nlu jodhpore 2007 entrance exam paper

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National Law University, JodhpurNational Entrance Test, 2007

Total Marks 600 Instructions

1. Read instructions carefully.

2. This test paper contains One Hundred Fifty Questions with multiple-choice answers. Of which forty questions from Legal Aptitude, thirty questions from Information Level, thirty questions from English, thirty questions from Reasoning Ability and twenty questions are from Mathematical Ability.

3. For each correct answer four marks shall be awarded and for every wrong answer one mark shall be deducted.

4. Candidates are required to fill in details in the computer assessment sheet with HP pencil. Improper shading in the computer assessment sheet or mutilation of the sheet would render it invalid.

5. Candidates are required to record answers in the computer assessment sheet as instructed.

6. This test is of Two Hours. First bell will ring five minutes before commencement of the test. As soon as the first bell rings candidate should write his/her roll number at places prescribed in the test paper and fill in the details as required in the computer assessment sheet.

7. Before commencing to write your answers make sure that your booklet is legibly printed and contains one hundred fifty questions. You can use blank pages at the end of this booklet for rough work.

8. Candidates are required not to keep in their possession anything except pen, pencil, sharpener, and eraser. Electronic gadgets (except wrist watch without any add on facility) such as calculator, cell phone, think pad etc. are not allowed in the examination hall.

9. In case of any malpractice or attempt to use malpractice, which would include talking to neighbors, copying or using unfair means, the center in-charge shall seize the paper and expel the candidate and cause a detailed report to be sent to University along with the seized paper in a separate packet.

Signature

Center in-charge

National Entrance Test (NET)

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1. ABCD is a trapezium in which AB is parallel to DC and AB = 2CD. If its diagonals intersect each at O, then the ratio of the areas of the triangles AOB and COD is:

(a) 1 : 2

(b) 4 : 1

(c) 1 : 4

(d) 2 : 1

2. A room is 7.5 meter long, 5.5 meter breadth and 5 meter high. If it has one door 1.6 meter breadth and 2.5 meter high and two windows each 80 centimetres breadth and 1.25 meter high. What will be the expenditure in covering the walls by paper 40 centimetres breadth at the rate of 75 paise per meter?

(a) Rs. 232.50

(b) Rs. 312

(c) Rs. 312.68

(d) Rs. 212

3. A wire in the form of a square is cut and bent in the form of a circle. If the area of the square is 110 cm2 what is the area of the circle?

(a) 110 cm2

(b) 120 cm2

(c) 130 cm2

(d) 140 cm2

4. Present worth of a bill due 4 years hence is Rs. 575. If the bill is due after 2/1/2 years its present worth is Rs. 620. What is the interest rate per annum?

(a) 5%

(b) 6%

(c) 7%

(d) 9%

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5. Omesh divides Rs. 6375 amongst Veera and Rekha. Veera is 22 years old while Rekha is 23 years old. If the compound rate of interest is 4% per annum and both of them will receive the same amount at the age of 25 years. What is share of Veera at present?

(a) Rs. 3125

(b) Rs. 3150

(c) Rs. 3175

(d) Rs. 3170

6. Ramesh bought a house from Suresh and paid him Rs. 40,000 as the initial payment and Rs. 48,000 after 5 years. If the rate of simple interest was 4% per annum. What was the cash price of the house?

(a) Rs. 92,000

(b) Rs. 89,000

(c) Rs. 84,000

(d) Rs. 80,000

7. A passenger train running at the speed of 80 km/hour leaves the Railway Station 6 hours after a Goods trains leaves and overtakes it in 4 hours. What is the speed of Goods train?

(a) 30 km/hour

(b) 32 km/hour

(c) 34 km/hour

(d) 36 km/hour

8. 20 men can complete a work in 40 days. When should 4 men leave so that the work may be finished in 48 days?

(a) 2 days

(b) 4 days

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(c) 6 days

(d) 8 days

9. Amar, Bipin and Chandan are partners in a business with contributory capital of Rs. 5,000, Rs. 6,000 and Rs. 4,000 respectively. Amar gets 30% of the profit for managing the business and the balance is divided in the ratio of their capitals. At the end of the year Amar gets Rs. 200 more than Bipin and Chandan together. What is the total profit?

(a) Rs. 2,800

(b) Rs. 3,00

(c) Rs. 3,200

(d) Rs. 3,500

10. The cost of 11 chairs is equal to the cost of 3 tables. The cost of one chair and one table is Rs. 140. What is the cost of a chair?

(a) Rs. 30

(b) Rs. 60

(c) Rs. 66

(d) Rs. 90

11. Which one of the following Countries shall host 11th South Asian Games-2008?

(a) India

(b) Sri Lanka

(c) Bangladesh

(d) Pakistan

Directions for questions 12 to 16: For the word given in each of the questions, choose the word or phrase, which is similar in meaning to the word given in the question.

12. Abstruse:

(a) Profound

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(b) Suspended

(c) Exciting

(d) Recondite

13. Obfuscate:

(a) Clarify

(b) Profuse

(c) Confuse

(d) Charge

14. Claustrophobia:

(a) Fear of Dogs

(b) Fear of Water

(c) Fear of closed spaces

(d) Fear of vampires

15. Impervious:

(a) Vulnerable

(b) Chaotic

(c) Intelligent

(d) Impenetrable

16. Lugubrious:

(a) Shining

(b) Cheerful

(c) Mournful

(d) Blissful

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17. Which one of the following dates is known as International Day for the Elimination of Racial discrimination?

(a) March 15

(b) March 18

(c) March 21

(d) March 22

18. Which one of the following positions India secured in the medals tally in the 15th Asian Games held in Doha in 2006?

(a) 6th position

(b) 7th position

(c) 8th position

(d) 9th position

19. Which one of the following Countries is the largest importer of iron ore from India?

(a) China

(b) Australia

(c) Brazil

(d) Pakistan

20. Which one of the following caves have twelve Buddhist caves, seventeen Hindu caves and five Jain caves.

(a) Ajanta caves

(b) Ellora caves

(c) Borra caves

(d) None of the above

21. Which one of the following Gupta Emperors changed his Capital from Patliputra to Ayodhya?

(a) Rama Gupta

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(b) Chandragupta I

(c) Chandragupta II

(d) Samudragupta

22. Which one of the following is the largest Tribal group in India?

(a) Gonds

(b) Santhals

(c) Chaimals

(d) Reangs

23. Which one of the following pairs of metals Electrum is an alloy of:

(a) Gold and Iron

(b) Gold and Silver

(c) Silver and Copper


24. Which one of the following Continent has largest number of Commonwealth Members?

(a) Africa

(b) Asia

(c) Europe

(d) South America

25. Which one of the following Indian dance forms derives its name from earthen lamp?

(a) Bhangra

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(b) Gidda

(c) Garba

(d) Kathak

26. In Binary number system, what does 111 represent?

(a) One hundred eleven

(b) seven

(c) three

(d) one

27. Match column A with column B in order to make suitable pairs. Select the most appropriate pair.

Column A Column B

1. Parliament 1. Governor

2. President 2. High Court

3. Attorney General 3. State Legislature

4. Supreme Court 4. Advocate General

(a) {1, 1}, {2, 3}, {3, 2}, {4, 2}

(b) {1, 3}, {2, 1}, {3, 4}, {4, 2}

(c) {2, 3}, {1, 2}, {3, 4}, {4, 1}

(d) {1, 4}, {2, 3}, {3, 2}, {4, 1}

28. Match column A with column B to make pairs. Select the most appropriate pair.

Column A Column B

1. Reserve Bank of India 1. Patents

2. Ministry of Finance 2. Repo Rate

3. Ministry of External Affairs 3. Tax Rate

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4. Ministry of Commerce 4. Passport

(a) {1, 1}, {2, 3}, {3, 2}, {4, 4}

(b) {1, 2}, {2, 3}, {3, 4}, {4, 1}

(c) {1, 1}, {2, 2}, {3, 3}, {4, 4}

(d) {1, 4}, {2, 3}, {3, 2}, {4, 1}

29. Match column A and column B to make appropriate pairs.

Column A Column B

1. The Constitution of India 1. Rights of Consumers

2. The Indian Penal Code 2. Proscribing Monopoly & Cartels

3. The Competition Act 3. Fundamental Rights

4. The Consumer Protection Act 4. Theft

(a) {1, 1}, {2, 3}, {3, 2}, {4, 4}

(b) {1, 2}, {2, 3}, {3, 4}, {4, 1}

(c) {1, 4}, {2, 3}, {3, 2}, {4, 1}

(d) {1, 3}, {2, 4}, {3, 2}, {4, 1}

30. Match column A with column B to make the most suitable and appropriate pairs.

Column A Column B

1. Sentencing 1. Establishing Guilt

2. Conviction 2. Punishment

3. Court 3. Station House Officer

4. Police Station 4. Judge

(a) {1, 1}, {2, 3}, {3, 2}, {4, 4}

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(b) {1, 2}, {2, 3}, {3, 4}, {4, 1}

(c) {1, 2}, {2, 1}, {3, 4}, {4, 3}

(d) {1, 4}, {2, 3}, {3, 2}, {4, 1}

31. Which one of the following is an illegal act?

(a) Not obeying Parents.

(b) Taking bribe.

(c) Students collecting donations.

(d) None of the above.

32. Which of the following is facet of human rights?

(a) Protecting children from forced labour.

(b) Providing food to flood and draught affected people.

(c) Basic schooling and medical facilities to citizen.

(d) All the above.

33. Mr. X was apprehended by the Police believing that Mr. X has committed a crime. Mr. X is prosecuted for the alleged offence. Mr. X is legally called as:

(a) A criminal

(b) A Convict

(c) An Accused

(d) A Prosecutor

34. Which one of the following is not an example of contract?

(a) Kailash purchased a car from Ganesh.

(b) Mohit promised Suresh to buy his house for an agreed price.

(c) Ramesh promising Suresh a dinner.

(d) Raj promising Kiran to sell his motorbike.

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35. Gopal, a journalist, in order to have fun published in the daily newspaper a story about an actress labeling her with conjectures and surmises thereby depicting her as a wicked woman. Reading this her fan club raised slogans against her and held a public rally against her. Has Gopal committed one of the following?

(a) Murder of an Icon

(b) Defamation

(c) Negative Publicity

(d) Misuse of newsprint

36. Hindi written in devanagari script is:

(a) Constitutional Language of India

(b) Official Language of the Government of India

(c) National Language of India

(d) All the above

37. Which one of the following marriage is child marriage in India?

(a) Between a Boy aged 22 years & a Girl 19 years

(b) Between a Girl aged 18 years & a Boy 21 years

(c) Between a Girl aged 18 years & a Boy 20 years


38. Which one of the following does not constitute the Parliament of India?

(a) The Lok Sabha

(b) The Rajya Sabha

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(c) The President

(d) The Prime Minister

39. Which one of the following is not true about the Supreme Court of India?

(a) It succeeded the Federal Court of India

(b) It has seat in New Delhi only

(c) It has twenty nine judges


40. Which one of the following refers to doli capax?

(a) Not capacitated to commit a crime

(b) Capacitated to commit a crime

(c) A child in mother’s womb.

(d) All the above.

41. A legal proceeding adjourned sine die refers to:

(a) That the proceeding shall commence on the first of next month.

(b) That the proceeding was not given a date for continuation.

(c) That the Court has passed a decree in the given case.


42. Which one of the following is true about the Constitution of India?

(a) It has been enacted by the British Parliament.

(b) It has been enacted by the Constituent Assembly.

(c) It has been passed by the Parliament of India.

(d) It has been adopted by the People of India.

43. Adjudication of cases between parties in courts in India connotes:

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(a) Inquisitorial system

(b) Adversarial system

(c) Arbitral system


44. Which one of the following day is observed as Constitution day in India?

(a) 26th October

(b) 26th November

(c) 26th January

(d) 15th August

45. Which one of the following is not correct?

(a) The High Court directing the government to remove encroachments on public roads.

(b) The Supreme Court directing Universities to make guidelines against ragging.

(c) The High Court directing the State Government to make a law prohibiting smoking in public places.

(d) The Supreme Court directing Government of India to take stern action against sexual harassment of women at work places.

46. The President of India is administered oath of office by:

(a) The Prime Minister

(b) The Chief Justice of India

(c) The Speaker of Lok Sabha

(d) The Attorney General of India

47. The phrase per incuriam refers to:

(a) Judgment of a Court in accordance with law

(b) Judgment of a Court without reference to a statutory provision

(c) Judgment of a judge not of a Court

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(d) All the above

48. Which one of the following is not a principal organ of the United Nations?

(a) General Assembly

(b) Security Council

(c) Economic and Social Council

(d) World Trade Organization

Directions for questions 49 to 51: Each question given below is followed by two arguments numbered I and II. You have to decide which of the argument is a strong argument and which is a weak argument.

49. Statement:: Should the health care services be nationalized?

Arguments:: I. Yes, it has been done elsewhere also.

II. No, the quality of health care services will deteriorate.

(a) Only argument I is strong.

(b) Only argument II is strong.

(c) Neither I nor II is strong.

(d) Both I and II are strong.

50. Statement:: Should there be a world government?

Arguments:: I. Yes, it will help in eliminating tension among the Nations.

II. No, then only the developed countries will dominate in the government.





51. Statement:: Should non vegetarian food be totally banned in our country?

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Arguments:: I. Yes, it is expensive and therefore it is beyond the means of most people in our country.

II. No, nothing should be banned in a democratic country like ours.





Directions for questions 52 to 61: Each question is based on the application of principles on the given facts. Read the facts carefully, apply the given principle to the facts and select the most appropriate answer out of the four choices given under each question.

52. Facts: Mr. ‘X’ delivered a lecture at a local Rotary Club in favour of an accused who is prosecuted for assaulting a police officer. He said that the accused is a victim of prevailing corruption in the judiciary and he knows that the accused is going to be punished by the Court for being honest. Mr. ‘X’ is charged for committing contempt of Court.

Principle: A person shall not be guilty of contempt of Court on the ground that he has published (whether by words, spoken or written, or by signs or by visible representations, or otherwise) any matter which interferes or tends to interfere with or obstructs or tends to obstruct, the course of justice in connection with any civil or criminal proceeding pending at that time of publication, if at that time he had no reasonable grounds for believing that the proceeding was pending.

(a) Mr. ‘X’ has not committed contempt of Court.

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(b) Mr. ‘X’ has committed contempt of Court.

(c) Mr. ‘X’ has dishonoured the Court.

(d) Mr. ‘X’ shall be acquitted because he is an honest man.

53. Facts: Amar is a staunch believer of divine powers of Baba Sarvanand and believes that anybody who touches Baba’s feet shall be cured of any disease. He published a news item in a national daily explaining his experience and powers of Baba.

Principle: Advertisement of magic remedy is a punishable offence. Magic remedy includes a talisman, mantra kavacha, and any other charm of any kind which is alleged to possess miraculous powers for or in the diagnosis, cure, mitigation treatment or prevention of any disease in human beings or animals or for affecting or influencing in any way the structure or any organic function of the body of human beings or animals.

Whether Amar has committed the offence of advertisement of magical remedy?

(a) Yes, Amar has committed the offence.

(b) Yes, Amar and national daily both have committed the offence.

(c) No, Amar has not committed any offence.

(d) Amar has not but national daily has committed the offence.

54. Facts: Amit, while rushing to board a moving train at a station pushed Anil who was walking along with a heavy load, containing fire crackers, the push resulted in slipping of the load from Anil’s hand. The crackers exploded injuring a boy, Sumit standing nearby. Sumit filed a suit against Amit claiming damages.

Principle: Everybody is under a legal obligation to take reasonable care in order not to injury by an act or omission his neighbour, which he may foresee. The neighbour for this purpose is a person who is likely to be affected by the act or the omission.

(a) Amit is not liable, because Sumit is not his neighbour.

(b) Amit is not liable, because Anil should not be carrying load of crackers on a Railway station.

(c) Amit is liable, because he pushed Anil.

(d) Amit is liable because he was running.

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55. Facts: Ramesh is working as a lift operator in a company. One day he was injured while operating the elevator, which fell off the pulleys due to excess greasing by engineers of the company. Whether the company is liable for the injury sustained by Ramesh?

Principle: An employer is liable to maintain in good and safe condition any way works, machinery or plant connected with or used in his trade or business, or by reason of any like omission on the part of any person in the service of the employer who has been entrusted by the employer with the duty of seeing that such way, works, machinery or plant are in good and safe condition, any failure in the same shall make company liable for any loss resulting from such failure.

(a) No, company is not liable to any one.

(b) Yes, company is liable to Ramesh.

(c) Yes, company is liable to engineers.


56. Facts: Mr. ‘A’ in search of job met a quarry owner and requested him to provide any job for the time being. The quarry owner allowed him to work as a labourer and to carry stone boulders from one place to another in the quarry. Unaware of working condition and environment Mr. ‘A’ tried to remove a huge stone having live dynamite inside, which blew up fracturing the leg of Mr. ‘A’.

Mr. ‘A’ filed suit against the quarry owner. Whether ‘A’ would succeed?

Principle: In any suit for damages, the workman shall not be deemed to have undertaken any risk attaching to the employment unless the employer proves that the risk was fully explained to and understood by the workman and that the workman voluntarily undertook the same.

(a) No, he undertook the risk of employment.

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(b) No, he was aware of the dangers involved in the job.

(c) Yes, he was never explained the hazards of the given job.


57. Facts: Mr. ‘A’ saw an unknown man jumping the boundary wall and entering his house in the night. He hid himself in a corner carrying a sword and waiting for the person. The moment the person entered the house, he hit the person and cut his head. Whether Mr. ‘A’ committed offence of killing a man?

Principle: Any act done in exercise of right of private defence shall not be an offence. The right to private defence in no case extends to the inflicting of more harm that it is necessary to inflict for the purpose of defence.

(a) Yes, because he should allow any person entering his house

(b) No, he has not committed any offence.

(c) No, he has not committed any offence because he exercised right of private defence.

(d) Yes, because he exceeded right of private defence.

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58. Facts: Amar delivered a colour television to M/s XYZ Courier Services-a common carrier at Delhi to be delivered to his parents in Jaipur in nicely packed condition. Amar paid Rs. 400 as Courier charges. Amar’s parents informed him that the colour television delivered to them is damaged. Knowing this Amar filed suit against M/s XYZ Courier Services for recovery of Rs. 12,000 (twelve thousand) the price of colour television plus freight and packaging charges. Would he succeed?

Principle: No common carrier shall be liable for the loss of or, damage to property delivered to him to be carried exceeding in value one hundred rupees, unless the person delivering such property to be carried, or some person duly authorised in that behalf, shall have expressly declared to such carrier or his agent the value and description thereof.

(a) No, Amar will not succeed.

(b) Yes, he would because he has suffered loss.

(c) Yes, he will but he would not recover more than one hundred rupees.

(d) Yes, he will recover the cost of television plus freight and packaging charges that he incurred.

59. Facts: Ashok a news paper publisher publishes advertisements sponsored by individuals and societies. He published in his news paper an advertisement showing caricature of a bare woman and a plant coming out of her womb and a punch line reading “keep the earth green and be greeted by the earth”. The sponsor of this advertisement is a society working for protection of environment.

Whether Ashok has committed any offence?

Principle 1: No person shall publish, or cause to be published, or arrange or take part in the publication or exhibition of, any advertisements which contains indecent representation of women in any form.

Principle 2: Any person who contravenes the provisions of Principle 1 shall commit an offence punishable with imprisonment of either description for a term which may extend to two years, and with fine which may extend to two thousand rupees.

(a) Yes, Ashok has committed an offence.

(b) No, Ashok has not committed any offence.

(c) Ashok has not committed any offence but offence is committed by the sponsoring society.

(d) Society has not committed any offence but Ashok definitely has committed the offence.

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60. Facts: Rohan entered into an agreement with a Banker and deposited Rs. Five lakh with the Banker. The terms of the contract provided that Rohan’s son Suresh shall be the beneficiary of the deposited amount only, if he marries after he attains legally marriageable age. Is agreement between Rohan and Banker void?

Principle: Every agreement in restraint of the marriage of any person, other than a minor, is void.

(a) Yes, since the agreement is restraining marriage of Suresh.

(b) No, agreement is valid and enforceable.

(c) Yes, because Suresh has right to marry once he is eligible to cast his vote.


61. Facts: Ashutosh agrees to pay Baman a sum of money if Baman marries Chandini anytime during Ashutosh’s life. Chandini marries Dinesh and soon thereafter Ashutosh dies. Whether agreement between Ashutosh and Baman could be enforced, if Dinesh dies after one year of marriage and Baman marries Chandini?

Principle: When a future event on which a contract is dependent is the way in which a person will act at an unspecified time, then the event shall be considered to become impossible when such person does anything which renders it impossible that he should so act within any definite time, or otherwise than under further contingencies. If the event becomes impossible, such agreements become void.

(a) No, agreement has become void.

(b) Yes, because Baman ultimately marries Chandini.

(c) Yes, because essence of this contract was marriage between Baman and Chandini.

(d) Both (b) and (c).

62. What does De minimis non curat lex refer to?

(a) The law does not concern itself with trifles

(b) To sell property at a very low price

(c) Expecting minimal incentive


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63. What does ‘Bench’ mean in relation to a judicial proceeding?

(a) Courtroom

(b) Anteroom for Judges

(c) A Judge in Court session

(d) Wooden plank for Judges

64. Force majeure refers to:

(a) Forced labour

(b) An inevitable

(c) Majority force

(d) Democracy

65. Which one of the following is an example of Intellectual Property Rights?

(a) Tenancy rights in a house

(b) Copyright

(c) Ownership in a motorcar


66. What does ab initio refer to?

(a) Towards the end

(b) From the beginning

(c) Somewhere in the middle

(d) Final goal

67. Which one of the following is the odd word out?

(a) Defamation

(b) Slander

(c) Libel

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(d) Honour

68. Which one of the following is not part of Alternative Dispute Resolution?

(a) Arbitration

(b) Litigation

(c) Conciliation

(d) Mediation

69. What does inter alia refer to?

(a) Among other things

(b) Interested in aliens

(c) Alliance invited

(d) All the above

70. Which one of the following supplies the missing number in this series: 1, 4, 10, 19, ?.

(a) 28

(b) 31

(c) 32

(d) 33

71. Which one of the following supplies the missing number in this series: 2, 6, 12, 20, 30, 42, 56, ?.

(a) 64

(b) 66

(c) 72

(d) 76

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72. Six friends are sitting before a dining table in the following order, B is sitting opposite to D, E is sitting opposite to C and A is on the extreme left end of the table facing F. Who is sitting beside B facing D and E?

(a) D

(b) C

(c) A

(d) B

73. Which one of the following will complete the series: PMT, OOS, NQR, MSQ, ?

(a) LWP

(b) LVR

(c) LVP

(d) LUP

74. There are five books A, B, C, D and E placed on the table. If A is placed below E, C is placed above D, B is placed below A and D is placed above E, then which of the following book touches the surface of the table?

(a) A

(b) B

(c) C

(d) E

75. If the Greenwich Mean Time is 4.30 am, what is the time in Kolkata?

(a) 10 am

(b) 9.30 am

(c) 11.30 pm

(d) 10.30 am

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76. A, B, C, D, E, F and G are members of a family consisting of four adults and three children. F and G are girls. A and D are brothers and A is a doctor. E is an engineer married to one of the brothers and has two children. B is married to D and G is their child, who is C?

(a) B’s daughter

(b) D’s father

(c) A’s son

(d) E’s daughter

77. Mr. X went fifteen kilometer to the west from his house, then turned left and walked twenty kilometer. He then turned east and walked twenty five kilometer and finally turning left covered twenty kilometer. How far is he from his house?

(a) 10 kilometer

(b) 5 kilometer

(c) 15 kilometer

(d) 20 kilometer

78. In the following number series, how many 9’s are there which are preceded by 3 but not followed by four?

2395139673948934932398393

(a) 3

(b) 4

(c) 1

(d) 2

Directions for questions 79 to 81: In each question below are given two statements followed by four conclusions numbered I, II, III, and IV. You have to take the two given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follow from the two given statements.

79. Statements:

A. All mean are vertebrates.

B. Some mammals are vertebrates.

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Conclusions:

I. All men are mammals.

II. All mammals are men.

III. Some vertebrates are mammals.

IV. All vertebrates are men.

(a) Only I follows.

(b) Only II and III follow.

(c) Only III follows.

(d) All follows.

80. Statement:

A. All knowledge is good.

B. All knowledge is difficult.

Conclusion:

I. Some good things are difficult.

II. All difficult things are knowledge.

III. All good things are difficult.

IV. Easy things are not knowledge.

(a) Only I follows.

(b) Only II and III follows.

(c) Only II or III follows.

(d) Only I or IV follows.

81. Statement:

A. All boys are beautiful.

B. All beautiful are lovely.

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Conclusion:

I. All boys are lovely.

II. Some boys are lovely.

III. Some lovely are boys.

IV. All beautiful are not lovely.

(a) Only I and III follow.

(b) Only I follows.

(c) Only III and IV follow.

(d) None follows.

82. In a concial cup 4000 (four thousand) drops of water are dropped into it. The diameter of each drop is 4 mm. If the diameter of the end of the cup is same as the height of the cup, what will be the height of water in the cup?

(a) 6 cm

(b) 8 cm

(c) 4 cm

(d) 7 cm

83. The mean weight of 120 students in the first year class of a college is 56 kg. If the mean weight of boys and that of girls in the class are 60 kg and 50 kg respectively, then the number of boys and girls separately in the class are::

(a) 64,42

(b) 38,64

(c) 72,36

(d) 72,48

84. The number of ways in which six men and five women can dine at a round table if no two women are to sit together is given by:

(a) 6! × 5!

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(b) 30

(c) 7! × 4!

(d) 40

85. How many meters of cloth 5 meter wide will be required to make a conical tent, the radius of whose base is 7 meter and whose height is 24 meter?

(a) 120 meter

(b) 100 meter

(c) 110 meter

(d) 105 meter

86. Mr. X left one third of his property to his widow and three fifth of the remainder to his daughter. He gave rest to his son who received Rs. 6400. How much was his original property worth.

(a) Rs. 48,000

(b) Rs. 64,000

(c) Rs. 36,000

(d) Rs. 24,000

87. Ramesh started a business with a capital of Rs. 18,000. Four months later Suresh joined him with a capital of Rs. 24,000. At the end of the year total profit earned was Rs. 5,100. What is Suresh’s share in the profit?

(a) Rs. 2,000

(b) Rs. 2,100

(c) Rs. 2,400

(d) Rs. 2,200

88. Rakesh reaches his office 30 minutes late if he walks from his house at a speed of 3 km/hour and reaches 40 minute early if walks at 4 km/hour. How far is his office from his house in kilometers?

(a) 11

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(b) 12

(c) 13

(d) 14

Directions for questions 89 to 93: Read the following information carefully and answer the question given below it. Six friends P, Q, R, S, T, and U play Football, Cricket, Tennis, Basketball, Badminton and Volleyball. T who is taller than P and S plays Tennis. The tallest among them plays Basketball. The shortest among them plays Volleyball. Q and S neither play Volleyball nor Basketball. R plays Volleyball. T is between Q who plays football and P in order of height.

89. What does S play?

(a) Football

(b) Either Cricket or Badminton

(c) Cricket

(d) Badminton

90. Who among them is taller than R but shorter than P?

(a) T

(b) Data inadequate

(c) Q


91. Who among them plays Basketball?

(a) S

(b) U

(c) Q

(d) R

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92. Which one of the following statements is not true?

(a) T is taller than R

(b) U is taller than Q

(c) P is shorter than R

(d) Q is taller than S

93. Who will be at the third place if they are arranged in descending order of their height?

(a) T

(b) Q

(c) P

(d) S

94. A cistern has two pipes, which can fill it in 2 hours and 3 hours, respectively. A third pipe can empty it in 5 hours. If all the three pipes are turned on when the cistern is empty, when will it be filled?

(a) 22 hours

(b) 30

hours19

(c) 19

hours30

(d) 23 hours

95. The compound interest on a sum of money for 3 years at 5% is Rs. 3783. What is the simple interest?

(a) Rs. 3,200

(b) Rs. 3,500

(c) Rs. 3,600

(d) Rs. 3,800

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96. If (X – 4) (X – P) = X2 – 16 then P is equal to:

(a) 2

(b) 4

(c) – 4

(d) – 8

97. International Finance Corporation Report titled ‘Doing Business 2007’ ranked India at which one of the following positions.

(a) 144th

(b) 134th

(c) 120th

(d) 109th

98. In which one of the following years the Indian Coast Guard was established?

(a) 1989

(b) 1980

(c) 1977

(d) 1971

99. At which one of the following places the annual meeting of the World Economic Forum was held on January 24-28, 2007:

(a) Warsaw

(b) Davos

(c) Brussels

(d) New Delhi

100. What does TFT refer to?

(a) Thick Film Transmitter

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(b) Thin Film Transistor

(c) True Film Transmitter

(d) Thick Film Transistor

101. The escape velocity of an object projected from the surface of a given planet is independent of:

(a) mass of the planet

(b) mass of the object

(c) opposite to the direction of projection

(d) radius of the planet

102. The length of a wire is increased by 1 mm on the application of given load. In a wire of the same material, but of length and radius twice that of the first, on application of the same load extension produced is:

(a) 4 mm

(b) 2 mm

(c) 1 mm

(d) 0.5 mm

103. When the Kinetic Energy of a body is increased by 300%, the momentum of the body is increased by:

(a) 100%

(b) 200%

(c) 300%

(d) 400%

104. A plastic which can be softened on heating and hardened on cooling is called as:

(a) Thermoelastic

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(b) Thermoplastics

(c) Thermosetting

(d) Thermite

105. Which one of the following is the mascot of 15th Asian Games?

(a) Orry

(b) Karak

(c) Kangaroo

(d) Baby Elephant

106. Under a flexible exchange rate system, the exchange rate is determined by:

(a) The nation’s monetary authority

(b) The price of gold

(c) The nation’s budget

(d) The forces of demand and supply in the foreign exchange market

107. In a perfectly competitive market there exists:

(a) Free entry and restricted entry of firms.

(b) Free entry and free exit of firms

(c) Restricted entry and exit of firms

(d) Restricted entry and free exit of firms

108. Which one of the following international games India is hosting in the year 2010?

(a) Commonwealth Games

(b) Asian Games

(c) Olympic Games


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109. An inferior commodity is one which is consumed in smaller quantities when the income of the consumer:

(a) Rises

(b) Falls

(c) Stagnates

(d) Becomes Zero

110. The incidence of tax refers to:

(a) The level and the rate of taxation

(b) Who ultimately bears the burden of tax

(c) The growth of taxation

(d) The way in which tax is collected

111. Morphine, Codeine and Heroin are chemically known as:

(a) Analgesics

(b) Narcotics

(c) Alkaloids

(d) All the above

112. In which one of the following, Nodules with nitrogen fixing bacteria are present?

(a) Wheat

(b) Cotton

(c) Gram

(d) Mustard

113. The Indian colliery owners set up the Indian Mining Federation in the year 1913 for the objective of:

(a) To encourage collective bargaining

(b) To compete with the British

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(c) To fight racial discrimination and foreign monopoly


114. Which one of the following Vitamins is responsible for blood clotting?

(a) Vitamin A

(b) Vitamin E

(c) Vitamin C

(d) Vitamin K

115. Which one of the following states the Law of Demand?

(a) Income rises, Demand rises

(b) Price rises, Demand falls

(c) Price falls, Demand falls

(d) Expenditure rises, Demand rises

Directions for questions 116 to 119: Select the most appropriate opposite word for the words given in each of the following questions.

116. Nefarious:

(a) Wicked

(b) Reprehensible

(c) Pious

(d) Coherent

117. Desultory:

(a) Random

(b) Methodical

(c) Aimless

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(d) Lacking

118. Sacrosanct:

(a) Religious

(b) Sanctimonious

(c) Sacramental

(d) Unholy

119. Ignominy:

(a) Discomfiture

(b) Discredit

(c) Honour

(d) Stupidity

Directions for questions 120 to 124: Choose the best alternative to fill the blanks in the given sentences.

120. The prosecutor asked the accused to tell the court………………………………..

(a) Where were you at the time the crime was committed?

(b) You were where at the time the crime was committed.

(c) Where was she at the time the crime was committed?

(d) Where she was at the time the crime was committed.

121. The man ……………………… her basket and ran out of the shop before anyone could stop him.

(a) caught out

(b) caught up

(c) caught up on

(d) caught up in

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122. It is unwise to ………………… all your capital ………………… one enterprise.

(a) tie on, on

(b) tie down, on

(c) tie up, in

(d) tie in with, in

123. The day ………………… a heavy turnout of voters …………… in urban and rural areas.

(a) proved, queue

(b) showed, both

(c) witnessed, both

(d) presented, lines

124. The disputes between India and Pakistan are of a more serious nature than ……………….. between India and its other neighbours.

(a) that exist

(b) that existing

(c) those that exist

(d) that which exists

125. Which one of the following sentences is grammatically correct?

(a) There is much hot this summer.

(b) My leg is paining.

(c) I made a good shot at the goal.

(d) The others boys are not present.

126. Which one of the following sentences is incorrect?

(a) I have no money to buy a motor car.

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(b) I am not teacher, I am student.

(c) He drank half a glass of milk.

(d) A hundred years make a century.

Directions for questions 127 to 131: Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it.

The average growth rate of the Indian economy over a period of 25 years since 1980-81 (financial year beginning April) has been about 6.0 per cent, with the growth rate averaging 9.1 per cent during the last two years. The economy has shown considerable resilience during the recent years, as evidenced by the avoidance of adverse contagion impact of several shocks in the Emerging Market Economies and the ability to cope with oil price increases. The strengthening of economic activity in the recent years has been supported by persistent increase in domestic investment rate from 22.9 per cent of GDP in 2001-02 to 33.8 per cent in 2005-06 coupled with more efficient use of capital. Domestic saving rate has also improved from 23.5 per cent to 32.4 per cent during the same period. While the services sector continues to be the driver of growth with a share of around 60 per cent in the overall GDP, a noteworthy development during the recent years has been the continued recovery in industrial sector, particularly the manufacturing sector supported by domestic as well export demand.

The financial sector has acquired greater strength, efficiency and stability by the combined effect of competition, regulatory measures, policy environment and motivation among the market players including banks. The Government securities market is quite deep, liquid and vibrant and well developed in terms of instruments/processes/participants. The exchange rate of the rupee has been flexible, particularly, in the last few years and the turnover in the foreign exchange market has increased considerably. The stock market has been opened to foreign institutional investors and is comparable with major international equity markets.

However there are certain challenges to be addressed. The poor state of the physical infrastructure, both in terms of quantity and quality is considered to be most critical hindrance for India’s progress by many. The most important issue here is regulatory framework and overall investment climate, which are being addressed by the Government. Secondly, fiscal consolidation still remains a matter of concern, especially in the eyes of the rating agencies. The recent budget of the Central Government brings the consolidation on track. Studies on State finances by the Reserve Bank of India give grounds for optimism in regard to their fiscal health. Two important areas could be recognized which, if addressed would result in fiscal empowerment. One is elimination of subsidies, which are not directly targeted to the poor or inappropriate, and the second is elimination of most of the tax exemptions, which are patently distortionary.

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Another challenging issue relates to development of agriculture. While over 60 per cent of the workforce is dependent on agriculture, the GDP growth generated from agriculture is only marginally above the rate of growth of the population, which is not adequate to ensure rapid poverty reduction.

127. A noteworthy development during the recent period has been the:

(a) Rapid development of agriculture along with industrial growth.

(b) Rapid development of industries along with the services sector.

(c) Rapid development of agriculture along with the services sector.

(d) Rapid development of services along with agricultural sector.

128. What does fiscal consolidation imply in the above paragraph?

(a) Increase in savings.

(b) Reduction in unproductive Government expenditure.

(c) Reduction in taxes.

(d) Reduction in investment.

129. Which one of the following is not an ingredient of financial sector reforms?

(a) Exchange rate flexibility.

(b) Development of equity market.

(c) Development of infrastructure.

(d) Development of the Government securities market.

130. According to given paragraph, which one of the following has not contributed to rising growth rate in Indian economy?

(a) Agricultural sector.

(b) Financial sector.

(c) Services Sector.

(d) Industrial Sector.

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131. Which one of the following is not true about the Indian agricultural sector?

(a) It provides employment to 60% of the workforce.

(b) It has not been highly successful in reducing poverty level in the country.

(c) The GDP growth generated from agriculture is less than the rate of growth of population.

(d) The GDP growth generated from agriculture is higher than the rate of growth of population.

Directions for questions 132 to 136: Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it.

History of government in America shows a gradual development of the system. Local governments were the first governments. The primitive tribe that chose the strongest man to be its chief and the oldest men to form a council was establishing local government. It was seeking a better safer life.

In the same way, the first English settlers who landed at Jamestown, Virginia, in 1607 soon realized that they needed rules and leaders. At first, the settlers searched for gold and had to find their own food and provide their own shelter. As food supplies began to run low, and as the colonists faced hunger and disease, they saw that they needed to work together if the colony was to survive. The colonists formed a council to make laws for the colony. They chose Captain John Smith as president of the council to see that the laws were carried out. This government at Jamestown was the first local government in America.

Today, local government is still the first and most important government in American lives. It protects lives, provides safety, and homes, and it helps to keep environment clean. Local government provides Americans with schools, libraries and other important services.

132. The Jamestown colonists formed a government because of:

(a) Pride

(b) Greed

(c) Necessity

(d) Togetherness

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133. The most suitable title for this passage would be:

(a) Historical evolution

(b) The first government

(c) American Life

(d) Rules and leaders

134. The first colonial government according to the given passage was:

(a) Local government

(b) Federal government

(c) City government

(d) Necessity government

135. The overall goal of local government seems to be public:

(a) Annihilation

(b) Protection

(c) Growth

(d) Development

136. What did settlers search first?

(a) Silver

(b) Law and rules

(c) Gold

(d) Peace

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Directions for questions 137 to 140: Select the word which closely fits the definition given in each of the following question.

137. One who does a thing for pleasure and not as profession?

(a) Empirical

(b) Diabolical

(c) Amateur

(d) Philanderer

138. Government by Priests or a government which has its state religion is called.

(a) Aristocracy

(b) Oligarchy

(c) Sacerdotal

(d) Theocracy

139. Animals that live in flock are called?

(a) Gregarious

(b) Pugnacious

(c) Migratory

(d) Parasite

140. To free a person from charge or blame:

(a) Inculpate

(b) Exculpate

(c) Inculcate

(d) Circumvent

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Directions for questions 141 to 150: Each question is based on arrangement of parts of legal phrases in one sentence, providing the most appropriate meaning. One or more parts of the sentence is given in the question, remaining parts of the sentence are to be sequentially selected from the remaining four parts of the sentence (P, Q, R, S) given under each questions. Most suitable sequence is required to be selected from the four choices (a, b, c, d) given for each question.

141. When a party …………. Or disabled ……………… his promise in its entirety, ……… unless he has signified, ………….. in its continuance.

(P) to a contract has refused to perform,

(Q) himself from performing,

(R) the promisee may put an end to the contract,

(S) by words or conduct, his acquiescence

(a) PQRS

(b) SQPR

(c) QSRP

(d) RPSQ

142. if it appears from …….. that it was ……. That ……… by the promisor himself, such promise must be…………

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(P) the nature of the case

(Q) any promise contained in it should be performed

(R) the intention of the parties to any contract

(S) performed by the promisor

(a) PQRS

(b) PRQS

(c) QSRP

(d) QRSP

143. Where a debtor, …………… makes a payment to him, ……….. or under circumstances implying, ………… the payment, …………… must be applied accordingly.

(P) either with express intimation,

(Q) owing several distinct debts to one person,

(R) that the payment is to be applied to the discharge of some particular debt,

(S) if accepted.

(a) QPRS

(b) PQRS

(c) PRQS

(d) SRPQ

144. …………… shall be a body corporate having ………… with power to acquire and hold property, …………. And to contract, and may by the name ………….. sued.

(P) by which it is known sue and be

(Q) Every Bar Council

(R) perpetual succession and a common seal,

(S) both movable and immovable,

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(a) PQRS

(b) QPSR

(c) QRSP

(d) QSPR

145. Parliament …………. admit into the Union, or ………. on such terms and ………… it ………

(P) may by law

(Q) establish, new States

(R) conditions as

(S) thinks fit

(a) PQRS

(b) SRQP

(c) RQPS

(d) QPRS

146. The State …………. any person ………… or the equal ………. the laws ………. of India.

(P) protection of

(Q) equality before the law

(R) shall not deny to

(S) within the territory

(a) PQRS

(b) SRQP

(c) RQPS

(d) QPRS

147. No ……… of fourteen ……… to work in ..……. or engaged in any …………. Employment.

(P) child below the age

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(Q) years shall be employed

(R) any factory o mine

(S) other hazardous

(a) RSQP

(b) PQRS

(c) SQRP

(d) QPRS

148. The State shall ………. panchayats and ……….. and authority as may be ………….. them to ………… self-government.

(P) function as units of

(Q) necessary to enable

(R) endow them with such powers

(S) take steps to organise village

(a) RSQP

(b) PQRS

(c) SRQP

(d) QSRP

149. The State shall ………… for …………. A uniform ………. the ……….. India.

(P) territory of

(Q) endeavour to secure

(R) the citizens

(S) civil code throughout

(a) PQRS

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(b) QRSP

(c) RSPQ

(d) RQPS

150. There shall be a ………… the ………… consist of ……….. and two Houses to be known respectively as the ………… the House of the People.

(P) the President

(Q) Parliament for

(R) Council of States and

(S) Union which shall

(a) RSQP

(b) SQPR

(c) PQRS

(d) QSPR

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Answers

nlu jodhpore 2007 entrance exam paper

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