paper-1 jp-jf mt-2(jee advance) 30-12-2012 code-0 revised

7/29/2019 Paper-1 Jp-jf Mt-2(Jee Advance) 30-12-2012 Code-0 Revised

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PAPER - 1INSTRUCTIONSA. General :

1. This Question Paper contains 63 questions.

2. The question paper CODE is printed on the right hand top corner on this sheet of this booklet.

3. No additional sheets will be provided for rough work.

4. Blank paper, clipboard, log tables, slide rules, calculators, cellular phones, pagers and electronic gadgets

in any form are not allowed.

5. The answer sheet, a machine-gradable Objective Response Sheet (ORS), is provided separately.

6. Do not Tamper / mutilate the ORS or this booklet.

7. Do not break the seals of the question-paper booklet before instructed to do so by the invigilators.

8. W rite your Name, Roll No. and Sign in the space provide on the back page of this booklet.

B. Filling the Top-half of the ORS :

Use only Black ball point pen only for filling the ORS. Do not use Gel / Ink / Felt pen as it might smudge the ORS.

9. Write your Roll no. in the boxes given at the top left corner of your ORS with black ball point pen. Also, darken

the corresponding bubbles with Black ball point pen only. Also fill your roll no on the back side of your ORS

in the space provided (if the ORS is both side printed).

10. Fill your Paper Code as mentioned on the Test Paper and darken the corresponding bubble with Black ball

point pen.

11. If student does not fill his/her roll no. and paper code correctly and properly, then his/her marks will not be

displayed and 5 marks will be deducted (paper wise) from the total.

12. Since it is not possible to erase and correct pen filled bubble, you are advised to be extremely careful while

darken the bubble corresponding to your answer.

13. Neither try to erase / rub / scratch the option nor make the Cross (X) mark on the option once filled. Do not

scribble, smudge, cut, tear, or wrinkle the ORS. Do not put any stray marks or whitener anywhere on the

ORS.

14. If there is any discrepancy between the written data and the bubbled data in your ORS, the bubbled data will

be taken as final.

C. Question paper format and Marking scheme :

15. The question paper consists of 3 parts (Physics, Chemistry & Mathematics). Each part consists ofFour Sections.

16. For each question in SectionI, you will be awarded 3 marks if you darken the bubble(s) corresponding to

the correct choice for the answer and zero mark if no bubbled is darkened. There is no negative marking

for incorrect answer in this section.

17. For each question in SectionII, you will be awarded 4 marks if you darken the bubble corresponding to the

correct answer and zero marks if no bubble is darkened. There is no negative marking for incorrect

answer in this section.

18. For each question in SectionIII, you will be awarded 3 marks if you darken the bubble corresponding to

the correct choice for the answer and zero mark if no bubbled is darkened. There is no negative marking

for incorrect answer in this section.19. For each question in SectionIV, you will be awarded 4 marks if you darken the bubble corresponding to

the correct choice for the answer and zero mark if no bubbled is darkened. In case of bubbling of incorrect

answer, minus one (1) markwill be awarded.

DONOTBREAKTHESEA

LSWITHOUTBEING

INSTRUCTEDTODOSOB

YTHEINVIGILATOR

Please read the instructions carefully. You are allotted 5 minutes specifically for this purpose.

Date : 30-12-2012 Duration : 3 Hours Max. Marks : 219

CODE0

MAJOR TEST-2 (MT-2) (JEE ADVANCE)

TARGET : JEE (IITs) 2013 COURSE : VIJETA (JP) & VISHWAAS (JF)


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P1JP&JFMT2-XI/XII301212C0-1

PHYSICS

Space for Rough Work

PART I : PHYSICS

SECTION - IStraight Objective Type

This section contains 7 multiple choice questions. Each question has choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) outof which ONLY ONE is correct.

1. Two masses m1 and m2 are connected by a string of length L. They are held in a horizontal plane at a height

H above two fixed heavy plates A and B made of different material placed on the floor. Initially distance

between two masses is a < L. When the masses are released under gravity they make collision with A and

B with co-efficient of restitution 0.8 and 0.4 respectively. The time after the collision when the string becomes

tight is

(A)

2 25 L a

2 2gH(B)

2g

H(C)

2 23 L a

2 2gH(D) None of these


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PHYSICS


2. In the system shown, the wire connecting two masses has linear mass density of1

20kg/m. A tuning fork of

50 Hz is found to be in resonance with the horizontal part of wire between pulley and block A. (Assuming

nodes at block A and pulley). Now at t = 0, system is released from rest. The ratio of time gap between

successive resonance with the same tuning fork starting from t = 0. (take g = 10 m/s2)

A

B 4kg

4kg50Hz60cm

(A) 2 : 1 (B) 1 : 2 (C) 1 : 2 1 (D) 1: 2

3. For two thermodynamic process temperature and volume diagram are given. In first process, it is a straight

line having initial and final coordinates as (V0, T0) and (2V0, 2T0), where as in second process it is a

rectangular hyperbola having initial and final coordinates (V0, T0) and (2V0, T0/2). Then ratio of work done in

the two processes must be

V0

2V0

V

T

2T0

T0

V0

2V0

V

T

T0

T /20

(A) 1 : 2 (B) 2 : 1 (C) 1 : 1 (D) None of these


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PHYSICS


4. A block of mass m is attached to a fixed position 'O' on a smooth inclined wedge of mass M. The block

oscillates along the incline with amplitude A and angular frequency . The wedge is located on a roughhorizontal surface of friction coefficient . Find the force of friction acting on the wedge if it always remains atrest.

60Sm

ooth

Rough

M

O

m

(A) (M + m)g (B)1

2m2 A sin (t + )

(C) (M + m)

2

A sin (t + ) (D) None of these

5. Ultraviolet light of wavelength )(and 1221 when allowed to fall on hydrogen atoms in their ground

state is found to liberate electrons with kinetic energies E1and E

2respectively. The value of planck's constant

can be found from the relation.

(A) 2 1 1 21

h E Ec

(B) 1 2 1 21

h E Ec

(C)

1 2 1 2

2 1

E Eh

c

(D)

1 2 1 2

1 2

E Eh

c


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PHYSICS



6. The ratio of total acceleration of the electron in singly ionized helium atom and hydrogen atom according tobohr model (both in ground state) is:(A) 1 (B) 8 (C) 4 (D) None of these

7. In the circuit shown in the figure C1

= C, C2

= 2C, C3

= 3C, C4

= 4C. Then select incorrect alternate :

C1

C2

C3

C4

(A) Maximum potential difference is across C1

(B) Minimum potential difference is across combination of C3and C

4

(C) Maximum potential energy is in C1

(D) Minimum potential energy is in C2

SECTION - IITrue & False Statement TypeThis Section Contains 3 questions. Each questions contains 3 or 4 statements S

1, S

2, S

3or S

4. Each

statement is either true (T) or false (F). Each questions has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) each ofwhich contains whether S

1, S

2, S

3or S

4are true or false. Exactly one choice contains the correct order

of truthness or falseness of S1, S

2, S

3or S

4respectively and is the correct choice.

8. S1: When an electron in a hydrogen atom makes a transition from an excited state to the ground state, its

kinetic energy increases, its potential energy decreases and its total energy remains constant.

S2: A nucleus at rest split into two nuclear parts having radii in ratio 1 : 2. Their velocity will be in the ratio 8:1.

S3: A sphere is rolling up on a rough incline plane. If suddenly the friction becomes zero, the retardation of

the COM of the sphere will increase.(A) F T T (B) T F T (C) T T T (D) F F F


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PHYSICS



9. S1

: A man is standing on a circular platform which is free to rotate about a fixed vertical axis. If the manstarts moving on the peripheri of the platform, the COM of the system (man + platform), Starts moving w.r.t.ground.

S2: A charged particle is kept at rest in a uniform magnetic field. If now the magnetic field starts increasing

with time, the particle may start moving.S3: If the angular momentum of a system is constant in magnitude then the torque (if any) acting on thesystem must be perpendicular to the angular momentum.(A) F T T (B) T T T (C) F T F (D) T T F

10. S1: The COM of a rod is at its geometrical centre. This means the rod is uniform.S2: The total potential energy of an electrostatic system may be positive.S3: The line integral of electric field over a closed loop drawn in a region having only a time varying magneticfield is zero.(A) F T T (B) T T T (C) F T F (D) F T T

SECTION - III

Comprehension TypeThis section contains 2 paragraphs. Based upon each paragraph, 2 multiple choice questions have to

be answered. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

Paragraph for Question Nos. 11 to 12

A uniform soild sphere of mass m and radius R is kept on the rough horizontal surface with co-efficient of

friction = 1/3 as shown in figure. An impulse of J = mv0 is applied tangentially on the sphere at an angle 37with the horizontal as shown in the figure. (assuming J >> mgdt, g = 10 m/s2, tan 37 = 3/4)

37

J

R


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PHYSICS


11. Find the velocity of centre of mass of the sphere just after impulse is applied.

(A) 04

v5

(B) 06

v5

(C) 07

v5

(D) v0

12. Find the angular velocity of sphere just after impulse is applied.

(A)02v

R

(B)0

v

R

(C)0

v

2R

(D)0

3v

R


The circuit shown in the figure consists of two resistances R1& R

2connected to two ideal voltmeters V

1& V

2.

Assume that a voltmeter reads .

b

a

V E d

between its terminals. A time varying magnetic field B(t)

exists in a circular region of radius a and it is directed into the plane of the figure B(t) = B0t where B

0is a

positive constant of proper dimensions and t is the time

( )B t

1R

B

A

2R1v

b b

2v

13. The emf induced in the circuit is :

(A)2

02 a B (B)

2

0a B (C )

2

0

2

a B(D)

2

0

2

a B


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PHYSICS



14. The reading of V1is :

(A)2

0a B (B)

2

0 1

2

a B R

R

(C)

2

0 1

1 2

a B R

R R

(D)2

0 1

1 2

a B R

R R

SECTION - IV

Integer Answer Type

This section contains 7 questions. The answer to each of the questions isa single digit integer, ranging from 00 to 99. The appropriate bubble belowthe respective question number in the ORS have to be darkened.

15. A train is moving with a constant speed 15 m/s along a circular track. The length of the train makes an angle90 at the centre. A siren in its engine is emitting a sound of frequency 1.5kHz. The apparent frequency ofsound as heard by a passenger at the rear end of the train is 100x Hz, then find x. (In Hz)

16. Figure shows the variation of internal energy "U" with the density" "of one mole of ideal diatomic gas.Process BA is a part of rectangular hyperbola. If the work done by gas in the process B A is W joules.Find W ?


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PHYSICS



17. In Young's Double slit experiment, a thin glass mica strip of thickness (t = 15 ) is pasted infront of slit S1.

If the same strip is now shifted in front of other slit S2. If the number of fringes which will cross the central

point on the screen is N. Find N ? (d >> D,


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CHEMISTRY


PART II : CHEMISTRY

Atomic masses : [H = 1, D = 2, Li = 7, C = 12, N = 14, O = 16, F = 19, Na = 23, Mg = 24, Al = 27, Si = 28,

P = 31, S = 32, Cl = 35.5, K = 39, Ca = 40, Cr = 52, Mn = 55, Fe = 56, Cu = 63.5, Zn = 65, As = 75,

Br = 80, Ag = 108, I = 127, Ba = 137, Hg = 200, Pb = 207]


SECTION - I

Straight Objective Type

This section contains 7 questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) for its answer, out ofwhich ONLY ONE is correct.

22. In which case vant Hoff factor is maximum (assuming no hydrolysis) :

(A) KCl, 50% ionised (B) K2SO

4, 40% ionised

(C) FeCl3, 30% ionised (D) SnCl

4, 20% ionised

23. Following is the graphical presentation of volume occupied by different gases at S.T.P. Which is/are

placed at correct position ?

x-axis : mass of the gas sample ; y-axis : volume of the gas sample at STP

(A) H2,He (B) He, NH

3(C) NH

3, CH

4(D) CH

4,H

2

24. Which of the following statements is true for azide ion ?

(A) It can act as bidentate ligand. (B) Two NN bond lengths are different in the anion.

(C) It is isoelectronic and isostructural with CO2. (D) There are two and three bonds.


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CHEMISTRY



25. Which of the following is not correctly matched ?

(A) Sodium (ethylenediaminetetraacetato)chromate(II) Na2[Cr(CH

3COO)

4(en)]

(B) Dichloridobis(ethane-1, 2-diamine)cobalt(III) ion [Co(Cl)2(en)

2]+

(C) Tris(bipyridyl)iron(II)ion [Fe (NH4C

5C

5H

4N)

3]2+

(D) Ammineaquadibromidocopper(II) [Cu(NH3)(H

2O)Br

2]

26. In which of the following option, second compound gives a precipitate more rapidly then the first compound

when reacted with AgNO3in ethanol.

(A) or (B) or

(C) or (D) PhCH2Br or CH

2=CHCH

2Br

27.

Y & W are :

(A) Geometrical Isomers (B) Enantiomer

(C) Identical (D) Structural Isomer

28.

Identify E :

(A) (B) (C) (D)


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CHEMISTRY



SECTION - II

True & False Statement TypeThis Section Contains 3 questions. Each questions contains 3 or 4 statements S

1, S

2, S

3or S

4. Each


1, S

2, S

3or S



2, S

3or S


29. S1: All adiabatic processes are isoentropic processes.

S2

: When (Gsystem

)T, P

< 0; the reaction must be exothermic.

S3: Radial nodes can appear when radial probability distribution function become zero.

(A) T T F (B) F F T (C) T F T (D) T F F

30. S1: Addition of inert gas to the equilibrium mixture at constant volume, does not alter the equilibrium.

S2: Equilibrium H

2(g) + I

2(g) 2HI(g) is stablished in V(L). If complete equilibrium mixture is transfered

to 2V(L) container then the partial pressure of HI will remain same in the new container.

S3: Formation of diamond is favourable at very high temperature and very high pressure.

(A) TFF (B) TFT (C) FTT (D) FFT

31. S1

: Secondary-butyl magnesium bromide react with alcohol gives n-butane.

S2

:

H)2(

MgBrnCH)1( 3the value of n is two.

S3

: 4LiAlH product is

(A) TTT (B) FFT (C) TFT (D) TTF


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CHEMISTRY



SECTION - III

Comprehension TypeThis section contains 2 paragraphs. Based upon each paragraph, there are 2 questions. Each question has4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.


There are three bottles labelled as A, B and C contain weak acid, strong acid and strong base in random

order. All are monobasic/monoacidic. A student performs some experiment then the following observations

are made.

(A) When solution 'A' and 'B' are mixed completely then it form buffer of pH = 4.7(B) When 'B' and 'C' mixed completely then solution will have remaining strong acid along with neutral salt.

(C) When 'A' and 'C' solutions are mixed completely then the resultant solution is acidic and pH of solution

is 2log 5

32. The bottles (A), (B) and (C) contain the solutions which are respectively :

(A) Weak acid, strong base and strong acid (B) Strong base, weak acid and strong acid

(C) Strong acid, weak acid and strong base (D) Strong acid, strong base and weak acid

33. What will be degree of ionisation when complete weak acid solution is mixed with complete strong acid

solution ?

(A) 5 103 (B) 2 103 (C) 2 104 (D) 5 104


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CHEMISTRY




Compound (X) (C8H

7N) on treatment with cold SnCl

2/dil.HCl (aqueous), produces Y (C

8H

8O). (Y) on heating

with sodium acetate in acetic anhydride followed by acidification forms (Z) (C10

H10

O2). All these compounds

(X,Y,Z) on oxidation under severe conditions form a diacid which gives only one mononitro isomer in nitrating

mixture.

34. The reductive ozonolysis products of (Z) are :

(A)

CH3

CHO + CHO

COOH

(B) CHOH C3 +

COOH

COOH

(C)

COOH

CHOCOOH +

CH3

(D) CHO +H C3

COOH

CHO

35. What is not true about (Y) :

(A) It can give cannizzaro reaction (B) It gives Iodoform test positive

(C) It gives Tollen's test positive (D) It gives 2, 4-DNP test positive

SECTION - IV

Integer Answer Type

This section contains 7 questions. The answer to each of the questions isa double digit integer, ranging from 00 to 99. The appropriate bubble belowthe respective question number in the ORS have to be darkened.


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CHEMISTRY



36. The percentage of copper in a copper(II) salt can be determined by using a thiosulphate titration. 0.305 gm of

a copper(II) salt was dissolved in water and added to an excess of potassium iodide solution liberating iodine

according to the following equation.

2Cu2+ (aq) + 4 (aq) 2Cu(s) + 2(aq)

The iodine liberated required 24.5 cm3 of a 0.100 mole dm3 solution of sodium thiosulphate

2S2O

32 (aq) +

2(aq) 2 (aq) + S

4O

62 (aq)

the percentage of copper, by mass in the copper(II) salt is. [Atomic mass of copper = 63.5]

37. If for the equilibrium :

NH2COONH

4(s) N

2(g) + 3H

2(g) + CO(g) +

2

1O

2(g)

the value of Kp at 800 K is 27 x 2/2 and the equilibrium pressure is 22 atm value of is :

38. 30 litre gas at 400 K and 300 atm pressure is compressed to a pressure of 600 atm and 200 K. The

compressibility factor is changed from 1.2 to 1.6 respectively. Calculate the final volume of the gas.


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CHEMISTRY



39. For a given reaction, energy of activation for forward reaction (Eaf) is 80kJ.mol1. H = 40kJ.mol1 for the

reaction. A catalyst lowers Eaf to 20 kJ.mol1. Find out the ratio of energy of activation for reverse reaction

before and after addition of catalyst.

40. Total number of -Keto monocarboxylic acids (including stereoisomers) which on heating give .

41. 'M' is smallest optically active branched alkane. This alkane has a straight chain of six carbon atoms. Find

out the total number of isomeric alkenes which on hydrogenation give 'M'.

42.

43POH

Total no. of alkenes (X)ndistilatio

Fractional No. of Fractions obtained (Y).

Find out Y.


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P1JP&JFMT2XI/XII301212C0-16

MATHEMATICS

PART- III - MATHEMATICS

SECTION - I

Straight Objective Type

This section contains 7 questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) for its answer, out of

which ONLY ONE is correct.

43. Consider the sequence 2,3,5,6,7,8,10,11,12,13,14,15,17......... of all positive integers that are not perfectsquares. Determine the 2011th term of this sequence.(A) 2056 (B) 2011 (C) 2053 (D) 2055

44. Suppose that x and y are real numbers that satisfy the system of equations2x 2y = 1,

4x 4y =3

5.

The value of (x y) is(A) 3 (B) 2 (C) 1 (D) 4

45. An ordinary die is rolled. From the following choices, the number thrown is most likely to be(A) odd (B) even (C) a factor of 18 (D) a factor of 12

46. The largest prime factor of 799 + 7100 + 7101 is(A) 7 (B) 13 (C) 17 (D) 19

47. The solution of the equationdx

dy+ x(2x + y) = x3 (2x + y)3 2 is

(C being arbitrary constant)

(A)1

2x xy = x2 + 1 + Cex (B) 2

1

(2x y)= x2 + 1 +

2xCe

(C)yx2

1 = x + 1 +

2xCe (D) 21

(2x y)= x2 + 1 + C



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MATHEMATICS


48. If f : [1, 5] [10, 2] is an invertible function and g(x) is inverse function of f(x), then range of

212

log g(x) 2(g(x)) 3 is

(A)

11log,83log

2

1

2

1 (B)

1,38log

2

1 (C)

1,38log

2

1 (D) [2, 1]

49. If sin-1 xx x

2 3

2 4....... + cos-1 x

x x24 6

2 4

....... =

2for 0 < | x | < 2 , then x equals

(A) 1/2 (B) 1 (C) 1/2 (D) 1

SECTION - II

True & False Statement TypeThis Section Contains 3 questions. Each questions contains 3 or 4 statements S

1, S

2, S

3or S

4. Each


1, S

2, S

3or S



2, S

3or S


50. Consider the following statements :

S1

: It is possible that for a triangle inradius = 4 and circumradius = 7.

S2

: It is possible to have four circles to touch three non concurrent and non parallel lines.

S3

: There always exists director circle to hyperbola.

State, in order, whether S1, S

2, S

3are true or false

(A) TTF (B) FTT (C) TTT (D) FTF


S1

: A straight line can not have more than one set of direction cosines.

S2

: The range of the function f(x) = (sin1 x) sin x is

2,0

S3 : If log10x = 2.314 then characteristics is 2


2, S

3are true or false

(A) FFT (B) FFF (C) TFT (D) FTT


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MATHEMATICS



S1

: Equation of director circle of 1b

y

a

x2

2

2

2

is x2 y2 = a2 + b2.

S2

: If f : [a, b] [a, b] be a continuous increasing function, then there exists c [a, b] such that f(c) = c

S3

: If A, B, C are angles of a triangle, then maximum value of sin A + sin B + sin C is2

33


2, S

3are true or false

(A) FTF (B) FTT (C) FFT (D) TFT

SECTION - III

Comprehension TypeThis section contains 2 paragraphs. Based upon each paragraph, there are 2 questions. Each question has4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.


Counting by critical paranthesis methodSuppose we have to arrange n-pairs of parenthesis in such a way that every arrangement is matchedi.e., number of left paranthesis are always greater than or equal to number of right paranthesis in anylength of the chain from start.

S is the number of ways of arranging n - r ight and n - left paranthesis in a row =!n!n

!n2.

Let T be the arrangement of (n + 1) right and (n 1) left paranthesis =)!1n()!1n(

!)n2(

.

It can be shown that set of mismatched arrangements of paranthesis in S has bijective relation withthe set of arrangements of T.

Since the set of mismatched arrangements in S has bijective relation with the set of arrangements in T.

number of the mismatched arrangements in S =)!1n()!1n(

!n2

Number of matched arrangements in S = !n!n

!n2 )!1n()!1n(

!n2

=!)1n(!n

!n2


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MATHEMATICS


53. The number of ways in which 4 pairs of paranthesis be arranged so that every arrangementis matched is:

(A) 3 (B)5

C48

(C) 8C4

(D) 8C5

54. If a stamp vendor sells tickets of 1 rupee each and there are 3 persons having 1 rupee coin and 3 having2 rupee coin standing in a row. Then the probability that stamp vendor do not run out of change if he

does not have any money to start with is (assume each person will purchase one stamp)

(A)4

1(B)

2

1(C)

4

3(D) None of these


The curve which is touched by each member of a series of lines, which are all drawn to satisfy some given

condition is called the envelope of these lines.

The envelope of the straight line x + my + 1 = 0 where the quantities and m are connected by the relation

a2 + bm2 + 2gm + 2f+ 2hm+ c = 0 can be obtained by removing m or from the condition with the help

of the line x + my + 1 = 0. This gives us a quadratic in one of the parameters or m. Further make

discriminant of that quadratic equal to zero to get required envelope.

55. If 2m + 2 3m2 + 1 = 0, then the variable line x + my 1 = 0 always touches a fixed

(A) circle (B) parabola (C) ellipse (D) hyperbola

56. The locus of the points from which two perpendicular tangents can be drawn to the curve obtained in the

above question is

(A) x2 + y2 = 8 (B) x = 1 (C) x2 + y2 = 2 (D) x = 0


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MATHEMATICS


SECTION - IV

Integer Answer Type

This section contains 7 questions. The answer to each of the questions isa double digit integer, ranging from 00 to 99. The appropriate bubble belowthe respective question number in the ORS have to be darkened.

57. Consider a family of circles passing through two fixed points A(3, 7) and B(6, 5). The chord in which thecircle x2 + y2 4x 6y 3 = 0 cuts each member of family of circles passes through a fixed point (a, b).Find the numerical value of a + 3b.

58. If eccentricity of ellipse 1a4a

y

a

x2

2

2

2

is less than2

1, and complete set of values of a is

),(, , then find the value of | + |

59. In a town of 10,000 families it was found that 40% families buy newspaper A, 20% families buy newspaper Band 10% families buy newspaper C, 5% families buy A and B, 3 % buy B and C, 4% buy A and C and 2%

families buy all the three news papers. If probability of families to buy only newspaper B is100

, then find the

value of .


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MATHEMATICS


60. If Cn Cn2 + Cn1Cn3 + Cn2Cn4 + ...+ C3C1 + C2C0 =2nCn where Ci =

nCi , N, then find the valueof

61. If f(x) = 432

32

xx2)x1(nx2

xcxbxxsina

, when x 0 and f(x) is continuous at x = 0, find value of 200 f(0).

62. If 3 xxdx

= xa + b )x(3 + )x(c 6 + d n )1x(

6 + e, e being arbitrary constant then find the

value of 20a + b + c + d.

63. If equation of the plane through the straight line2

1x =

3

2y

=

5

zand perpendicular to the plane

x y + z + 2 = 0 is ax by + cz + 4 = 0, then find the value of a2 + b2 + c


23/23

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paper-1 jp-jf mt-2(jee advance) 30-12-2012 code-0 revised

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