ntse stage 1 delhi solved paper 2014

Solutions to NTSE-I (2014)

(For Class X Students)

(SAT)

Time: 90 Minutes Max Marks: 90

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES

Read the following instructions carefully before you open the Question Booklet.

1. Use blue/black ball point pen only.

2. Write your Roll No. very clearly (only one digit in on block) on this booklet and on the

ANSWER SHEET.

3. This test consists of 90 questions of one mark each. All the questions are COMPULSORY.

4. Answer to each question by filling the correct alternative among the four choices on the answer

sheet.

Example:

Q.No.

Q.No.

1

1

Alternatives

Alternatives

2 4 1

1 2 3 4

Correct way:

Wrong way:

5. Separate sheet has been provided for rough work in this test booklet.

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NTSE-ST-I-2014-SAT-QP-2

91. A body falling from rest describes distances S1, S2 and S3 is the first, second and third seconds of its fall. Then the ratio of S1 : S2 : S3 is :

(1) 1 : 1 : 1 (2) 1 : 3 : 5 (3) 1 : 2 : 3 (4) 1 : 4 : 9 91. 2

91. 21

S = u t + g t , u = 0 .2

21S = g t

2

Here s is displacement.

Distance dropped in 1st second, 2

1

1 1S g 1 g 1

2 2

Distance dropped in 2nd second, 2 2

2

1 1 1S g 2 g 1 g 3

2 2 2

Distance dropped in 3rd second, 2 2

3

1 1 1S g 3 g 2 g 5

2 2 2

S1 : S2 : S3 = 1 : 3 : 5 92. Two bodies with kinetic energies in the ratio 4 : 1 are moving with equal linear momentum. The

ratio of their masses is : (1) 1 : 2 (2) 1 : 1 (3) 4: 1 (4) 1 : 4 92. 4

92.

2pK E = .

2m

1K E .

m

93. Amount of light entering into the camera depends upon: (1) focal length of objective lens. (2) product of focal length & diameter of objective lens. (3) distance of objective from camera. (4) aperture setting of the camera. 93. 4 94. A body starts from rest at time t = 0, the acceleration time graph is shown in figure. The maximum velocity attained by the body will be :

11

10

t(sec)

a(m/s2)

(1) 110 m/s (2) 55 m/s (3) 650 m/s (4) 550 m/s 94. 2

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94. Area under acceleration time graph gives change in velocity.

1

1 1 1 0 v u, in it ia l v e lo c ity u 02

m a x

V 5 5 m / s 95. A comb run through ones dry hair attracts small bits of paper. This is due to : (1) comb is a good conductor (2) paper is a good conductor (3) The atoms in the paper gets polarised by the charged comb (4) the comb possesses magnetic properties 95. 3 96. A wire of resistance R is stretched to twice of its original length. Its new resistance will be : (1) 4R (2) R/4 (3) 2R (4) R/2 96. 1

96. R = / A New length ' 2 . New area of cross section A ' = A /2

'

R ' = A / 2

R ' = 4R 97. On a cold morning, a metal surface will feel colder to touch than a wooden surface, because : (1) metal has high specific heat (2) metal has high thermal conductivity (3) metal has low specific heat (4) metal has low thermal conductivity 97. 2 98. The resultant focal length of the lenses as shown in the figure is :

(1) 2f (2) f

2

(3) f

4 (4) f

98. 2 98. Both part will have same focal length f

Focal length of combination, 1 1 1

F f f

F = f/2 99. White colour of the cloud is due to : (1) reflection of seven colors of light (2) refraction of seven colors of light (3) scattering of seven colors of light (4) absorption of seven colors of light 99. 3 99. Large dust particles and water droplets scatter all wavelength almost equally. Hence clouds

appears white.

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100. The magnetic field lines inside a long current-carrying solenoid are nearly : (1) Circular (2) Parabolic (3) Straight (4) Elliptical 100. 3 101. An AC generator is connected to an electric appliance. In 10 revolutions of the armature the

current in the appliance changes direction : (1) 5 times (2) 10 times (3) 20 times (4) 40 times 101. 3 102. Ice is floating on water in a beaker when ice completely melts then level of water in beaker : (1) Increases (2) Decreases (3) Remains the same (4) First increases then decreases 102. 3 102. Level of water remains constant as ice is less dense than liquid water. In ice, the water molecules

are packed in cage structure. If it melts some of the water is free to move in between the free room in the crystalline cage structure.

103. Which one of the following is not a base? (1) B(OH)3 (2) KOH (3) Ca(OH)2 (4) NH4OH 103. 1 103. B(OH)3 is boric acid. Also referred as H3BO3. 104. Which of the following orders of atomic radii is correctly represented? (1) B < Al < Ga (2) B < Ga < Al (3) Al < B < Ga (4) B > Ga > Al 104. 2 104. It is due to greater screening effect in aluminium, its radii is greater than gallium. 105. A sample of MgCO3 contains 3.01 10

23 Mg2+ ions and 3.01 1023 23

C O ions. The mass of the sample is

(1) 42 mg (2) 84 g (3) 0.042 kg (4) 42 mol 105. 3 105. Sample contains 3.01 1023 MgCO3 molecules. Therefore, 6.022 1023 molecules weigh 84 gms

3.01 1023 molecules weigh 8 4

2 gms

= 42 gms = 0.042 kg

106. What are the electronic configurations of Na+ and C

ions?

(1) Na+ = 2, 8, 1 and C

= 2, 8, 7 (2) Na+ = 2, 8 and C

= 2, 8, 8

(3) Na+ = 2, 8, 2 and C

= 2, 8, 6 (4) Na+ = 2, 8 and C

= 2, 8, 7 106. 2 106. Na = 2, 8 Na+ = 2, 8, 1 Cl = 2, 8, 7 Cl = 2, 8, 8

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107. Which of the following has shortest carbon-carbon bond length? (1) C2H2 (2) C2H4 (3) C2H6 (4) C6H6 107. 1 107. H C C H Triple bond is shorter in length than double bond and single bond. 108. Which of the following may be isomer of aldehyde having general formula CnH2nO? (1) Alcohol (2) Ether (3) Ester (4) Ketone 108. 4 108. Aldehydes and ketones are functional isomers of each other belonging to family of carbonyl

compounds with general molecular formula CnH2nO. 109. Which of the following solution has the lowest pH value? (1) 0.1 Molar NaCl solution (2) 0.01 Molar NaHCO3 solution (3) 0.001 Molar Na2CO3 solution (4) 0.01 Molar NaOH solution 109. 1 109. Other solutions will result in pH greater than 7. Nacl solution neutral. 110. Which of the following has the greatest concentration of H+ion? (1) 1 mol L1 HCl solution (2) 1 mol L1 H3PO2 solution (3) 1 mol L1 H2SO4 solution (4) 1 mol L

1 H2CO3 solution 110. 3 110. Concentration of all the solutions is equal. Therefore, due to double dissociation of H2SO4 it will

give greatest concentration of H+ ion. On the other hand, H2CO3 being weak acid will dissociate partially.

111. Solder is an alloy of (1) Cu + Zn (2) Pb + Sn (3) Pb + Sb (4) Cu + Sn 111. 2 111. Solder is an alloy of Sn and Pb. 112. Which is the symbol of the element tungsten? (1) Ta (2) Tc (3) W (4) V 112. 3 112. Symbol of tungsten W (Based on its latin name wolfram). 113. What mass of hydrogen and oxygen will be produced on complete electrolysis of 18g of water? (1) 2g hydrogen and 32g oxygen (2) 2g hydrogen and 16g oxygen (3) 4g hydrogen and 32g oxygen (4) 4g hydrogen and 14g oxygen 113. 2 113. 2H2O 2H2 + O2 36 gms of H2O 4 gms of H2 & 32 gms O2 18 gms of H2O 2 gms of H2 & 16 gms O2 114. A cell will plasmolyse, if it is placed in: (1) Hypertonic solution (2) Hypotonic solution (3) Isotonic solution (4) Concentration of water molecules does not matter 114. 1

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114. When a plant cell is placed in hypertonic solution, plasmolysis will take place because of exosmosis.

115. In Xerophytes, the rate of water loss get reduced due to covering of epidermis by: (1) Cutin (2) Suberin (3) Lignin (4) Gum 115. 1 115. Cutin, a waxy layer prevents transpiration from aerial parts of xerophytes. 116. Given below are the pairs of disease and causal pathogen. Which one of these is not a matching

pair? (1) Kala azar Leishmania (2) Sleeping sickness Trypanosoma (3) Malaria Salmonella (4) Acne Staphylococci 116. 3 116. Malaria is caused by Plasmodium sp. 117. During lack of oxygen in tissues of our body, the pyruvate is converted into lactic acid in: (1) Mitochondria (2) Nucleus (3) Cytoplasm (4) Ribosome 117. 3 117. Due to lack of oxygen, pyruvate does not enter the Krebs cycle and gets converted into lactic

acid in the cytoplasm. 118. The accumulation of non-biodegradable substances in a food chain in increasing amount at each

higher trophic level is known as: (1) Accumulation (2) Eutrophication (3) Pollution (4) Bio magnification 118. 4 118. The increase in concentration of non-biodegradable substance with subsequent trophic level of a

food chain is called bio-magnification. 119. Kidneys do not perform the function of: (1) Regulation of blood pressure (2) Filtration of blood (4) Regulation of ions concentration (4) Secretion of anti bodies 119. 4 119. Kidneys are not involved in secretion of antibodies. 120. Double fertilization is a unique feature of: (1) Bryophytes (2) Angiosperm (3) Algae (4) Gymnosperm 120. 2 120. Double fertilization is a characteristic of Angiosperms (flowering plants) in which zygote and

endosperm nucleus are formed. 121. Phototropic and geotropic response of a plant is under control of following hormone: (1) Auxin (2) Gibberlin (3) Cytokinin (4) Ethylene 121. 1 121. Phototropic and geotropic movements of a plant depend upon different concentrations of auxin. 122. The following blood vessel does not contain deoxygenated blood: (1) Pulmonary artery (2) Vena Cava (3) Hepatic vein (4) Pulmonary Vein 122. 4 122. Pulmonary Vein carries oxygenated blood from the lungs to the left auricle of the heart.

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123. If, in a plant, red colour of the flower is dominant over white. A cross was made between a plant containing red flower and other with white flower. The cross yielded 50% white flowered plant and 50% red flowered plant. The genotype of the parent with red flower is:

(1) Homozygous (2) Heterozygous (3) Cannot be determined (4) Can be homozygous or heterozygous 123. 2 123. R = Red (Dominant) r = White (Recessive) Rr X rr

/ R r r Rr (Red) rr (White) r Rr (Red) rr (White)

124. Spinal cord originates from: (1) Cerebrum (2) Cerebellum (3) Medulla (4) Pons 124. 3 124. Spinal cord is an extension of medulla oblongata. 125. Photosynthesis is an important mode of autotrophic nutrition. The event which does not occur in

photosynthesis is: (1) Conversion of light energy to chemical energy (2) Reduction of carbon dioxide to carbohydrate (3) Oxidation of carbon to carbondioxide (4) Absorption of light energy by chlorophyll 125. 3 125. During photosynthesis carbon dioxide gets reduced to carbohydrate but there is no oxidation of

carbon to carbon dioxide.

126. If x a x b x c 3 0b c c a a b

, a > 0, b > 0, c > 0, then the value of x is:

(1) (a2 + b2 + c2) (2) (a + b + c) (3) (a + b + c) (4) a b c 126. 3

x a x b x c

1 1 1b c c a a b

= 0

x a b c x a b c x a b c

0b c c a a b

(x + a + b + c)1 1 1

b c c a a b

= 0

x + a + b + c= 0 x = (a + b + c) 127. Sum of the roots of the equation 4x 3(2x + 3) + 128 = 0, is: (1) 0 (2) 7 (3) 5 (4) 8 127. 2 4x 3(2x + 3) + 128 = 0 (2x)2 24.2x + 128 = 0 y2 24y + 128 = 0 y2 8y 16y + 128 = 0 y(y 8) 16(y 8) = 0 (y 8)(y 16) = 0

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y = 8 or y = 16 2x = 23 2x = 24 x = 3 x = 4 sum of roots = 3 + 4 = 7 128. If sinx + cosecx = 2, then (sin10x + cosec10x) is equal to: (1) 3 (2) 0 (3) 1 (4) 2 128. 4 sinx + cosecx = 2

sinx + 1s in x

= 2

sin2x + 1 = 2sinx sin2x 2sinx + 1 = 0 (sinx 1)2 = 0 sinx = 1 cosecx = 1 sin10x + cosec10x = 2 129. The hypotenuse of a right triangle is 10cm and radius of the inscribed circle is 1 cm. The

perimeter of the triangle is: (1) 15 cm (2) 22 cm (3) 24 cm (4) 18 cm 129. 2

r = s

1 = a.b

2 s

a + b + 10 = a.b a + b = ab 10 (a + b)2 = (ab 10)2 a2 + b2 + 2ab = a2b2 20ab + 100 a2 + b2 = 100 2ab = a2b2 20ab a2b2 22ab = 0 ab(ab 22) = 0 ab = 22 ab 0 perimeter = a + b + 10 = ab = 22

b

10

a

130. A shopkeeper blends two varieties of tea costing Rs 18 and Rs 13 per 100 gms in the ratio 7 : 3.

He sells the blended variety at the rate of Rs 18.15 per 100 gm. His percentage gain in the transaction is:

(1) 8% (2) 12% (3) 15% (4) 10% 130. 4

CP = 18 7

1 0 + 13

3

1 0

= 1 2 6 3 9

1 0

= 1 6 5

1 0

= Rs 16.5

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SP = Rs 18.15 Gain = Rs 1.65

% gain = 1 .6 5 1 0 01 6 .5

= 10%

131. If cosec39 = x, the value of 2 o 2 o2 o 2 o 2 o

1 1s in 3 9 ta n 5 1

co s e c 5 1 s in 5 1 se c 3 9 , is

(1) 2x 1 (2) 21 x (3) x2 1 (4) 1 x2 131. 3

cosec 39 = x sin39 = 1

x

sec51 = x cos51 = 1

x

sin51 = 2 o1 c o s 5 1

= 2

2

1 x 11

xx

tan51 = 2x 1

cos2 39 = 1 sin239 = 1 2

1

x

2 o 2 o2 o 2 o 2 o

1 1s in 3 9 ta n 5 1

co s e c 5 1 s in 5 1 se c 3 9

= 2 1 2 2

2

2 2 2 2

x 1 1 x x 1x 1

x x x 1 x

= 2

2

2

x 1 1x 1 1

x

= 1 + x2 1 1 = x2 1

132. If ta n co t

2ta n co t

, (0 90), then the value of is:

(1) 60 (2) 30 (3) 90 (4) 45 132. 1

ta n co t 2ta n co t

s in c o s

c o s s in 2s in c o s

c o s s in

2 2

12

s in co s

sin2 cos2 = 1

2

2sin2 1 = 1

2

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2sin2 = 3

2

sin2 = 3

4

sin = 3

2 0 30

= 60 133. In a hostel, there was sufficient food for 200 students for 31 days. After 27 days 120 students left

the hostel. For how many extra days will the rest of food last for remaining students: (1) 8 days (2) 6 days (3) 12 days (4) 10 days 133. 2 There was sufficient food for 200 student for 31 days. After 27 days 120 student left So remaining students = 200 120 = 80 Remaining days = 31 27 = 4 days Now there is sufficient food for 200 students for days. 1 student can take the food = 200 4 days

80 student can take the food = 2 0 0 48 0

= 10 days

Extra days = 10 4 = 6 days

134. If x = 1

1 2, then the value of x2 + 2x + 3 is:

(1) 3 (2) 0 (3) 4 (d) 1 134. 3

x = 1

1 2

after rationalization

x = 1 1 2

1 2 1 2

x = 2 1 so x2 = 3 2 2 x2 + 2x + 3 (3 2 2 ) + 2( 2 1) + 3 = 4 135. If and are the zeroes of the polynomial f(x) = x2 5x + k such that = 1, then value of k

is: (1) 8 (2) 6

(3) 1 3

2 (4) 4

135. 2 f(x) = x2 5x + k , are roots of given equation so sum of roots = + = 5 (i) product of roots = = k (ii) given = 1 (iii) by solving (i) and (iii) = 3 = 2

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putting in equation (ii) = k (iii)(ii) = k k = 6

136. The value of 1 2 n

1 1 .... . . . 1n 1 n 1 n 1

is:

(1) n (2) n

2

(3) n + 1 (4) 2n 136. 2

1 2 n

1 1 .... . . . 1n 1 n 1 n 1

1 2 n

1 1 1 .... . 1 ... .x 1 x 1 n 1

n 1

1 2 .. . . . . nn 1

n

n n 1

2 n 1

n n

2

n

2

137. In ABC, segment AD BC, If BD = x

units, then x is:

(1) x = 2 2 2c a b

2a

(2) x = 2 2 2a b c

2c

(3) x = 2 2 2b c a

2b

(4) x = 2 2 2b c a

2a b c

A

B D C x

a

b c

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137. 1 Given in ABC AB = c AC = b BC = a BD = x ADB = 90 so DC = a x now in ADB by Pythagorus theorem: AB2 = BD2 + AD2 C2 = x2 + AD2 (i) Now in ADC By Pythagorus theorem AC2 = AD2 + DC2 b2 = AD2 + (a x)2 (ii) by solving (i) and (ii) c2 b2 = x2 (a x)2 x2 b2 = x2 a2 x2 + 2ax 2ax = x2 b2 + a2

x = 2 2 2c b a

2a

x = 2 2 2a b c

2a

or x = 2 2 2c a b

2a

A

B D C x

a

b c

138. The average marks scored by Ajay in certain number of tests is 84. He scored 100 marks in his

last test. His average score of all these tests is 86, then the total number of tests he appeared is: (1) 8 (2) 7 (3) 9 (4) 10 138. 1 x1 + x2 + x3 + xn = 84x

8 4 x 1 0 0

8 6x 1

x = 7 Total number of test 7 + 1 = 8 139. The first and last terms of an A.P. of n terms is 1, 31 respectively. The ratio of 8 th term and (n

2)th term is 5 : 9, the value of n is: (1) 14 (2) 15 (3) 16 (4) 13 139. 3 31 = 1 + (x 1)d (x 1)d = 30 (A)

ratio given as

th

th

8 te rm 5

9n 2 te rm

1 7 d 5

1 x 3 d 9

from (A) 1 7 d 5

3 1 2 d 9

d = 2

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from (A) (x 1) 2 = 30 x 1= 15 x = 16 140. A number is selected at random from first 50 natural numbers. The probability that selected

number is a multiple of 3 or 4 is:

(1) 1 22 5

(2) 1 42 5

(3) 1 45 0

(4) 82 5

140. 1 n(s) = 1, 2, 3, .., 50 multiple of 3 = 3, 6, 9, .., 48 number of multiples of 3 = 16 number of multiples of 4 = 12 number of multiples of 3 and 4 = 4 n(A) = 16 + 12 4 = 28 4 = 24

P(E) = 2 4 1 2

5 0 2 5

141. The value(s) of a for which area of triangle, whose vertices are A(a, 2a), B(2, 6) and C(3, 1) is

10 square units, are: (1) 0, 3 (2) 5, 8

(3) 3, 83

(4) 0, 83

141. 4

ar = 1

a 6 1 2 1 2 a 3 2 a 6 1 02

5a 2 + 4a + 6a 18 = 20 15a = 40

a = 4 0 8

1 5 3

Zero is also satisfying the given condition answers is 8

0,3

.

A

C B

(a, 2a)

(3, 1) ( 2, 6)

142. The ratio in which the line 3x + y 9 = 0 divides the line segment joining points (1, 3) and (2, 7)

is: (1) 3 : 4 (2) 2 : 3 (3) 4 : 3 (4) 3 : 2 142. 1 For point P(a, b)

a = 2 k 1

k 1

, b =

7 k 3

k 1

this values will satisfy

the line 3x + y = 9

2k 1 7k 3

3 9k 1 k 1

6 k 3 7 k 3

9k 1

13k + 6 = 9k + 9

A

1

P (1, 3)

k

B (a, b) (2, 7)

3x + y = 9

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13k 9k = 9 6 = 3

4k = 3 k = 3

4

143. The radii of two circles are 9 cm and 12 cm. The circumference of a circle whose area is equal to

sum of the areas of the two circles is: (1) 15 cm (2) 15 cm (3) 30 cm (4) 225 cm 143. 3 Area of first circle = 81 Area of 2nd circle = 144 Area of 3rd circle = 225 Let radius of 3rd circle = R R2 = 225 R2 = 225 R = 15 Circumference = 2 15 = 30 cm. 144. The diameter of a right circular cylinder is decreased by 10%. The volume of cylinder remains the

same then the percentage increase in height is: (1) 20% (2) 23.45% (3) 5% (4) 20.5% 144. 2 Let initial r = 100 And initial h = 100 initial volume = (100)2 100 later volume = (90)2 h According to condition (90)2 h = (100)2 100

h = 1 0 0 1 0 0 1 0 0 1 0 0 0 0

9 0 9 0 8 1

= 123.45679

% increment in height = 123.45 100 = 23.45 145. In an examination A got 25% marks more then B, B got 10% less than C and C got 25% more

that D, If D got 320 marks out of 500, the marks obtained by A were: (1) 450 (2) 405 (3) 360 (4) 400 145. 1 D got 320 C got 400 B got 360 A got 450 146. Kheda Movement (1917) was started for: (1) Farmers (2) Labourers (3) Mill Owners (4) Soldiers 146. 1 146. In 1917, Mahatma Gandhi organised peasants satyagraha at Kheda of Gujarat. 147. Bharat Mata, Painting was drawn by: (1) Rabindranath Tagore (2) Nand Lal Basu (3) Amrita Shergil (4) Abanindra Nath Tagore 147. 4 147. Abanindra Nath Tagore painted his famous image of Bharat Mata in 1905.

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148. Gutenberg was associated with: (1) Powerloom (2) Rail Engine (3) Computer (4) Printing Press 148. 4 148. Gutenberg invented printing press in 1430s. 149. Depressed Class Association was formed by: (1) Jyoti Ba Phule (2) Mahatma Gandhi (3) B. R. Ambedkar (4) Shahuji Maharaj 149. 3 149. Depressed Class Association was formed by B. R. Ambedkar in 1930. 150. Who were the Kulak in soviet society? (1) Small Farmers (2) Big Farmers (3) Shop Keepers (4) Lawyers 150. 2 150. Kulaks were well-to-do peasants in the Soviet Society. 151. Reichstag was: (1) French Parliament (2) Russian Parliament (3) German Parliament (4) Japan Parliament 151. 3 151. Reichstag was the name of German Parliament. 152. Who was Viceroy of India during Civil Disobedience Movement? (1) Lord Curzon (2) Lord Minto (3) Lord Canning (4) Lord Irwin 152. 4 152. Lord Irwin was the Vicory of India during Civil Disobedience Movement. 153. Suffrage Movement was started for: (1) The Right to Vote for Women (2) Right to Education (2) Food for Poors (3) Peasants Right 153. 1 153. Suffrage Movement was started for the right to vote for women. 154. Jacobin Club was the most powerful political organisation in: (1) Germany (2) Russia (3) France (4) Britain 154. 3 154. Jacobin Club was the most powerful political organisation in France. 155. What was Dawes Plan? (1) Nazi Plan to supress the Jews (2) American plan to control the Bolsevik (3) Stalin plan of collectivisation (4) American plan to take out Germany from the financial crisis (great depression) 155. 4 155. Dawes Plan was introduced by the USA to take out Germany from the financial crisis. 156. Which continent of today is not a part of Gondwana land: (1) North America (2) South America (3) Africa (4) Australia 156. 1 156. India, Australia, South Africa and South America were included in the Gondwana land.

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157. Which of the following rivers of India flow through a rift valley? (1) Tapi River (2) Ganga River (3) Mahanadi River (4) Yamuna River 157. 1 157. The Narmada and the Tapi flow through the rift vallies. 158. Rainfall in the Northern and North-Western parts of India in the month of October-November is

caused mainly due to? (1) Western disturbances (2) Jet streams (3) Advancing Monsoon (4) Upper Air Circulation 158. 1 158. Rainfall in the Northern and North-Western parts of India in the month of October-November is

caused mainly due to Western disturbances. 159. The slash and burn agriculture is known as Milpa in which of the following countries? (1) Indonesia (2) Mexico (2) Vietnam (3) Sudan 159. 2 159. The slash and burn agriculture is known as Milpa in Mexico. 160. Which of the following is a non-renewable as well as non-recyclable resources? (1) Iron (2) Coal (3) Water (4) Forests 160. 2 160. Coal is non-renewable as well as non-recyclable resource. 161. Which of the following is not a nuclear power station? (1) Kaiga (2) Narora (3) Korba (4) Kakrapara 161. 3 161. Korba is a thermal power station in Chhatisgarh. 162. Which of the following is the working age group of the population? (1) 15-59 years (2) 20-60 years (3) 20-65 years (4) 18-60 years 162. 1 162. Working age group of the population is 15-59 years. 163. According to Census of India 2001 a literate person is the one who: (1) can read and write his/her name (2) can read and write any language (3) is 7 years old and can read and write any language with understanding (4) knows 3 Rs (reading, writing, arithmetic) 163. 3 163. According to Census of India 2001 a literate person is the one who is 7 years old and can read

and write any language with understanding. 164. National Waterways No. 1 of India connects which two cities of India? (1) Sadia Dubri (2) Allahabad Haldia (3) Kottapuram Kollam (4) Delhi Kanpur 164. 2 164. National Waterways No. 1 of India connects Allahabad to Haldia. 165. Which state of India has made roof top rain water harvesting compulsory to all houses: (1) Andhra Pradesh (2) Tamil Nadu (3) Kerala (4) Karnataka

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165. 2 165. Tamil Nadu has made rooftop rain water harvesting compulsory to all houses. 166. In contemporary world, which quality makes democracy superior to any other form of

Government: (1) Efficiency (2) Responsiveness (3) Transparency (4) Legitimacy governance 166. 4 166. In contemporary world legitimacy governance makes democracy superior to any other form of

government. 167. Gender division refers to: (1) Unequal child sex ratio (2) Absence of voting rights (3) Biological differences (4) Unequal roles assigned to men and women 167. 4 167. Gender division refers to unequal roles assigned to men and women 168. When was the Kittiko-Hachchiko movement started? (1) 1984 (2) 1986 (3) 1987 (4) 1983 168. 3 168. In 1987, the Kittiko-Hachchiko movement started in Karnataka. 169. Who is the Political Head of Municipal Corporation: (1) Collector (2) Pradhan (3) Mayor (4) Sarpanch 169. 3 169. Mayor is the political head of Municipal Corporation. 170. Which one of the following parties grew out of a movement? (1) Communist Party of India (2) Bahujan Samaj Party (3) Assam Gana Parishad (4) Assam United Democratic Front 170. 3 170. The Assam Gana Parishad in Assam grew out of a student movement. 171. Who was the Chairman of the Drafting Committee of Indian Constitution? (1) Moti Lal Nehru (2) B. R. Ambedkar (3) Jawahar Lal Nehru (4) Rajender Prasad 171. 2 171. B. R. Ambedkar was the Chairman of the Drafting Committee of Indian Constitution. 172. Amnesty International is an international organisation which works for: (1) World Peace (2) Human Rights (3) Justice (4) Restoration of Democracy 172. 2 172. Amnesty International is an international organisation which works for Human Rights. 173. Name the Law which empowers the people to carry on democratic reforms: (1) Company Act (2) M. R. T. P. (3) Right to Information (4) Right to Vote 173. 3 173. Right to Information Act is the law which empowers the people to carry on democratic reforms. 174. Which of the following is the main feature of Pressure group? (1) Direct control on political power (2) Try to influence the politics of Government (3) Lax Organisation (4) Direct participation in Political Power

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174. 2 174. Pressure group do not controlled directly the political power but try to influence the politics of

government. 175. In case of conflict between the centre and the State Government over a subject in the concurrent

list: (1) The state has the upper hand (2) The centre has the upper hand (3) Both are equally applicable (4) Supreme Court decides whether the State Law should prevail or Central Law 175. 2 175. In case of conflict between the centre and the State Government over a subject in the concurrent

list, the centre has the upper hand. 176. Who is known as the father of Green Revolution? (1) Verghese Kurien (2) Babu Jagjivan Ram (3) M. S. Swaminathan (4) M. S. Subhramanyam 176. 3 176. M. S. Swaminathan is known as the father of Green Revolution in India. 177. An example of Indirect Taxes is: (1) Income Tax (2) Corporate Tax (3) Estate Tax (4) Entertainment Tax 177. 4 177. Entertainment Tax is an example of Indirect taxes. 178. Which academy supports food security programme? (1) Academy of Development Science (2) Academy of Crop Science (3) Academy of Food Security (4) Academy of Grain Science 178. 1 178. The Academy of development Science supports food security programme in Maharashtra. 179. Which summit of BRICS held in 2014? (1) 5th (2) 6th (3) 4th (4) 7th 179. 2 179. The 6th summit of BRICS held in July 2014 in Brazil. 180. COPRA is related to: (1) Trader (2) Environment (3) Agriculture (4) Consumer 180. 4 180. COPRA is related to consumer.

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Solutions to NTSE

STAGE-I (2014) (For

Class X Students)

(MAT)

Time: 50 Minutes Max Marks: 50

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES

Read the following instructions carefully before you open the Question Booklet.

1. Use blue/black ball point pen only.

2. Write your Roll No. very clearly (only one digit in on block) on this booklet and on the ANSWER SHEET.

3. This test consists of 50 questions of one mark each. All the questions are COMPULSORY.

4. Answer to each question by darkening the correct alternative among the four choices on the ANSWER SHEET.

Example:

Q.No.

Q.No.

1

1

Alternatives

Alternatives

2 4 1

1 2 3 4

Correct way:

Wrong way:


Solutions www.examrace.com

NTSE-ST-I-(2014)-MAT-SOL-1

1. (4)Let the required number be x.According to the question,1 1

x x 49 1 0

1 1x x 4

9 1 0

1 0 x 9 x4

9 0

x = 360

2. (1)x% of x is 25

xx 2 5

1 0 0

2x 2 5 1 0 0

x 5 10 50

3. (2)3

5 of cistern is filled in 1 min.

1 of cistern is filled in 53

min.

2

5 of a cistern is filled in 5 2

3 5 min. =

1 0

1 5 min.

= 1 0 6 01 5

sec.

= 40 sec.

4. (3)Speed of a person = 1 m/sSpeed of a train = 65 m/s Relative speed = 6 5 1 m/s= 64 m/sNow, Let length of the train = mTime taken by train to overtake a person = 5 sec.

Distance = Speed Time 64 m /sec. 5 sec.

= 320 m

5. (2)Mean weight of 21 students is 21 kgSo, total weight of 21 students is 21 21 = 441 kgThen, remaining weight = 441 21 = 420 kgNow, the number of students = 20

So, mean weight 4 2 0 2 12 0

kg.

6. (4)www.examrace.com

NTSE-ST-II-(2014)-MAT-SOL-2

nn 22 4

2

or, n 12 1 42

or, n2

42

or, n2 8n = 3 n 34 4 4 4 4 6 4

7. (1)For infinite solution there is a condition

1 1 1

2 2 2

a b c

a b c (i)

Here, 1a 3 k 1 b1 = 4 c1 = 24 a2 = 15 b2 = 20 c2 = 8 (k + 13) by putting the values we will get k = 2

8. (3)Let the price of an article = Rs. 100And consumption of the article = 100 unitsTotal expenditure = Rs. (100 100)If price of an article is increased by 25%, then the new price of an article = Rs. 125.Let consumption of the article = a units (after decreases)Expenditure is same,Therefore 125 a = 100 100a = 80decrease in unit = (100 80) = 20

% decrease = 2 0 1 0 0 2 0 %1 0 0

9. (1)

4

1 1 0 23 2

21

52

or, 4

13

29

2

or, 4 512 2

23

or, 4 3 518 2

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or, 2

12

= 0

10. (3)(y + 2) = 0y = 2by putting y = 2 in the given equation

2

2 m 2 1 4 0

4 2m 14 0

m = 9

11. (3)

The sum of first n natural numbers = n n 1

2

The sum of first 81 natural numbers = 8 1 8 2

8 1 4 12

Average of first 81 natural numbers = su m o f a ll firs t 8 1 n a tu ra l n u m b e rsn u m b e r o f o b se rv a tio n

8 1 4 14 1

8 1

Hence answer is 41. Option (3) is correct.

12. (2)Amount = Principle + InterestLet Principle = Rs. P.and Rate = r% p.a.

SI after 3 years = P r 31 0 0

Amount 3rPP1 0 0

Given 815 = P + 3 rP1 0 0

(i)

SI after 4 years = P r 41 0 0

Amount = 4rPP1 0 0

Given 854 = 4rPP1 0 0

(ii)

Subtracting equation (i) from (ii)

854 815 = rp1 0 0

39 = rp1 0 0

Put the value of rP1 0 0

in equation (i)

815 = P + 3 39 815 117 = P 698 = P Hence Principle is Rs. 698. Option (2) is correct.

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13. (4)In every minute he climbs 15 meter but slips down 12 meter. Hence in one minute he climbs = (15 12)meters i.e. 3 meters.After reaching 75 meters he climbs 15 meter i.e. 90 meter.i.e. it is an A.P.3, 6, 9, 12, ., 75.Hence in 25 minute he reaches to 75 meter and in next minute he reaches at the top. .Therefore total time = (25 + 1) minute= 26 minute.

Directions (Solution for Q. 14 to 18):

Mode of Transport Angle of Subtended at the Centre Number of Students comes to School

ON FEET 80 8 01 2 6 0 2 8 0

3 6 0

CAR 90 9 01 2 6 0 3 1 5

3 6 0

BUS 120 1 2 01 2 6 0 4 2 0

3 6 0

SCOOTER 70 [360 - (80 + 90 + 120)] 7 01 2 6 0 2 4 5

3 6 0

Total Students = 1260

14. (1)From above Table.

15. (2)245 : 3157 : 9

16. (3)280 + 420 = 700

17. (4)1260 420 = 840

18. (3)Comes by their feet = 280Comes to the school by Car = 315More = 315 280 = 35

% = 3 5 1 0 0 1 2 .5 %2 8 0

19. (2)Let total number of coins = xAccording to the question value of the coins = Rs. (x 14)Let number 50 paise coins = aThen number of 1 Re. coins = (x a)Total value = Rs. (x 14)a

x a x 1 42

a = 28

20. (1) www.examrace.com


1

25 5 5 5 5

31

45 5 5

= 7

185 5

1 51

1 65

13 1 3 121 6 3 25 5

21. (2)6 0 1 5 8 4

2 6 4 1 5 8 .41 0 0 1 0

Let check options

(1) 10% of 44 = 1 0 4 4 4 .41 0 0

(2) 15% of 1056 = 1 5 1 5 8 4 01 0 5 6 1 5 8 .41 0 0 1 0 0

Hence option (2) is correct.

22. (4)By observation answer is (4)


24. (2)h is not mentioned. So, obviously answer is (2).


26. (2)In the dice one face is adjacent to four faces. The adjacent faces to 2 are 3, 6, 5 and 4 (from first two figures).So, 2 is opposite to 1.Similarly6 O p p o s ite 5

2 O p p o s ite 1

4 O p p o s ite 3 So, answer is (2)

27. (1)E : F : : L : I R a n k s fro m re v e rs e R a n k s fro m re v e rs e

2 2 2 1 3 3 1 5 1 8 3 3

28. (3)www.examrace.com


As 1 8 6 1 2 7 23

So answer is (3)

29. (3)Three faces always lies on corners and there are 8 corners.

30. (2)125 27 (No face painted)= 98

31. (3)(n 2)3 = (5 2)3 = 33 = 27

32*. (2) / (3)

The elements move in the sequence ; the elements reaching the upper left and the lower right

positions rotate 90 ACW; the elements reaching the upper right and lower left positions rotate 90 CW; the central elements rotates 90 ACW and gets laterally inverted. *Note: (In figure 2, is not correct and in figure 3 the is missing. So, no option is completely correct.)

33. (3)0 + 6 + 4 + 2 = 12 4 = 86 + 2 + 10 + 8 = 26 4 = 224 + 14 + 12 + 10 = 40 4 = 36

34. (3)3 + 12 = 15 + 12 = 279 + 36 = 45 + 36 = 816 + 25 = 31 + 25 = 56

Directions (Solution for Q. 35 to 37): As Mamta is fourth from right and Babita is seventh from left and after exchange Babita is fifteenth from left:

Sixth from left Rekha

Seventh from left Babita

Fifth from right Neha

Fourth from right Mamta

3 students remains in right of Mamta

When Babita and Mamta exchange their positions then

Sixth from left Rekha

Seventh from left Mamta

Fifth from right Neha

Fifteenth from left Babita

3 students remains in right of Mamta

Therefore, total students 18.

35. (3)Nehas position from left = 18 4 = 14

36. (4)Mamtas positon from right = 18 6 = 12

37. (1)As Rekha is on sixth position so Nehas position is 6th.

38. (2)6 + 5 + 4 + 3 + 2 + 1 = 21or, There were 7 people in the party, then number of handshakes www.examrace.com


= 2

C

7 !7

2 ! 7 2 !

rC

n !n

r ! n r !

7 !2 1

2 ! 5 !

39. (4)By observation





44. (2)Only figure (2) contains four lines while others have three lines.

45. (3)Figure (1), (2) and (4) are same only their position is changed.

46. (4)When a cube is formed by folding the sheet shown in the given figure, then the face 2 lies opposite to 4, theface 1 lies opposite to 6 and the face 5 lies opposite to 3. Now the cubes in option (1), (2) and (3) consists offace which are not formed when the given sheet is folded. Therefore, only the cube in option (4) is formed.

47. (1)When a cube is formed by folding the sheet shown in the given figure, then the face A lies opposite to C, theface B lies opposite to F and the face E lies opposite to D. Now the cubes in option (2), (3) and (4) consist offaces which are not formed when the given sheet is folded. Therefore, only the cube in option (1) is formed.

Directions (Solutions for Q. 48 to 50): In ANT and SET, the common code digit 7 stands for T. In SUN and SET, the common code digit 5 stands for S. In ANT and SUN, the common code digit 3 stands for N. In SET, the remaining the code digit 2 stands for E. In ANT, the remaining code digit 0 stands for A. In SUN, the remaining code digit 4 stands for U.

48. (2)

49. (2)

50. (4)

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National Talent Search Examination Stage-1-2015

(For Class X Students) ROLL NO.

1212 .151 1 1s1 o I lll d5 1~ 1 1 SCHOLASTIC APTITUDE TEST ~ 4l~t:li11 -qfta_.rr

{For Students of Class X) ( ~&n x cfi fu-mf~ cfi ~) LANGUAGE TEST ( 'llllrr-"Q"ft&n)

(QUESTION Nos. 51 - 90) Time : 40 Minutes Max. Marks : 40 ~ : 40 ~ ~ : 40

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES Read the following instructions carefully before

you open the question booklet. 1. Use blue/black ball point pen only. 2. This question booklet contains 40 Questions in

English Language and 40 Questions in Hindi Language. The candidate has to attempt this test only in one Language i.e. either in English or in Hindi.

3. Mark the language of test opted by you very carefully on the answer sheet as per instructions given on the answer sheet.

4. Answer each question by darkening the correct alternative among the four cho ices on the ANSWER SHEET with black/blue ball point pen.

Example:

Q . No. Alternatives Correct way : 1 CD 0 ~ Q. No. Alternatives Wrong way : 1 G) Note :

Use of whitener/white fluid is strictly prohibited on the OMR sheet for changing Answers. It is wrong way.


S/51 OES/14-X-Lang.- 1A

~ ~ ~ ~ ~ f'tl'1f

2

~ '9' 1fiTlf clt ~FOR ROUGH WORK ONLY

5/51 DES/14-X-Lang.-18

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3

NTSE (Language Test) ENGUSH

Direction : Choose the word that is most near.ly opposite in meaning to th,e given words in Question Nos. 51 to 5i' :

51 . CHIDE :

(1) scold (2) rebuke (3) praise

52.

53.

54.

55.

56.

(4) reprimand FIDELITY :

(1) disloyality (2) dependability (3) suitability (4) commitment EJECT :

(1) expel (2) insert (3) exile (4) extract MALIGNANT :

(1) magnificent (2) wonderful (3) malevolent (4) benign PLIABLE :

(1) wori

4

Direction: In questions from No. 63- 67. sentences 69. By the time. I reached home, my mother are given with blanks to be filled with an ........... .. ... (cook) the food . appropriate word out of four alternatives given : (1) cooked

63. They have been living here ................ ten years. (2) had cooked (1) since (3) was cooking (2) by (4) was cook (3) from 70. I tried to ... ............. (take) notes, while the teacher (4) for was explaining the topic.

64. Sheela is proud ................ her achievements. (1) took (1) in (2) take (2) with (3) taking (3) at (4) taken (4) ci 71 . Mrs. Monika ............... (honour) on the Teacher's

65. They invited only a few people ............... . their Day. wedding. (1) had honoured (1) in (2) was honoured (2) on (3) was honouring (3) at (4) honoured (4) to

72. We ............. (see) a movie yesterday. 66. I got late as my car broke .... ...... .. .... (1) saw

(1) away (2) had seen (2) into (3) was see (3) apart (4) was seeing (4) down

Direction : In Question Nos. 73 - 78, choose the 67. Will you , please, switch .... ...... ...... the light ? alternative which expresses the

(1) ci meaning of the idioms/phrases. (2) out 73. BEATTHE AIR : (3) off (1) to make useless efforts (4) down (2) to try to fly

Direction : (Question Nos. 68 - 72) choose the (3) to beat mercilessly correct alternative (Past Tense) of the verbs given in brackets : (4) to make air clean

68. Who ................ (meet) you on the way? 74. MEND ONE'S FENCES : (1) did meet (1) to repair one's wall (2) had met (2) to quarrel (3) met (3) renovation of fences (4) was meet (4) to make peace

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8 WEEHOURS : (1) a few hours

(2) many hours

(3) dusk

0 (4) dawn ~ IN BLACK AND WHITE :

(1) in writing

(2) having a contrast

(3) in two colours

(4) in a moderate manner

77. TO GREASE THE PALM :

(1) to bribe

(2) to put grease on hand

(3) to get ready to do something

(4) to grease the machine

78. TO BREAK INTO :

(1) to break something

(2) to enter by force

(3) to interrupt

(4) to stop work

Direction : In Question Nos. 79 - 82, out of four alternatives, choose the one which can be substituted for the given sentences and mark it in the answer sheet.

79. One who is not sure about God's existence :

(1) atheist

(2) agnostic

(3) sadist

(4) altruist

5

80. A person who makes a scientific study of birds :

(1) orthodontist (2) ornithologist (3) philatelist (4) misogamist

81 . A place for luggage at a railway station :

(1) store (2) cloakroom (3) restroom (4) drawing room

82. One who looks at the dark side of life :

(1) pessimist (2) optimist (3) pacifist (4) humanist

Direction : In Question Nos. 83 - 86, choose the alternative with correct spelling.

83. (1) resiprocal (2) reciprokel (3) reciprocal (4) reciprokal

84. (1) pagent (2) peg ant (3) pageant (4) pegent

85. (1) grandeur (2) granduer (3) grandure (4) grendeur

86. (1) beurocracy (2) burokracy (3) bureaucracy

(4) beaurocracy

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Direction : In question Nos. 87 to 90, read the passage and choose the correct answer from the given options.

The word 'Patriotism' means love for one's motherland. It is a natural feel ing that almost every person possesses. If a person has no love for his motherland, he must be as good as dead. 'Love of our country' should become our motto. The love for one's motherland is more significant than all other varieties of love. This love may be there because of the physical beauty of one's motherland-its landscape, fertility or rich natural resources. But , it really is a thing to be proud of. It instills a feel ing of own-ness in a person and he or she comes to have an emotional hand with the land of his or her birth . This love i.e. patriotism is untouched by selfishness. On the other hand a patriot is always prepared to lay down his life for his or her country.

87. The author feels that patriotism is not linked to ...... .

(1) selfishness (2) pride (3) corruption (4) generosity

6

88.

89.

A patriot is always

(1) ready to glorify his country

(2) ready to rule his country

(3) ready to sacrifice himself for his country

(4) ready to work for his country According to the author.

(1) All cannot love their country

(2) One should live by one's motto

(3) One should love oneself first

(4) Love of our country is more important than other kind of love

90. The word 'Patriotism' means.

(1) Love for one's country

(2) Love for one's mother

(3) Love for oneself

(4) Love for one's culture

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7

NTSE- fi'3ft 2014-15

51 . "~ ~ ct "5fC9 ~ f.:lflf

63. I 31fu I ~ (1)~~

(2) ~ (3) f7Tftm

1.

f.$r :-~ ~ 1'fCt ~ q;l '411'1.4q; ~ ~ ~ 75 ~ 79 OCfi ct -m1 ~ Cfi1 "ffR "SSG.'9' ~ -q ~ ~ :

~ 1l ~t'ltR tu ~ Cfi1 ~t:rcJ> ~ tr ~ ~ 4 :flqrf~d "fl~ l1fl ~ ~ (4) aTIWfi ~~ firnrr ~

81 . ~~\ll1lffS31Y~ ~~~-q~~t I (1) q;ifqi'C4

(2) ~

(3)~ (4) ~ ~ Cfi1t -,m:

82. ~ "ll'\ Cfi1 00 -qi\-~ ~ ~ : ~ ~ 3Wn 2lT? (1) )1!(1qlilqi ~

(2) 11!(1qlilqi ~

(3) \illfdqlilqi ~

(4) f1!/illJqlilq) ~

83. ~-m~ '~' WfmCfil-ml~ t? (1) ~

(2) f:fft

(3) ~ (4) ~

84. ~ ~ ~ tr' Cfl

8s. ''lll~~1s31Tm~t: (1) 3l~ (2) ~ (3) ~~

86. 'm:~~~~Cfit.tt? (1) ~ (2) 1R l1lrl

(4) ~qqf 87. ~ cnT Wfuf t :

(1)~ (2) 3lffifi (3) ~Wfuf (4) ~Wfuf

10

88. :!:!E CfiTffi ~ 11(\' fil ~ ~ ~ -q ~ t? (1) mtr (2) ~ (3) 11frn)qo1 (4)~

(1) ~G!Tffi (2)91\lf (3) ~ (4) ~

90. ~~

Answer Key to NTSE-I (2014)

(For Class X Students) (ENGLISH)

Question Answer Question Answer51 3 76 1

52 1 77 1 53 2 78 2

54 4 79 2

55 4 80 2

56 1 81 2 57 3 82 1

58 3 83 3

59 4 84 3

60 2 85 1 61 2 86 3

62 2 87 1

63 4 88 3

64 4 89 4 65 2 90 1

66 4

67 3

68 3 69 2

70 2

71 2

72 1 73 1

74 4

75 4

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ntse stage 1 delhi solved paper 2014

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