ntse- (stage-i)mathematicsgyan.weebly.com/uploads/1/3/0/9/13090347/... · 2018. 10. 4. ·...

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NTSE- (Stage-I)

MAT Time allowed : One & half hours (90 Minutes) Maximum Marks : 90

Direction (1-5) : In each question there is a number series with one term missing shown by question mark (?). This term is one of the alternatives among the four numbers given under it. That number is : 1. 2, 30, 6, 20, 12, 12, (?) (1) 26 (2) 22 (3) 20 (4) 24 Ans. (3) Sol.

So missing term is 20.

2. 6, 20, 36, 48, 50, (?), 0 (1) 36 (2) 40 (3) 46 (4) 56 Ans. (*) Sol. Date inadequate.

3. 7, 15, 28, 59, 114, (?) (1) 243 (2) 233 (3) 213 (4) 223 Ans. (2) Sol. 7 × 2 + 1 = 15 15 × 2 – 2 = 28 28 × 2 + 3 = 59 59 × 2 – 4 = 114 114 × 2 + 5 = 233 So missing term is 233.

4. 25, 49, 89, 145, 217, (?) (1) 305 (2) 327 (3) 309 (4) 303 Ans. (1) Sol.

So missing term is 305.

NTSE {Stage-I}Sample Paper-{2}

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5. 0, 2, 2, 3, 3, 5, 8, 4, 10, (?), 5, 17 (1) 6 (2) 7 (3) 9 (4) 15 Ans. (4) Sol. There are three series as follows 0, 3, 8, 15 2, 3, 4, 5 2, 5, 10, 17 So missing term is 15.

Direction (6-10) : These questions consists of a number series which contains a wrong term. This term is given as one of the four alternatives among the four numbers given below. The wrong term is : 6. 89, 78, 86, 80, 85, 82, 83 (1) 83 (2) 82 (3) 86 (4) 78 Ans. (3) Sol.

Wrong term is 86. Should be replaced by 87.

7. 1, 1, 3, 9, 6, 36, 10, 100, 16, 225 (1) 225 (2) 16 (3) 10 (4) 9 Ans. (2) Sol.

So wrong term is 16. Should be replaced by 15.

8. 444, 300, 200, 136, 87, 84, 80 (1) 300 (2) 200 (3) 136 (4) 87 Ans. (4) Sol.

So wrong term is 87. Should be replaced by 100.

9. 8, 15, 31, 61, 123, 247, 491 (1) 247 (2) 491 (3) 121 (4) 61 Ans. (1) Sol. 8 × 2 – 1 = 15 15 × 2 + 1 = 31 31 × 2 – 1 = 61 61 × 2 + 1 = 123 123 × 2 – 1 = 245 245 × 2 + 1 = 491 So, wrong term is 247. Should be replaced by 245.


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10. 3, 6, 24, 30, 63, 72, 122, 132 (1) 132 (2) 30 (3) 122 (4) 72 Ans. (3) Sol. 3, 6, 24, 30, 63, 72, 122, 132 22 – 1, 32 – 3, 52 – 1, 62 – 6, 82 – 1, 92 – 9, 112 – 1, 122 – 12 So that wrong term is 122 should be replaced by 120. Direction (11-14) : Each question consists of four groups. One set is different from other three in someway. Find out the different set :

11. (1) PROQN (2) DFCEG (3) GIFHE (4) KMJLI Ans. (2) Sol. Pattern is 2 3 2 –3P R O Q N So that is DFCEG is odd one out.

12. (1) ACEGF (2) FHJLK (3) KMOQP (4) UWYZA Ans. (4) Sol. Pattern is 2 2 2 1A C E G F So that UWYZA is odd one out.

13. (1) CADGE (2) JHKNL (3) ECFGI (4) XVYBZ Ans. (3) Sol. Pattern is 2 3 3 2C A D G E So that ECFGI is odd one out.

14. (1) 6253 (2) 1881 (3) 7043 (4) 8210 Ans. (4) Sol. Other than 8210, all are odd numbers.

Direction (15-19) : In the following questions there is a letter series with one term missing shown by (?). Find this term from the four given alternatives. 15. YANWY, DFMBD, IKNGI, NPMLN, (?) XZMVX (1) RUMSR (2) SUNQS (3) UWNSU (4) VUMTV Ans. (2) Sol. Each first, second & fourth letter is +5 ahead in the next term. Third letter is N & M repeated and a first and

fifth letter is same. So missing term is SUNQS.

16. PEXKW, RFWMU, TGVOS, VHUQQ, XITSO, (?) (1) ZJSUM (2) YJSUZ (3) ZKSVJ (4) JZSTN Ans. (1) Sol. First letter is +2, Second letter is +1. Third letter is –1, Fourth letter is +2. Fifth letter is –2. So missing term is ZJSUM.

17. AYBZC, DWEXF, GUHVI, JSKTL, (?), POQPR (1) MQDRN (2) QMONR (3) MQNRO (4) NQMOR Ans. (3) Sol. First letter is +3, Second letter is –2, Third letter is +3, Fourth letter is –2 Fifth letter is +3. So missing term is MQNRO.


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18. ZYYZR, ABVUN, (?), BCUTM, XWABT, CDTSL (1) YXZAS (2) ZYABT (3) XWYZR (4) YXZAB Ans. (1) Sol. This is two alternate series So 1 1Z Y X 1 1Y X W 1 1Y Z A 1 1Z A B 1 1R S T So missing term is YXZAS. 19. deb, ijg, nol, (?), xyv (1) rsp (2) stp (3) rsq (4) stq Ans. (4) Sol. Each letter is +5 ahead from the preceding term. Direction (20-23) : In each question there are circles. Certain numbers are given inside/outside the circles according to a particular rule. In each question one of the circle has a (?) mark in side it. Choose the correct answer to fill in the space marked (?) from the given alternatives. 20.

(1) 144 (2) 136 (3) 135 (4) 124 Ans. (1) Sol. (7 + 5 + 9) × 3 = 63 (11 + 3 + 6) × 2 = 40 (7 + 18 + 11) × 4 = 144 21.

(1) 102 (2) 152 (3) 162 (4) 172 Ans. (3)

Sol. 12 8 6 649

5 12 10 758

21 9 12 16214

22.

(1) 91 (2) 108 (3) 116 (4) 119 Ans. (2) Sol. (7 × 8) + (6 + 4) = 66 (3 × 9) + (7 + 4) = 38 (11 × 9) + (7 + 2) = 108


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23.

(1) 10.25 (2) 10.50 (3) 11.25 (4) 11.50 Ans. (3)

Sol. 4 3 5 2 7.5016

5 6 2 3 11.2516

So, 5 2 2 9 11.2516

Direction (24-26) : These questions are based on letter series in which some of the letters are missing. The missing letters are given in the proper sequence in one of the alternatives among the four given under each question. Find out the correct alternatives for each question.

24. ab _ acc _ _ da _ bba _ (1) cdabc (2) badaa (3) cdbcd (4) dbacd Ans. (2) Sol. ab b acc a d da a bba a 25. abb _ _ ab _ b _ bba _ a (1) bbbab (2) babba (3) abaab (4) bbabb Ans. (4) Sol. abb b b ab a b b bba b a 26. b _ a _ bab _ ab _ a (1) baba (2) babb (3) abab (4) abba Ans. (3) Sol. b a a b bab a ab b a

Direction (27-31) : Out of nine cells of a square one cell is left blank and in the rest of the cells numbers are written which follow some rule. Get the rule and find out the proper option for the blank cell (?)

27.

(1) 4 (2) 6 (3) 8 (4) 10 Ans. (2) Sol. 2 4 2 8 10 12 14 160 2 6 12 20 30 42 56 72 So missing term is 6. 28.

(1) 66 (2) 68 (3) 69 (4) 71 Ans. (1) Sol. Sum of each column is 200. 91 + 84 + 25 = 200 64 + 76 + 60 = 200 73 + 61 + x = 200 i.e. x = 66


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29.

(1) 34 (2) 16 (3) 7 (4) 1 Ans. (*) Sol. Date inadequate 30.

(1) 50 (2) 48 (3) 47 (4) 51 Ans. (3) Sol. Sum of column is 49, 64, 81 respectively. i.e. missing term is 47. 31.

(1) 4 (2) 16 (3) 30 (4) 55 Ans. (2) Sol. 4 25 = 20 27 9 = 81 11 16 = 44 So missing term is 16. Direction (32-33) : Find out the correct alternative of the questions based on the Dice figures. 32.

The number opposite side the face having the no. 4 will be : (1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 5 (4) 6 Ans. (1) Sol. 3, 2, 5, 6 are adjacent to 1. So that 4 is opposite to 1. 33.

These positions of a Dice are shown. In figure (iii) which number will come in place of (?) (1) 5 (2) 3 (3) 6 (4) 1 Ans. (4)

Sol. i.e. 1 will come in place of question mark.


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34. The following figure is converted into a cube. Its correct shape will be :

(1) (2) (3) (4)

Ans. (4) Sol. Opposite pair are (2, 4), (1, 6) & (3, 5) i.e. from option only (4) is in correct shape. 35. The following figure is converted into a cube. Its four positions (a), (b), (c) and (d) are shown. On the basis

of these select correct alternative.

(1) A only (2) B only (3) A and C only (4) A, B, C and D Ans. (2) Sol. Opposite pair are (B, F), (C, E) & (A, D) i.e. from option only (b) is in correct shape. Direction (36-40) : The following question are based on the arrangement of numbers in the form of a pyramid. In each question there is some relationship between the two numbers on the left of the (::). The same relationship exists between the two terms in the right of which one is missing. Find the missing are from the given alternatives.

12 3 4

9 8 7 6 510 11 12 13 14 15 16

25 24 23 22 21 20 19 18 1726 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36

49 48 47 46 45 44 43 42 41 40 39 38 37

36. 132220 : 211412 : : 222931 : (?) (1) 304345 (2) 302123 (3) 442931 (4) 312022 Ans. (2) Sol. In the given numbers grid by observation. 37. 2873 : 13212014 : : 10242311 : (?) (1) 29282423 (2) 28274746 (3) 25272824 (4) 29454430 Ans. (4) Sol. In the given numbers grid by observation. 38. 241214 : 752119 : : 14163234 : (?) (1) 19174139 (2) 20184240 (3) 21194341 (4) 20224244 Ans. (1) Sol. In the given numbers grid by observation.


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39. 25224447 : 23204245 : : 11143229 : (?) (1) 13163431 (2) 24214341 (3) 24214346 (4) 13102421 Ans. (1) Sol. In the given numbers grid by observation. 40. 82224 : 133133 : : 62022 : (?) (1) 91221 (2) 81312 (3) 153335 (4) 51921 Ans. (3) Sol. In the given numbers grid by observation. Direction (41-45) : Words in Capital letters in column-I are written in small letters in a code language in column-II. Decode the Language and find out the correct alternative for the given letters in each questions.

COLUMN-I COLUMN-II

HERO Tbfw

JOIN Bakp

LAZY Nsvg

MINE Pdkt

PART Rwsx

SAURY Wveos

BLUE Eglt

CIGAR Vsqwp

WRIT Wpxy

VIRUS Pzwoe

QUACK Jqems

PIRL wprg 41. Code for letters in the word TOIL are : (1) pxba (2) bpgn (3) bpxg (4) mpxg Ans. (3) Sol. TOIL will be coded as bpxg. 42. Code for letters in the word COST are : (1) boqx (2) xgps (3) qost (4) xqnr Ans. (1) Sol. COST will be coded as boqx. 43. Code for letters in the word ULCER are : (1) ggwmr (2) teqwp (3) ktegp (4) gteqw Ans. (4) Sol. ULCER will be coded as gteqw. 44. Code for letters in the word SINE are : (1) ptkl (2) toka (3) ptok (4) optb Ans. (3) Sol. SINE will be coded as ptok. 45. Code for letters in the word ARCH are : (1) frsq (2) wfsq (3) wqfp (4) sqfn Ans. (2) Sol. ARCH will be code as wfsq.


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46. A and B are brother. C and D are sisters. A’s son is D’s brother. How is B relate to C ? (1) Brother (2) Father (3) Uncle (4) Son Ans. (3) Sol.

Let A’s son is E Direction (47) : Read the following information carefully and answer the question given below:

A + B means A is the daughter of B; A – B means A is the husband of B; A × B means A is the brother of B.

47. If P + Q – R, which one of the following is true ? (1) R is the mother of P (2) R is the sister-in-law of P (3) R is the aunt of P (4) R is the mother-in-law of P Ans. (1) Sol. P + Q – R means

i.e. R is the mother of P. Direction (48-50) : Find out the missing one from the given alternatives. 48. 08 : 28 : : (?) : 65 (1) 9 (2) 12 (3) 15 (4) 18 Ans. (3) Sol. 32 – 1 : 33 + 1 : : 42 – 1 : 43 + 1 i.e. missing term is 15. 49. 35 : 91 : : 189 : (?) (1) 343 (2) 341 (3) 280 (4) 210 Ans. (2) Sol. 23 + 33 : 33 + 43 : : 43 + 53 : 53 + 63 So missing term is 341.

50. 7 13 19: : : : (?)11 17 23

(1) 2527

(2) 2931

(3) 2329

(4) 2933

Ans. (2)

Sol. All are prime number 7 13 19 29: : : :11 17 23 31

Direction (51-53) : Following four diagrams marked 1, 2, 3 and 4 are given as alternatives. Choose the best suitable alternative diagram marked 1, 2, 3 and 4, the one that represent the best relationship amongst the three given groups.

(1) (2) (3) (4)

51. Birds, Crows, Cats Ans. (4) Sol. Crows lies in Birds class


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52. Snakes, Land creatures, Water eveatures Ans. (1) Sol. Snakes are land creatures as well as water eveatures. 53. Males, Nephews, Nieces Ans. (4) Sol. Nephew lies in males class. Direction (54-56) : In the following questions some relations are written by particular indicators as shown below: O = Greater than + = Equal to = Not equal to = Not greater than × = Not less than = Less than 54. If p q O r, it is possible that : (1) p × q × r (2) p × q r (3) p q r (4) p q r Ans. (1) Sol. p × q × r means q is greater than or equal to r . 55. If p q r, it is not possible that : (1) p q r (2) p q r (3) p q r (4) p + q × r Ans. (4) Sol. p + q × r means p is not equal to q which is not possible. 56. If p × q r, it is not possible that : (1) p q r (2) p × q + r (3) p q O r (4) p O q + r Ans. (3) Sol. p q O r means q is greater than r. 57. If your birth day 30th June, 2003 falls on Monday, on what day of the week does your birth day fall in the

year 2005 ? (1) Sunday (2) Tuesday (3) Wednesday (4) Thursday Ans. (4) Sol. Thursday because total number odd days will be three. 58. On what day of the week India will celebrate its Republic Day on 26th January, 2015 ? (1) Sunday (2) Monday (3) Tuesday (4) Wednesday Ans. (2) Sol. Monday. 59. At what angle are the hands of a clock inclined at 30 minutes past 6 ?

(1) 172 (2) 111

2 (3) 15° (4) 23°

Ans. (3) Sol. 30 × 6 – 11/2 × 30 = 15º. 60. A clock is set to show the correct time at 11 a.m. The clock gains 12 minutes in 12 hours what will be the

true when the watch indicates 1 p.m. on the 6th day ? (1) 10 a.m. (2) 11 a.m. (3) 12 noon (4) None of these Ans. (2)

Sol.

1 dayst 2 daynd 3 dayrd 4 dayth 5 dayth 6 dayth

24 hrs 24 hrs 24 hrs 24 hrs 24 hrs

11.a.m.

1.p.m. 122 hrs. of given clock is equal to 120 hrs of actual time. Total hrs (according to given clock = 24 × 5 + 2 = 122 hrs i.e. actual time will be 2hrs back = 11 a.m.


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Direction (61-64) : Two Sets of the figures are given. One set of Question-figures and another set is of Answer figure. Question-figures are arranged in a sequence. One figure from the Answer figures is to be selected such that it can be placed after the series of Question-figures. Find the correct Serial number of the selected Answer-figure. 61. Question-Figures :

Answer-Figures :

(1) (2) (3) (4) Ans. (2) Sol. By visualizing the figure option 2 is correct. 62. Question-Figures :

Answer-Figures :

Ans. (1) Sol. By visualizing the figure option 1 is correct. 63. Question-Figures :

Answer-Figures :

Ans. (4) Sol. By visualizing the figure option 4 is correct. 64. Question-Figures :

Answer-Figures :

Ans. (2) Sol. By visualizing the figure option 2 is correct.


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Directions (65-68) : In each of the following questions four figures are given. One of these figures does not fit with the rest of the figures. Find out that correct serial number. 65.

Ans. (3) Sol. By visualizing the figure option 3 is correct. 66.



Ans. (1, 4) Sol. By visualizing the mirror image option 1 is correct or by visualizing the water image option 4 is correct Direction (69-72) : In the following questions there is some relationship between the two figure on the left of (::) the same relationship exists between the two term on the right, of which one is missing. Find the missing one from the given alternative. 69. Questions-Figures :

Answer-Figures :



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70. Questions-Figures :

Answer-Figures :

Ans. (1) Sol. By visualizing the figure option 1 is correct. 71. Questions-Figures :

Answer-Figures :

Ans. (2) Sol. By visualizing the figure option 2 is correct. 72. Questions-Figures :

Answer-Figures :

Ans. (3) Sol. By visualizing the figure option 3 is correct. Direction (73-76) : The following questions are related to paper cutting. The questions that follow contain a set of three figures X, Y and Z, showing a sequence of folding of a piece of paper. Fig. (Z) shows the manner in which the folded paper has been cut. These three figures are followed by four answer figures 1, 2, 3 and 4 (IInd Set) from which you have to choose a figure which would most closely resemble the unfolded form of fig. (Z). 73. Sequence of folding the paper.

Answer-Figures :



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74. Sequence of folding the paper.

Answer-Figures :

Ans. (2) Sol. By visualizing the figure option 2 is correct. 75. Sequence of folding the paper.

Answer-Figures :

Ans. (1) Sol. By visualizing the figure option 1 is correct. 76. Sequence of folding the paper.

Answer-Figures :



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77. X, Y, Z and P are sitting around a circular table and discussing their trades. (1) X, sits opposite to cook (2) Y, sits right to the barber (3) The washerman is on the left of the tailor (4) P, sits opposite Z What are the trades X and Y ? (1) Tailor and Barber (2) Barber and Cook (3) Tailor and Cook (4) Tailor and Washerman Ans. (3) Sol.

78. Six persons, A, B, C, D, E and F are standing in a circle. B is between F and C, A is between E and D, F is

to the left of D. Who is between A and F ? (1) B (2) C (3) D (4) E Ans. (3)

Sol.

79. Six students are sitting in a row. K is sitting between V and R. V is sitting next to M. M is sitting next to B

who is sitting on the extreme left and Q is sitting next to R. Who are sitting adjacent to V ? (1) R and Q (2) B and M (3) K and R (4) M and K Ans. (4) Sol. 80. If 27 3 = 243 5 4 = 80 Then what is the value of 3 7 ? (1) 84 (2) 147 (3) 63 (4) 23 Ans. (2) Sol. 81 × 3 = 243 20 × 4 = 80 21 × 7 = 147. Direction (81 - 84) : The six faces of a cube are painted in a manner that no two adjacent faces have the same colour. The three colours used in painting are red, blue and green. The cube is then cut into 36 smaller cubes in such a manner that 32 cubes are of one size and the rest of a bigger size and each of the bigger cubes has no red side. Answer the following questions. 81. How many cubes in all have a red side ? (1) 16 (2) 32 (3) 8 (4) 20 Ans. (2) 82. How many cubes in all have only one side coloured ? (1) 20 (2) 16 (3) 0 (4) 8 Ans. (4)


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83. How many cubes are coloured on three sides ? (1) 20 (2) 16 (3) 8 (4) 0 Ans. (3) 84. How many cubes are there which have two or more sides painted ? (1) 36 (2) 28 (3) 20 (4) 32 Ans. (2) Sol. (81-84) The given cube has been cut in following manner.

85. In a coded language NUMBER is written as in MFNYVI, Then FIGURE may be written in coded language

as : (1) ERHFID (2) URTVSF (3) GJTFSF (4) URTFIV Ans. (4) Sol. Every alphabet is coded by it’s reverse ranking alphabet . 86. In a coded language SHIFT is written as UFKDV, Then COVET may be written in coded language as : (1) EMXCV (2) FNYDU (3) EXCUV (4) EQUDS Ans. (1)

Sol.

87. If PET = 4 LET = 3 JEY = 2 Then what is the value of XET ? (1) 1 (2) 5 (3) 6 (4) 8 Ans. (3) Sol. PET = 4 is coded as : P = 16 , E = 5, T = 20 16 × 5 = 80/20 = 4 Similarly XET = 6. 88. In a coded language is HOME = 2541, SHOP, = 8256, WORK = 9573, then coded for SMOKE will be : (1) 85431 (2) 84531 (3) 83451 (4) 84351 Ans. (2) Sol. Code for S = 8, M = 4, O = 5, K = 3, E = 1.


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89. What will be the number of Hexagonals in the given figure ?

(1) 2 (2) 4 (3) 5 (4) 6 Ans. (4) Sol. Total number of Hexagonals figures is 6. 90. What will be the number of Parallelograms in the given figure ?

(1) 15 (2) 17 (3) 13 (4) 16 Ans. (2) Sol. Total number of Parallelograms are 17.

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NTSE- (Stage-I)

SAT Time allowed : One & half hours (90 Minutes) Maximum Marks : 90

1. Which is not the unit of Force : (1) Poundal (2) Dyne (3) Joule (4) Newton Ans. (3) Sol. Joule is not the unit of force. 2. The expansion of a solid body depends on : (1) Mass of the solid only (2) Nature of the solid only (3) Temperature of the solid only (4) Nature and temperature of the solid Ans. (4) Sol. The expansion of a solid body depends on Nature and temperature of the solid 3. Which country is called the country of Wind mills? (1) Holland (2) Britain (3) India (4) America Ans. (1) Sol. Holland is called the country of Wind mills 4. Who was the first President of Atomic energy commission in India : (1) Homi Jahangir Bhabha (2) Vikram Sarabhai (3) Prof. M.S. Swaminathan (4) Prof. Meghnad Saha Ans. (1) Sol. Homi Jahangir Bhabha was the first President of Atomic energy commission in India. 5. The particles of the medium in the transverse wave move : (1) Circular Motion (form) (2) Oval form (3) In direction of the wave motion (4) Perpendicular to the direction of the wave motion Ans. (4) Sol. The particles of the medium in the transverse wave move Perpendicular to the direction of the wave

motion. 6. The lens used in the Camera is : (1) Convex Lens (2) Concave Lens (3) Biconvex Lens (4) Biconcave Lens Ans. (1) Sol. The lens used in the Camera is Convex Lens. 7. Velocity of sound is maximum in : (1) Water (2) Oil (3) Air (4) Iron Ans. (4) Sol. Velocity of sound is maximum in solid. 8. One volt is equal to : (1) 1 Joule (2) 1 Newton/Coulomb (3) 1 Joule/Coulomb (4) 1 Coulomb/Newton Ans. (3) Sol. One volt is equal to 1 Joule/Coulomb.


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9. On a bulb is written 220 Volt and 60 watt. Find out the resistance of the bulb and the value of the current flowing through it :

(1) 806.66 ohm and 0.27 ampere (2) 500 ohm and 2 ampere (3) 200 ohm and 4 ampere (4) 100 ohm and 1 ampere Ans. (1)

Sol. R = 2V

P =

222060

= 806.66 ohm

P 60I 0.27 AV 220

10. The maximum attraction in a magnet is : (1) In the centre (2) On the sides (3) On the poles (4) On the surface Ans. (3) Sol. The maximum attraction in a magnet is on the poles. 11. The unit of frequency is : (1) Hertz (2) Joule (3) Ohm (4) Kilo Calorie Ans. (1) Sol. The unit of frequency is Hertz. 12. The first Astronaut in space was : (1) H.G. Wales (2) Neel Armstrong (3) Uri Gagarin (4) Robert Godai Ans. (3) Sol. The first Astronaut in space was Uri Gagarin. 13. Boiling point of Water is : (1) 273°K (2) 0° K (3) 373° K (4) 100° K Ans. (3) Sol. Boiling point of water is 100°C = 273 + 100 = 373°K. 14. The process by which a mixture of Sodium Chloride and Ammonium Chloride can be separated, is called : (1) Sublimation (2) Chromatography (3) Evaporation (4) Distillation Ans. (1) Sol. Ammonium chloride is a sublime compound so mixture of ammonium chloride and sodium chloride can be

separated through sublimation. 15. The formula of Ammonium Sulphate is : (1) NH4SO4 (2) (NH4)2 SO4 (3) NH4 (SO4)2 (4) NH4 (SO4)3 Ans. (2) Sol. Ammonium sulphate

NH4+ SO4

2–

SO4(NH )4 2 16. Isotopes of an element have : (1) Same Physical Properties (2) Different Chemical Properties (3) Different No. of Neutrons (4) Different Atomic Number Ans. (3) Sol. Isotopes contain same no. of proton but different no. of neutrons. 17. A Brown and bright element “X” when heated in presence of air turns in to black substance “y”. If Hydrogen

gas is passed over this heating material again “x” is obtained. “x” and “y are : (1) Cu & CuO (2) S & SO4 (3) C & CO2 (4) Na & NaH Ans. (1) Sol. When we heat Cu in presence of air, CuO (black colour) is formed, If H2 gas is passed over this CuO,

again Cu obtained

2

2 2

2Cu O 2CuOCuO H Cu H O


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18. pH of any neutral solution is : (1) 0 (2) 1 (3) 14 (4) 7 Ans. (4) Sol. pH of any neutral solution is 7. 19. A non metal, which is found in liquid state is : (1) Bromine (2) Iodine (3) Oxygen (4) Carbon Ans. (1) Sol. Bromine is only non-metal which is found in liquid state. 20. The pH of a solution which turns red litmus Blue will be : (1) 1 (2) 9 (3) 4 (4) 5 Ans. (2) Sol. Basic solution turns red litmus in to blue litmus means pH > 7 21. Which of the following is correct electronic configuration of Argon : (1) 2, 8 (2) 2, 8, 8 (3) 8, 8, 1 (4) 8, 2, 8 Ans. (2) Sol. Atomic no. of Argon (Ar) is 18 so electronic configuration is 2, 8, 8 22. Element “X” which is solid and having high melting point, from a Chloride “x Cl3”. This element “x” would be

in which group of Periodic table : (1) Na (2) Mg (3) Al (4) Si Ans. (3) Sol. Element “X” which is solid and having high melting point, from a Chloride “x Cl3”, belongs to group no. 13

and it can be Al. 23. Methane with the Molecular formula “CH4” has : (1) 4 Covalent bonds (2) 8 Covalent bonds (3) 6 Covalent bonds (4) 2 Covalent bonds Ans. (1) Sol. Carbon contain 4 electrons in its outermost shell i.e. covalency of carbon of is 4. In methane (CH4), 4

covalent bonds are present.

H

CH HH

24. Cell organelle which differentiates plant cell from animal cell is : (1) Cell Membrane (2) Plastids (3) Nucleouls (4) Vacuoles Ans. (2) Sol. Plant cell has plastid while animal cell does not. 25. Blood is a type of connective tissue, which has : (1) R.B.C (2) W.B.C (3) Platlets (4) All of the above Ans. (4) Sol. Blood is fluid connective tissue comprising of plasma and blood corpuscles (RBC, WBC and platelets). 26. Bile Juice is secreted from : (1) Salivary glands (2) Intestinal glands (3) Stomach (4) Liver Ans. (4) Sol. Bile Juice is secreted by liver and stored in gall bladder. 27. When acidity in Stomach increases, the medicine generally used is : (1) Sodium bicarbonate (2) Sodium Carbonate (3) Ammonium Carbonate (4) Ammonium bicarbonate Ans. (1) Sol. Acidity is neutralized by taking edible salt (sodium bicarbonate) as medicine. 28. Planaria is kept in which group : (1) Coelenterata (2) Platyhelminthes (3) Nematoda (4) Annelida Ans. (2) Sol. Planaria is a free living member of phylum platyhelminthes.


4

29. Which of the following is an example of Bryophyte : (1) Moss (2) Fern (3) Pinus (4) Algae Ans. (1) Sol. Byrophyte includes mosses, liverwort and hornwort. 30. Dissimilarity found in Aves and Mammalia is : (1) Warm Blooded Animal (2) Lay eggs (3) Breathe through Lungs (4) Four chambered Heart Ans. (2) Sol. Both aves and mammals are warm blood animals both have four chambered heart and respire by lungs

while members of aves are oviparous whereas that of mammalia are viviparous mostly. 31. Substances necessary for autotrophic nutrition are : (1) CO2 and H2O (2) Chlorophyll (3) Sun light (4) All of the above Ans. (4) Sol. Autotrophic nutrition required CO2, H2O, chlorophyll and light. 32. Blood Pressure is measured with an instrument called : (1) Thermometer (2) Stethoscope (3) Sphygmo manometer (4) Clinical Thermometer Ans. (3) Sol. Blood pressure is measured with sphygmomanometer. 33. Phloem tissues in plants are responsible for : (1) Transportation of Water (2) Transportation of food (3) Transportation of Ammino Acids (4) Transportation of Oxygen Ans. (2) Sol. Food is transported by phloem. 34. The plants in which vegetative propagation is found, are : (1) Brayophyllum (2) Sugarcane (3) Rose (4) All of the above Ans. (4) Sol. Sugarcane and rose are propagated by cutting and bryophyllum by leaf, all three propagate by vegetative

propagation. 35. Which of the following is not a plant hormone : (1) Auxin (2) Gibberellins (3) Cytokinin (4) Adrenaline Ans. (4) Sol. All are plant hormone except adrenalin which is an animal harmone secreted from adrenal gland. 36. Graph drawn from the equation y = x2 – 3x – 4 will be : (1) Circle (2) Parabola (3) Straight line (4) Hyperbola Ans. (2) Sol. y = x2 – 3x – 4 Graph will be parabola. 37. For which values of ‘a’ and ‘b’ does the following pair of linear equations have an infinite number of

solution : 2x + 3y = 7, (a – b)x + (a + b)y = 3a + b – 2 (1) a = 5, b = 1 (2) a = 4, b = 2 (3) a = 1, b = 5 (4) a = 2, b = 4 Ans. (1) Sol. 2x + 3y = 7 (a – b) x + (a + b)y = 3a + b – 2 for Infinite solution

2a – b

= 3 7a b 3a b – 2

So, 2a – b

= 3 a 5ba b

..........(1)

3a b

= 7 a 2b 33a b – 2

..........(2)

On solving (1) & (2) a = 5, b = 1


5

38. If b2 – 4ac 0 then the roots of quadratic equation ax2 + bx + c = 0 is :

(1) 2b b – 4ac

2a 2a (2)

2b b – 4ac–2a 2a

(3) 2b b 4ac

2a 2a

(4) 2b b – 4ac–

2a 2a

Ans. (4) Sol. ax2 + bx + c = 0

then roots = 2 2–b b 4ac –b b – 4ac

2a 2a 2a

39. The sum of the third and seventh terms of an A.P. is 6 and their product is 8, then common difference is :

(1) ±1 (2) ±2 (3) ± 12

(4) ± 14

Ans. (3) Sol. a + 2d + a + 6d = 6 2a + 8d = 6 a + 4d = 3 .........(1) (a + 2d)(a + 6d) = 8 (3 – 2d)(3 + 2d) = 8 from (1) 9 – 4d2 = 8 1 = 4d2 d = ±1/2 40. In a given figure in trapazium ABCD if AB || CD then value of x is :

(1) 298

(2) 829

(3) 20 (4) 120

Ans. (3) Sol. AOB ~ COD

AOOC

= OB ABOD CD

25

= x – 2 x 202x 5

41. If points (x, 0), (0, y) and (1, 1) are collinear then the the relation is : (1) x + y = 1 (2) x + y = xy (3) x + y + 1 = 0 (4) x + y + xy = 0 Ans. (2)

Sol. Equation of line passing (0, y) and (x, 0) will be X Yx y = 1 it passes (1, 1) so.

1 1 1x y x + y = xy

42. If sin (A + B) = 32

, cos (A – B) = 32

and O < A + B 90°, if A > B then the value of A and B are :

(1) A = 45°, B = 15° (2) A = 60°, B = 30° (3) A = 0°, B = 30° (4) A = 30°, B = 0° Ans. (1)

Sol. sin (A + B) = 32

A + B = 60°

cos (A – B) = 32

A – B = 30°

So, A = 45°, B = 15°.


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43. If the Angle of elevation of sun increases from 0° to 90° then the change in the length of shadow of Tower

will be : (1) No change in length of shadow (2) Length of shadow increase (3) Length of shadow decreases (4) Length of shadow will be zero Ans. (3) Sol. Length of shadow decreases as angle of elevation of sum increases 0° to 90°. 44. The perimeter of square and circumference of Circle are equal, the area of square is 121 m2 then the area

of Circle is : (1) 7 m2 (2) 14 m2 (3) 21 m2 (4) 49 m2 Ans. (4) Sol. Area of square = 121 m2 So, side = 11 m Perimeter of square = 44 m So, circumference of circle = 44 cm 2r = 44 r = 7 m area of circle = × 7 × 7 = 49 45. A drinking glass is in the shape of a frusturm of a cone of height 14 cm. The diameter of its two circular

ends are 4 cm. and 2 cm. then the capacity of glass is :

(1) 32102 cm3

(2) 31102 cm3

(3) 32101 cm3

(4) 31101 cm3

Ans. (1)

Sol. Capacity of glass = 2 21 (1 2 1 2) 143

= 1 22 [7] 143 7

= 3083

= 32102 cm3

46. The median and mode of a frequency distribution are 525 and 500 then mean of same frequency

distribution is : (1) 75 (2) 107.5 (3) 527.5 (4) 537.5 Ans. (4) Sol. Mode = 3 Median – 2 Mean 500 = 3 × 525 – 2 Mean Mean = 537.5 47. The author of the book “The Book on games of chance” based on probability theory is : (1) J. Cardon (2) R.S. Woodwards (3) P.S. Laplace (4) P.D. Pherma Ans. (1) Sol. The book on games of chance is written by J. Cardon.

48. Rationalising the denominator of 5

3 – 5 is :

(1) 5 3 52

(2) 5– 3 52

(3) 5 3 – 52

(4) 5– 3 – 52

Ans. (2)

Sol. 5 3 53 – 5 3 5

= –5 ( 3 5)

2


7

49. Value of 10022

is :

(1) 1 (2) 50100 (3) 250 (4) 299

Ans. (4)

Sol. 10022

= 299

50. The number of Straight line drawn from one point to any other point are : (1) 4 (2) 3 (3) 2 (4) 1 Ans. (4) Sol. The number of straight line drawn from one point to any other point are equal to one. 51. In a given figure PQ || ST, PQR = 110°, RST = 130° then value of QRS is :

(1) 20° (2) 50° (3) 60° (4) 70° Ans. (3) Sol.

VQR = 70° QVR = 50° So, QRS = 180 – (70° + 50°) = 60° 52. The bisectors of angles of a parallelogram makes a figure which is : (1) Rectangle (2) Circle (3) Pentagon (4) Octagon Ans. (1) Sol.

SRQ = 90° As A + B = 180 1 1A B 902 2

So SPQ = 90° So PSR = 90° So PQR = 90° 53. The Chord of maximum length in a Circle is called : (1) Radius (2) Arc (3) Diameter (4) Point Ans. (3) sSol. The chord of maximum length in a circle is called diameter. 54. Area of triangle ABC whose sides are 24 m. 40 m. and 32 m is : (1) 96 m2 (2) 384 m2 (3) 43 m2 (4) 192 m2 Ans. (2) Sol. ABC will be Right angled triangle because 402 = 242 + 322

Area = 21 24 32 384m2


8

55. Curved surface of right circular cylinder is 4.4 m2, radius of base is 0.7 m. then the height is (Take = 227

)

(1) 1 m. (2) 2 m. (3) 3 m. (4) 4 m. Ans. (1) Sol. 2rh = 4.4

222 (.7)h7

= 4.4

h = 1 m. 56. Who built Jantar-Mantar ? (1) Sawai Jaisingh (2) Mirza Raja Jaisingh (3) Raja Mansingh (4) Pratap Singh Ans. (1) Sol. Jantar Mantar is an astronomical observatory built by Raja Jai Singh II in 18th century. 57. Who was the author of “Geet Govind” ? (1) Sarangdhar (2) Jaidev (3) Madhodas (4) Bihari Ans. (2) Sol. The Gita Govinda (Song of Govinda) is a work composed by the 12th-century poet, Jayadeva. 58. Kaila Devi Sanctuary is situated in which district? (1) Alwar (2) Dungarpur (3) Karauli (4) Udaipur Ans. (3) Sol. Established in 1983, Kailadevi Wildlife Sanctuary is situated in the village of Kailadevi, district Karauli

Rajasthan. 59. Who was mainly responsible for “Bang-Bhang” ? (1) Lord Litton (2) Lord Rippon (3) Lord Meuchale (4) Lord Korzen Ans. (4) Sol. The decision to effect the Partition of Bengal( Bang – Bhang) was announced in July 1905 by the Viceroy

of India, Lord Curzon. 60. In 1913, Dada Saheb Phalke made the movie : (1) Basant (2) Raja Harishchandra (3) Anari (4) Paying guest Ans. (2) Sol. Raja Harishchandra is a 1913 silent Indian film directed and produced by Dadasaheb Phalke. 61. What is Gilotin? (1) Mine of Coal (2) Human Settlement (3) Death Machine (4) Shifting Agriculture Ans. (3) Sol. The guillotine is a device designed for carrying out executions during French Revolution by Maximilien

Robespierre, 62. Massai Mara national Park is located in : (1) India (2) Pakistan (3) Sudan (4) Kenya Ans. (4) Sol. The Maasai Mara National Reserve is a large game reserve in south-western Kenya. 63. In which country first time the cultivation of opium begin? (1) Portugal (2) India (3) China (4) Britain Ans. (2) Sol. In the early part of 16th century, opium was cultivated in India during the Mughul period. 64. Which treaty was imposed on Germany after first would war ? (1) Versailles (2) Paris (3) Vienna (4) London Ans. (1) Sol. The Treaty of Versailles 1919 was one of the peace treaties at the end of World War l between Germany

Allies.


9

65. Who opened the first Cricket Club in India? (1) Britisher (2) Hindu (3) Jurestreian (4) Muslim Ans. (3) Sol. The Parsis founded the first Indian cricket club, the Oriental Cricket Club in Bombay in 1848. 66. What is “Barkan” ? (1) Name of Sand dune (2) Name of Village (3) Name of Tree (4) Name of Mountain Ans. (1) Sol. Barchans is a crescent-shaped shifting sand dune, convex on the windward side and steeper and concave

on the leeward. 67. Which state coast line is called the Malabar? (1) Gujrat (2) Kerala (3) Rajasthan (4) West Bengal Ans. (2) Sol. The Malabar Coast is a long and narrow coastline on the south-western shore line of the mainland Indian

subcontinent in Kerala. 68. Ranthambore is situated in : (1) Rajasthan (2) Arunachal Pradesh (3) Assam (4) Madhya Pradesh Ans. (1) Sol. Ranthambore National Park is one of the largest national parks situated in Rajasthan, India. 69. The full form of C.N.G. is : (1) Compund Natural Gas (2) Complex Natural Gas (3) Compund New Gas (4) Compressed Natural Gas Ans. (4) Sol. Compressed natural gas (CNG) is a fossil fuel substitute for gasoline (petrol). 70. The ore of iron is : (1) Haematite (2) Uranium (3) Bauxite (4) Lignite Ans. (1) Sol. Hematite, also spelled as haematite, is the mineral form of iron. 71. Gender ratio in India is : (1) 880 / 1000 (2) 940 / 1000 (3) 300 / 1000 (4) 400 / 1000 Ans. (2) Sol. Sex Ratio of India has improved from 933 in 2001 to 940 in 2011. 72. Bhakra-Nangal Project is situated on the River? (1) Satluj (2) Tungbhadra (3) Damodar (4) Mahi Ans. (1) Sol. Bhakra Nangal Dam is a gravity dam across the Sutlej river. 73. When was “Indian Wildlife Protection Act” implemented? (1) 1970 (2) 1972 (3) 1974 (4) 1976 Ans. (2) Sol. The Government of India enacted Wild Life (Protection) Act 1972 with the objective of effectively protecting

the wild life of this country and to control poaching, smuggling and illegal trade in wildlife and its derivatives. 74. Salty Water lake is : (1) Jaisamand lake (2) Rajsamand lake (3) Didwana lake (4) Gapsagar lake Ans. (3) Sol. Didwana is about 180 km west of Jaipur the pink city and capital of Rajasthan. It is 230 km East of

Jodhpur. The famous salt lake – The Didwana salt lake is situated here. 75. The Rainfall that occurs during winter season is known as : (1) Monsoon (2) Cyclone (3) Mango Shower (4) Mavath Ans. (4) Sol. Winter rains locally known as mahawat in Rajasthan. 76. Who is the first Person of India ? (1) Prime Minister (2) President (3) Governor (4) Chief Minister Ans. (2) Sol. The President is the first citizen of the country.


10

77. The country that is not permanent member of United Nation Organisation is ? (1) Russia (2) Britain (3) China (4) India Ans. (4) Sol. The permanent members of the Security Council, also known as the Permanent Five, Big Five, or P5,

include the following five governments: China, France, Russia the United Kingdom and USA. 78. “The long walk to freedom” is autobiography of? (1) Nelsen Mandela (2) Mahatma Gandhi (3) Barak Obama (4) Amitabh Bachchan Ans. (1) Sol. “Long Walk to Freedom” is an autobiographical work written by South African President Nelson Mandela. 79. “Code of conduct” is related to ? (1) War (2) Transportation (3) Cereals (4) Election Ans. (4) Sol. Election Commission of India issue code of conduct for political parties in elections. 80. Who can seek information from government under “right to information Act” ? (1) Any citizen (2) Only Government officials (3) Only elected members of Loksabha (4) Only elected members of Vidhan Sabha Ans. (1) Sol. The Right to Information Act 2005 (RTI) is an Act of the Parliament of India "to provide for setting out the

practical regime of right to information for citizens”. 81. How many languages are there under article 8th in the Indian Constitution? (1) 22 (2) 20 (3) 25 (4) 15 Ans. (1) Sol. The Eighth Schedule to the Indian Constitution contains a list of 22 scheduled languages. 82. The first nation of the world which provided adult franchise is : (1) America (2) India (3) Brazil (4) New Zealand Ans. (4) Sol. New Zealand is the first nation in the world to achieve universal adult franchise. 83. Which of the following Country has adopted the one (single) Party System? (1) India (2) America (3) Japan (4) China Ans. (4) Sol. Chinese Communist Party. 84. In which year Indian National Congress was established? (1) 1889 (2) 1885 (3) 1985 (4) 1905 Ans. (2) Sol. INC was founded on 28 December 1885. 85. Out of the following which is not a union territory? (1) Puducherry (2) Chandigarh (3) Goa (4) Daman and Div Ans. (3) Sol. Goa is a state. 86. When was the “National Rural Employment Gurantee Act” Passed? (1) 2001 (2) 2003 (3) 2005 (4) 2007 Ans. (3) Sol. The Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act (MGNREGA) is an Indian job guarantee

scheme, enacted by legislation on August 25, 2005. 87. What is GDP? (1) Gross Daily Production (2) Gross Domestic Production (3) Gross Domestic Power (4) Gross Development Production Ans. (2) Sol. Gross domestic product (GDP) is the market value of all officially recognized final goods and services

produced within a country in a given period of time.


11

88. When is the National Consumer Day celebrated in India? (1) December, 24 (2) September, 16 (3) March, 8 (4) May, 25 Ans. (1) Sol. In India, 24th December is observed as “National Consumer Rights Day”, since the Consumer Protection

Act, 1986 was enacted on this day. 89. According to Census-2011 the literacy rate of Rajasthan? (1) 48.34% (2) 54.90% (3) 67.06% (4) 74.04% Ans. (3) Sol. Literacy rate of Rajasthan is 67.07% according to 2011. 90. In which year did the Economic Liberalisation start in India? (1) 1991 (2) 1996 (3) 1999 (4) 2004 Ans. (1) Sol. The economic liberalisation in India refers to ongoing economic reforms in India that started on 24 July

1991.

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