nure ce - allen · 2015. 12. 21. · marking scheme : a. if darkened bubble is right answer : 4...

Corporate OfficeALLEN CAREER INSTITUTE

“SANKALP”, CP-6, Indra Vihar, Kota (Rajasthan)-324005

+91-744-2436001 [email protected]

www.allen.ac.in

NURTURE COURSE(FOR X to XI MOVING STUDENTS)

ASAT(ALLEN Scholarship Cum Admission Test)

(ACADEMIC SESSION 2015-16)

INSTRUCTIONS (funs Z'k)

1. This booklet is your Question Paper. DO NOT break seal ofBooklet until the invigilator instructs to do so.

2. Fill your Form No. in the space provided on the top of this page.3. The Answer Sheet is provided to you separately which is a

machine readable Optical Response Sheet (ORS). You have tomark your answers in the ORS by darkening bubble, as peryour answer choice, by using black & blue ball point pen.

4. Total Questions to be Attempted 80. Part-I : 20 Questions& Part-II : 60 Questions.

5. After breaking the Question Paper seal, check the following :a. There are 25 pages in the booklet containing question

no. 1 to 100 under 2 Parts i.e. Part-I & Part-II.b. Part-I contains total 20 questions of IQ (Mental Ability).c. Part-II contains total 80 questions under 4 sections

which are-Section (A) : Physics, Section (B): Chemistry,Section (C): Mathematics* & Section (D): Biology*.*Important: You have to attempt ANY ONE SECTION onlyout of Section(C): Mathematics and Section (D) : Biology.DO NOT attempt both sections.

6. Marking Scheme :a. If darkened bubble is RIGHT answer : 4 Marks.b. If no bubble is darkened in any question: No Mark.c. Only for part - II : If darkened bubble is WRONG answer:

-1 Mark (Minus One Mark).7. Think wisely before darkening bubble as there is negative

marking for wrong answer.8. If you are found involved in cheating or disturbing others

then your ORS will be cancelled.9. Do not put any stain on ORS and hand it over back properly

to the invigilator.

Please read the instructions carefully. You are allotted 5 minutes specifically for this purpose.Ïi;k bu funs Z'kks a dks /;ku ls i

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Sample question for ASAT : Nurture Course

1. In the following question, a number series is

given with one term missing. Choose the

correct alternative that will continue the same

pattern and replace the question mark in the

given series.

9, 27, 31, 155, 161, 1127, ?

(1) 316 (2) 1135

(3) 1288 (4) 2254

2. A clock is set to show the correct time at 11

a.m. The clock gains 12 minutes in 12 hours.

What will be the true time when the clock

indicates 1 p.m. on the 6th day?

(1) 10 a.m. (2) 11 a.m.

(3) 12 noon (4) None of these

3. Which day can be the first day and last day of

any century?

(1) Monday (2) Tuesday

(3) Friday (4) Wednesday

Direction (Q.4 & Q.5) The following questionsare based on the diagram given below. In thediagram, circle represents tall children, thesquare represents obese children, rectanglerepresents the energetic children and thetriangle represents girl children. Study thediagram and answer the questions that follow.Energetic

Obese

Tall

Girls

8

7

5

612

3

49

10

11

15

1213

14

PART - I

IQ (MENTAL ABILITY)

This section contains 20 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (1), (2), (3) and (4) outof which ONLY ONE is correct.bl [k.M esa 20 cgqfodYi iz'u gSA izR;sd iz'u esa pkj fodYi (1), (2), (3) vkSj (4) gSa ftuesa ls dsoy ,d lgh gSA

1. fn;s x;s iz'u esa ,d la[;k J`a[kyk nh x;h gS ftldk ,d

in xk;c gSA fn;s x;s fodYiksa esa ls lgh fodYi dk pquko

dhft;sA

9, 27, 31, 155, 161, 1127, ?

(1) 316

(2) 1135

(3) 1288

(4) 2254

2. ,d ?kM+h dks bl izdkj fu/kkZfjr fd;k x;k fd 11 a.m. ij

og lgh le; n'kkZrh gSA ;g ?kM+h 12 ?kUVksa esa 12 feuV vkx s

gks tkrh gSA rks NBsa fnu tc ?kM+h 1 p.m. dk le; n'kkZ jgh

gS rks ml oDr lgh le; D;k gksxk ?

(1) 10 a.m. (2) 11 a.m.

(3) 12 noon (4) buesa ls dksbZ ugha

3. dkSulk fnu fdlh Hkh 'krkCnh o"kZ dk izFke vkSj vfUre fnu

gks ldrk gS ?

(1) lkseokj (2) eaxyokj

(3) 'kqØokj (4) cq/kokj

funsZ'k (Q.4 & Q.5) fuEufyf[kr iz'u fn;s x;s fp= ij

vk/kkfjr gSaaA fp= esa o`Ùk yEcs cPpksa dks n'kkZrk gS] oxZ eksVs

cPpksa dks n'kkZrk gS] vk;r deZB cPpksa dks n'kkZrk gS vkSj f=Hkqt

cfPp;ksa dks n'kkZrk gSA fn;s x;s fp= dk v/;;u djsa vkSj

fuEu iz'uksa ds lgh mÙkj nsaA

Energetic

Obese

Tall

Girls

8

7

5

612

3

49

10

11

15

1213

14

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4. Which areas represent energetic children who

are not obese ?

(1) 1, 13 and 15 (2) 13 and 15

(3) 1, 11 and 15 (4) 6, 13 and 15

5. Which of the following areas represent obese and

energetic children, who are neither girls nor tall ?

(1) 2 and 12 (2) 3 and 10

(3) 2 and 3 (4) 11 and 12

Direction (Q.6 & Q.7): P, Q, R, S, T, V and

W are travelling in three different vehicles.

There are at least two passengers in each

vehicle I, II & III and only one of them is a male.

There are two engineers, two doctors and three

teachers among them.

(i) R is a lady doctor and she does not travel

with the pair of sisters, P and V

(ii) Q, a male engineer, travels with only W, a

teacher in vehicle I.

(iii) S is a male doctor.

(iv) Two persons belonging to the same

profession do not travel in the same vehicle.

(v) P is not an engineer and travels in vehicle II

6. Which of the following is not correct?

(1) T-Male Teacher

(2) Q-Male Engineer

(3) W-Female Teacher

(4) V-Female Teacher

7. How many lady members are there amongthem?

(1) Three

(2) Four

(3) Three or Four

(4) Data inadequate

4. dkSulk {k s= deZB cPpks a dks n'kk Zrk gS tks eksV s ugha

gSA

(1) 1, 13 rFkk 15 (2) 13 rFkk 15

(3) 1, 11 rFkk 15 (4) 6, 13 rFkk 15

5. dkSulk {ks= eksVs vkSj deZB cPpksa dks n'kkZrk gS] tks fd uk rks

cfPp;k¡ gSa vkSj uk gh yEcs gSaa ?

(1) 2 rFkk 12 (2) 3 rFkk 10

(3) 2 rFkk 3 (4) 11 rFkk 12

funsZ'k (Q.6 ,oa Q.7): P, Q, R, S, T, V vkSj W rhu

vyx&vyx okguksa ls ;k=k dj jgs gSA izR;sd okgu I, II

vkSj III esa de ls de nks ;k=h gSa vkSj muesa ls dsoy ,d

iq:"k ;k=h gSA ;kf=;ksa esa 2 bUthfu;lZ] 2 MkWDVj rFkk

3 v/;kid gSaaA

(i) R ,d efgyk MkWDVj gS tks fd nks cguksa, P rFkk V ds

lkFk ;k=k ugha djrh gSA

(ii) Q ,d iq:"k bUthfu;j gS tks fd dsoy W ds lkFk ;k=k

djrk gS tks fd ,d v/;kid gS vkSj okgu I esa gSA

(iii) S ,d iq:"k MkWDVj gSA

(iv) nks O;fDr tks fd ,d gh is'ks esa gSa ,d gh okgu esa ;k=k

ugha djrs gSA

(v) P bUthfu;j ugha gS vkSj okgu II esa ;k=k djrk

gSA

6. fuEu esa dkSulk lR; ugha gS?

(1) T-iq:"k v/;kid

(2) Q-iq:"k bUthfu;j

(3) W-efgyk v/;kid

(4) V-efgyk v/;kid

7. ;kf=;ksa ds lewg esa fdruh efgyk lnL; gSa ?

(1) rhu

(2) pkj

(3) rhu vkSj pkj

(4) vkadM+sa vi;kZIr

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Direction (Q.8 & Q.9) : In a certain code lan-guage if

‘pit na sa’ means ‘you are welcome’

‘na ho pa la’ means ‘They are very good’

‘ka da la’ means ‘who is good’

‘od ho pit la’ means ‘they welcome good

people’

8. Which of the following means ‘people’ in thatcode language?

(1) ho (2) pit

(3) la (4) od

9. Which of the following means ‘very’ in thatcode language?

(1) na (2) da

(3) pa (4) data inadequate

10. A watch, which gains uniformly, is 2 min, slowat noon on Sunday, and is 4 min 48 seconds

fast at 2 PM on the following Sunday. When

was it correct ?

(1) 2 : 00 PM on Tuesday

(2) 12 Noon on Monday

(3) 2 : 00 AM on Tuesday

(4) None of these

11. The following question consists of a set of threefigures X, Y and Z showing a sequence of

folding of a piece of paper. Fig (Z) shows the

manner in which the folded paper has been cut.

These three figures are followed by four answer

figures from which you have to choose a figure

which would most closely resemble the

unfolded form of fig. (Z).

X Y Z

(1) (2) (3) (4)

funsZ'k (Q.8 ,oa Q.9) : ,d [kkl dwV Hkk"kk esa] ;fn

‘pit na sa’ vFkkZr~ ‘vkidk Lokxr gSa’

‘na ho pa la’ vFkkZr~ ‘os cgqr vPNs gSa’

‘ka da la’ vFkkZr~ ‘dkSu vPNk gSa’

‘od ho pit la’ vFkkZr~ ‘os vPNs yksxksa dk Lokxr djrs

gSa’

8. fuEu e s a l s fdl dk vFk Z dwV Hkk"kk e s a ‘yk sx’

gS ?(1) ho (2) pit(3) la (4) od

9. fuEu es a ls fdl dk vFk Z dwV Hkk"kk e s a ‘cgqr’

gS ?(1) na (2) da

(3) pa (4) vk¡dM+s vi;kZIr

10. ,d ?kM+h tks ,d lh xfr ls vkxs py jgh gS] jfookj nksigj

dks 2 min /khes Fkh vkSj vkus okys jfookj dks 2 PM ij4 min 48 lSd.M vkxs py jgh Fkh rks ;g fdl le; ij

lgh Fkh ?(1) eaxyokj dks 2 : 00 PM ij(2) lkseokj dks nksigj 12 ij(3) eaxyokj dks 2 : 00 AM ij

(4) buesa ls dksbZ ugha

11. fn;s x;s iz'u esa X, Y vkSj Z rhu fp= gSa] tks fd ,d dkxt

ds VqdM+ksa dks eksM+us dh Ja`[kyk dks n'kkZrs gSaA fp= (Z) eksM+s

x;s dkxt dks dkVus dk rjhdk n'kkZrk gSA bu rhu iz'u fp=ksa

ds lkFk pkj m¥Ùkj fp= fn;s x;s gSa ftuesa ls vkidks ml lgh

fp= dk pquko djuk gS] tks fd fp= (Z) okys eqM+s dkxt

dks ;fn okil QSyk fn;k tk;s] ds leku gksA

X Y Z

(1) (2) (3) (4)

4/25


12. In a coded language:

= 8, = 10,

= 20, = 35,

Then = ?

(1) 2 (2) 4

(3) 7 (4) 5

13. Pointing out to a lady, a girl said “She is thedaughter-in-law of the grand mother of my father’s

only son” How is the lady related to the girl ?

(1) Sister-in-law

(2) Mother

(3) Aunt

(4) Cousin14. There are two circular concentric rings, with

26 sectors on each ring marked A to Z.Sectors on outer and inner circles match in aperfect size fit. Whereas the outer ring containsthe sectors marked clockwise, the inner ring hassectors marked anticlockwise, such that sectorsmarked A on both the circles are coinciding atpresent, B on the outer circle coincides with Zon the inner circle and so on. If the outer circleis rotated clockwise by two sectors from theoriginal position, how many alphabets willcoincide on both the circles ?(1) 1 (2) 2(3) 3 (4) None of these

15. Direction : In the given question a dots are placedin the figure marked as (X), this figure is followedby four alternatives marked as (1), (2), (3) and (4).One out of these four options contains the commonregion to circle, squares triangle similar to that ofmarked by dot in figure (X). Select that option.

(X)

(1) (2) (3) (4)

12. ,d dwV Hkk"kk esa :

= 8, = 10,

= 20, = 35,

rc = ?

(1) 2 (2) 4(3) 7 (4) 5

13. ,d efgyk dh vksj b'kkjk djrs gq;s ,d yM+dh dgrh gS fdog esjs firk ds bdykSrs iq= dh nknh dh iq= o/kq gSA ml

efgyk dk yM+dh ds lkFk D;k fj'rk gS ?

(1) uun(2) ekrk(3) pkph(4) HkkbZ ;k cgu

14. nks ladsUæh oÙ̀kkdkj xksys gSa tks fd izR;sd xksys ij 26 txg

A ls Z vafdr gSA izR;sd xksys ds lHkh Hkkx cká vkSj

vkUrfjd xksys ls ,d ne lgh lgh vkdkj esa lgh cSBrs gSaA

tcfd cká xksys esa lHkh Hkkx] cka;sa ls nka;sa vkSj vkUrfjdxksys esa nka;sa ls cka;s bl izdkj vafdr gSa fd xksyksa dk og Hkkxtks A }kjk vafdr gSa orZeku esa ,d lkFk iM+sa gSa] vkSj B ckáxksys dk vkSj Z vkUrfjd xksys dk ,d lkFk iM+sa gSaA;fn cká xksys dks viuh okLrfod voLFkk ls ?kM+h dh lqbZdh fn'kk esa nks Hkkx ?kqek;k x;k gSa rks nksuksa o`Ùkksa ds fdrus v{kj,d lkFk iM+sxsa ?(1) 1 (2) 2

(3) 3 (4) buesa ls dksbZ ugha

15. funs Z'k % fn;s x;s iz'u esa fp= (X) fcUnqvksa }kjk vafdr gSblds lkFk pkj oSdfYid fp= (1), (2), (3) vkSj (4) fn;s

x;s gSaA fn;s x;s fodYiksa esa ls ,d fp= esa o`r] oxZ rFkk

f=Hkqt dk mHk;fu"B {ks= Bhd mlh izdkj ls iznf'kZr gS tSlk

fd fp= (X) esa fcUnqvksa }kjk fpfUgr gSA og fodYi pqfu;s

(X)

(1) (2) (3) (4)

5/25


16. Find the minimum cuts required to divide acube in 125 cubes ?(1) 8(2) 10(3) 12(4) 15

17. Is country X's GDP higher than country Y's

GDP ?

(A) GDP's of the countries X and Y have grown

over the past 5 years at compounded annual

rate of 5% and 6% respectively.

(B) 5 years ago, GDP of country X was higher

than that of country Y.

(1) If the question can be answered by one of

the statements alone and not by the other.

(2) If the question can be answered by using

either statement alone

(3) If the question can be answered by using

both the statements together, but cannot be

answered by using either statements alone.

(4) If the question cannot be answered even by

using both the statements together.

18. Substitute different digits (0, 1, 2.....,9) for

different letters in the problem below, so that

the corresponding addition is correct and it

results in the maximum possible value of

MONEY.

The resulting value of 'MONEY' is

(1) 10364 (2) 10563

(3) 10978 (4) None of these

16. ,d ?ku dks 125 ?kuksa esa ckaVus ds fy;s U;wure fdruh ckjdkVuk iM+sxk ?(1) 8(2) 10(3) 12(4) 15

17. D;k ns'k X's dh dqy ?kjsyw vk; ns'k Y's dh dqy ?kjsyw vk;

ls T;knk gS ?

(A) ns'k X rFkk Y dh dqy ?kjsyw vk; fiNys ikap o"kksZ

esa Øe'k% 5% rFkk 6% ds pØo`f¼ nj ls c

6/25


19. Following question has a set of four statements.

Each statement has three segments. Choose the

alternative where the third segment in the

statement can be logically deduced using both

the preceding two but not just from one of them.

(A) Dinosaurs are pre-historic creatures. Water-

buffaloes are not dinosaurs. Water buffaloes

are not pre-historic creatures.

(B) All politicians are frank. No frank people

are crocodiles. No crocodiles are

politicians.

(C) No diamond is quartz. No opal is quartz.

Diamonds are opals.

(D) All monkeys like bananas. Some GI Joes

like bananas. Some GI Joes are monkeys.

(1) C only

(2) B only

(3) A and D

(4) B and C

20. Mr. Raghav went in his car to meet his friend

John. He drove 30 km towards north and then

40 km towards west. He then turned to south and

covered 8 km. Further he turned to east and moved

26 km. Finally he turned right and drove 10 km and

then turned left to travel 19 km. How far and in

which direction is he from the starting point?

(1) East of starting point, 5 km

(2) East of starting point, 13 km

(3) North-East of starting point, 13 km

(4) North-East of starting point, 5 km

19. fuEufyf[kr iz'u pkj dFkuksa dk lewg gSA izR;sd dFku ds

rhu Hkkx gSaA og fodYi pqfu;s ftlesa fd dFku dk rhljk

Hkkx rdZlaxr gks ftlesa igys nksuksa Hkkxksa dk iz;ksx fd;k x;k

gks ysfdu dsoy ,d Hkkx dk ughaA

(A) Mk;uklksj iwoZ ,frgkfld jpuk gSA leqæh HkSal Mk;uklksj

ugha gSA leqæh HkSal iwoZ ,frgkfld jpuk ugha gSA

(B) lHkh jktuSfrK [kqys fny okys gSaA dksbZ Hkh [kqys fnu okyk

exjePN ugha gSA dksbZ Hkh exjePN jktuSfrK ugha

gSA

(C) dksbZ ghjk LQqfVd ugha gSA dksbZ Hkh nwf/k;k iRFkj LQqfVd

ugha gSA ghjs nwf/k;k iRFkj gSaA

(D) lHkh cUnj dsys ds leku gSaA dqN GI Joes dsys ds

leku gSaA dqN GI Joes cUnj gSaA

(1) dsoy C

(2) dsoy B

(3) A rFkk D

(4) B rFkk C

20. fe- jk?ko viuh dkj ls vius nksLr tkWu ls feyus x;sA igys

mUgksusa 30 km mÙkj dh vksj fQj 40 km if'pe dh vksj dkj

pykbZ] rRi'pkr~ dkj nf{k.k fn'kk esa eksM+h vkSj 8 km pykbZ

fQj dkj iwoZ fn'kk esa eksM+h vkSj 26 km pykbZA vUr esa dkj

dks nk;ha vksj eksM+k vkSj 10 km ys x;k vkSj fQj cka;h vkSj

eksM+k vksj 19 km ys x;kA vc og viuh izkjfEHkd fLFkfr ls

fdruh nwj rFkk fdl fn'kk esa gSA

(1) izkjfEHkd fLFkfr ds iwoZ, 5 km

(2) izkjfEHkd fLFkfr ds iwoZ, 13 km

(3) izkjfEHkd fLFkfr ds mÙkj iwoZ, 13 km

(4) izkjfEHkd fLFkfr ds mÙkj iwoZ, 5 km

7/25


PART-II

SECTION-A : PHYSICSThis section contains 20 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (1), (2), (3) and (4) outof which ONLY ONE is correct.

bl [k.M esa 20 cgqfodYi iz'u gSA izR;sd iz'u esa pkj fodYi (1), (2), (3) vkSj (4) gSa ftuesa ls dsoy ,d lgh gSA21. All the bulbs below are identical. Which bulb(s)

light(s) most brightly ?

1 3 4

2

5

(1) 1 only (2) 2 only(3) 3 and 4 (4) 1 and 5

22. A piece of copper and another of germaniumare cooled from room temperature to 80 K. Theresistance of(1) Each of them increases(2) Each of them decreases(3) Copper increases and that of germanium

decreases(4) Copper decreases and that of germanium

increases

23. What is the total resistance, between A and Bin the circuit shown in the given figure.

(1) 4 W

(2) 5 W

(3) 2 W

(4) 9 W

24. A wire is placed vertically between the poles

of a horse-shoe magnet, such that the north pole

is to your left and south pole is to your right.

It carries a direct current flowing upwards then

it will experience a force tending to deflect it

(1) to your left

(2) to your right

(3) away from you

(4) towards you

21. uhps fn[kk;s x;s cYc ,d leku gks rks dkSulk cYc T;knk

jks'kuh nsxh ?

1 3 4

2

5

(1) dsoy 1 (2) dsoy 2(3) 3 and 4 (4) 1 and 5

22. ,d rkez vkSj tesZfu;e ds VqdM+ksa dks lkekU; rki ls 80 K

rd B.Mk fd;k tkrk gS] rks izfrjks/k

(1) nksuksa dk c

8/25


25. The ratio of equivalent resistance across A andB when switch is open to that when switch isclosed is

(1) 38

(2) 58

(3) 78

(4) 98

26. A charged particle moves through a region ofmagnetic field point ing in the directionperpendicular to its direction of velocity. Thenduring its subsequent motion,(1) Its momentum changes but the kinetic

energy remains constant.(2) Its momentum and kinetic energy both

changes.(3) Its momentum and kinetic energy both

remains constant.(4) Its kinetic energy changes but the

momentum remains constant.27. A body starts performing uniform circular

motion such that it covers 100 rounds per min.Then the minimum time after which its averagevelocity will be zero is(1) 0.5 s (2) 0.6 s(3) 0.7 s (4) 0.8 s

28. For a body of 50 kg mass, the velocity-timegraph is shown in figure. Then force acting onthe body is

Velo

city

(m/s

)

t(s)1 2

1

0.5

(1) 25 N (2) 50 N

(3) 12.5 N (4) 100 N

25. fLop pkyq djus rFkk cUn djus ij Øe'k% A rFkk B dse/; rqY; izfrjks/k dk vuqikr gksxkA

(1) 38

(2) 58

(3) 78

(4) 98

26. ,d vkosf'kr d.k ,d pqEcdh; {ks= ls xqtjrk gS tks fd blds

osx dh fn'kk ds yEcor~ fn'kk esa gSA rc bldh xfr ds

nkSjku &

(1) laosx ifjo£rr gksxk ijUrq xfrt ÅtkZ vifjo£rr

jgsxhA

(2) laosx ,oa xfrt ÅtkZ nksuksa ifjo£rr gksxhA

(3) laosx ,oa xfrt ÅtkZ nksuksa fu;r gksxhA

(4) bldh xfrt ÅtkZ ifjo£rr gksxh ysfdu laosx fu;r

jgsxkA

27. ,d d.k o`Ùkkdkj iFk esa xfr djuk vkjEHk djrk gS ,oa izfr

feuV 100 pDdj yxkrk gSA Kkr dhft;s og de ls de

le; ftlesa vkSlr osx 'kwU; gksxk

(1) 0.5 s (2) 0.6 s

(3) 0.7 s (4) 0.8 s

28. ,d oLrq] ftldk æO;eku 50 kg gS] dk osx & le; xzkQfn;k x;k gSA oLrq ij yx jgk cy gksxkA

Velo

city

(m/s

)

t(s)1 2

1

0.5

(1) 25 N (2) 50 N

(3) 12.5 N (4) 100 N

9/25


29. Superconductors are materials that appear toexhibit no resistance. Therefore, electronspassing through a superconductor will(1) generate no current(2) generate no heat(3) increase the current’s power(4) decrease the electrons’ charge

30. A conductor with rectangular cross-section hasdimensions (a × 2a × 4a) as shown in figure.Resistance across AB is x, across CD is y andacross EF is z. Then

(1) x = y = z (2) x > y > z

(3) y > z > x (4) x > z > y

31. Fleming’s right hand rule gives(1) The magnitude of induced current

(2) The magnitude of the magnetic field

(3) The direction of induced current

(4) Both magnitude and direction of the

induced current

32. A wire PQ carrying a current 'i' is placedperpendicular to a long wire XY carrying a

current I. The direction of force on PQ will be

Y

X

IP Qi

l

(1) towards right(2) towards left(3) upwards(4) downwards

33. In SONAR, we use(1) ultrasonic waves(2) infrasonic waves(3) radio waves(4) audible sound waves

29. vfrpkyd os inkFkZ gS tks dksbZ izfrjks/k ugha n'kkZrs gSaA blfy;s

vfrpkyd ls xqtjus okys bysDVªkWu &

(1) dksbZ /kkjk mRiUu ugha djrsA

(2) dksbZ Å"ek mRiUu ugha gksxhA

(3) /kkjk dk lkeF;Z c y > z

(3) y > z > x (4) x > z > y

31. ¶ysfeax ds nka;s gkFk dk fu;e D;k crkrk gSA

(1) izsfjr /kkjk dk ifjek.k

(2) pqEcdh; {ks= dk ifjek.k

(3) izsfjr /kkjk dh fn'kk

(4) izsfjr /kkjk dh fn'kk o ifjek.k nksuksa dks

32. ,d rkj PQ ftlesa /kkjk 'i' izokfgr gks jgh gS] dks ,d yEcsrkj XY ftlesa /kkjk I gS] ds yEcor~ fp=kuqlkj j[kk tkrkgSA PQ ij yx jgs cy dh fn'kk gksxhA

Y

X

IP Qi

l

(1) nka;h vksj(2) cka;h vksj(3) Åij dh vksj(4) uhps dh vksj

33. lksukj (SONAR) esa mi;ksx yh tkrh gSA(1) vYVªklksfud rjaxsa(2) bUÝklksfud rjaxsa(3) jsfM;ks rjaxsa(4) JO; /ofu rjaxsa

10/25


34. Which of the following statements is incorrect?

(1) If the velocity of a body changes, it must

have some acceleration.

(2) If the speed of a body changes, it must have

some acceleration.

(3) If the body has acceleration, its speed must

change.

(4) If the body has acceleration, its velocity

must change.

35. A ball having a certain mass is moving with avelocity v0 on a horizontal surface. The ball

collides with a stationary ball having four times

its mass. The first ball immediately comes to rest

after collision then with what velocity will the

second ball move? (Assume frictionless surfaces)

(1) 0.25 v0 (2) 0.5 v0(3) 4 v0 (4) v0

36. Ananya is travelling to visit her grandmother.

First, she travels at an average speed of 12 km/h

for 10 km. Then she travels at 8.0 km/h for

another 1.25 h. Calculate her average speed for

the entire trip to her grandma's house.

(1) 3.2 km/h

(2) 4.4 km/h

(3) 9.6 km/h

(4) 19.2 km/h

Comprehension for (Q.No.37 & Q.No.38)A rotating device is shown in figure, answerthe following questions :

B C

NS

A D

C1

C2B1 B2

QP+ –

34. fuEu esa ls dkSulk dFku vlR; gksxk ?

(1) ;fn oLrq dk osx ifjorZu'khy gS rks bldk Roj.k 'kwU;

ugha gksxkA

(2) ;fn oLrq dh pky ifjorZu'khy gS rks bldk Roj.k 'kwU;

ugha gksxkA

(3) ;fn oLrq dk Roj.k gS rks bldh pky ifjo£rr

gksxhA

(4) ;fn oLrq dk Roj.k gS rk s bldk osx ifjo£rr

gksxkA

35. ,d xsan ftldk dqN æO;eku gS] v0 osx ls {kSfrt ry esa xfr

dj jgh gSA x san fdlh vU; xasn ls] tks fLFkj j[kh gS rFkk æO;ekupkj x quk gS] ls Vdjkrh gSA izFke x san Vdjkus ds i'pkr~ rqjUrfLFkj voLFkk esa vk tkrh gS] rks f}rh; xsan dk osx

crkbZ;sA (?k"kZ.k jfgr lrg ekurs gq;s)

(1) 0.25 v0 (2) 0.5 v0

(3) 4 v0 (4) v0

36. vuU;k viuh nknh ls feyus tk jgh gSA izFke] og vkSlr pky

12 km/h ls 10 km r; djrh gSA blds ckn vxys

1.25 ?k.Vs ds fy;s 8.0 km/h ls pyrh gSA iwjh xfr ds

nkSjku mldh vkSlr pky crkbZ;sA

(1) 3.2 km/h

(2) 4.4 km/h

(3) 9.6 km/h

(4) 19.2 km/h

vuqPNsn (iz-37 ,oa iz-38) ds fy, :-fp= esa ,d ?kwf.kZr ;qfDr n'kkZ;h xbZ gSfuEu iz'uksa ds mÙkj nhft,A

B C

NS

A D

C1

C2B1 B2

QP+ –

11/25


37. The device shown in figure is :(1) A dc motor

(2) An ac motor

(3) An ac generator

(4) A dc generator

38. In the given figure the direction of forceacting on arm AB is :

(1) Inwards (into the paper)

(2) Outwards (out of paper)

(3) Leftwards

(4) No force will act on arm ABComprehension for (Q.No.39 & Q.No.40)

There are three charges placed as shown in

figure. The distances between two nearby

charges are d.

d d

Q 2Q–Q/2

39. The force on 2Q will be

(1) 2

2

KQ2d

towards left

(2) 2

2

KQ2d

towards right

(3) 2

2

3KQ2d

towards right

(4) zero

40. The force on –Q/2 will be

(1) 2

2

KQ2d

towards left

(2) 2

2

KQ2d

towards right

(3) 2

2

3KQ2d

towards right

(4) zero

37. fp= esa n'kkZ;h ; qfDr gS :(1) dc eksVj(2) ac eksVj(3) ac tfu=(4) dc tfu=

38. fn;s x;s fp= esa Hkqtk AB ij dk;Zjr cy dh fn'kk gS :

(1) vUnj dh vksj (dkxt ds vUnj)

(2) ckgj dh vksj (dkxt ds ckgj)

(3) ck;ha vksj

(4) AB Hkqtk ij dksbZ cy ughavuqPNsn (iz-39 ,oa iz-40) ds fy, :-

fp= esa rhu vkos'k n'kkZ,s x;s gSA nks utnhdh vkos'kksa ds

e/; nwjh d gSA

d d

Q 2Q–Q/2

39. 2Q ij cy gksxk

(1) 2

2

KQ2d

ck;ha vksj

(2) 2

2

KQ2d

nk;ha vksj

(3) 2

2

3KQ2d

nk;ha vksj

(4) 'kwU;

40. –Q/2 ij cy gksxk

(1) 2

2

KQ2d

ck;ha vksj

(2) 2

2

KQ2d

nk;ha vksj

(3) 2

2

3KQ2d

nk;ha vksj

(4) 'kwU;

12/25


SECTION-B : CHEMISTRYThis section contains 20 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (1), (2), (3) and (4)out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

bl [k.M esa 20 cgqfodYi iz'u gSaA izR;sd iz'u esa pkj fodYi (1), (2), (3) vkSj (4) gSa ftuesa ls dsoy ,d lgh gSA

41. A volatile liquid has :

(1) low boiling point and weaker interparticle forces

(2) high boiling point and weaker interparticle forces.

(3) high boiling point and stronger interparticle forces

(4) low boiling point and stronger interparticle forces.

42. Which of these is a solution ?

(1) 14 Carat Gold

(2) Salted water

(3) Carbonated water

(4) All of these

43. When sodium bisulphite reacts with

hydrochloric acid, the products formed are :

(1) NaCl, H2O and SO2(2) Na2SO4 and NaCl

(3) NaCl and H2S

(4) No reaction takes place

44. When ferric chloride reacts with aq. NaOH, a

....... .... .... .... .... ..... .... .... ... coloured ppt is

formed, whose chemical formula is

:........................................

(1) Brown, Fe(OH)2

(2) Green, Fe(OH)2

(3) Green, Fe(OH)3

(4) Brown, Fe(OH)3

45. Number of molecules in 500 ml of each H2, O2and CO2 at STP are in the order

(1) H2 < O2 < CO2

(2) H2 > O2 > CO2

(3) H2 = O2 = CO2

(4) H2 > O2 ¹ CO2

41. ok"i'khy nzo j[krk gS :

(1) de DoFkukad rFkk nqcZy vUrjd.kh; cy

(2) mPp DoFkukad rFkk nqcZy vUrjd.kh; cy

(3) mPp DoFkukad rFkk izcy vUrjd.kh; cy

(4) fuEu DoFkukad rFkk izcy vUrjd.kh; cy

42. fuEu esa ls dkSulk foy;u gS ?

(1) 14 dSjsV lksuk

(2) yo.kh; ikuh

(3) dkcksZusVsM ikuh

(4) lHkh

43. tc lksfM;e ckbZ lYQkbV] gkbMªksDyksfjd vEy ls vfHkfØ;k

djrs gS rks tks inkFkZ curk gS :

(1) NaCl, H2O rFkk SO2(2) Na2SO4 rFkk NaCl

(3) NaCl rFkk H2S

(4) No reaction takes place

44. tc Qsfjd DyksjkbM dh vfHkfØ;k tyh; NaOH, ls djk;h

tkrh gS] rc ....................................... jaxhu vo{ksi

i z kIr gk srk g S vk Sj mldk jklk;fud lw= gk sxkA

........................................

(1) Hkwjk, Fe(OH)2

(2) gjk, Fe(OH)2

(3) gjk, Fe(OH)3

(4) Hkwjk, Fe(OH)3

45. STP ij H2, O2 rFkk CO2 izR;sd ds 500 ml fyVj esa

mifLFkr v.kqvksa dh la[;k &

(1) H2 < O2 < CO2

(2) H2 > O2 > CO2

(3) H2 = O2 = CO2

(4) H2 > O2 ¹ CO2

13/25


46. Which among the following statements about

the reaction given below are CORRECT?

MnO2 + 4 HCl ® MnCl2 + 2H2O + Cl2(I) Manganese oxide is oxidised

(II) Hydrogen Chloride is reduced

(III) Manganese oxide is oxidising agent

(IV) Hydrogen Chloride is reducing agent

(1) I and II (2) III and IV

(3) II and IV (4) I, II, III and IV

47. Which of the following statements is

INCORRECT ?

(1) The conjugate base of H2PO4– is HPO4

2–.

(2) The pH of 1 M HCl is 0.

(3) H3PO3 is a tribasic acid.

(4) The concentration of H+ ions in pure water

is 10–7 mol L–1 at 298 K.

48. Which of the following has arranged in order

of increasing oxidation numbers of nitrogen?

(1) NH3 < N2O5

14/25


51. Which of the following metals are refined by

electrolytic refining?

(i) Au (ii) Cu

(iii) Zn (iv) K

(1) (i) and (ii) (2) (ii) and (iii)

(3) (i), (ii), (iii) (4) (ii), (iii) and (iv)

52. How many moles of ferric alum (NH4)2SO4·

Fe2(SO4)3·24H2O can be made from the sample

of Fe containing 0.0056 g of it ?

[Atomic mass of Fe = 56 u]

(1) 10–4 mol (2) 0.5 × 10–4 mol

(3) 0.33 × 10–4 mol (4) 2 × 10–4 mol

53. How many moles of O2 will be liberated by one

mole of CrO5 in the following reaction?

CrO5 + H2SO4 ¾® Cr2(SO4)3 + H2O + O2

(1) 4.5 (2) 2.5

(3) 1.25 (4) None of these

54. If your teeth start decaying, the dentist may

advise you to have your teeth filled. Which of

the following is not used as the dental filling?

(1) Gold

(2) Sorel's cement

(3) Zinc oxychloride

(4) Zinc

55. Bleaching powder has several uses, some of

which are mentioned here. Pick the false one?

(1) For decolourising sugar

(2) For bleaching paper pulp

(3) For sterilizing water

(4) For making chloroform

51. buesa ls dkSulk /kkrq,sa oS|qrvi?kVuh ifj"dj.k ls ifj"d̀r dh

tkrh gS ?

(i) Au (ii) Cu

(iii) Zn (iv) K

(1) (i) rFkk (ii) (2) (ii) rFkk (iii)

(3) (i), (ii), (iii) (4) (ii), (iii) rFkk (iv)

52. Fe (vk;ju) ds 0.0056 g ds ,d uewus ls fdrus eksy

Qsfjd ,ye (NH4)2SO4 · Fe2(SO4)3·24H2O ds cuk

ldrs gSA

[Fe dk ijek.kq æO;eku = 56 u]

(1) 10–4 mol (2) 0.5 × 10–4 mol

(3) 0.33 × 10–4 mol (4) 2 × 10–4 mol

53. fuEu vfHkfØ;k esa ,d eksy CrO5 ysus ij O2 ds fdrus eksy

eqDr gksxsaA

CrO5 + H2SO4 ¾® Cr2(SO4)3 + H2O + O2

(1) 4.5 (2) 2.5

(3) 1.25 (4) buesa ls dksbZ ugha

54. vxj vkids nk¡rks dk fxjuk ;k {k; gksuk 'kq: gks x;k gS] vkSj

nUr fpfdRld us vkidks nUr HkjkbZ dk lq>ko fn;k gS rks fuEu

esa ls dkSulk nUr HkjkbZ ds fy, mi;ksx esa ugha ysxsa ?

(1) lksuk

(2) lksjsy lhesUV

(3) ftad vkWDlhDyksjkbM

(4) ftad

55. fojatd pw.kZ (Cyhfpaax ikmMj) ds dbZ mi;ksx gS] ftuesa ls

dqN uhps fn;s x;s gS] xyr dks pqfu;s ?

(1) 'kdZjk dk fojatdhdj.k

(2) isij iYi dk fojatu

(3) ikuh ds jksxk.kquk'ku ds fy;s

(4) DyksjksQkeZ cukus ds fy;s

15/25


56. 5.85 g of NaCl was treated with concentrated

H2SO4 and the gas evolved was passed into a

solution of silver nitrate. The white precipitate

obtained was filtered, dried and weighed.

Assuming complete reaction, how many grams

of precipitate was obtained ?

[Atomic mass of Ag = 108 u, Na = 23 u &

Cl = 35.5 u]

(1) 10.8g (2) 14.35g

(3) 35.5g (4) 3.65g

Comprehension for (Q.No.57 & Q.No.58)

500 mL solution of hydrochloric acid is made

by dissolving 3.65 gram HCl in distilled water.

57. What is the molarity of chloride ions in the solution?

(1) 0.01 M (2) 0.02 M (3) 0.2 M (4) 0.1 M

58. The molarity of the hydroxide ions in thissolution will be :-

(1) zero (2) 5 × 10–12 M

(3) 5 × 10–14 (4) can not be calculated


Rutherford’s atomic model resembles the planetary

motion in solar system. Therefore, Rutherford’s

model of atom is also called planetary model.59. When alpha particles are sent through a thin

metal foil only one out of ten thousand of themis reversed. This observation led to theconclusion that(1) An extremely small positively charged particles

are concentrated at the centre of the atom(2) more number of electrons are revolving

around the nucleus of the atom(3) unit positive charge is only present in an atom(4) a massive sphere with more negative charge

and unit positive charge is present at the centreof the atom

60. Which of the following concepts was notconsidered in Rutherford’s atomic model ?(1) the electrical neutrality of atom(2) the quantization of energy(3) electrons revolve around nucleus at very

high speeds(4) existence of nuclear forces of attraction on

the electrons

56. NaCl ds 5.85 g dks lkaæ H2SO4 ds lkFk mipkfjr fd;k

x;k vkSj fu"dkflr xSl dks flYoj ukbVªsV ds foy;u ls xqtkjkx;kA izkIr lQsn vo{ksi dks Nkuk tkrk gS] lq[kk;k tkrk gS

rFkk Hkkj djrs gSaA ;fn vfHkfØ;k lEiw.kZ gksrh gS rks vo{ksi

dk fdrus xzke izkIr gksxkA

[Ag dk ijek.kq æO;eku = 108 u, Na = 23 u &

Cl = 35.5 u]

(1) 10.8g (2) 14.35g

(3) 35.5g (4) 3.65g

vuqPNsn (iz-57 o iz-58) ds fy, :-

3.65 gram HCl dks 'kq¼ ty esa foys; djds HClgkbMªksDyksjhd vEy dk 500 mL foy;u cuk;k x;kA

57. foy;u esa DyksjkbM vk;u dh eksyjrk D;k gS ?

(1) 0.01 M (2) 0.02 M (3) 0.2 M (4) 0.1 M

58. bl foy;u esa gkbMªksDlkbM vk;u dh eksyjrk D;k gksxh :-

(1) 'kqU; (2) 5 × 10–12 M

(3) 5 × 10–14 (4) can not be calculated

vuqPNsn (iz-59 o iz-60) ds fy, :-

jnjQksMZ dk ijek.kq izfrj{kk lw;Z ra= esa x `g ds ?kw.kZu ds lekugSA blfy, jnjQksMZ ijek.kq izfr:i dks x g̀ izfr:i Hkh dgrsgSA

59. iryh /kkrq iékh esa ls tc a d.kksa dks izdhf.kZr fd;k rc

10,000 esa ls ,d a-d.k mlh fn'kk esa ykSV tkrk gS bl?kVuk ls fu'd"kZ fudyrk gS %

(1) ijek.kq ds dsUnz esa vfrlw{e /kukosf'kr d.k mifLFkrgksrs gSA

(2) ijek.kq ds ukfHkd ds pkjks vksj bysDVªkWu ?kwf.kZr djrs gSA

(3) ijek.kq esa dsoy ,dy bdkbZ /kukos'k gksrk gSA

(4) ijek.kq ds dsUnz esa xksykdkj nzO;eku ; qDr vf/kd

½.kkRed vkos'k rFkk bdkbZ /kukos'k mifLFkr gksrk gS

60. jnjQksMZ esa ijek.kq ekWMy (izfr:i) esa fuEu esa ls dkSulh

vfHk/kkj.kk ugha yh x;h Fkh ?

(1) ijek.kq dh fo|qr mnklhurk

(2) ÅtkZ dk DokaVhdj.k

(3) ukfHkd ds pkjks vksj bysDVªkWu mPp osx ls xfr djrs gSaA

(4) bysDVªkWuksa ij ukfHkdh; vkd"kZ.k cy dk vfLrRo gksrk gSA

16/25


SECTION-C : MATHEMATICS

This section contains 20 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (1), (2), (3) and (4) outof which ONLY ONE is correct.

bl [k.M esa 20 cgqfodYi iz'u gSA izR;sd iz'u esa pkj fodYi (1), (2), (3) vkSj (4) gSa ftuesa ls dsoy ,d lgh gS

Attempt any one of the section C or DSection C or D esa ls dsoy ,d gh section djuk gSA

61. a, b, c are three real numbers such that

a + b + c = 7, a2 + b2 + c2 = 35 and

a3 + b3 + c3 = 151. Find the value of abc.

(1) 12 (2) 14

(3) –15 (4) –13

62. In the given figure, O is the centre and AB is

a diameter of the circle. AC and BD when

produced, meet at E. If ÐCOD = 50°, then

ÐCED =________?

C

D

E

O

A

B

50°

(1) 100° (2) 65°

(3) 130° (4) None of these

63. If A + B = 225°, then the value of (1 + tan A)

(1 + tan B) is

(1) 1 (2) 3

(3) 2 (4) 4

64. Value of (a – c) [(a – b)2 + (b – c)2 – (a – b)

(b – c)] + (c – a)3 is equal to

(1) 3(a – b) (b – c) (c –a)

(2) (a – b) (b – c) (c – a)

(3) (a – b)3 (b – c)3 (c – a)3

(4) None of these

61. a, b, c rhu okLrfod la[; k, s a bl i zdkj g S fd

a + b + c = 7, a2 + b2 + c2 = 35 vkSj a3 + b3 + c3 = 151

gSA abc dk eku Kkr dhft,A

(1) 12 (2) 14

(3) –15 (4) –13

62. uhps ,d fp= fn;k x;k gS] ftlesa O dsUnz rFkk AB o`r dk

O;kl gSA AC rFkk BD dks c

17/25


65. The value of m if 2xm + x3 – 3x2 – 26 leaves

a remainder of 226 when it is divided by

x – 2.

(1) 0 (2) 7

(3) 10 (4) All of these

66. If 20 men take 30 days to complete a job, in

how many days can 25 men complete the

job ?

(1) 23 (2) 24

(3) 25 (4) 26

67. The remainder when x1999 is divided by

x2 – 1 is

(1) – x (2) 3x

(3) x (4) None of these

68. If tan q = 1

5- and q lies in the II quadrant,

then the value of cos q is

(1) 5

6(2)

5

6

-

(3) 1

6

-(4) Both (1) and (2)

69. If a= b+ c and a, b and c are three

surds, then

(1) a is dissimilar to b and c

(2) b and c are similar to a

(3) Only b is similar to a(4) None of these

70. The leading coefficient of a polynomial P(x) of

degree 3 is 2006. Suppose that P(1) = 5, P(2) = 7

and P(3) = 9, then find P(x).

(1) 2006 (x–1) (x–2) (x– 3) + 2x + 3

(2) 2006 (x–1) (x–2) (x– 3) + 2x + 1

(3) 2006 (x–1) (x–2) (x– 3) + 2x – 1

(4) 2006 (x–2) (x–3) (x– 1) –( 2x – 3)

65. m dk eku Kkr dhft, ;fn 2xm + x3 – 3x2 – 26

dk s x – 2 }kjk foHkkftr djus ij 'k s "kQy 226vkrk gks %

(1) 0 (2) 7

(3) 10 (4) mijksDr lHkh

66. ;fn 20 O;fDr feydj fdlh dk;Z dks 30 fnu esa iw.kZdjrs gS rks 25 O;fDr blh dk;Z dks iwjk djus esa fdrus fnuysxsa ?

(1) 23 (2) 24

(3) 25 (4) 26

67. ;fn x1999 dks x2 – 1 }kjk foHkkftr fd;k tkrk gS rks 'ks"kQy

gS-

(1) – x (2) 3x

(3) x (4) buesa ls dksbZ ugha

68. ;fn tan q = 1

5- vkSj q f}rh; prqFkk±'k esa gS rc

cos q dk eku Kkr dhft,A

(1) 5

6(2)

5

6

-

(3) 1

6

-(4) (1) o (2) nksuksaA

69. ;fn a= b+ c , a, b o c rhu dj.kh gS

rc

(1) a dk eku b o c ds leku ugha gSA

(2) b o c dk eku a ds leku gSA

(3) dsoy b dk eku gh a ds leku gSA(4) buesa ls dksbZ ugha

70. fdlh rhu ?kkr ds cgqin ds vf/kdre ?kkr dk xq.kkad 2006

gS ekuk P(1) = 5, P(2) = 7 rFkk P(3) = 9 rks P(x) dk

eku gksxkA

(1) 2006 (x–1) (x–2) (x– 3) + 2x + 3

(2) 2006 (x–1) (x–2) (x– 3) + 2x + 1

(3) 2006 (x–1) (x–2) (x– 3) + 2x – 1

(4) 2006 (x–2) (x–3) (x– 1) –( 2x – 3)

18/25


71. If the difference between the roots of the equa-

tion x2 + px + 8 = 0 is 2, then p =

(1) ±2 (2) ±4

(3) ±6 (4) ±8

72. Let a and b be the roots of the equation

(x–a)(x–b) = c, c ¹ 0, then the roots of the

equation (x–a)(x–b) + c = 0 are

(1) a, c (2) b, c

(3) a, b (4) a+c, b+c

73. p is a prime number and (p2 + 3) is also a prime

number. The number of numbers that p can

assume is

(1) 3 (2) 2

(3) 1 (4) can't say

74. If f(x) = cos2x + sec2 x, its value always is

(1) f(x) < 1

(2) f(x) = 1

(3) 2 > f(x) > 1

(4) f(x) ³ 2

75. In the given figure, P and Q are the mid-pointsof AC and AB. Also PG = GR and HQ = HR.

What is the ratio of area of DPQR to area of

DABC ?

A B

C

Q

PG

H

R

(1) 12

(2) 23

(3) 35

(4) None of these

71. ;fn lehdj.k x2 + px + 8 = 0 ds ewyksa dk vUrj 2 gS

rc p dk eku gksxk-

(1) ±2 (2) ±4

(3) ±6 (4) ±8

72. ;fn a o b lehdj.k (x–a)(x–b) = c, c ¹ 0 ds ewy

gS] rks lehdj.k (x–a)(x–b) + c = 0 ds ewy gksxs -

(1) a, c (2) b, c

(3) a, b (4) a+c, b+c

73. ;fn p rFkk (p2 + 3) vHkkT; la[;k,¡ gks] rks p ds laHko ekuksa

dh la[;k gks ldrh gS -

(1) 3

(2) 2

(3) 1 (4) dg ugha ldrs

74. ;fn f(x) = cos2x + sec2 x, rc bldk eku lnSo gksxk-

(1) f(x) < 1

(2) f(x) = 1

(3) 2 > f(x) > 1

(4) f(x) ³ 2

75. fn, x, fp= esa AC rFkk AB ds e/; fcUnq Øe'k% P rFkk

Q gS rFkk PG = GR ,oa HQ = HR gSA f=Hkqt PQR rFkk

f=Hkqt ABC ds {kS=Qyksa dk vuqikr gS ?

A B

C

Q

PG

H

R

(1) 12

(2) 23

(3) 35

(4) buesa ls dksbZ ugha

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76. In the adjoining figure O is the centre of thecircle with radius r. AB, CD and EF are the

diameters of the circle. ÐOAF = ÐOCB = 60º.What is the area of the shaded region ?

D E

O

F C

60ºA B

60º

(1) 2r 3 3

2 2

æ öp -ç ÷ç ÷

è ø(2)

2r 3 32 4

æ öp -ç ÷ç ÷

è ø

(3)2r 2 3

3 3

æ öp -ç ÷ç ÷

è ø(4) data insufficient


In the given figure, D is the midpoint of sideBC and If BC = a, AC = b, AB=c, ED= x,AD = p and AE = h.

A

B E D C

c h pb

x a2

77. If 2

2 2 ab p axk

- - = then k is -

(1) 2 (2) 4 (3) 8 (4) 16

78. c2 + ax – 2a

4 is equal to -

(1) p2 (2) 2p2

(3) 2p

2 (4) None of these


Let us consider a quadratic equationx2 + 3ax + 2a2 = 0. If the equation has roots a,b and it is given that a2 + b2 = 5

79. Value of a is :

(1) 1 (2) –1

(3) ± 1 (4) None of these

80. For the above quadratic equation :

(1) D > 0 (2) D < 0

(3) D = 0 (4) None of these

76. fn, x, fp= esa o`Ùk dk dsUnz O rFkk f=T;k r gSA AB, CDrFkk EF o`Ùk ds O;kl gS ,oa ÐOAF = ÐOCB = 60º gS]rks Nk;kafdr Hkkx dk {ks=Qy Kkr dhft, ?

D E

O

F C

60ºA B

60º

(1) 2r 3 3

2 2

æ öp -ç ÷ç ÷

è ø(2)

2r 3 32 4

æ öp -ç ÷ç ÷

è ø

(3)2r 2 3

3 3

æ öp -ç ÷ç ÷

è ø(4) vkadM+sa vi;kZIr

x|ka'k (iz-la- 77 ,oa iz-la- 78 ds fy,)fn;s x;s fp = esa] Hkqtk BC dk e/; fcUnq D gS rFkk;fn BC = a, AC = b, AB=c, ED= x, AD = p rFkkAE = h gSA

A

B E D C

c h pb

x a2

77. ;fn 2

2 2 ab p axk

- - = gks] rks k dk eku gS -

(1) 2 (2) 4 (3) 8 (4) 16

78. c2 + ax – 2a

4 dk eku gS -

(1) p2 (2) 2p2

(3) 2p

2 (4) buesa ls dksbZ ugha

x|ka'k (iz-la- 79 ,oa iz-la- 80 ds fy,)

ekuk ,d f}?kkr lehdj.k x2 + 3ax + 2a2 = 0 gS ;fnlehdj.k ds ewy a rFkk b gS rFkk a2 + b2 = 5 fn;kx;k gSA

79. a dk eku gS :

(1) 1 (2) –1(3) ± 1 (4) buesa ls dksbZ ugha

80. fn;s x;s lehdj.k ds fy, :

(1) D > 0 (2) D < 0

(3) D = 0 (4) buesa ls dksbZ ugha

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SECTION-D : BIOLOGY

This section contains 20 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (1), (2), (3) and (4) outof which ONLY ONE is correct.

bl [k.M esa 20 cgqfodYi iz'u gSA izR;sd iz'u esa pkj fodYi (1), (2), (3) vkSj (4) gSa ftuesa ls dsoy ,d lgh gSA

81. Among mammals, which one plays asignificant role in the digestion of milk proteins?

(1) Pepsin

(2) Rennin

(3) Trypsin

(4) Amylase

82. Match Column - I with Column - II and selectthe correct option.

(A) Plantae 1. Archaebacteria

(B) Fungi 2. Euglenoids

(C) Protista 3. Phycomycetes

(D) Monera 4. Bryophyta

(1) A - 4, B - 3, C - 2, D - 1(2) A - 1, B - 2, C - 3, D - 4

(3) A - 3, B - 4, C - 2, D - 1(4) A - 4, B - 2, C - 3, D - 1

83. The term ‘water-pollution’ can be defined inseveral ways. Which of the followingstatements does not give the correct definition ?(1) The addition of undesirable substances in

water bodies.(2) The removal of desirable substances from

water bodies.(3) A change in pressure of the water bodies.(4) A change in temperature of the water bodies.

84. Identify the missing labels in the diagram

below.

Diploid cells(2n)

Cell divisions Cell divisions

Reproductive cellsdevelop

Male gamete(sperm)

Female gamete(egg)


Nature gametophyte

3

4

2

1

81. Lru/kkfj;ks esa nqX/k izksVhu ds ikpu esa dkSulk egRoiw.kZ Hkwfedk

fuHkkrk gS ?

(1) isfIlu

(2) jsuhu

(3) fVªfIlu

(4) ,ekbyst

82. LrEHk-I dks LrEHk-II ls feyku dhft,A vkSj lgh mÙkj dk

p;u djsaA

(A) ikni 1. vkdhZcSDVhfj;k

(B) dod 2. ;wXyhuksbM~l

(C) izksfVLVk 3. QkbdksekblhVht

(D) eksusjk 4. czk;ksQkbVk(1) A - 4, B - 3, C - 2, D - 1(2) A - 1, B - 2, C - 3, D - 4(3) A - 3, B - 4, C - 2, D - 1(4) A - 4, B - 2, C - 3, D - 1

83. ty&iznw"k.k dks fofHkék rjhds ls ifjHkkf"kr dj ldrs gSA

fuEu esa ls dkSulk dFku ty iznw"k.k dks lgh ifjHkkf"kr ugha

djrk ?

(1) vuqi;qDr inkFkks± dk ty lewg esa feykuk

(2) ty lewg ls okafNr inkFkks± dks gVkuk

(3) ty lewg ds nkc esa ifjorZu gksukA

(4) ty lewg ds rkieku esa ifjorZu gksukA

84. uhps fn, x, fp= esa [kkyh txg ij lgh mÙkj dks

igpkfu,\

Diploid cells(2n)


Reproductive cellsdevelop

Male gamete(sperm)

Female gamete(egg)


Nature gametophyte

3

4

2

1

21/25


(1) 1-meiosis forms spores; 2-zygote forms;3-diploid; 4-sporophyte

(2) 1-sporophyte; 2-meiosis forms spores;3-haploid; 4-zygote forms

(3) 1-sporophyte; 2-meiosis forms spores;3-diploid; 4-zygote forms

(4) 1-zygote forms; 2-sporophyte; 3-diploid;4-meiosis forms spores

85. The diagram below shows part of the carboncycle.

Organiccompounds

Carboncompounds

in soil

Fossil fuels

AtmosphericCO2

If many trees are removed from a forest bylogging, what is the most immediate effect onthe carbon cycle in that forest?(1) Increased rates of decomposition(2) Decreased use of atmospheric CO2(3) Decreased combustion of fossil fuels(4) Increased production of organic compounds

86. The diagram below shows the locations of the

pituitary gland and the kidneys in the human

body.

Pituitarygland

Kidney

(1) 1-v/kZlw=h foHkktu ls chtk.kq; 2-;qXeut cuuk;

3-f}xqf.kr; 4-fctk.kqn~fHkn(2) 1-fotk.kqn~fHkn; 2-v/kZlw=h foHkktu ls chtk.k q;

3-vxqf.kr; 4-;qXeut cuuk(3) 1-fctk.kqn~fHkn~; 2-v/kZlw=h foHkktu ls chtk.kq;

3-f}xqf.kr; 4-;qXeut cuuk(4) 1-;qXeut cuuk; 2-fctk.k qn~ fHkn; 3-f}x qf.kr;

4-v/kZlw=h foHkktu ls chtk.kq cuukA

85. uhps fn;k x;k fp= dkcZu pØ dks iznf'kZr djrk gS :-

Organiccompounds

Carboncompounds

in soil

Fossil fuels

AtmosphericCO2

;fn dVkbZ djus ls taxy ds cgqr ls o`{kksa dks gVk fn;k tkrk

gS rks ml taxy esa dkcZu pØ ij gksus okyk rqjUr izHkko D;k

gksxk ?

(1) vi?kVu dh nj c

22/25


The pituitary gland can release a substance into

the bloodstream that signals target cells in the

kidneys to reabsorb more water. The released

substance is an example of

(1) An enzyme (2) A hormone

(3) A neurotransmitter (4) A vitamin

87. During which stage of the cell cycle does thecell duplicate its DNA?

(1) M stage (2) G1 stage

(3) S stage (4) G2 stage

88. Predict what will happen as an impulse travels

along the axon in the diagram below.

[Na ] [K ]

[Na ] [K ]

Insidecell

Outsidecell

Resting potential

(1) More potassium will move into the cell.

(2) More sodium will move into the cell.

(3) Both sodium and potassium will move out

of the cell.

(4) Sodium will move out of the cell.

89. What is produced by the structure labelledA in the illustration?

A

(1) Rhizoids (2) Thallose leaves(3) Spores (4) Rhizomes

ih;w"k xzfUFk ls ,d inkFkZ L=kfor gksrk gS tks jDr izokg ls

gksrk gqvk òDd dh y{; dksf'kdk dks vf/kd ikuhvo'kksf"kr

djus ds fy, lwpuk nsrk gSA L=kfor inkFkZ fuEu esa ls mnkgj.k

gS fdldk --------- ?

(1) ,d ,Utkbe (2) ,d gkWeksZu

(3) ,d U;wjksVªkWlehVj (4) ,d foVkehu

87. dksf'kdk pØ dh fdl voLFkk esa dksf'kdk vius DNA dk

izfrÏrhdj.k djrh gS ?

(1) M voLFkk (2) G1 voLFkk

(3) S voLFkk (4) G2 voLFkk

88. uhps fn, x, fp= esa lksfp, D;k gksxk tc ,d vkosx ,DlkWu

ls gksrk gqvk xqtjsxk ?

[Na ] [K ]

[Na ] [K ]

Insidecell

Outsidecell

Resting potential

(1) vf/kd ikSVsf'k;e dksf'kdk ds vUnj tk,xkA

(2) vf/kd lksfM+;e dksf'kdk ds vUnj tk,xkA

(3) lksfM;e ,oa ikSVsf'k;e dksf'kdk ds ckgj tk,xkA

(4) lksfM;e dksf'kdk ds ckgj tk,xkA

89. lajpuk A dks fp= esa n'kkZ;k x;k gSA bl lajpuk ls D;k mRiékgksrk gS ?

A

(1) ewykxz (2) FkSyl iÙkh(3) chtk.kq (4) izdUn

23/25


90. Which process is taking place in this diagram?

RibsDiaphragm

(1) Inhalation; the diaphragm is contracting.(2) Exhalation; the diaphragm is relaxing.(3) Inhalation; the chest cavity is reduced.(4) Exhalation; the rib cage is expanding.

91. Two arteries and two veins are labelled in thediagram.Which two are veins?

(1) A and B (2) B and C(3) B and D (4) C and D

92. Which reaction takes place in the stroma (2) ofthe chloroplast?

(1) Glycolysis(2) Light-dependent reaction(3) Light-independent reaction(4) Krebs cycle

93. Arteries -(1) Carry blood away from heart ,are thick

walled and contain valve(2) Carry blood away from heart ,are thick

walled and Lack valve(3) Carry blood towards heart ,are thin walled

and contain valve(4) Carry blood towards heart ,are thin walled

and lack valve94. Which of the following bacterial component is

made up of DNA?(1) Ribosome (2) Plasmid(3) Lysosomes (4) Protein

90. fn, x, fp= esa dkSulh izfØ;k gks jgh gS ?

RibsDiaphragm

(1) vUr% 'olu ; Mk;ÝkWe ladqfpr gks jgk gSA(2) fu% 'olu; Mk;ÝkWe f'kfFky gks jgk gSA(3) vUr% 'olu; o{kh; xqgk dk de gksuk(4) fu% 'olu; ilyh fiatjk QSyuk

91. fn, x, fp= esa nks /keuh;k¡ o nks f'kjk,sa n'kkZ;h xbZ gSA dkSulhnks f'kjk,sa gS ?

(1) A ,oa B (2) B ,oa C(3) B ,oa D (4) C ,oa D

92. fuEu esa ls dkSulh fØ;k gfjr yod ds LVªksek esa gksrh gS ?

(1) XykbQksykbfll

(2) izdk'k vk/kkfjr vfHkfØ;k

(3) izdk'k&lora= vfHkfØ;k

(4) Øsc pØ93. /keuh;ka -

(1) jDr dks ân; ls nwj] eksVh fHkfÙk o okYo okyh

(2) jDr dks ân; ls nwj] eksVh fHkfÙk o fcuk okYo okyh

(3) jDr dks ân; dh rjQ] iryh fHkfÙk o okYo okyh

(4) jDr dks ân; dh rjQ] iryh fHkfÙk o fcuk okYo okyh

94. fuEu esa ls dkSulk thok.kqoh; ?kVd DNA dk cukgksrk gS ?(1) jkbckslkse (2) IyktfeM(3) ykblkslkse (4) izksVhu

24/25


Comprehension for (Q.No.95 to Q.No.97)

About 1% of the total sun's energy reachingthe earth is used up by the plants in the processof photosynthesis and stored as chemicalenergy of food. There is a continuous transferof energy from one trophic level of organismsto the next in a food chain (producer toherbivore to carnivore and so on). At eachtrophic level, some of the energy is utilized bythe organisms for their metabolic activities likerespiration and growth. A part of the energy islost at each energy transfer in various tropiclevels. The amount of energy availablegradually decreases. Only 10% of the energyentering a particular trophic level of organismsis available for transfer to the next highertrophic level. The flow of energy is in singledirection because the energy lost as heat fromthe living organisms of a food chain cannot bereused by plants in photosynthesis. T1 T2 T3 T4 T5Grass®Insects®Frogs®Snakes®Eagle1000 cal. 100 cal. 10 cal. 1cal. 0.1 cal.

95. In the above food chain total amount of solar

energy perceived on earth converted to food

by producers is-

(1) 1% (2) 10%

(3) 99% (4) 90%

96. Total amount of energy available at Herbivore

level for next trophic level is:

(1) 100 cal. (2) 1000 cal.

(3) 10 cal. (4) 90 cal.

97. In the above food chain primary consumer and

secondary carnivore is(respectively)-

(1) Insect and frog

(2) Frog and Snake

(3) Insect and Snake

(4) None of the above

x|ka'k (iz-la- 95 ls iz-la- 97 ds fy,)

lw;Z izdk'k ÅtkZ dh dqy ÅtkZ dk 1% i`Foh lrg rd

igq¡prh gS ftldk mi;ksx ikS/ks izdk'k la'ys"k.k ds fy, djrs

gSa vkSj Hkkstu ds fy, jklk;fud ÅtkZ ds :i esa laxzfgr djrs

gSA Hkkstu [kk| J`a[kyk esa bl ÅtkZ dk ,d iks"k.k Lrj ls

n wljh ik s" k.k Lrj rd LFkkuk Urj.k gk srk g S

(mRiknd ® 'kkdkgkjh ® ekalkgkjh ,oa Øe'k% ) izR;sd

iks"k.k Lrj ij ml ÅtkZ dk dqN Hkkx] izk.kh }kjk mikip;h

fØ;k, tSls 'olu o o`fð esa dke esa ysrs gSA ÅtkZ dk Lrj

lrr~ de gksrk tkrk gSA tSls&tSls ; s vkxs ds iks"k.k Lrj dks

LFkkukUrfjr gksrh gSA dsoy ÅtkZ dk 10% Hkkx vkxs ds

iks"k.k Lrj rd igq¡p ikrh gS ÅtkZ dk izokg ,d fn'kk esa gksrkgS D;ksafd Å"ek ds :i esa âkflr ÅtkZ [kk| J`a[kyk esa ikni

}kjk izdk'k la'ys"k.k esa mi;ksx ugha dh tk ldrh gS

T1 T2 T3 T4 T5

?kkal ® dhV ® esa

25/25

Sample question for ASAT : Nurture Coursex|ka'k (iz-la- 98 ls iz-la- 100 ds fy,)

;wdSfjvksV~l esa lHkh izksfVLV] ikni] tUrq rFkk dod lfEefyrgSA ;wdSfjvksfVd dksf'kdkvksa esa f>Yyh vkLrkfjr dksf'kdkax ksadh mifLFkfr ls dksf'kdk æO; dk foLr̀r foHkktu gksrk gSA;wdSfj;ksfVd dksf'kdkvksa esa dsUædh; vkoj.k ds lkFk ,dlaxfBr dsUæd gksrk gSA blds vykok ; wdSfj;ksfVddksf'kdkvks esa tfVy pkyd rFkk dksf'kdk fiatj lajpukvksadh fofHkUu fdLesa gksrh gSaA vkuqokaf'kd inkFkZ xq.klq=ksa esaO;ofLFkr gksrk gSA lHkh ;wdSfj;ksfVd dksf'kdk,¡ leku ughagSA ikni rFkk tUrq dksf'kdk,¡ fHkUu gSa D;ksafd ikniksa esa dksf'kdkfHkfÙk] yod rFkk ,d cM+h dsUædh; fjfDrdk mifLFkr gksrhgS tks fd tUrq dksf'kdkvksa esa ;s vuqifLFkr gksrs gSA tcfdtUrq dksf'kdk esa rkjddsUæ gksrk gS tks ikni dksf'kdkvksa esavuqifLFkr gksrk gSA

98. f>Yyh vkLrkfjr dksf'kdkax feyrs gSa-(1) thok.kq (2) dod(3) uhy&gfjr 'kSoky (4) fo"kk.kq

99. yodksa dk ik;k tkuk fdldk vfHkyk{kf.kd xq.k gS-(1) ikni (2) tUrq(3) dod (4) thok.kq

100. ikni dksf'kdk esa dsUæd fdldh mifLFkfr ds dkj.k ifjèkh;gksrk gS -(1) cM+h dsUædh; fjfDrdk(2) lw=df.kdk(3) IykTek f>Yyh(4) jkbckslkse

Comprehension for (Q.No.98 to Q.No.100)The eukaryotes include all the protists, plants,animals and fungi. In eukaryotic cells there isan extensive compartmentalization ofcytoplasm through the presence of membranebound organelles. Eukaryotic cells possess anorganised nucleus with a nuclear envelope. Inaddition, eukaryotic cells have a variety ofcomplex locomotory and cytoskeletalstructures. Their genetic material is organisedinto chromosomes. All eukaryotic cells are notidentical. Plant and animal cells are differentas the former possess cell walls, plastids and alarge central vacuole which are absent in animalcells. On the other hand, animal cells havecentrioles which are absent in plant cells.

98. Membrane bound cell organelles are found in-(1) Bacteria (2) fungi(3) Blue green algae (4) Virus

99. Presence of plastids are characterstic feature of-(1) Plants (2) animals(3) Fungi (4) Bacteria

100. Nucleus is peripheral in plant cell due topresence of-(1) Central large vacuole(2) Mitochondria(3) Plasma membrane(4) Ribosome

New Class-XI (Nurture course)-PapercoverNew Class-XI (Nurture course)

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nure ce - allen · 2015. 12. 21. · marking scheme : a. if darkened bubble is right answer : 4...

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