUR) marks for each correct response,1/4th MARKS (ONE MINUS) will be deducted for indicating incorrect response of each question. No deduction from the totalscore will be made if no response is indicated for an item in the answer sheet.

02. Chemistry [Question No : 46-90]; 4(FOUR) marks for each correct response,1/4 MARKS (ONE MINUS) will be deducted for indicating incorrect response of each question. No deduction from the totalscore will be made if no response is indicated for an item in the answer sheet.

03. Biology [Question No : 91-180]; 4 (FOUR) marks for each correct response,1/4 MARKS (ONE MINUS) will be deducted for indicating incorrect response of each question. No deduction from the totalscore will be made if no response is indicated for an item in the answer sheet.

04. The question paper and OMR (Optical Mark Reader) Answer Sheet is issued separately at the start of the examination.05. Choice and sequence for attempting questions will be as per the convenience of the candidate.06. Candidate should carefully read the instructions printed on the Questions Booklet and Answer Sheet and make the correct

entries on the Answer Sheet. As Answer Sheet are designed to suit the OPTICAL MARK READER (OMR) SYSTEM, special careshould be taken to mark the entries correctly. Special care should be taken to fill QUESTION BOOKLET VERSION, SERIAL No.and NEET-2019 Roll no. accurately. The candidate must sign on the Answer Sheet and Question Booklet.

07. Determine the one correct answer from out of the four available options given for each question.08. Fill the appropriate circle completely like this for answering a particular question. Mark with Black ink ball point pen only.09. Use of whitener or any other material to erase/hide the circle once filled is not permitted.10. Avoid overwriting and/or striking of answers once marked.11. Rough work should be done only one the blank space provided on the Question Booklet. Rough work should not be done on the

Answer Sheet.12. Immediately after the prescribed examination time is over Answer sheet is to be returned to the invigilator. Confirm that both the

candidate and invigilator have signed on question booklet and Answer Sheet.13. No candidate is allowed to leave the examination hall till the end of examination.

Roll No. Question Booklet Sr. NoQuestion Booklet Version

(Write this number onyour Answer Sheet)11

Mark720

GroupPCB

Date : 27/03/2020Time : 3 Hours

Biology - 90 Physics - 45Chemistry - 45

PCB PRE-FINAL ROUND : 05NEET 2020

0

Test SyllabusBiology : NCERT Unit - V

Chemistry : Chemical Bonding and p-Block elements

Physics : Oscillation and Waves

Cont. No. 7304567567, 7304730730, 7261960000, 7972123533, 9421473208, 9156710417

PCB PRE-FINAL ROUND : 05 2 TEST BOOKLET CODE-11

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Section ‘A’ : Biology01. The dental fourmula of a human adult and child (6

years) is respectively :

(1) 21232123

and 21022102

(2) 21232123

and 21232123

(3) 21212120

and 21202120

(4) 21032103

and 21202120

02. Identify the type of teeth - A, B and C shown in thediagram below :

A B C (1) Incisor Molar Premolar (2) Canine Premolar Molar (3) Canine Premolar Incisor (4) Incisor Canine Premolar

03. Read the following statements :

i. The lymphoid tissue of pharynx is called tonsilsii. Wharton’s duct is one of the salivary ductiii. The hard surface of the teeth (enamel) helps inmastication of foodiv. Chewing is important as it increases the surfacearea of foodv. A bony flap called epiglottis prevent the entryof food into the glottis during swallowingHow many of the above statements are correct?(1) Four (2) Three(3) Two (4) Five

04. .......... is the opening of windpipe (trachea) and ........prevents food entry into glottis during swallowing.(1) Epiglottis; glottis(2) Pharynx; glottis(3) Glottis; epiglottis(4) Larynx; glottis

05. Which of the following is incorrect?(1) Duodenum is U-shaped(2) Jejunum is the longest portion of small intestine(3) Ileum is the coiled middle portion of smallintestine(4) More than one option is incorrect

06. Brunner’s glands are present in(1) Duodenum-mucosa(2) Oesophagus(3) Duodenum-submucosa(4) Ileum

07. A brush border is(1) Microvilli covered surface of simple cuboidalepithelium(2) Microvilli covered surface of simple columnarepithelium(3) Both (1) and (2)(4) Absent in the villi

08. Arrange the layers of alimentary canal from insideto the outside sequentially(1) Serosa Muscularis Submucosa Mucosa(2) Mucosa Sub-mucosa Circular muscularis Longitudinal muscularis(3) Submucosa Muscularis Mucosa Serosa(4) Mucosa Sub-mucosa Longitudinalmuscularis Circular muscularis

09. Identify the structures A, B, C and D of humandigestive system

A B C D (1) Duct

from gall bladder

Hepatic duct

Duct from liver

Cytic duct

(2) Duct from liver

Cystic duct

Hepato-pancreatic

duct

Common bile

(3) Cystic duct

Common bile duct

Ducts from liver

Hepato-pancreatic

duct (4) Common

bile duct Cystic duct

Ducts from liver

Hepato-pancreatic

duct


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10. Pariental cell(1) Secretes a factor which is important for theabsorption of vitamin B12(2) Inefficiency will lead to pernicious anaemia(3) Secretes trypsinogen(4) Both (1) and (2)

11. Identify the enzymes A, B, C and Di. Sucrose A Glucose + Fructose

ii. Lactose B Glucose + Galactose

iii. Maltose C Glucose + Glucose

iv. Monoglyceride D Fatty acid + Glycerol

A B C D (1) Lactase Sucrase Maltase Lipase (2) Maltase Lactase Sucrase Lipase (3) Lipase Maltase Lactase Sucrase (4) Sucrase Lactase Maltase Lipase

12. Succus entericus(1) Is the secretion from crypts of Lieberkuhn only(2) Gets secreted in the oesophagus(3) Lacks lipases and nucleosidases(4) Is the secretion of goblet cells and crypts ofLiberkuhn

13. Match the column Column I Column II A. Jaundice i. Increased frequency of

bowel movement B. Diarrhoea ii. Faecal matter retention

in rectum C. Indigestion iii. Bile pigment deposition

in eyes and skin D. Constipation iv. Inadequate enzyme

secretion (1) A-iii; B-i; C-iv; D-ii(2) A-i; B-ii; C-iii; D-iv(3) A-iv; B-ii; C-i; D-iii(4) A-iv; B-iii; C-i; D-ii

14. Albumins in plasma(1) Help in osmotic balance(2) Is needed to draw water from the surroundingtissue fluid into the blood capillaries(3) Help in maintaining blood volume and pressure(4) Is associated with all of the above

15. A healthy human has, on an average, ... .. ... .. ..millions of RBCs mm3 of blood.(1) 3-3.5 (2) 2-3.5(3) 5-5.5 (4) 4-4.5

16. Which of the following is correct?(1) RBCs have an average life span of 120 days afterwhich they are destroyed only in liver(2) Graveyard of RBCs is spleen liver and kidney(3) Both (1) and (2)(4) Erythropoiesis occurs inside the bone marow

17. The largest leucocyte is(1) Monocyte (2) Lymphocyte(3) Thrombocyte (4) Neutrophil

18. Individuals with O-blood group(1) Have both anti-A and anti-B antibodies in theirplasma(2) Lack both anti-A and anti-B antibodies in theirplasma(3) Have anti-A lack anti-B antibodies in theirplasma(4) Lack anti-A but possess anti-B antibodies theirplasma

19. Identify A, B, C and D for the reactions w.r.t. bloodclotting :Prothrombin B A, Thrombin

Fibrinogen D C, Fibrin

A B C D (1) Thrombin Mg2+ Thrombokinase K+

(2) Thrombokinase Mg2+ Thrombin Mg2+

(3) Thrombin Ca2+ Thrombokinase Ca2+

(4) Thrombokinase Ca2+ Thrombin Ca2+

20. An elaborate network of vessels called lymphaticsystem collects the tissue fluid and drains it back tothe(1) Arteries (2) Major veins(3) Kidneys (4) Lungs

21. Choose the correct option for the heart of differentorganisms :


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A B C D (1) Reptiles,

Incomplete double

circulation

Fishes, single

circulation

Birds and mammals,

double circulation

Amphibians, single

circulation

(2) Amphibians, Incomplete

double circulation

Fishes, single

circulation

Birds and mammals,

double circulation

Reptiles, single

circulation

(3) Fishes, single

circulation

Reptiles, Incomplete

double circulation

Amphibians, Incomplete

double circulation

Birds and mammals,

double circulation

(4) Reptiles, Incomplete

double circulation

Fishes, single

circulation

Birds and mammals,

double circulation

Amphibians, Incomplete

double circulation

22. If the total period of one cardiac cycle is 0.8 secondthen, the complete cardiac diastole is ........., artrialsystole is .......... and ventricular systole is ........(1) 0.1 second; 0.3 second; 0.4 second(2) 0.1 second; 0.4 second; 0.3 second(3) 0.4 second; 0.1 second; 0.3 second(4) 0.3 second; 0.1 second; 0.4 second

23. Identify A, B, C, D and E for a section of humanheart :

A B C D E (1) Site of

generation of action potential

AV node Right bundle of His branch

Left bundle of His branch

Purkinje fibres

(2) SA node Site of generation of action potential


Right bundle of His branch

Carry contraction impulse to ventricles

(3) AV bundle

SA node Right bundle of His branch


Purkinje fibres

(4) SA node AV node Left bundle of His branch

Right bundle of His branch

Carry contraction impule to ventricles

24. For an athelete if the stroke volume is 95 mL ofblood and his heart beat is 80/min then, the cardiacoutput is :(1) 5,000 mL (2) 6,700 mL(3) 7,600 mL (4) 4,500 mL

25. Identify the strandard diagrammatic representationof ECG :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

26. Match the column

Column-I Column-II A. Angina pectoris i. Heart does not pump blood

effectively enough to meet the needs of body

B. Heart attack ii. Acute chest pain when no enough oxygen reaches heart

C. Heart failure iii. Damage of heart muscles suddenly by inadequate blood supply

D. Cardiac arrest iv. Heart stops beating (1) A-i; B-iv; C-iii; D-ii

(2) A-ii; B-iii; C-i; D-iv(3) A-ii; B-iv; C-i; D-iii(4) A-i; B-iii; C-ii; D-iv

27. Which of the following are ureotelic?(1) Aquatic insects(2) Bony fishes and aquatic amphibians(3) Mammals and cartilagenous fishes(4) Terrestrial amphibians and aquatic insects

28. Match the column

Column-I Column-II A. Protonephridia/Flame cells i. Cockraoch B. Nephridia ii. Prawns C. Malpighian tubules iii. Planaria D. Antennal glands / Green glands iv. Earthworms

(1) A-ii; B-i; C-iv; D-iii(2) A-i; B-iv; C-ii; D-iii(3) A-iii; B-i; C-ii; D-iv(4) A-iii; B-iv; C-i; D-ii


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29. Choose the incorrect statement(1) Ammonia is more toxic uric acid and urea(2) In fishes, kidney have no significant role inammonium ions removal(3) In mammals, ammonia is not a product of purinemetabolism(4) In uricotelic animals, uric acid is a product ofpurine metabolism

30. Identify A, B, C, D and E in the human urinarysystem shown below :

A B C D E (1) Adrenal

gland Renal artery

Renal artery

Dorsal aorta

Ureter

(2) Adrenal gland

Renal vein

Renal artery

Ureter Urethra

(3) Adrenal gland

Renal artery

Renal vein

Dorsal aorta

Ureter

(4) Adrenal gland

Renal artery

Renal vein

Dorsal aorta

Urethra

31. Find out which of the following statements are true(T) / False (F) and choose the correct option.I. Adult human kidney measures 10-12 cm in

length, 5-7 cm in width, 2-3 cm in thickness withan average weight of 120-170 gm

II. Blood vessels, nerves and urethra enter kidneythrough the hilum

III. Inner to the hilum of kidney is a broad funnelshaped space called the renal pelvis withprojections called calyces

IV. Renal capsule is a soft layer made of perinephricadipose tissue only

I II III IV (1) T T T T (2) F F T T (3) T F T F (4) T T F F

32. In juxtamedullary nephrons(1) The loop of Henle is very short(2) The loop of Henle runs deep into medulla(3) The loop of Henle is absent(4) More than one of the above is true

33. Choose the correct pathway of urine flow in humanbeings(1) Henle’s loop PCT Collecting duct Ureter Urinary bladder Urethra(2) DCT PCT Bowman’s capsule Urinary bladder Urethra(3) PCT DCT Bowman’s capsule Urinary bladder Urethra(4) Henle’s loop DCT Collecting duct Ureter Urinary bladder Urethra

34. The descending loop of Henle is(1) Impermeable to water(2) Almost impermeable to electrolytes(3) Physiologically adapted to dilute the filtrate asit moves down through it(4) Related to more than one option mentionedabove

35. Identify A, B, C, D and E w.r.t. reabsorption andsecretion at different parts of nephron

A B C D E (1)

3HCO Urea NaCl 3HCO H2O

(2) Urea 3HCO Urea NH3 H2O

(3) 3HCO

3HCO NaCl NaCl Urea

(4) NaCl Urea 3HCO

3HCO NH3

36. Find out the correct sequence for the regulation ofkidney function when there occurs an excessive lossof body fluid.I. ADH facilitates water reabsorption from latterparts of the tubule, thereby preventing diuresisII. Release of ADH/vasopressin fromneurohypophysisIII. Osmoreceptors get activated which stimulateshypothalamus(1) I II III (2) III II I(3) III I II (4) II III I


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37. Match the column Column I Column II A. Renal calculi i. Urea accumulation in blood B. Glomerulonephrits ii. Kidney stones (oxalates) C. Uremia iii. Artificial kidney D. Hemodialysis iv. Inflammation of glomeruli

(1) A-iii; B-iv; C-ii; D-i(2) A-ii; B-i; C-iv; D-iii(3) A-i; B-iii; C-iv; D-ii(4) A-ii; B-iv; C-i; D-iii

38. Read the following statementsi. An individual who is fasting for a long time

would excrete abnormal quantities of ketonebodies in urine

ii. Haemoglobin is normally not excreted in urineiii. Excess of glucose secretion in urine is a

condition called glycosuriaiv. In diuretic condition, excess volume of urine

passes outv. A human can survive even with one normal

kidney if one of the kidney is surgically removedHow many of the above statements are correct?(1) Two (2) Five(3) Three (4) Four

39. After blood flow is artificially reduced at onekidney, you would expect that kidney to secrete moreamount of(1) Atrial natriuretic peptide(2) Antidiuretic hormone(3) Renin(4) Angiotensinogen

40. Grey matter in most of the part of the brain isI. Present outside the white matterII. containing cytons of neuronsIII. Grey in colourIV. Present inside the white matterWhich of the statements mentioned above are correct?1) Only III 2) Only II3) I, II and III 4) II, III and IV

41. Corneal grafts are generally NOT rejected by the recipientbecause cornea is1) Not cellular 2) Not vascularised3) Non living 4) Non proteinaceous

42. The transparent lens in the human eye is held in its placeby1) Ligaments attached to the ciliary body2) Ligament attached to the iris3) Smooth muscles attached to the iris4) Smooth muscles attached to the ciliary body

43. Human brain has areas concerned with intelligence,memory, judgement, problem solving ability are identifiedas1) Association area on occipital lobe2) Wernicke's area on parietal lobe3) Association area on frontal lobe4) General motor area of frontal lobe

44. Which of the following information, regarding theeyeball is incorrect?(1) Retina - Bipolar cells and photoreceptor cells,both are found(2) Sclera - Made up of dense connective tissue(3) Choroid - Avascular layer(4) Iris - Continuation of ciliary body

45. If A = bipolar cells, B = Ganglion cells, C = Opticnerve and D = Photoreceptor cell in retina, than whatwill be the pathway of visual impulses?(1) C A B D(2) B D A A C(3) D B A A C(4) D A B C

46. Which function is not related with the part of eargiven below?(1) Eustachian tube - Maintains air pressure acrossthe tympanic membrane(2) Pinna - Collection of sound waves(3) Otolith organ - Hearing(4) Crista ampullaris - Balancing

47. Neurons having single dendrite are termed as ....A...and can be located in ....B....

A B (1) Unipolar Embryonic stage (2) Unipolar Retina (3) Bipolar Embryonic stage (4) Bipolar Retina

48. Match the columns - Column A

(Part of brain) Column II

(Centre for) A. Medulla 1. Cardiovascular reflexes B. Hypothalamus 2. Gastric secretions C. Cerebrum 3. Inter-sensory association 4. Body temperature 5. Memory 6. Communication

(1) A-1, 2, 3; B-5; C-4, 6(2) A-1, 2; B-4; C-3, 5, 6(3) A-2, 3; B-4, 5; C-1, 6(4) A-2; B-4, 6; C-3, 5

49. Assertion : The optic nerves leaves the eye at thepoint called blind spot.Reason : Only cone are densely packed at the blindspot, hence is the same.(1) If both Assertion and Reason are true, and reasonis the correct explanation of the assertion.(2) If both assertion and reason are true but reason isnot the correct explanation of the assertion.(3) If Assertion is true but Reason is false.(4) If Assertion is false but Reason is false.

50. CO2 travels in blood mainly in the form of -(1) HCO3

– in RBC (2) Dissolved form(3) HCO3

– in plasma (4) Carbaminohaemoglobin


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51. Which of the following set of organisms doesn’tpossess similar respiratory organs?(1) Coelenterates and flat worms(2) Aquatic arthropods and molluscs(3) Reptiles and mammals(4) Earthworms and Insects

52. Central chemoreceptors (in CNS) are mainlysensitive to(1) CO2 but not H+ changes(2) H+ but not CO2 changes(3) CO2 and H+ changes both(4) CO2 and O2 but not to H+ changes

53. If A = Nostrils, B = Trachea, C = Bronchi, D =Bronchioles, E = Alveolar ducts and F = Alveolithan conducting part extends from :(1) A to E (2) B to D(3) A to D (4) B to F

54. An ...A... in the pulmonary volume ...B... the intrapulmonary pressure to less than the atmosphericpressure which forces the air from ...C... to moveinto the lungs, i.e. ....D...Choose the correct options for the blanks A, B, Cand D to complete the above statement.(1) A-increase, B-decrease, C-outside, D-expiration(2) A-decrease, B-increase, C-outside, D-expiration(3) A-decrease, B-increase, C-inside, D-inspiration(4) A-increase, B-decrease, C-outside, D-inspiration

55. A spirometer cannot be used to measure(1) IC (2) RV(3) ERV (4) IRV

56. Total lung capacity is(1) total volume of air accommodated in lungs atthe end a forced inspiration(2) RV + ERV + TV + IRV(3) Vital capacity + residual volume(4) All of the above

57. The solubility of CO2 in the blood is(1) 10-15 times higher than that of O2(2) 20-25 times higher than that of O2(3) Slightly higher than that of O2(4) Slightly lower than that of O2

58. Which situation would result in the greatest degreeof O2 saturation for haemoglobin, if pO2 remainsconstant?(1) Increased CO2 level, decreased temperature(2) Decreased CO2 level, decreased temperature(3) Increased CO2 level, increased temperature(4) Decreased CO2 level, increased temperature

59. When you hold your breath which of the followinggas changes in blood would first lead to the urge tobreathe?(1) Falling O2 concentration(2) Rising CO2 concentration(3) Falling CO2 concentration(4) Rising CO2 and falling O2 concentration

60. Name the chronic respiratory disorder caused mainlyby cigarette smoking(1) asthma(2) respiratory acidosis(3) respiratory alkalosis(4) emphysema

61. Which of the following conditions are found in thealveoli of lungs?I. high pO2II. low pCO2III. high pCO2IV. low pO2V. low H+

VI. high H+

Choose the correct option.(1) I, III and V (2) III, IV and VI(3) I, IV and VI (4) I, II and V

62. Identify the parts labelled as A to E and choose thecorrect option for the given diagrammatic representationof reflex action showing knee-jerk reflex.

(1) A-Dorsal root ganglion, B-White matter, C-Greymatter, D-Afferent pathway, E-Efferent pathway(2) A-Dorsal root ganglion, B-White matter, C-Greymatter, D-Efferent pathway, E-Afferent pathway(3) A-Dorsal root ganglion, B-Grey matter,

C-White matter, D-Efferent pathwayE-Afferent pathway

(4) A-Ventral root ganglion, B-White matter,C-Grey matter, D-Efferent pathwayE-Afferent pathway

63. Injury localised to the hypothalamus would mostlikely to disrupt(1) short term memory(2) coordination during locomotion(3) executive function, such as decision making(4) regulation of body temperature

64. Thalamus, a structure wrapped by cerebrum, is(1) a major centre for motor signaling only(2) a major co-ordinating centre for sensory andmotor signaling(3) a major co-ordinating centre for sensory signalonly(4) not a nervous part of a brain

65. Which of the following conditions is not linked todeficiency of thyroid hormone ?(1) Cretinism (2) Goitre(3) Myxedema (4) Exophthalmosis


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66. Choose the correct answer among the followingoptions-

A. Epinephrine i Stimulates muscle growth B. Testosterone ii Decrease in blood pressure C. Glucagon iii Breakdown of liver

glycogen D. Atrial natriuretic

factor Options : iv Increases heart beat

(1) A-ii, B-i, C-iii, D-iv (2) A-iv, B-i, C-iii, D-ii(3) A-i, B-ii, C-iii, D-iv (4) A-i, B-iv, C-ii, D-iii

67. Which of the following is not the function ofcatecholamines ?(1) Increase in alertness (2) Dilatation of pupil(3) Synthesis of proteins (4) Breakdown of lipids.

68. Which of the following doesn’t act as secondmessenger ?(1) c-AMP (2) IP3(3) Hormone (4) Ca2+

69. Chemical nature of hormone receptors is-(1) Protein (2) Steroid(3) Peptide (4) Both (2) and (3)

70. A hormone in human regulate secretion ofgastrointestractA. Gastrointestinal peptideB. GastrinC. SecretinD. CCK.(1) A, B and C (2) B, C and D(3) A, C and D (4) A, B, C and D

71. Select the option in which the chemical nature ofhormones is correctly given.

Thymosins Mineralo- corticoids

Parathyroid hormone

(1) Peptide Steroid Steroid (2) Steroid Steroid Peptide (3) Peptide Peptide Peptide (4) Peptide Steroid Peptide 72. Which hormone controls the metabolism of

carbohydrates,proteins and fats ?(1) Mineralo-corticoids (2) Thyroxine(3) Gonadotrophins (4) Adrenaline.

73. Thymosins play important role in --------- of T-lymphocytes which are responsible for --------immunity.(1) Production,Cellular(2) Differentiation,Cellular(3) Production, Humoral(4) Differentiation,Humoral

74. Number of parathyroid glands on each lobe of thyroidgland :(1) 1 (2) 2(3) 3 (4) 4

75. Select wrong statement-(1) Oxytocin is responsible for growth of mammary

glands.(2) Progesterone maintains the corpus luteum.(3) Hypothyroidism in pregnancy may lead to

cretinism in mother.(4) All of the above statements are wrong.

76. Thyroid gland performs many functions.All of thefollowing are functions of thyroid gland except theone.(1) Increasing the blood calcium levels(2) Increasing the BMR(3) Maintaining the water and electrolyte balance(4) RBC synthesis regulation.

77. Out of the following hormones,how many are secretedfrom adenohypophysis ?[ Prolactin, ADH, GH, LH, Aldosterone, MSH,Melatonin, PTH](1) One (2) Two(3) Three (4) Four

78. Calcium is important in skeletal muscle contractionbecause it(1) Detaches the myosin head from the actin filament(2) Activates the mysin ATPase by binding to it.(3) Binds to troponin to remove the masking of active

sites on actin for myosin(4) Prevents the formation of bonds between the

myosin cross bridges and the actin filament79. H-zone in the skeletal muscle fibre is due to

(1) Central gap between actin filaments extendingthrough myosin filaments in A-band

(2) Extension of myosin filaments in the centralportion of A-band

(3) Absence of myofibrils in the central portion of A-band

(4) Central gap between myosin filaments in A-band80. In anaerobic reaction of muscle, lactic acid is produced

which causes painful tiredness. Where and by whichmechanism lactic acid is catabolised(1) In muscle by monokinase action(2) In muscle by Lohman’s reaction(3) In liver by Cori cycle(4) In liver by phosphogen reaction

81. How many facial bones are present in pairs(1) 5 (2) 6(3) 14 (4) 7

82. Collagenous connective tissue layer holding the musclebundles together is(1) Pleura (2) Pericardium(3) Sarcoplasm (4) Fascia


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83. Find the correct match

Column I Column II a. Pisciform bone i. Ruminants b. Fibrous cartilage ii. Wrist bone c. Hyaline cartilage iii. Intervertebral discs d. Os cordis iv. Larynx v. Pinna

(1) a-ii; b-iii; c-iv; d-i (2) a-v; b-ii; c-i; d-iv(3) a-iv; b-iii; c-ii; d-i (4) a-v; b-ii; c-iii; d-iv

84. This is not true about white muscle(1) More blood capillaries(2) Less blood capillaries(3) Less number of mitochondria(4) More sarcoplasmic reticulum

85. Which is not cranial bone(1) Frontal (2) Temporal(3) Zygomatic (4) Sphenoid

86. Which one of the following secretes a watery fluid forlubricating and cushioning the joint(1) Ligament (2) Cartilage(3) Tendon (4) Synovial membrane

87. Select the correct match(1) Pivot joint - Between third and fourth cervical

vertebrae(2) Hinge joint - Between humerus and pectoral girdle(3) Gliding joint - Between carpals(4) Cartilaginous joint - Between frontal and parietal

88. Select the correct option of labels in human skull

(1) a-temporal bone; b-parietal bone; c-sphenoid bone;d-frontal bone; e-zygomatic bone; f-occipital bone

(2) a-frontal bone; b-zygomatic bone; c-occipital bone;d-sphenoid bone; e-parietal bone; f-temporal bone

(3) a-shenoid bone; b-occipital bone; c-zygomaticbone; d-parietal bone; e-frontal bone; f-temporalbone

(4) a-sphenoid bone; b-zygomatic bone; c-occipitalbone; d-frontal bone; e-temporal bone; f-parietalbone

89. Identify the vertebrochondral ribs from the following(1) All twelve pairs(2) 10th and 11th pairs of ribs(3) 8th, 9th and 10th pairs of ribs(4) 11th and 12th pairs of ribs

90. Myasthenia gravis is an example of(1) Viral disease(2) Immunological disease(3) Autoimmune disease(4) Allergic reactions


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Section ‘B’ : Chemistry91. Which of the following are non-polar and planar ?

1) Cl2C = C = CCl2 2) Cl2C = C = C = CCl2

3) B2H6 = C 4) Al2Cl692. The increasing order of the strength of hydrogen bond

in the following mentioned linkages is(P) O – H --- S (Q) S – H --- O(R) F – H --- F– (S) F – H --- O1) P < Q < S < R 2) Q < P < S < R3) P < Q < R < S 4) Q < P < R < S

93. Which of the following order is correct for strengthand extent of H-bonding between H2O and H2O2

respectively.1) H2O > H2O2 and H2O2 < H2O2) H2O < H2O2 and H2O < H2O2

3) H2O > H2O2 and H2O2 > H2O4) H2O < H2O2 and H2O > H2O2

94. Which of the following has two -bonds and planarstructure ?1) CO2 2) SO23) C2H2 4) All of these

95. Which of the following statement(s) is incorrect aboutP4O6 and P4O10 ?1) Both oxides have closed cage like structure2) Each oxide contains six equivalent P – O – P

bonds3) Both P4O6 and P4O10 molecules have p –d

bonds4) P – O bond length of P4O6 is greater than

P4O10.96. Which of the following oxy-acid consists of S – S

linkage and both sulphur have difference in oxidationstate of 2 ?1) H2S2O3 2) H2S2O6

3) H2S2O5 4) H2S2O4

97. Which of the following statement is correct ?1) BF3 and BCl3 is isostructural but having different

bond length and bond angle.2) In PCl5 two dp–Cl bond length are same and less

than other three dp–Cl bond.3) In C3O2, the number of -bonds in the same

plane is 4.4) In S3O9, number of S – S linkage is zero.

98. (C C) bond in between (C2 – C3) vinyl acetylene isformed by ..... overlapping1) sp-sp 2) sp2-sp2

3) sp2-sp3 4) sp2-sp

99. Consider the following statements for diborane.I. Boron atom is sp3-hybridisedII. B – H bond orders sameIII. There are two terminal B–H bonds for each

boron atom.IV. There are only 12 bonding electrons available.

Of these, correct statements are1) I, II and IV 2) I, II and III3) II, III and IV 4) I, III and IV

100. Assuming (2s-2p) mixing is not operative, theparamagnetic, species among the following is1) Be2 2) B2

3) C2 4) N2101. If one of the electrons in the He2 molecule is taken to

the next excited state, then bond order in He2.1) Increases by 1 unit2) Decreases by 1 unit3) Increases by 0.5 unit4) No change

102. Statement - I : I3– is linear in structure.

Statement - II : I2 is a Lewis acid and I– is a Lewis base.

1) Both Statement - I and Statement-II are correctand Statement - II is the correct explaination ofStatement - I

2) Both Statement -I and Statement-II are correctand Statement-II is not the correct explanationof Statement - I

3) Statement-I is the correct but Statement II isincorrect

4) Statement -II is correct but Statement I is incorrect103. The P – P – P angle in P4 molecule and S – S – S angle

in S8 molecule is (in degree) respectively.1) 60o, 107o 2) 107o, 60o

3) 40o, 60o 4) 60o, 40o

104. Assertion : Lone pair-lone pair repulsive interactionsare greater than lone pair-bond pair and bond pair-bondpair interactions.Reason : The space occupied by lone pair electrons ismore as compared to bond pair electrons.1) If both Assertion and Reason are correct and

Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.2) If both Assertion and Reason are correct, but

Reason is not the correct explanation ofAssertion.

3) If Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect4) If both the Assertion and Reason are incorrect.


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105. Read the following statements and choose the correctoptioni) P – O bond length order in :

34PO > 2

3HPO > 2 2H PO

ii)

iii) Between C2H4 and C2H4, C–H is stronger inC2H2.

1) (i) 2) (i), (ii) and (iii)3) (i) and (ii) 4) (ii) and (iii)

106. Which of the following orbital combination can notform -bond ?1) px + px sideways overlapping

2) 2 2 yx yd p

sideways overlapping3) dxy + dxy sideways overlapping4) dyz + py sideways overlapping

107. Assertion : Atomic radius of gallium is higher thanthat of aluminium.Reason : The presence of additional d-electron offerpoor screening effect for the outer electrons fromincreased nuclear charge.1) Assertion is correct, reason is correct, reason is

a correct explanation for assertion.2) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason is

not a correct explanation for assertion3) Assertion is correct, reason is incorrect4) Assertion is incorrect, reason is correct.

108. What is the colour obtained when borax is heated in aBunsen burner flame with CoO ?1) Blue 2) Black3) Green 4) Violet

109. Which of the following species exists (1) [SiCl6]2–, (2)[GeCl6]2– and (3) [CCl6]2–?1) (1) and (2) 2) (2) and (3)3) Only (2) 4) (1) and (3)

110. Assertion : Graphite is thermodynamically most stableallotrope of carbon

Reason : H f of graphite is taken as zero :1) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason is

a correct explanation for assertion2) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason is

not a correct explanation for assertion3) Assertion is correct, reason is incorrect4) Assertion is incorrect, reason is correct

111. Which type of zeolite is used to convert alcoholsdirectly into gasoline ?1) ZSM – 3 2) ZSM– 53) ZSM – 2 4) All of these

112. A compound X, of boron reacts with NH3 on heatingto give another compound Y which is called inorganicbenzene. The compound X can be prepared by treatingBF3 with lithium aluminium hydride. The compoundsX and Y are represented by the formulas1) B2H6, B3N3H6 2) B2O3, B3N3H63) BF3, B3N3H6 4) B3N3H6, B2H6

113. Chemically borax is1) Sodium metaborate2) Sodium orthoborate3) Sodium tetraborate4) Sodium tetraborate decahydrate

114. Aqueous solution of borax acts as a buffer because1) It contains tribasic acid and strong base2) It contains weak acid and its salt with strong base3) It contains number of neutral water molecules4) None of these

115. 2n2 5 n(Si O ) anion is obtained when

1) no oxygen of a 44SiO tetrahedron is shared with

another 44SiO tetrahedron

2) one oxygen of a 44SiO tetrahedron is shared

with another 44SiO tetrahedron

3) two oxygen of a 44SiO tetrahedron is shared


4) three oxygen of a 44SiO tetrahedron is shared


116. In the following reactions, the Pb compounds A and Bare respectively

1) Pb(NO3)2 + PbO2 and Pb(NO3)22) Pb(NO3)2 and Pb(NO3)23) PbO2 and Pb(NO3)24) Pb(NO3)2 and PbO2 + Pb(NO3)2

117. Which of the following oxides of nitrogen reacts withFeSO4 to form a dark brown compound1) N2O 2) NO3) NO2 4) N2O3

118. Zinc on reaction with dilute HNO3 gives x and zinc onreaction with concentrated HNO3 gives y. Identify xand y.1) x = NO2, y = N2O 2) x = N2O , y = NO3) x = NO, y = NO2 4) x = N2O, y = NO2


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119. In nitrogen family, the H–M–H bond angle in thehydrides gradually becomes closer to 90o on going fromN to Sb. This shows that gradually1) The basic strength of the hydrides increases2) Almost pure p-orbitals are used for M–H bonding3) The bond energies of M–H bonds increase4) The bond pairs of electrons become nearer to

the central atom120. In the reaction

4HNO3 + P4O10 4HPO3 + X, the product X is1) N2O5 2) N2O33) NO2 4) H2O

121. It is possible to obtain oxygen from air by fractionaldistillation because1) oxygen is in a different group of the periodic table

from nitrogen2) oxygen is more reactive than nitrogen3) oxygen has higher b.p. than nitrogen4) oxygen has a lower density than nitrogen

122. Assertion : Both rhombic and monoclinic sulphur existas S8 but oxygen exists as O2Reason : Oxygen forms p –p multiple bond due tosmall size and small bond length but p –p bondingis not possible in sulphur1) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason is a

correct explanation for assertion2) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason is

not a correct explanation for assertion3) Assertion is correct, reason is incorrect4) Assertion is incorrect, reason is correct

123. Which of the following statements are correct ?i) Among halogens, radius ration between iodine

and fluorine is maximumii) Leaving F – F bond, all halogens have weaker X

– X bond than X – X` bond in interhalongens.iii) Among interhalongen compounds maximum

number of atoms are present in iodine fluoride.iv) Interhalogen compounds are more reactive than

halogen compounds.1) i and ii 2) i, ii and iii3) ii and iii 4) i, iii and iv

124. On addition of conc. H2SO4 to a chloride salt, colourlessfumes are evolved but in case of iodide salt, violetfumes come out. This is because1) H2SO4 reduces HI to I22) HI is of violet colour3) HI gets oxidised to I24) HI changes to HIO3

125. In qualitative analysis when H2S is passed through anaqueous solution of salt acidified with dil HCl, a blackprecipitate is obtained. On boiling the precipitate withdil. HNO3 , it forms a solution of blue colour Additionof excess of aqueous solution of ammonia to thissolution gives ...

1) deep blue precipitate of Cu(OH)22) deep blue solution of [Cu(NH3)4]2+

3) deep blue solution of Cu(NO3)24) deep blue solution of Cu(OH)2, Cu(NO3)2

126. In a cyclotrimetaphosphoric acid molecule, how manysingle and double bonds are present1) 3 double bonds ; 9 single bonds2) 6 double bonds ; 6 single bonds3) 3 double bonds ; 12 single bonds4) zero double bond ; 12 single bonds

127. In the preparation of HNO3, we get NO gas by catalyticoxidation of ammonia . The moles of NO produced bythe oxidation of two moles of NH3 will be ...1) 2 2) 33) 4 4) 6

128. Hot conc. H2SO4 acts as moderately strong oxidisingagent. It oxidises both metals and non-metals. Whichof the following element is oxidised by conc. H2SO4into two gaseous products ?1) Cu 2) S3) C 4) Zn

129. In the preparation of compounds of Xe, Bartlett hadtaken O2

+ Pt F6– as a base compound. This is because

1) both O2 and Xe have same size2) both O2 and Xe have same electron gain

enthalphy3) both O2 and Xe have almost same ionisation

enthalpy4) both Xe and O2 are gases

130. Reduction potentials of some ions are given below.Arrange them in decreasing order of oxidising power

1) ClO4– > IO4

– < BrO4–

2) IO4– > BrO4

– < ClO4–

3) BrO4– > IO4

– > ClO4–

4) BrO4– > ClO4

– < IO4–

131. MF + XeF4 `A` (M+ = Alkali metal cation)The state of hybridisation of the central atom in ‘A’and shape of the species are1) sp3d, TBP2) sp3d3, distorted octahedral3) sp3d3, pentagonal planar4) No compound formed at all

132. What is X and Y in the given reactions ?2X2(g) + 2H2O(l) 4H+(aq) + 4X–(aq) + O2(g)Y2(g) + H2O(l) HY(aq) + HOY(aq)1) X = Cl, Y = F 2) X= Cl, Y = Br3) X = F, Y = Cl 4) X = I, Y = F


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133. NH4ClO4+ HNO3(dil) HClO4 + [X][X] Y(g)[X] and [Y] are respectively1) NH4NO3 and N2O2) NH4NO2 and N23) HNO4 and O24) None of these

134. When an inorganic compound reacts with SO2 inaqueous medium produces (A). (A) on reaction withNa2CO3 gives the compound (B) which with sulphurgive a substance (C) used in photography. Thecompound (C) is1) Na2S2O3 2) Na2SO43) Na2S 4) Na2S2O7

135. The correct order of S – S bond length in followingoxyanions isI) S2O4

2– II) S2O52– III) S2O6

2–

1) I > II > III 2) I > III > II3) III > II > I 4) III > I > II


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Section ‘C’ : Physics136. The instantaneous acceleration (a) of particle

executing a linear S.H.M. is given by a = – 4x.Where x is the displacement from the meanposition. The period of the particle is given by1) s 2) 2 s

3) 2

s 4) 4

s

137. A body oscillates between two points A and Bwhich are distance a and b from the point O inthe same straight line OAB. Then the amplitudeis

1)2

ba 2)

2ab

3)2

ba 22 4) b – a

138. The time period of a simple pendulum of lengthL as measured in an elevator descending with

acceleration 3g

is

1) g2L3π 2 2) g

L3π

3) gL3π 2 4) g3

L2π 2

139. A pendulum has time period T in air when it ismade to oscillate in water, it acquired a timeperiod .T 2'T The density of the pendulumbob is equal to (density of water = 1)1) 2 2) 223) 2 4) none of these

140. A mass M is suspended from a spring ofnegligible mass. The spring is pulled a little andthen released so that the mass executes SHM oftime period T. If the mass is increased by m, the

time period becomes 5T/3, then the ratio of Mm

is

1)53

2)9

25

3)9

164)

35

141. A body of mass 20 g connected to spring ofconstant k executes simple harmonic motion with

a frequency of

π5

Hz. The value of spring

constant is1) 4 N m–1 2) 3 N m–1

3) 2 Nm–1 4) 5 N m–1

142. If ks and kp respectively are effective springconstants in series and parallel combination of

springs as shown in figure, find p

s

kk

1)29

2)73

3)92

4)37

143. A particle of mass 10g oscillates according to the

equation cm. 4

5πt sin5x

π The maximum

force on the particle is1) 50 dynes 2) 1.9 × 10–5N3) 2 × 10–4 N 4) 2 × 10–4 dynes

144. The displacement of a particle executing SHM is

given by t. 1000 sin2tcos4y 2

The expression

can be supposed to be the result of super positionof n independent harmonic motions. n is then1) 1 2) 33) 4 4) none

145. A small body execute SHM of period T secondsand amplitude ‘a’ about a point O. After passing

through ‘O’, after 8T

seconds its displacement

would be

1)8a

2)2

a

3) 22a

4) 2a

146. A spring of force constant K is cut into two piecessuch that one piece is double the length of theother. Then the longer piece will have a forceconstant

1)3K2

2)2K3

3) 3K 4) 6K


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147. Two spring of constants K1 and K2 have equalhighest velocities when executing SHM. Then theratio of their amplitudes (given their masses areequal) will be

1)2

1

KK

2)2

1

KK

3)1

2

KK

4)1

2

KK

148. A particle is executing SHM given by

.6πt4sin5x

The velocity of the particle

when its displacement is 3 units is

1) units3π 2

2) units6π 5

3) 20 units 4) 16 units149. Two SHM’s are represented by the equations

4πtπ 2sin5x1 and 25x2 (sin 2 t + cos 2 t).

Their amplitudes are in the ratio1) 1 : 2 2) 2 : 13) 1 : 4 4) 4 : 1

150. A body executing SHM has its velocity 10 cm s–1

and 7 cm s–1, when its displacements from themean position are 3 cm and 4 cm, respectively.The length of path is1) 10 cm 2) 9.5 cm3) 4 cm 4) 11.36 cm

151. A simple harmonic progressive wave offrequency 100 Hz is travelling along the positivedirection of the X axis. What is the propagationconstant, if the velocity of the wave is 500 m/s ?

1)5

2 per metre 2)

32

per metre

3)5

per metre 4)23

per metre

152. The distance between two particles differing inphase by 120° in the path of a wave lf velocity360 m/s and frequency 2000 Hz is1) 6 cm 2) 18 cm3) 12 cm 4) 100 cm

153. Sound waves are reflected from a rigid wall. Thena compression will be reflected as a1) Rarefaction in the same phase2) Compression with a phase change of 3) Rarefaction with the phase change of 4) Compression with no change in phase

154. An observer standing on a beach observes36 waves reaching the coast in one minute. If thewavelength of the waves is 2 m, the wave velocityis

1) 181

m/s 2) 18 m/s

3) 1.2 m/s 4) 72 m/s155. Rarefaction is a region of

1) low density and high pressure2) low density and low pressure3) high density and low pressure4) high density and high pressure

156. A set of 31 tuning forks is arranged in series ofdecreasing frequencies. Each fork gives 6 beats/sec.with the preceding one. The first fork is theoctave of the last. The frequency of the last tuningfork is1) 120 Hz 2) 360 Hz3) 150 Hz 4) 180 Hz

157. Wavelength of two sound notes in air are 17780

m

and 17580

m respectively. Each note produces

4 beats/sec, with a third note of a fixed frequency.What is the velocity of sound in air ?1) 300 m/s 2) 310 m/s3) 320 m/s 4) 350 m/s

158. Sound of wavelength passes through a Quinke’stube and it produces sound of maximum intensityI0. Through what distance should the sliding tube

be moved to give the intensity 2I0 ?

1)2

2)4

3)3

4)8

159. If the source of sound and the observer aremoving with same velocity in the same directionthen the ratio of frequency emitted by the sourceand that heard by the observer will be1) 1 : 1 2) 2 : 13) 1 : 2 4) 1 : 4

160. A whistle is revolved with high speed in ahorizontal circle. To an observer at the centre ofthe circle the frequency of the whistle will appearto be1) increasing2) constant3) decreasing4) increasing or decreasing


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161. When an observer crosses a stationary sourcewith velocity V0 then the change in apparentfrequency will be

1) n = V

nVs2

2) n =

2

20

0

VV1

VnV2

3) n = VnV2 0

4) n = 2nV0

2

20

VV1

162. A train blowing its whistle moves with a constantvelocity V away from an observer on the ground.The ratio of the natural frequency of the whistleto that measured by the observer is found to be1.2. If the train is at rest and the observer movesaway from it at the same velocity, this ratio wouldbe1) 0.75 2) 3.753) 2.25 4) 1.25

163. When a source approaches a stationary observerwith velocity v then change in frequency is n1.When observer approaches the stationary sourcewith same velocity v then change in frequencyis n2, then1) n1 > n2 2) n1= n23) n1 < n2 4) none of these

164. A siren emitting a note of frequency n is fittedon a police van, travelling towards a stationarylistener. What is the velocity of the van, if thefrequency of the note heard by the listener isdouble the original frequency ?1) VS = V 2) VS = 2V

3) VS = 2V

4) VS = 3V

165. Select the correct statement from the following1) There are only longitudinal mechanical

waves2) Both longitudinal and transverse waves

require a medium for propagation3) Transverse waves are of two types4) Only longitudinal waves require an elastic

medium for propagation166. Two coherent sources of different intensities send

waves which interfere. The ratio of maximumintensity to the minimum intensity is 25. Theintensities of the sources are in the ratio1) 25 : 1 2) 5 : 13) 9 : 4 4) 25 : 16

167. Two sound waves, each of amplitude A andfrequency ,ω superpose at a point with phase

difference of 2π . The amplitude and frequency of

the resultant wave are respectively

1) 2ω,

2A

2) ω,2

A

3)2ω,A2 4) ω,A2

168. If 1, 2 and 3 are the wavelengths of the wavesgiving resonance with the fundamental, first andsecond overtones respectively of a closed organpipe. Then the ratio of wavelength 1 : 2 : 3 is1) 1 : 3 : 5 2) 1 : 2 : 3

3) 5 : 3 : 1 4)51:

31:1

169. When a stationary wave is formed then itsfrequency is1) same as that of the individual waves2) half that of the individual waves3) twice that of the individual waves4) 2 that of the individual waves

170. A wire under tension vibrates with afundamental frequency of 600 Hz. If the lengthof the wire is doubled, the radius is halved andthe wire is made to vibrate under one-ninth thetension. Then the fundamental frequency willbecome1) 200 Hz 2) 300 Hz3) 600 Hz 4) 400 Hz

171. n1 is the frequency of the pipe closed at one endand n2 is the frequency of the pipe open at bothends. If both are joined end to end, find thefundamental frequency of closed pipe so formed

1)12

21

n2nnn 2)

12

21

nn2nn

3)12

21

nnn2n

4)12

21

nnnn2

172. A closed organ pipe and an open organ pipe ofsame length produce 2 beats/s while vibratingin their fundamental modes. The length of theopen organ pipe is halved and that of closed pipeis doubled. Then the number of beats producedper second while vibrating in the fundamentalmode is1) 2 2) 63) 8 4) 7


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173. A uniform wire of length L, diameter D anddensity is stretched under a tension T.The correct relation between its fundamentalfrequency f, the length L and the diameter D is

1)LD1f 2) DL

1f

3) 2D1f 4) 2LD

1f

174. A pipe opened at both ends produces a note of

frequency f1. When the pipe is kept with th43

of

its length in water, it produces a note of frequency

f2. The ratio 2

1

ff

is

1)43

2)34

3)21

4) 2

175. The end correction of a resonance column is1.0 cm. If the shortest length resonating with thetuning fork is 15.0 cm, the next resonating lengthwill be1) 31 cm 2) 45 cm3) 46 cm 4) 47 cm

176. In a stationary wave represented by y = 2a cos kxsin t the intensity at a certain point is maximumwhen1) cos kx is maximum2) sin t maximum3) cos kx is minimum4) sin t is minimum

177. A stretched wire of length 110 cm is divided intothree segments whose frequencies are in ratio1 : 2 : 3. Their length must be1) 20 cm; 30 cm; 60 cm2) 60 cm; 30 cm; 20 cm3) 60 cm; 20 cm; 30 cm4) 30 cm; 60 cm; 20 cm

178. Two waves, represented by the followingequations, are travelling in the same medium

)x25.0t75(π 2sin5 1y

)x50.0t150(π 2sin10 2y

The intensity 1

2

II

of two waves is

1) 8 : 1 2) 2 : 13) 4 : 1 4) 16 : 1

179. Air is blown at the mouth of an open tube oflength 25 cm and diameter 2 cm. If the velocityof sound in air is 330 ms–1, then the emittedfrequencies are (in Hz)1) 660, 1320, 2640 2) 660, 1000, 33003) 302, 664, 1320 4) 330, 990, 1690

180. A plane progressive wave is given by y = 2 cos6.284 (330 t –x). What is period of the wave ?

1) s3301

2) s330π 2

3) s330 2 1π 4) s330284.6

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