objective questions on mwt-02

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1 of 37 | Page OBJECTIVE questions on MWT-02 1. Work study is concerned with a) improving present method and finding standard time (b) motivation of workers (c) improving production capability (d) improving production planning and control 2. Basic tool in work study is (a) graph paper b) Process chart. (c) Planning chart. (d) stop watch 3. What does symbol ‘O’ imply in work study (a) operation b) inspection (c) transport d) delay/temporary storage 4. What does symbol ‘D’ imply in work study a) inspection b) transport c) delay/temporary storage d) permanent storage 5. What does symbol ‘V’ employ in work study a) operation (b) inspection c) delay/ temporary Storage d) permanent storage 6. Material handling in automobile industry is done by (a) overhead crane b) trolley c) belt conveyor d) all of the above 7. String diagram is used when (a) team of workers is working at a place b) material handling is to be done (c) idle time is to be reduced d) all of the above

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Page 1: OBJECTIVE questions on MWT-02

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OBJECTIVE questions on MWT-02

1. Work study is concerned with

a) improving present method and finding standard time

(b) motivation of workers

(c) improving production capability

(d) improving production planning and control

2. Basic tool in work study is

(a) graph paper

b) Process chart.

(c) Planning chart.

(d) stop watch

3. What does symbol ‘O’ imply in work study

(a) operation

b) inspection

(c) transport

d) delay/temporary storage

4. What does symbol ‘D’ imply in work study

a) inspection

b) transport

c) delay/temporary storage

d) permanent storage

5. What does symbol ‘V’ employ in work study

a) operation

(b) inspection

c) delay/ temporary Storage

d) permanent storage

6. Material handling in automobile industry is done by

(a) overhead crane

b) trolley

c) belt conveyor

d) all of the above

7. String diagram is used when

(a) team of workers is working at a place

b) material handling is to be done

(c) idle time is to be reduced

d) all of the above

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8. Work study is most useful

a) where production activities are involved

(b) in judging the rating of machines

(c) in improving industrial relations

(d) in judging the output of a man and improving it

9. Micro motion study is

a) enlarged view of motion study

b) analysis of one stage of motion study

c) minute and detailed motion study

d) subdivision of an operation into therbligs and their analysis

10. In micro motion study, therbligs is described by

(a) a symbol

b) an event

c) an activity

d) standard symbol and color.

11. The allowed time for a job equals standard time plus

a) policy allowance

b) interference allowance

c) process allowance

d) learning allowance

12. Micro motion study involves following number of fundamental hand

motions

(a) 8

b) 12

c) 16

d) 20

13. The standard time for a job is

a) total work content

b) base time + relaxation time

c) total work content + basic time

d) total work content + delay contingency allowance

14. Work study is done with the help of

a) process chart

b) material handling

c) stop watch

d) all of the above

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15. Work study consists of

a. a) Effective use of plant and equipment

b. b) Effective use of human effort

c. c) Evaluation of human work

d. d) All of the above e.

16 Work study examines

a. a)Method

b. b)duration of work

c. c)both ‘a’ and ‘b’

d. d)None of the above e.

17 Work study is also recognised as

a. a)Time study

b. b)Motion study

c. c)both ‘a’ and ‘b’

d. d)None of the above e.

18 The following factor(s) must be considered while selecting the work for

method study

a. a)Economic considerations

b. b)Technical considerations

c. c)Human reactions

d. d)All of the above e.

19 In process charts, the symbol used for storage is

a. a)Circle

b. b)Square

c. c)Arrow

d. d)Triangle e.

20 Delay occurs when

a. a)someone stops the process

b. b)product wait for next event (operation)

c. c)both ‘a’ and ‘b’

d. d)None of the above e.

21 The following is (are) the type(s) of flow process chart (i) Man type (ii)

Material type

i. (iii) Equipment type a. a)only i

b. b)i& ii

c. c)ii & iii

d. d)All of the above e.

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22 -Two hand process chart is commonly used for

a. a)repetitive operations

b. b)short operations

c. c)both ‘a’ and ‘b’

d. d)none of the above e.

23 As per principle of motion economy

a. a)Motion of arms should be symmetrical and in opposite direction

b. b)both the hand should not remain idle except during rest period

c. c)both hands should start and complete their work simultaneously

d)All of the above

24 CPM is the

a)Time oriented technique

b)Event oriented technique

c)Activity oriented technique

d)Target oriented technique

25 PERT is the

a)Time oriented technique

b)Event oriented technique

c)Activity oriented technique

d)Target oriented technique

26 Objective of Incentive scheme

a) Improvement in efficiency of work.

b) Provide opportunities for hard workers to earn more.

c) Provide better utilization of available resources.

d) All of the above

27 In incentive scheme …………..is the yard stick for measuring work

a)Time

b)Number of days

c)Integrity of worker

d)Intelligence of worker

28 Allowed times are so fixed that a normal ability workman may earn

…………………….. bonus over his basic wages in resp. of period spent

on piece work jobs.

a)33.33

b)50.00

c)49.99

d)May vary

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29 Allowed time includes all allowances such as

a)Fatigue

b)general handling, and gauging

c)Idle time

d)All of the above

30 The first formal incentive scheme was introduced in

a)CLW

b)DLW

c)DMW

d)RCF

31 The first formal incentive scheme was introduced in

a) December 1954.

b) January 1954.

c) May 1954.

d) August 1954.

32 The Incentive Scheme is based on the concept that an ordinary worker

while working under non- Incentive conditions is assumed to be working

at the

a) Rating of 80 units.

b) Rating of 60 units.

c) Rating of 70 units.

d) Rating of 75 units.

33 The Incentive Scheme is based on the concept that an ordinary worker

while working under Incentive conditions is assumed to be working at the

Rating of 80 units.

Rating of 60 units.

Rating of 70 units.

Rating of 75 units.

34. In Incentive scheme the ceiling limit of profit is fixed ………….of the time

taken in each operation.

a) 40%

b) 33.33%

c) 50%

d) 80%

35 To calculate incentive allowed time of …………….are considered in a

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month.

a)300 hours

b)400 hours

c)350hours

d)200 hours

36 ……………..Workers those are engaged in work which can be accessed

through time studies.

a)Essential direct workers

b)Direct workers

c)Indirect workers

d)All of the above

37 Incentive scheme is not applicable on

a)Essential direct workers

b)Direct workers

c)Indirect workers

d)All of the above

38 Idle time can be booked on account of the followingreasons:

a) No power.

b) Machine repair.

c)Lack of material

d) All of the above

39 In Job card there are

a)30 sheets

b)25 sheets

c)20 sheets

d)40 sheets

40 ………………… allowance is added to all machining operations where

Gauging is necessary.

a)5%

b)10%

c)15%

d)7.5%

41 The purpose of Job Evaluation is to determine

a)Worth of a job in relation to other jobs

b)Time duration of a job

c)Expenses incurred to make a job

d)None of the above

42 Job Evaluation tries to make a systematic comparison between

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a)Workers

b)Jobs

c)Machines

d)Departments

43 Basis of Job Evaluation is

a)Job design

b)Job ranking

c)Job analysis

d)Any of the above

44 The _________ provides the essential information on which each job is evaluated.

a)Job ranking

b)Job enrichment

c)Job description

d)Job enlargement

45 A ______ is a written record of the duties, responsibilities and conditions of the job.

a)Job ranking

b)Job enrichment

c)Job description

d)Job enlargement

46 The important objectives of a job evaluation programme

a) Establishment of sound wage differentials between jobs.

b) Maintenance of a consistent wage policy.

c) Installation of an effective means of wage control.

d) All of the above

47 The following is not a job evaluation method.

a)Factor comparison method

b)Point Method

c)Ranking method

d)Assessment method

48 In which of the following methods Jobs can be arranged according to the relative difficulty in performing them.

a)Ranking method

b)Point method

c)Factor comparison method

d)Classification method

49 Job Evaluation is carried on by

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a)Groups

b)Individuals

c)Both (A) and (B)

d)None of these

50 The Ranking method is best suited for

a)Complex organizations

b)Large organizations

c)Small organizations

d)Any of the above

51 Merit rating is the method of determining worth of

a) Individual employee

b)Group

c) individual section in a workshop

d)Machine

52 Material handling and plant location is analysed by

a)GANTT CHART

b)IN CHART

c)TRAVEL CHART

d)Any one of the above

53 All of the following would most likely use a job order costing system

except:

a) An architectural firm

b) A dental practice.

c) An auto repair shop.

d) A small appliance maker.

54 Which of the following costs is not charged to Work in Process in a

normal cost system?

a) Actual overhead

b) Actual direct materials

c) Actual direct labour

d) Estimated indirect labour

55 Which of the following product costs would be charged to Work in

Process assuming a standard costing system?

a) Actual direct material costs

b) Actual overhead costs

c) Actual direct labour costs

d) Applied overhead costs

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56 Which of the following serves at a subsidiary ledger for the Work in

Process account?

a)Standard cost card

b)Material requisition form

c)Job requisition form

d)Job order cost sheet

57 Which of the following is not a source document used in job order costing

systems?

a)Cost of production report

b)Employee time sheet

c)Job cost sheet

d)Material requisition form

58 Actual costs are:

a)the costs incurred

b)budgeted costs

c)estimated costs

d)forecasted costs

59 Budgeted costs are:

a)the costs incurred this year

b)the costs incurred last year

c)planned or forecasted costs

d)competitor’s costs

60 All of the following are true EXCEPT that indirect costs:

a)may be included in prime costs

b)are not easily traced to products or services

c)vary with the selection of the cost object

d)may be included in manufacturing overhead

61 Actual costs are:

a)the costs incurred

b)budgeted costs

c)estimated costs

d)forecasted costs

62 Which of the following items is not included in annual inventory carrying

costs?

a)Inventory storage cost

b)Inventory purchase cost

c)Insurance on inventory

d)Property taxes on inventory

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63 When the level of safety stock is increased:

a) Lead time will increase.

b) Carrying costs will decrease.

c) The frequency of stock outs will decrease.

d) Lead time will decrease.

64 Indirect manufacturing costs:

a)can be traced to the product that created the costs

b)can be easily identified with the cost object

c)generally include the cost of material and the cost of labour

d)may include both variable and fixed costs

65 Manufacturing overhead costs are also referred to as:

a)indirect manufacturing costs

b)prime costs

c)period costs

d)direct material

66 A ________ is a grouping of individual indirect cost items.

a)cost allocation base

b)cost assignment

c)cost pool

d)job-costing system

67 ________ costing is used by a business to price unique products for

different jobs.

a)Actual

b)Job

c)Process

d)Traditional

68 In a job-costing system, a manufacturing unit typically uses an indirect-

cost rate to estimate the ________ allocated to a job.

a)direct materials

b)direct labor

c)manufacturing overhead costs

d)total costs

69 A job-cost sheet details the:

a)direct materials purchased and paid

b)direct labour costs incurred

c)indirect labour costs incurred

d)actual indirect overhead costs incurred

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70 In which type of test the capillary action principle is used?

a)Probe test

b)Bend liquid test

c)Dye penetrate test

d)None of the above

71 Non-destructive testing is used to determine

a)location of defects

b)chemical composition

c)corrosion of metal

d)All of these

72 Which among the following is not a type of Non-destructive testing?

a)compression test

b)visual testing

c)ultrasonic testing

d)eddy current testing

73 Identify the type of destructive testing

a)Radiographic test

b)Dye penetrate test

c)Creep test

d)All of the above

74 Which among the following is the last step in magnetic particle test

method?

a)observation and inspection

b)circular magnetization

c)demagnetization

d)Magnetization

75 Which of the following statements is/are true for ultrasonic test?

a)Equipment used for ultrasonic testing is portable

b)Complicated shapes can be easily scanned

c)Waves generated are health hazardous

d)All the above statements are true

76 Which test is used to determine dimensions of any object?

a)Ultrasonic test

b)Torsion test

c)Eddy current test

d)All of these tests can be used to determine dimensions of any object

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77 Which test can be performed without skilled labour?

a)Dye penetrate testing

b)Visual testing

c)Ultrasonic testing

d)Magnetic particle test

78 Which amongst the following is a type of destructive testing

a)Radiographic test

b)Dye penetrate test

c)Creep test

d)Visual testing

79 Which among the following is the last step in magnetic particle test

method?

a)Observation and inspection

b)Circular magnetization

c)Demagnetization

d)Magnetization

80 (Metallurgical & chemical) Directorate RDSO is headed by

a)Director (M&C)

b)Executive Director (M&C)

c)Dy. Director (M&C)

d)Any one of the above

81 CMT labs tests-

a)metals, alloys, paints,

b)fuels,

c)lubricants, rubber, plastics composites,

d)All of the above

82 CMT labs imparts training to Railway personnel in the field of Non-

Destructive Testing, Welding Technology

a)Corrosion Prevention

b)failure analysis

c)All of the above

83 M&C Directorate, is broadly divided into ………. Disciplines

a)Two

b)Four

c)Five

d)Six

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84 Failed components, from Zonal railways are sent to …………. For

investigation

a)CMT labs

b)C&M Directorate RDSO

c)Any one of the above

d)None of these

85 In zonal railways CMT lab is headed by

a)Dy. CCMT

b)CCMT

c)Dy. Quality manager

d)CMS

86 Accreditation body for CMT labs is

a)ISO 9000

b)ISO 14000

c)NABL

d)None of the above

87 The responsibility for The technical operation of the concerned lab in

CMT lab is of

a)Dy. CCMT

b)CCMT

c)Dy. Quality manager

d)CMS

88 LAB ASSISTANT cum Technical Assistant:

a) Assisting Technical Manager.

b) Assisting in carrying out the testing.

c) Recording results and Maintaining the records.

d) All of the above

89. The standard wheel gauge of passenger BG coaching stock is –

a)1602 mm

b)1601 mm

c)1600 mm

d)1598 mm

90 The maximum wheel gauge of passenger BG coaching stock is -

a)1600 mm

b)1601 mm

c)1598.5mm

d)1602 mm

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91 Length over body of ICF BG coaches is –

a)2334 mm

b)2310 mm

c)21337 mm

d)22132 mm

92 Rigid wheelbase of ICF BG trolley is –

a)2896 mm

b)2803 mm

c)2990 mm

d)2837 mm

93 The other name of pilot valve is –

a)PESAD

b)PEASD

c)PDEAS

d)EPASD

94 Transportation codes of vestibule second class 3- tier sleeper coach fitted

with self generating electrical equipment is –

a)WGSCNA

b)WGSCN

c)MGSCN

d)GSMGCN

95 What is the Transportation code of vestibule III class two-tier sleeper

coach fitted with self-generating electrical equipment and ladies

compartment?

a)WCBSCZA

b)WGSCNY

c)WGSCWY

d)YZZFS

96 What is the maximum permissible clearance between brake gear pin and

bushes?

a)0.5 mm

b)1.0 mm

c)1.5 mm

d)2.0 mm

97 In ICF coach, the load transmission takes place through -

a)Center pivot

b)Bogie

c)Side bearer

d)Wheel

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98 The ‘L’ type composite brake block should be changed, if worn out

beyond-

a)10 mm

b)15 mm

c)20 mm

d)22 mm

99 The ‘K’ type composite brake block should be changed, if worn out

beyond-

a)10 mm

b)12 mm

c)20 mm

d)22 mm

100 Yellow strips on end body of ICF indicate is –

a)Antitalescopic

b)Dual brake

c)In built air brake

d)Non-Antitalescopic

101 What defect is detecting UST test?

a)Internal crack

b)external crack

c)Air flow crack

d)None of the above

102 What is Codal life of steel bodied coaches (Including dining / pantry cars)

-

a)40 years

b)30 years

c)25 years

d)22 years

103 Codal life of light utilisation categories of coaches is -

a)40 years

b)30 years

c)25 years

d)20 years

104 The standard thickness of compensating rings is -

a)2 mm

b)4 mm

c)6 mm

d)8 mm

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105 Gross weight of the WGSCZAC coach is -

a)54.98 t

b)56.36 t

c)59.22 t

d)52.23t

106 Tare weight of the WGSCWAC coach is -

a)49.75 t

b)49.30 t

c)50.00 t

d)46.50 t

107 The length over buffer of ICF coach is -

a)22297 mm

b)22299 mm

c)21996 mm

d)21030 mm

108 Over all width of ICF coach is -

a)3251 mm

b)3250 mm

c)3245 mm

d)3991 mm

109 The height from rail level of ICF/ RCF coach is -

a)3886 mm

b)4025 mm

c)3991 mm

d)3251 mm

110 In ICF coach, replace Headstock if the thickness is reduce more than -

a)2 mm

b)8 mm

c)4 mm

d)6 mm

111 At what schedule the painting of lavatories from inside is done –

a)‘B’ schedules

b)‘A’ schedule

c)‘C’ schedule

d)Special schedule

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112 Re painting of coaching stock as per “C” schedule is done at every

a)3.0 year

b)3.5 year

c)4.5 year

d)5.0 year

113 How many emergency windows provided in AC ICF coaches are –

a)Two

b)Three

c)Four

d)Five

114 What is the interval of schedule ‘A’ examination of a ICF coach?

a)One month ±3 days

b)Two months ± 3 days

c)Three months ± 6 days

d)None of the above

115 What do you mean by FRP?

a)Fibre recalling panel

b)Fibre reinforced plastic

c)First reduction plastic

d)Fine reinforced panel

116 The maximum standard buffer height above rail level to center of buffer is

a)1085 mm

b)1100 mm

c)1105 mm

d)1030 mm

117 The minimum permissible buffer height above rail level to center of buffer

is –

a)1105 mm

b)1145 mm

c)1115 mm

d)1030 mm

118 Standard buffer projection from Headstock is –

a)650 mm

b)635 mm

c)620 mm

d)660 mm

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119 Minimum Permissible buffer projection from Headstock is –

a)635 mm

b)605 mm

c)590 mm

d)584 mm

120 What is the distance between two buffers at one end?

a)1952 mm

b)1976 mm

c)1956 mm

d)1992 mm

121 What is the maximum buffer plunger stroke in mm?

a)127.0 mm

b)129.0 mm

c)131.0 mm

d)133.0 mm

122 What should be the minimum buffer height after POH?

a)1050 mm

b)1060 mm

c)1080 mm

d)1090 mm

123 The ICF buffer plunger is made of –

a)Mild steel

b)Cost iron

c)Cast steel

d)Aluminium Alloy

124 In loaded condition, the minimum permissible height of buffer in ICF

coach is –

a)1090 mm

b)1105 mm

c)1030 mm

d)None of the above

125 The new thickness of a draft pad in ICF coach is -

a)30.0 mm

b)32.0 mm

c)33.0 mm

d)34.0 mm

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126 The condemning thickness of draft pad in ICF coaches?

a)30.0 mm

b)32.0 mm

c)33.0 mm

d)34.0 mm

127 What is the slot of draft key in drawbar hook in ICF coach?

a)36.0 mm

b)37.0 mm

c)38.0 mm

d)39.0 mm

128 What is the new thickness of draft key in ICF coaches?

a)30.0 mm

b)36.0 mm

c)39.0 mm

d)41.0 mm

129 The draw & buffing force transmission in coach is -

a)Centre pivot

b)Bogie

c)Side bearer

d)Wheel

130 Name the distance between axle box top and axle box crown bolt is

a)Clearance ‘A’

b)clearance ‘B’

c)clearance ‘C’

d)None of the above

131 Hauling capacity of HT type CBC is -

a)7000 ton

b)8000 ton

c)9000 ton

d)10000 ton

132 What thickness of hard packing ring used for 889 to 864 mm average

trade diameter of two wheel sets of bogie in adjustment of buffer height?

a)10.0 mm

b)12.0 mm

c)13.0 mm

d)20.0 mm

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133 What is the weakest link of the ‘H’ type tight lock center buffer coupler?

a)Draft gear

b)Knuckle

c)Lock

d)Yoke pin

134 The minimum tensile stress of ‘H’ type tight lock center buffer coupler is –

a)6560 Kg/cm2

b)6112 Kg/cm2

c)6327 Kg/cm2

d)6720 Kg/cm2

135 Minimum tensile proof load of ‘H’ type tight lock center buffer coupler is –

a)2000 KN

b)1000KN

c)500 KN

d)1500 KN

136 Minimum compressive proof load of ‘H’ type tight lock center buffer

coupler is –

a)2000 KN

b)1000 KN

c)500 KN

d)1500 KN

137 Destruction tube is provided inside the –

a)Buffer

b)Head stock

c)under sole bar

d)None

138 The top & bottom flange thickness of 16.25 tons axle load bogie is –

a)14.0 mm

b)16.0 mm

c)15.0 mm

d)20.0 mm

139 The top and bottom flange thickness of 13 tons load bogie is –

a)14.0 mm

b)12.0 mm

c)15.0 mm

d)20.0 mm

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140 High speed ICF coach condemning flange thickness is –

a)14.0 mm

b)13.0 mm

c)22.0 mm

d)10.0 mm

141 Lateral movements of wheels are controlled by –

a)Axle Guide

b)Journal center

c)roller bearing

d)Dash pot

142 Bogie wheelbase of ICF/ RCF all coil bogies are -

a)2896 mm

b)2986 mm

c)2886 mm

d)2997 mm

143 What is the new wheel diameter of ICF/ RCF coach is –

a)910 mm

b)915 mm

c)930 mm

d)925 mm

144 Min shop issue size of ICF solid wheel is –

a)837 mm

b)870 mm

c)854 mm

d)8746 mm

145 Condemning flange thickness of other then superfast new BG wheel is

a)28.0 mm

b)20.0 mm

c)16.0 mm

d)14.0 mm

146 The radius of the root of flange of new BG wheel is –

a)14.0 mm

b)16.0 mm

c)18.0 mm

d)19.0 mm

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147 The thickness of tyre at tread in the center of wheel on BG coach is

a)63.50 mm

b)65.50 mm

c)57.50 mm

d)58.50 mm

148 Condemning height of flange on tread on BG wheel is –

a)30.0 mm

b)32.0 mm

c)34.0 mm

d)35.0 mm

149 Condemning size of radius at the top of flange (Sharp flange) of BG main

line coach wheel is –

a)8.0 mm

b)5.0 mm

c)10.0 mm

d)12.0 mm

150 Clearance between brake block and wheel tread of ICF coach is –

a)5.0 mm

b)6.25 mm

c)6.75 mm

d)5.75 mm

151 Total length of axle is

a)2310 + 0.5/-0.0mm

b)2316 + 0.5/-0.0mm

c)2318 + 0.5/-0.0mm

d)2320 + 0.5/-0.0mm

152 After POH, the lowest permissible wheel diameter for a coach is –

a)Not less than 900 mm

b)Not less than 860 mm

c)Not less than 837 mm

d)Not less than 826 mm

153 Capacity of air reservoir (AR) of the ICF coach is –

a) 150 Lit.

b) 200 Lit

c) 250 Lit.

d) 300 Lit.

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154 In the passenger train, the diameter of brake pipe & feed pipe is –

a)20.0 mm

b)25.0 mm

c)28.0 mm

d)30.0 mm

155 How many angle cocks are provided in a vehicle in twin pipe system?

a)Two

b)Three

c)Four

d)Six

156 What is the diameter of branch pipe attached to PEAV?

a)15.0 mm

b)25.0 mm

c)30.0 mm

d)20.0 mm

157 What is the diameter of branch pipe in between PEAV to PEASD?

a)10.0 mm

b)25.0 mm

c)30.0 mm

d)20.0 mm

158 During charging position, Air pressure in Auxiliary reservoir is –

a)6.5 Kg/cm2

b)6.1 Kg/cm2

c)6.0 Kg/cm2

d)None of the above

159 During full service application, Brake pipe pressure is dropped to –

a)2.0 Kg/cm2

b)1.0 Kg/cm2

c)3.0 Kg/cm2

d)1.5 Kg/cm2

160 What is the diameter of bogie mounted brake cylinder?

a)220 mm

b)210 mm

c)202 mm

d)200 mm

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161 The rate of air leakage in single car testing should not be more then

a)0.02 Kg/cm2/min

b)1.0 Kg/cm2/min

c)0.2 Kg/cm2/min

d)0.1 Kg/cm2/min

162 During release after full service application, release time of Mail/Express

coach is –

a)5 to 10 Sec

b)10 to 15 Sec

c)15 to 20 Sec

d)20 to 30 Sec

163 Check valve with choke allows air from –

a)BP to FP

b)FP to CR

c)FP to AR

d)AR to BC

164 When brake is manually released by QRV, which pressure will be vent

out?

a)BC pressure

b)AR pressure

c)BP pressure

d)CR pressure

165 In coaching trains, auxiliary reservoir is charged to -

a)5.0 Kg/cm2

b)6.0 Kg/cm2

c)4.8 Kg/cm2

d)5.5 Kg/cm2

166 Brake pipe throughout the length of train is charged with compressed air

at -

a)6.0 Kg/cm2

b)5.8 Kg/cm2

c)5.0 Kg/cm2

d)4.8 Kg/cm2

167 Reduction in BP pressure for minimum application is -

a)1.0 to1.5 Kg/cm2

b)0.8 to 1.0 Kg/cm2

c)0.5 to 0.8 Kg/cm2

d)0.1 to 05 Kg/cm2

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168 The colour of brake pipe in coaching trains is -

a)Black

b)Yellow

c)Green

d)White

169 The colour of feed pipe in coaching trains is -

a)Black

b)Yellow

c)Green

d)White

170 What type of isolating cocks are provided in the passenger coaches

a)Ball type

b)Wall type

c)Done type

d)C3W type

171 When DV is working condition the position of DV handle is –

a)Horizontal

b)Inclined

c)Vertical

d)Parallel

172 DV is directly mounted on -

a)AR

b)Brake pipe

c)Brake cylinder

d)Common pipe bracket

173 In air brake system, brake should apply when the rate of drop of air

pressure in BP is –

a)0.6 Kg/cm2/min in six sec

b)0.3 Kg/cm2 in one sec

c)0.4 Kg/cm2 in one sec

d)0.1 Kg/cm2 in one sec

174 In air brake system, brake should not apply when the rate of drop of air

pressure in BP is

a)0.3 Kg/cm2 in 60 sec

b)0.4 Kg/cm2 in 4 sec

c)0.5 Kg/cm2 in 30 sec

d)0.8 Kg/cm2 in 8 sec

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175 What do you mean of SCTR?

a)Single Car test rubber

b)Sliding car test rig

c)Single car test rig

d)None of the above

176 BC vent plug is used for -

a)Brake application

b)Air leakage to stop

c)Brake release

d)Air pressure maintenance

177 The MR pressure of engine should be

a)8.0 to 10.0 Kg/cm2

b)6.0 to 8.0 Kg/cm2

c)10.0 to 12.0 Kg/cm2

d)12.0 to 15.0 Kg/cm2

178 Under lavatory portion, what is diameter of compression tube?

a)85.0 mm

b)80.0 mm

c)65.0 mm

d)70.0 mm

179 What is amount of the oil per side bearer in ICF coaches?

a)1.2 litre

b)1.6 litre

c)2.5 litre

d)2.2 litre

180 With which component lateral and longitudinal guides of ICF bogie is

mounted?

a)Dash pot

b)side bearer

c)CBC

d)Spring

181 What is the distance between side bearers of ICF coach?

a)1560 mm

b)1590 mm

c)1600 mm

d)1610 mm

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182 What is the oil level in dashpot?

a)50.0 mm

b)40.0 mm

c)75.0 mm

d)90.0 mm

183 What is the amount of oil per dashpot in 40-mm depth in modified guide

arrangement?

a)1.6 litter

b)2.5 litter

c)2.2 litter

d)1.9 litter

184 In ICF & RCF bogie, the total height of primary spring and compensating

ring should not exceed –

a)285 mm

b)290 mm

c)295 mm

d)300 mm

185 The minimum clearance between the axle box using lugs and their safety

straps is -

a)36.0 mm

b)40.0 mm

c)44.0 mm

d)43.0 mm

186 The variation in all four-corner height of the bogie must be less then or

equal to -

a)5.0. mm

b)10.0 mm

c)15.0 mm

d)18.0 mm

187 How many numbers of holes in guide cap hole in ICF/RCF bogie -

a)5

b)7

c)8

d)9

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188 Center pivot pin does not transmit any -

a)Horizontal load

b)Tractive force

c)Braking force

d)Vertical force

189 New dimension of side bearers wearing plate is -

a)10 mm

b)12 mm

c)14 mm

d)16 mm

190 What is shop renewal dimension of side bearer wearing plate?

a)10 mm

b)9 mm

c)11 mm

d)8 mm

191 Condemning size of side bearer wearing plate is -

a)10 mm

b)9 mm

c)8.5 mm

d)9.5 mm

192 Newly dimension of side bearer wearing pieces is -

a)45.0 mm

b)44.0 mm

c)43.0 mm

d)42.0 mm

193 Shop renewal size of side bearer wearing piece is -

a)45.0 mm

b)44.50 mm

c)43.50 mm

d)42.50 mm

194 What is the condemning size of side bearer wearing piece?

a)45.0 mm

b)44.0 mm

c)43.0 mm

d)42.0 mm

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195 Length of the anchor link is -

a)445± 1mm

b)450± 1mm

c)451± 1mm

d)455± 1mm

196 Wear limit of BSS brackets is -

a)0.5 mm

b)1.0 mm

c)1.5 mm

d)2.0 mm

197 One of the function of Anchor links?

a)To joint bolster and side frame

b)To prevent rational movement of bolster

c)To connect with upper plank and lower plank

d)None of the above

198 What quantity of grease filled per axle box of other than SKF make

bearing?

a)1.75 kg

b)2.00 kg

c)2.25 kg

d)2.5 kg

199 LHB coaches are provided with what type of bearing?

a)Spherical type

b)Plain bearing

c)CTRB

d)None of the above

200 What type of roller bearing is fitted in ICF bogie wheel?

a) Single row self align spherical roller bearing.

b) Double row self align cylindrical roller bearing.

c) Double row self align spherical roller bearing.

d) Single row self align cylindrical roller bearing.

201 Manually operated pilot vent valve is –

a)PEASD

b)PEAV

c)ACP

d)PEAMTD

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202 The full name of PEAV is –

a)Power energy valve

b)Passenger entrance valve

c)Passenger emergency alarm valve

d)Pipe emergency valve

203 What is co lour code of ‘A’ group coil spring is

a)Yellow

b)Green

c)oxford blue

d)White

204 What is co lour code of ‘B’ group coil spring is -

a)Oxford blue

b)White

c)Green

d)Yellow

205 What is co lour code of ‘C’ group coil spring is -

a)Oxford blue

b)White

c)Green

d)Yellow

206 The average coefficient of friction of composite brake block is –

a)0.20

b)0.25

c)0.30

d)0.35

207 Full form of WRA is –

a)Water raising apparatus

b)White race assistance

c)Water recording agreement

d)None of the above

208 Length over body of LHB coach is –

a)21770 mm

b)21337 mm

c)23540 mm

d)25540 mm

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209 Maximum width of LHB coach is –

a)3250 mm

b)3240 mm

c)3245 mm

d)3325 mm

210 Height over roof of LHB coach is –

a)4039 mm

b)4025 mm

c)4026 mm

d)4047 mm

211 What is the length over buffer of LHB coach?

a)2444 mm

b)2424 mm

c)22100 mm

d)24000 mm

212 Rigid wheelbase of LHB coach is –

a)2560 mm

b)2896 mm

c)2444 mm

d)2440 mm

213 What is the condemning limit of LHB wheel diameter?

a)813 mm

b)839 mm

c)845 mm

d)855 mm

214 Which type of Roller bearing is used in LHB coaches?

a) Spherical Roller bearing.

b) Plain Roller bearing.

c) Cartridge Tapered Roller bearing.

d) None of these

215 What is the thickness of brake disc.?

a)100 mm

b)110 mm

c)105 mm

d)108 mm

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216 What is diameter of wheel axle of LHB Coach?

a)172 mm

b)170 mm

c)153 mm

d)165 mm

217 What is the name of shock absorber connected between bogie and car

body?

a)Primary

b)Secondary

c) Yaw.

d) None of these.

218 Most important condition for coupling of two coaches is -

a)Both couplers should be in alignment.

b)Both couplers should be within gathering range.

c)Both a & b

d)None of above

219 Approx. “Riding Index” of LHB Coach -

a)3.5

b)3.8

c)2.5

d)3.0

220 Trip Maintenance Schedule i.e. D1 of LHB Coach is done -

a)7±1 days

b)15 days

c)Every Trip

d)30 days

221 D2 Maintenance Schedule of LHB Coach is done -

a)30 days ± 1days

b)30 days ± 3days

c)30 days ± 5days

d)30 days ± 7days

222 ‘SS-I’ (Shop Schedule-1) of LHB coach is done -

a)1 year

b)2 years

c)1.5 year/ 6 lakes Kms earned whichever is earlier

d)3 years/ 6 lakes Kms earned whichever is earlier

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223 ‘SS-II’ of LHB coach is done -

a)1 year

b)2 years

c)1.5 year/ 6 lakes Kms earned whichever is earlier

d)3 years/ 12 lakes Kms earned whichever is earlier

224 On KM basis ‘SS- I’ of LHB coach is done -

a)5 lakh

b)6 lakh

c)9 lakh

d)12 lakh

225 On KM basis ‘SS -II’ of LHB coach is done -

a)5 lakh

b)6 lakh

c)12 lakh

d)24 lakh

226 ‘SS -III’ of LHB coaches is done -

a)5 years

b)4 years

c)3 years/ 12 lakes Kms earned whichever is earlier

d)6 years/ 24 lakes Kms earned whichever is earlier

227 ‘IOH’ of LHB coaches is done -

a)18 months

b)12 months

c)9 months

d)14 months

228 What is the wheel base of LHB bogie?

a)2440 mm

b)2696 mm

c)2560 mm

d)2570 mm

229 Thickness of Roof sheets of LHB coaches are -

a)2mm & 2.75

b)1.25 mm & 1.7 mm

c)3mm & 3.25 mm

d)2.75 mm & 2.5 mm

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230 Thickness of Corrugated sheets of LHB coaches are -

a)2 mm

b)3 mm

c)1.25 mm

d)2.5 mm

231 The Fire Extinguisher used in AC LHB coaches is -

a)Foam type

b)DCP Type

c)CO2 type

d)None of these

232 Fire Extinguisher should be refilled -

a)Every month

b)Every 3 months

c)After 1 year

d)On every trip

233 Torque value of brake caliper mounting bolt is -

a)200 NM

b)170 NM

c)150 NM

d)190 NM

234 What is the principle of brake system used on LHB coaches?

a)Single pipe air brake system

b)Twin pipe air brake system

c)Twin pipe with disc brake air brake system.

d)None of these

235 What is the capacity of AR tank in LHB coach?

a)200 ltrs

b)75 ltrs

c)125 ltrs

d)300 ltrs

236 When brake indicator shows ‘Green’ the brake will be -

a)Released

b)Applied

c)Indicator defective

d)none

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237 Brake accelerator actuates during -

a)Every service application

b)Emergency brake application

c)Both a & b

d)None of these.

238 Minimum rate of pressure drop required to actuate the brake accelerator -

a)1.2 kg/cm2 per minute

b)1.6 kg/cm2 per minute

c)5 to 3.2 kg/ cm2 in 3 Sec)

d)More than 1.6 kg/cm2 per minute

239 Brake accelerator stops venting when BP pressure reached to -

a)1.0 kg/cm2

b)3.5 - 3.0 kg/cm2

c)2.5 - 1.5 kg/cm2

d)1.5 - 1.0 kg/cm2

240 Brake accelerator is connected to -

a)FP pipe

b)BP pipe

c)BC pipe

d)both a & b

241 What is the name of cable provided for hand brake?

a)Hand brake cable

b)Flex ball cable

c)Both a & b

d)None of these

242 How many flex ball cables provided on generator car.

a)One

b)Two

c)Four

d)Three

243 Flex ball cable directly connected to -

a)Brake caliper

b)Brake cylinder

c)Both

d)None of these

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244 What is the purpose of Dump Valve?

a)To maintain approximate same speed of all axles.

b)To protect wheels against skidding

c) a & b both.

d)Any of above

245 Which type of CBC is fitted in LHB Coaches?

a)E

b)H

c)EH

d)None of these

246 The CBC fitted on LHB coaches’ has_____ feature.

a)Anti slipping

b)Anti rotation

c)Anti climbing

d)Anti Creeping

247 The tensile stroke of CBC is -

a)53-58 mm

b)45-50 mm

c)60-65 mm

d)35-40 mm

248 The maximum buffing stroke of CBC is -

a)58 mm

b)75 mm

c)80 mm

d)85 mm

249 Horizontal gathering range of CBC is -

a)100 mm

b)110 mm

c)95 mm

d)119 mm

250 What is the meaning of Anti climbing?

a)Protection against climbing of one coach to another in case of accident.

b)Protection against telescopic collision of one coach to another in case

of accident.

c)Both a & b.

d)None of these

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251 Maximum torque is required for base plate bolts.

a)180-200NM

b)500 ±25 NM

c)55±50 NM

d)45 NM

252 What is the full form of WRA?

a)wire relay appliances

b)water raising apparatus

c)Worker relief arrangement

d)None of these.

253 Full form of P.L.C.

a)Programmable Logic Controller

b)Private Limited Company

c)Perforated Loco Component

d)None of these.

254 Length of LHB bogie is -

a)3535 mm

b)3534 mm

c)3600 mm

d)3530 mm

255 Width of FIAT Bogie is -

a)3030 mm

b)3240 mm

c)3040 mm

d)3010 mm