networking
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networking mcqsTRANSCRIPT
1) Which of the following is considered a broad band communicationchannel ?a. coaxial cableb. fiber optics cablec. microwave circuitsd. all of above
Answer = D2) Which of the following does not allow multiple uses or devices to share one communication line?
a. doubleplexerb. multiplexerc. concentratord. controller
Answer = A3) Which of the following is required to communicate between two computers ?
a. communications softwareb. protocolc. communication hardwared. all of above including access to transmission medium
Answer = D4) Which of the following is an advantage to using fiber optics data transmission?
a. resistance to data theftb. fast data transmission ratec. low noise leveld. all of above
5) The interactive transmission of data within a time sharing system may be best suited to ?
a. simplex linesb. half-duplex linesc. full duplex linesd. biflex-lines
Answer = B6) The optical fiber trans-Atlantic cable TAT-14 includes a section from Bude, Cornwall to Tucker ton, New Jersey. Determine the propagation delay if the route length is 6,254 km. ?
a. 31.98 msb. 3.198 ms.c. 31.27 msd. 312.7 ms
Answer = C7) Manchester encoding is principally designed to ?
a. ensure that the line remains unbalanced.b. have more than one symbol per bit period.c. increase the bandwidth of a signal transmitted on the mediumd. ensure that a transition occurs in the center of each bit period.
Answer = D8) A router ?
a. forwards a packet to all outgoing links.b. forwards a packet to all outgoing links, except the link upon which the packet originatedc. forwards a packet to the next free outgoing linkd. determines on which outgoing link a packet is to be forwarded.
Answer = D9) Telephone systems may be classified as ?
a. simplex and symmetrical.b. duplex and asymmetrical.c. simplex and asymmetrical.d. duplex and symmetrical.
Answer = D10) Which of the following signal is not standard RS-232-C signal ?
a. VDRb. RTSc. CTSd. DSR
Answer =A
1) Which of the following is not a type of Computer Network?
a. Local Area Network (LAN)b. Personal Area Network (PAN)c. Remote Area Network (RAN)d. Metropolitan Area Network (MAN)
Answer = c Explanation: The Types of Computer Networks are LAN, MAN, PAN, WAN, CAN but RAN Remote Area Network is not a type of CN.
2) Full Form of NIC?
a. New Internet Connectionb. Network Interface Cardc. Network Interface Connectiond. Net Interface Card
Answer =BExplanation: NIC is Network Interface Card Which is Used to Connect Computer to a Network.
3) Which of the following are type of Twisted Pair Cable?
a. Coaxial Cableb. Shielded Twisted Pair (STP)c. Unshielded Twisted Pair (UTP)d. Only B and C
Answer = D Explanation:STP and UTP are type of Twisted Pair Cable which are mostly used in all Networks.
4) _________ Supports Data Rate Upto 1000 Mbps Gigabyte Ethernet.
a. CAT 1b. Thinnetc. CAT 5d. CAT 5e
Answer = D Explanation: CAT 5e is also Know As 1000 Mbps Gigabyte Ethernet and Supports Data Rate Upto 1000 Mbps.
5) Which Color Coding of Cable is used to Connect Similar Devices?
a. Straight Cableb. Cross Over Cablec. Serial Cabled. All of Above.
Answer = B Explanation: Cross Over Color Coding of UTP Cable is Used to connect Similar Devices like HUB to HUB, PC to PC, Switch To Switch.6) HUB is a _________ Device and Switch is a ________ Device.
a. Unicast, Multicastb. Malticast, Unicastc. Broadcast, Unicastd. None of Above
Answer = C Explanation: Hub is a Broadcasting Device and Switch is a Unicasting Device because Switch have Memory Element to Store MAC Address.
7) Switch is a Device of _________ Layer of OSI Model.
a. Network Layerb. Data Link Layerc. Application Layerd. Session Layer
Answer = BExplanation: Switches Operate On The Second Layer of OSI Model That is Data Link Layer.
8) Star Topology is Based On a Central Device that can be __________ ?
a. HUBb. Switchc. Only Ad. Both A and B
Answer = D Explanation: HUB and Switch are used in Star Type Networks.
9) TCP/IP is also well known as _______.
a. OSI Modelb. TCP Modelc. DOD Modeld. Network Model
Answer = C Explanation: TCP/IP Model is also known as DOD model.
10) IPX/SPX is used in ______________.
a. Novell's Netware Networkb. Mac - Macintoshc. Appled. Microsoft
Answer = A Explanation: IPX/SPX - Internet Packet Exchanger/SequencedPackage Exchanger is used in Novell's Netware Network.
1) The collection of communication lines and routers is called
a. LANb. MANc. WANd. Communication Subnet
Answer = D
2) In the IEEE standards 802.5 standard is also called ?
a. Ethernetb. Token Busc. Wireless Token Area Networkd. Token Ring
Answer = D Explanation: In the IEEE standards 802.5 standard is also called Token Ring
3) _________ have a single communication channel that is shared by all the users on thenetwork. ?
a. Point-to-Pointb. Broadcast Networkc. Protocold. PAN
Answer = B Explanation: Broadcast Network Have Single Communication channel.
4)A Wireless Access Point Behaves in a similar manner to that of a master-slave operation ?
a. Trueb. False
Answer = True
5) Which of the following is an advantage to using fiber optics data transmission?
a. resistance to data theftb. fast data transmission ratec. low noise leveld. all of above
Answer = D
6) Which of the following is required to communicate between two computers?
a. communications softwareb. protocolc. communication hardwared. all of above including access to transmission medium
Answer = D
7) Which of the following types of channels moves data relatively slowly?
a. wide band channelb. voice band channelc. narrow band channeld. all of above
Answer = C
8) A protocol is a set of rules governing a time sequence of events that must take place ?
a. between peersb. between an interfacec. between modemsd. across an interface
Answer = A
9) Which of the following transmission systems provide the highest data rate to in individual device?
a. computer busb. telephone linesc. voice and moded. lease lines
Answer = A
10) Communiction circuits that transmit data in both directions but not at the same time are operating in
a. a simplex modeb. a half duplex modec. a full duplex moded. an asynchronous mode
Answer = B
1) The area of coverage of satellite radio beam is known as... ?
a. Footprintb. Circular polarizationc. Beam widthd. Identitye. None of Above
Answer = A Explanation:No explanation for this question.
2) Coaxial cable has conductors with ?
a. Equal resistance
b. The same diameterc. Both A and Bd. A common axise. None of these
Answer = D Explanation: Coaxial cables has two type of conductors one is inner and other is outer that has common axis.
3) What protects the coaxial cable from noise ?
a. Inner conductorb. Outer conductorc. Diameter of cabled. Insulating material
Answer = B Explanation:The outer conductor is covered in protective plastic sheath. This shielding of coaxial cable give it a good combination of high bandwidth and excellent noise immunity.
4) Error detection at the data link level is achieved by ?
a. Bit stuffingb. Hamming codesc. Cyclic Redundancy codesd. Equalizatione. None of above
Answer = A Explanation:Bit stuffing also known as positive justification is the insertion of non-information bits into data.
5) MAN refers to ?
a. Mega Area Networkb. Metropolitan Area Networkc. Mini Area Networkd. Medium Area Network
Answer = B Explanation: A metropolitan area network covers a city. The best example is the cable television network available in cities.
6) Which of the following layer is not in OSI model ?
a. physical layerb. internet layerc. network layerd. transport layer
Answer =BExplanation: The OSI model has total 7 layers out of which internet layer is not a part of OSI model.7) Nyquist Theorem to calculate data rate is ?
a. 2H log2 V bits/sec
b. H log2 V bits/secc. Hlog2 (1+S/N)d. 2H log2 (1+s/n)
Answer = A Explanation:No explanation
8) Copper wire is an example of ?
a. Guided Transmission Mediab. Unguided Transmission Mediac. Group Mediad. None of these
Answer = A Explanation:Copper wires comes under the Guided Media. Coaxialcables consist of the stiff copper wire as a core.
9) Iridium and Dysprosium projects, proposed by Motorola are related to ?
a. Geosynchronous satelliteb. Wavelengthc. Low orbit satellited. ISDN
Answer = C Explanation:Moving down in altitude, we come to LEO satellites. Due to their rapid motion, large numbers of them are needed for a complete system.
10) Which of the following is a type of fragmentation ?
a. Transparentb. Non transparentc. Both A and Bd. None of these
Answer = C Explanation:Fragmentation is used to break up the packets into fragments. It is of two types : Transparent and Non transparent.
1) Collection of interconnected networks sometimes called ?
a. Internetb. Wireless networkc. Mobile Networkd. None of these
Answer = A Explanation: Internet is not a single network but network of networks.
2) Which of the following is wrong example of network layer ?
a. X.25 Level 2-ISOb. Source Routing and Domain Naming Usenetc. Internet Protocol(IP) - ARPANETd. X-25 Packet Level Prrotocol (PLP) - ISO
e. None of theseAnswer = A Explanation: X.25 is an ITU - T standard that specifies an interface between a host system and a packet switching network.3) Mobile computers and personal digital assistant (PDAs) are theexamples of ?
a. Radio broadcastingb. Wireless networkc. Geosynchronousd. LAN
Answer = B Explanation: Personal Digital Assistant also known as palmtop computers is a mobile device that functions as the personal information manager, mostly access internet through Wi - Fi or wireless wide area network
4) ATM (Asynchronous Transfer Mode) is fundamentally a....... technology?
a. Circuit switchingb. Packet switchingc. Narrow bandd. None of these
Answer = B Explanation:ATM is a cell switching and multiplexing technology that combines the features of circuit switching with packet switching. Like X.25 and frame relay ATM defines the interaction between the user equipment and network.
5) Which of the following is a variation of Frequency DivisionMultiplexing (FDM) ?
a. Time Division Multiplexing(TDM)b. Pulse Code Multiplexing(PCM)c. Wavelength Division Multiplexing(WDM)d. None of these
Answer = C Explanation:The WDM is commonly applied on the optical carrier while FDM is applied on the radio carrier. Since wavelength and frequency are tied together through a simple directly inverserelationship, the two terms actually describe the same concept.
6) One security method is encryption. But encryption does nothing to keep digital pests and hackers out. To accomplish this goal, we need ?
a. Routerb. Bridgesc. Hubsd. Firewalls
Answer = DExplanation: Main objective of firewall is to control the incoming and outgoing network traffic by analyzing the data packets and determining whether it should be allowed through or not, based on a predetermined rule set.
7) HTTP refers to ?
a. Hyper Text Transfer Protocolb. Hyper Text Transmission Protocolc. Hyper Text Tie Protocold. None of these
Answer = A Explanation:No explanation
8) Why was the OSI developed ?
a. Manufacturers disliked the TCP/IP protocolb. The rate of data transfer was increasing exponentiallyc. Standards were needed to allow any two systems to communicated. None of these
Answer = C Explanation:OSI was an effort to standardize the networking that was started in 1977
9) Auto dialing allows ?
a. You to dial up phone numbers by typing them on the keyboardb. A personal computer to answer incoming calls without human assistancec. Both A and Bd. None of above
Answer = A Explanation:Auto dialer is an electronic device or software that automatically dials the telephone numbers.
10) Sending a file from your personal computer's primary memory or disk to another computer is called ?
a. uploadingb. hang onc. logging ond. downloadinge. None of these
Answer = A Explanation: Uploading refers to sending data from local system to remote system such as server or client.
1) BSC is a ?
a. Character Oriented Protocolb. Bit Oriented Protocolc. Full duplex protocold. Half duplex protocole. A and D
Answer = E Explanation: BSC stands for Binary synchronous Communication. It is a character
oriented protocol by IBM's that interpret a transmission frame as a character and usually contain one byte.2) Which of the following are non - polling system ?
a. TDMAb. Stop & waitc. Xon/Xoffd. Continuous ARQe. A and C
Answer = E Explanation: No Explanation3) Adaptive or dynamic directory used in packet routing changes?
a. within each user sessionb. with each user sessionc. at system generation time onlyd. Both A and B
4) The parameter which gives the probability of the transport layer itself spontaneously terminating a connection due to internal problem is called?
a. protectionb. resiliencec. option negotiationd. transfer failure
Answer = B Explanation: Resilience is the ability to provide and maintain an acceptable level of service in the face of faults and challenges to normal operation.5) What is the main purpose of a data link content monitor ?
a. to detect problems in protocolsb. to determine the type of switchingc. to determine the type of transmission used in data linkd. to determine the flow of data
Answer = A Explanation: No Explanation6) Which of the following is an example of bounded media ?
a. Wave guideb. Coaxial Cablec. Fiber optic cabled. All of above
Answer = D Explanation: Bounded media is also calles the wired media or guided media.7) ICMPv6 includes ......?
a. RARPb. ARPc. ICMPd. B and C
Answer = DExplanation: Internet control message protocol includes ABP and ICMP both.
8) IPv6 has ...... bit address ?
a. 32b. 64c. 128d. variable
Answer = C Explanation: IPv6 addresses have a size of 128 bits. Therefore, IPv6 has a vastly enlarged address space compared to IPv4.9) What is the main difference between DDCMP and SDLC ?
a. DDCMP does not need special hardware to final the beginning of amessageb. DDCMP has a message headerc. SDLC has a IP addressd. SDLC does not use CPC
Answer = AExplanation: HDLC (High-Level Data Link Control) is communication protocol and SDLC (Synchronous Data Link Control) is data link protocols.10) Number of bits per symbol used in Baudot code is ?
a. 7b. 8c. 5d. 9
Answer = C Explanation: Baudot code is a character set that preceded the more sophisticated character set EBCDIC
1) Which protocol working at the Transport layer provides a connectionless service between hosts?
a. IPb. ARPc. TCPd. UDP
Answer = D Explanation: User Datagram Protocol is used at the Transport layer to provide a connectionless service.2) Which protocol works at the Transport layer and provides virtual circuits between hosts?
a. IPb. ARPc. TCPd. UDP
Answer = C Explanation: Transmission Control Protocol sets up a virtual circuit before transmitting any data. This creates a reliable session and is known as a connection-oriented session.
3) Which protocol works at the Internet layer and provides a connection service between hosts?
a. IPb. ARPc. TCPd. UDP
Answer = A Explanation: Internet Protocol is used to address hosts and route packets through the internetwork. The question does not refer to a connection-oriented service, which is different from a plain connection service.4) If a host broadcasts a frame that includes a source and destination hardware address, and its purpose is to assign IP addresses to itself, which protocol at the Network layer does the host use?
a. RARPb. ARPAc. ICMPd. TCPe. IPX
Answer = A Explanation: Reverse ARP is used to find an IP address from a known hardware address.5) If a router interface is congested, which protocol in the IP suite is used to tell neighbor routers?
a. RARPb. ARPc. ICMPd. IPe. TCP
Answer = CExplanation: Internet Control Message Protocol (ICMP) is used to send redirects back to an originating router.6) What is the valid host range the IP address 172.16.10.22 255.255.255.240 is a part of?
a. 172.16.10.20 through 172.16.10.22b. 172.16.10.1 through 172.16.10.255c. 172.16.10.16 through 172.16.10.23d. 172.16.10.17 through 172.16.10.31e. 172.16.10.17 through 172.16.10.30
Answer = E Explanation: First start by using the 256 mask, which in this case is 256–240=16. The first subnet is 16; the second subnet is 32. This host must be in the 16 subnet; the broadcast address is 31 and the valid host range is 17–30.7) What range of addresses can be used in the first octet of a Class B network address?
a. 1-126b. 1-127c. 128-190
d. 128-191e. 129-192f. 192-220
Answer = D Explanation: A Class B network is defined in the first octet with thenumbers 128–191.8) What range of addresses can be used in the first octet of a Class C address?
a. 1-127b. 129-192c. 203-234d. 192-223
Answer = DExplanation: A Class C network is defined in the first octet with thenumbers 192-223.9) How many bytes is an Ethernet address?
a. 3b. 4c. 5d. 6e. 7f. 8g. 16
Answer = DExplanation: An Ethernet (MAC) address is 6 bytes long (48 bits).10) What protocol is used to find the hardware address of a local device?
a. RARPb. ARPc. IPd. ICMPe. BootP
Answer = B Explanation: Address Resolution Protocol (ARP) is used to find the hardware address from a known IP address.
1) Manchester code is a ?
a. Bi- Polar codeb. non return to zero codec. polar coded. B and C
Answer = D Explanation:No Explanation
2) How many OSI layers are covered in the X.25 standard ?
a. threeb. twoc. sevend. sixe. None of above
Answer = A Explanation:The three layer are : Physical, Data Link, Network.
3) The receive equalizer reduce delay distortions using ?
a. tapped delay linesb. gearshiftc. descramblerd. difference enginee. None of above
Answer = A Explanation: No Explanation 4) In communication satellite, multiple repeaters are known as ?
a. detectorb. modulatorc. stationsd. transponderse. None of above
Answer = D Explanation: A communications satellite's transponder, is the series of interconnected units which form a communications channel between the receiving and the transmitting antennas.5) In OSI network architecture, the dialogue control and token management are responsibilities of ?
a. Session layerb. network layerc. transport layerd. Data link layere. None of above
Answer = A Explanation: No Explanation6) The geostationary satellite used for communication system ?
a. rotates with earthb. remains stationery relative to the earthc. is positioned over equatord. All of above
Answer = D Explanation: A geosynchronous satellite is a satellite in geosynchronous orbit, with an orbital period the same as the Earth's rotation period. Such a satellite returns to the same position in the sky after each sidereal day, and over the course of a day traces out a path in the sky that is typically some form of analemma. A special case of geosynchronous satellite is
the geostationary satellite, which has a geostationary orbit – a circular geosynchronous orbit directly above the Earth's equator7) Radio communication frequencies ranges from?
a. 3 KHz to 300 KHzb. 3 KHz to 300 GHzc. 300 KHz to 3 GHzd. 3 KHz to 3,000 GHz
Answer = B Explanation: Radio frequency (RF) is a rate of oscillation in the range of about 3 kHz to 300 GHz, which corresponds to the frequency of radio waves, and the alternating currents which carry radio signals.8) The frequency ranges from 300 KHz to 3 MHz is used for ?
a. AM radio transmissionb. TV transmissionc. FM radio transmissiond. Microwave communication, satellite and radere. None of above
Answer = A Explanation: No Explanation 9) Establishing a virtual connection is functionally equivalent to ?
a. Connecting as virtual memoryb. Physically connecting a DTE and DCEc. Placing a telephone call prior to a conversationd. Placing a modem prior to a conversatione. None of above
Answer = C Explanation: No Explanation 10) Which of the following is a function of e-mail system ?
a. Compositionb. Transferc. Reportingd. All of above
Answer = D Explanation: No Explanation
1) A network that requires human intervention of route signals is called a ?
a. Bus networkb. Ring netwkorkc. Star networkd. T-switched networke. None of above
Answer = D Explanation: No Explanation
2) Which layer functions as liaison between user support layers andnetwork support layers ?
a. network layerb. physical layerc. transport layerd. session layer
Answer = C Explanation: Transport Layer functions as liaison between user support layers (Application, Presentation and Session) and network support layers (Network, Data Link and Physical)
3) If digital data rate of 9600 bps is encoded using 8-level phase shift keying method, the modulation rate is?
a. 1200 bandsb. 3200 bandsc. 4800 bandsd. 9600 bandse. None of above
Answer = C
4) Maximum data rate of a channel for a noiseless 3-KHz binarychannel is?
a. 3000 bpsb. 6000 bpsc. 1500 bpsd. None of above
Answer = B
5) If the bit string 0111101111101111110 is subjected to bit stuffingfor the flag string 01111110, the output string is ?
a. 011110111110011111010b. 01111011111011111100c. 01111011111011111010d. 0111101111101111110
Answer = A
6) Which of the following is not a standard RS-232C signal ?
a. RTSb. CTSc. DSRd. VDR
Answer = D
7) In Ethernet CSMS/CD the special bit sequence transmitted by the media access management for collision handling is called as ?
a. preambleb. postamblec. jamd. None of above
Answer = C
8) HDLC is ?
a. bit orientedb. Code transparentc. Code dependentd. None of abovee. A and B
Answer = D
9) Which of the following are non-polling system ?
a. TDMAb. stop & waitc. Xon/Xoffd. Continuous ARQe. A and C
Answer = E
10) Adaptive or dynamic directory used in packet routing changes ?
a. within each user sessionb. with each user sessionc. at system generation times onlyd. Both A and B
Answer = A
1) Which of the following is a congestion control algorithm?
a. The leaky bucketb. Token bucketc. Resource Respondez sil vous plait protocold. All of above
Answer = D
2) Which of the following is a function of e-mail system ?
a. Mosaicb. Netscape
c. Internet Explorerd. All of above
Answer = D
3) Demodulation is the process of ?
a. converting digital signals to analog signalsb. converting analog signals to digital signalsc. dividing the high-speed signals into frequency bandsd. combining many low speed signals into one high speed channele. None of above
Answer = B
4) Bulletin board system ?
a. is a public access message systemb. converts digital signals to analog signalsc. is a modem capable of accepting commandsd. converts digital signals to analog signalse. None of above
Answer = A
5) An information utility can offer a user ?
a. instant bonds and stock quotationsb. news stories from wire servicesc. Complete airline schedules for all domestic flightsd. All of abovee. None of above
Answer = D
6) A network that requires human intervention of route signals is called a ?
a. bus networkb. ring networkc. star networkd. T- switched networke. None of above
Answer = D
7) In OSI network architecture, the dialogue control and token management are responsibilities of ?
a. session layerb. network layerc. transport layerd. data link layere. none of above
Answer = A
8) What is the main function of transport layer ?
a. node to node deliveryb. process to process message deliveryc. synchronizationd. updating and maintenance of routing tables
Answer = B
9) Which of the following is an important characteristics of LAN ?
a. application independent interfaceb. low cost access for low bandwidth channelsc. unlimited expansiond. parallel transmissione. None of above
Answer = A
10) To deliver a message to the correct application program running on a host, the .... address must be consulted ?
a. portb. physicalc. IPd. None
Answer = A
1) Collection of interconnected networks sometimes called ?
a. Internetb. Wireless networkc. Mobile Networkd. None of these
Answer = A Explanation: Internet is not a single network but network of networks.
2) Which of the following is wrong example of network layer ?
a. X.25 Level 2-ISOb. Source Routing and Domain Naming Usenetc. Internet Protocol(IP) - ARPANETd. X-25 Packet Level Prrotocol (PLP) - ISOe. None of these
Answer = A Explanation: X.25 is an ITU - T standard that specifies an interface between a host system and a packet switching network.3) Mobile computers and personal digital assistant (PDAs) are theexamples of ?
a. Radio broadcastingb. Wireless network
c. Geosynchronousd. LAN
Answer = B Explanation: Personal Digital Assistant also known as palmtop computers is a mobile device that functions as the personal information manager, mostly access internet through Wi - Fi or wireless wide area network
4) ATM (Asynchronous Transfer Mode) is fundamentally a....... technology?
a. Circuit switchingb. Packet switchingc. Narrow bandd. None of these
Answer = B Explanation:ATM is a cell switching and multiplexing technology that combines the features of circuit switching with packet switching. Like X.25 and frame relay ATM defines the interaction between the user equipment and network.
5) Which of the following is a variation of Frequency DivisionMultiplexing (FDM) ?
a. Time Division Multiplexing(TDM)b. Pulse Code Multiplexing(PCM)c. Wavelength Division Multiplexing(WDM)d. None of these
Answer = C Explanation:The WDM is commonly applied on the optical carrier while FDM is applied on the radio carrier. Since wavelength and frequency are tied together through a simple directly inverserelationship, the two terms actually describe the same concept.
6) One security method is encryption. But encryption does nothing to keep digital pests and hackers out. To accomplish this goal, we need ?
a. Routerb. Bridgesc. Hubsd. Firewalls
Answer = DExplanation: Main objective of firewall is to control the incoming and outgoing network traffic by analyzing the data packets and determining whether it should be allowed through or not, based on a predetermined rule set.7) HTTP refers to ?
a. Hyper Text Transfer Protocolb. Hyper Text Transmission Protocolc. Hyper Text Tie Protocold. None of these
Answer = A Explanation:No explanation
8) Why was the OSI developed ?
a. Manufacturers disliked the TCP/IP protocolb. The rate of data transfer was increasing exponentiallyc. Standards were needed to allow any two systems to communicated. None of these
Answer = C Explanation:OSI was an effort to standardize the networking that was started in 1977
9) Auto dialing allows ?
a. You to dial up phone numbers by typing them on the keyboardb. A personal computer to answer incoming calls without human assistancec. Both A and Bd. None of above
Answer = A Explanation:Auto dialer is an electronic device or software that automatically dials the telephone numbers.
10) Sending a file from your personal computer's primary memory or disk to another computer is called ?
a. uploadingb. hang onc. logging ond. downloadinge. None of these
Answer = A Explanation: Uploading refers to sending data from local system to remote system such as server or client.
1) The area of coverage of satellite radio beam is known as... ?
a. Footprintb. Circular polarizationc. Beam widthd. Identitye. None of Above
Answer = A Explanation:No explanation for this question.
2) Coaxial cable has conductors with ?
a. Equal resistanceb. The same diameterc. Both A and Bd. A common axise. None of these
Answer = D Explanation: Coaxial cables has two type of conductors one is inner and other is outer that has common axis.
3) What protects the coaxial cable from noise ?
a. Inner conductorb. Outer conductorc. Diameter of cabled. Insulating material
Answer = B Explanation:The outer conductor is covered in protective plastic sheath. This shielding of coaxial cable give it a good combination of high bandwidth and excellent noise immunity.
4) Error detection at the data link level is achieved by ?
a. Bit stuffingb. Hamming codesc. Cyclic Redundancy codesd. Equalizatione. None of above
Answer = A Explanation:Bit stuffing also known as positive justification is the insertion of non-information bits into data.
5) MAN refers to ?
a. Mega Area Networkb. Metropolitan Area Networkc. Mini Area Networkd. Medium Area Network
Answer = B Explanation: A metropolitan area network covers a city. The best example is the cable television network available in cities.
6) Which of the following layer is not in OSI model ?
a. physical layerb. internet layerc. network layerd. transport layer
Answer =BExplanation: The OSI model has total 7 layers out of which internet layer is not a part of OSI model.7) Nyquist Theorem to calculate data rate is ?
a. 2H log2 V bits/secb. H log2 V bits/secc. Hlog2 (1+S/N)d. 2H log2 (1+s/n)
Answer = A
8) Copper wire is an example of ?
a. Guided Transmission Mediab. Unguided Transmission Mediac. Group Mediad. None of these
Answer = A Explanation:Copper wires comes under the Guided Media. Coaxial cables consist of the stiff copper wire as a core.
9) Iridium and Dysprosium projects, proposed by Motorola are related to ?
a. Geosynchronous satelliteb. Wavelengthc. Low orbit satellited. ISDN
Answer = C Explanation:Moving down in altitude, we come to LEO satellites. Due to their rapid motion, large numbers of them are needed for a complete system.
10) Which of the following is a type of fragmentation ?
a. Transparentb. Non transparentc. Both A and Bd. None of these
Answer = C Explanation:Fragmentation is used to break up the packets into fragments. It is of two types : Transparent and Non transparent.
1) The collection of communication lines and routers is called
a. LANb. MANc. WANd. Communication Subnet
Answer = D
2) In the IEEE standards 802.5 standard is also called ?
a. Ethernetb. Token Busc. Wireless Token Area Networkd. Token Ring
Answer = D Explanation: In the IEEE standards 802.5 standard is also called Token Ring
3) _________ have a single communication channel that is shared by all the users on thenetwork. ?
a. Point-to-Pointb. Broadcast Networkc. Protocold. PAN
Answer = B Explanation: Broadcast Network Have Single Communication channel.
4)A Wireless Access Point Behaves in a similar manner to that of a master-slave operation ?
a. Trueb. False
Answer = True
5) Which of the following is an advantage to using fiber optics data transmission?
a. resistance to data theftb. fast data transmission ratec. low noise leveld. all of above
Answer = D
6) Which of the following is required to communicate between two computers?
a. communications softwareb. protocolc. communication hardwared. all of above including access to transmission medium
Answer = D
7) Which of the following types of channels moves data relatively slowly?
a. wide band channelb. voice band channelc. narrow band channeld. all of above
Answer = C
8) A protocol is a set of rules governing a time sequence of events that must take place ?
a. between peersb. between an interfacec. between modems
d. across an interfaceAnswer = A
9) Which of the following transmission systems provide the highest data rate to in individual device?
a. computer busb. telephone linesc. voice and moded. lease lines
Answer = A
10) Communiction circuits that transmit data in both directions but not at the same time are operating in
a. a simplex modeb. a half duplex modec. a full duplex moded. an asynchronous mode
Answer = B
1) Spiral Model was developed by?
a. Bev Littlewoodb. Berry Bohemc. Roger Pressmand. Victor Bisili
Answer = B Explanation: Spiral model was developed by Berry Bohem in 1986 in his article "A Spiral Model of Software Development and Enhancement"2) Which model is popular for students small projects ?
a. Waterfall Modelb. Spiral Modelc. Quick and Fix modeld. Prototyping Model
Answer = AExplanation: No Explanation3) Which is not a software life cycle model?
a. Spiral Modelb. Waterfall Modelc. Prototyping Modeld. Capability maturity Model
Answer = D Explanation:Capability maturity model is not a software life cycle model
4) Project risk factor is considered in ?
a. Spiral Modelb. Waterfall Modelc. Prototyping Modeld. Iterative enhancement Model
Answer = AExplanation:Aim of Risk analysis phase in the spiral model is to eliminate the high risk problems before they threaten the project operation or cost. 5) SDLC stands for ?
a. Software design life cycleb. Software development life cyclec. System design life cycled. System development life cycle
Answer = B Explanation:Full form of SDLC is software development life cycle.
6) Build and Fix model has?
a. 3 Phasesb. 1 Phasesc. 2 Phasesd. 4 Phases
Answer = C Explanation:Build and fix model has 2 phases one is " build " and other is " fix " .
7) SRS stands for ?
a. Software requirement specificationb. Software requirement solutionc. System requirement specificationd. None of Above
Answer = AExplanation: SRS acts as a contract between the developer and the user.
8) Waterfall model is not suitable for ?
a. Small Projectsb. Complex Projectsc. Accommodating changed. None of Above
Answer = CExplanation:Waterfall model does not accommodate any change that's why this model is used in those situations where requirements are well understood.
9) RAD stands for ?
a. Rapid Application Developmentb. Relative Application Developmentc. Ready Application Developmentd. Repeated Application Development
Answer =A
10) RAD Model was purposed by ?
a. IBMb. Motorolac. Microsoftd. Lucent Technologies
Answer =A Explanation:RAD Model was purposed by IBM in 1980s through the book of James Martin entitles "Rapid Application Development"
1) Software engineering aims at developing ?
a. Reliable Softwareb. Cost Effective Softwarec. Reliable and cost effective Softwared. None Of Above
Answer = C Explanation:Software engineering is the process that aims at developing the software's that are Reliable and cost effective as well.
2) A good specification should be ?
a. Unambiguousb. Distinctly Specificc. Functionald. All of Above
Answer = D Explanation:A good specification should have all the qualities such as unambiguos, distinctly specific and functional.
3) Which of the following is a tool in design phase ?
a. Abstractionb. Refinementc. Information Hidingd. All of Above
Answer = D4) Information hiding is to hide from user, details ?
a. that are relevant to himb. that are not relevant to himc. that may be maliciously handled by himd. that are confidential
Answer = C Explanation:Information hiding is just the process of making inaccessible certain details that have no effect on the other parts of the program.
5) Which of the following comments about object oriented design ofsoftware, is not true ?
a. Objects inherit the properties of classb. Classes are defined based on the attributes of objectsc. an object can belong to two classesd. classes are always different
Answer = C Explanation:An object can not belong to two classes.
6) Design phase includes?
a. data, architectural and procedural design onlyb. architectural, procedural and interface design onlyc. data, architectural and interface design onlyd. data, architectural, interface and procedural design
Answer = D Explanation:Design phase included the design of whole softwareincluding data, architectural, interface and procedural design.
7) To completely write the program in FORTRAN and rewrite the 1% code in assembly language, if the project needs 13 days, the team consists of ?
a. 13 programmersb. 10 programmersc. 8 programmersd. 100/13 programmers
Answer = C Explanation: Writing the whole program in FORTRAN takes 100 man-day, remaining 1% code requires 4 man-day. If it is completed in 13 days then 104/13 = 8 programmers it required.8) If 99% of the program is written in FORTRAN and the remaining 1% in assembly language, the percentage increase in the programmingtime compared to writing the entire program in FORTRAN and rewriting the 1% in assembly language is ?
a. 10b. 5c. 13d. 8
Answer = B Explanation:The first case takes 99+10=109 man-day. The second case require 100+4=104 man-day. Percentage = (109-104)*100/100 = 5
9) If the entire program is written in FORTRAN, the percentage increase in the execution time, compared to writing the entireprogram in FORTRAN and rewriting the 1% in assembly language is ?
a. 0.9b. 0.8c. 8d. 9
Answer = B Explanation:Let the first case takes 100 units of time to execute. Second case will take 99 +(1/5) units of time. As the 1% coding in assembly language will take 1/5 units of time. Hence the required percentage = 0.8*100/100 = 0.8.
10) If 99% of the program is written in FORTRAN and the remaining 1% in assembly language the percentage increase in the execution time, compared to writing the 1% in assembly language is ?
a. 0.9b. 0.1c. 1
Answer = DExplanation:In both cases the final program will have the same 99% of code in FORTRAN and the remaining 1% in assembly language. Hence the execution time will remain same.
1) White box testing, a software testing technique is sometimes called ?
a. Basic pathb. Graph Testingc. Dataflowd. Glass box testing
Answer = D Explanation: White box testing also named as clear box testing, transparent testing, glass box testing and structural testing. It is a method in which the internal structure of application is tested.
2) Black box testing sometimes called ?
a. Data Flow testingb. Loop Testingc. Behavioral Testingd. Graph Based Testing
Answer = C Explanation: Black box testing is a method that tests for the functionality of an application.
3) Which of the following is a type of testing ?
a. Recovery Testingb. Security Testingc. Stress Testingd. All of above
Answer = D Explanation: Recovery testing is a method for testing how well asoftware can recover from crashes. Security testing ensures that thesoftware protects the data and performs its all functions. Stress testing determines the robustness of software.4) The objective of testing is ?
a. Debuggingb. To uncover errorsc. To gain modularityd. To analyze system
Answer = B Explanation: The main objecting of testing is to make the softwareerror free.
5) ...... is a black box testing method ?
a. Boundary value analysisb. Basic path testingc. Code path analysisd. None of above
Answer = A Explanation:In boundary value analysis, we choose an input from test cases from an equivalence class such that the input lies on the edge of equivalence class.
6) Structured programming codes includes ?
a. sequencingb. alterationc. iterationd. multiple exit from loopse. only A, B and C
Answer = E Explanation:These three constructs are sufficient to program any algorithm. Moreover, as far as possible single entry single exit control constructs are used.7) An important aspect of coding is ?
a. Readabilityb. Productivityc. To use as small memory space as possibled. brevity
Answer = A Explanation:Readability and understandability as a clear objective of coding activity can itself help in producing software that is more maintainable.
8) Data structure suitable for the application is discussed in ?
a. data designb. architectural designc. procedural designd. interface design
Answer = AExplanation: Data design is the first and most important design activity, where the main issue is to select the appropriate data structure.
9) In object oriented design of software , objects have ?
a. attributes and names onlyb. operations and names onlyc. attributes, name and operationsd. None of above
Answer = C Explanation: The objects contains attributes, names and operations as well.
10) Function oriented metrics were first proposed by ?
a. Johnb. Gaffneyc. Albrechtd. Basili
Answer = C Explanation:Albrecht suggests a measure called Function point, which are derives using a empirical relationship based on the countable measures of software information domain.
1) Given a source code with 10 operators includes 6 unique operators, and 6 operand including 2 unique operands. The program volume is ?
a. 48b. 120c. 720d. insufficient data
Answer = A Explanation: No Explanation2) In the system conceps, term organization ?
a. implies structure and orderb. refers to the manner in which each component fuctions with other components of the
systemc. refers to the holism of systemd. means that part of the computer system depend on one another
Answer = A Explanation: No Explanation3) In the system concepts, the term integration ?
a. implies structure and orderb. refers to the manner in which each component functions with other components of the
systemc. means that parts of computer system depends on one anotherd. refers to the holism of systems
Answer = D
4) Project indicator enables a software project manager to ?
a. assess the status of an ongoing projectb. track potential risksc. uncover problem araes before they " go critical "d. All of above
Answer = D
5) Once object oriented programming has been accomplished, unit testing is applied for each class. Class tests includes ?
a. Fault based testingb. Random testingc. Partition tetingd. All of above
Answer = D
6) ............ Developed a set of software quality factors that has been given the acronym FURPS - Functinality, Usability, Reliability, performance, Supportability ?
a. Hewlett - Packardb. Rambaugh
c. Boochd. Jacobson
Answer = A
7) In system design, we do following ?
a. Hardware design after softwareb. Software design after hardwarec. Parallel hardware and software designd. No hardware design needed
Answer = C
8) The document listing all procedures and regulations that generally govern an organization is the ?
a. Personal poling bankb. Organizing manualc. Administration policy manuald. Procedure log
Answer = B 9) A turnkey package includes ?
a. Softwareb. Hardwarec. Traningd. All of above
Answer = D
10) Detailed design is expressed by ?
a. CSPECb. PSPECc. MINI SPECd. Code SPEC
Answer = C
1) In functional decomposition, the data flow diagram ?
a. is ignoredb. is partitioned according to the closeness of the datagram and storage itemsc. is partitioned according to the logical closeness of the actigramd. Both A and Ce. None of above
Answer = C
2) Which of the following is done in order a data in phase 1 of the system development life cycle ?
a. Reviewing policies and proceduresb. Using questionnaires to contact surveysc. Conducting Interviewsd. All of abovee. None of above
Answer = D
3) A graphic representation of an information system is called ?
a. Flow chartb. Pictogramc. Data flow diagramd. Histograme. None of above
Answer = C
4) To avoid errors in transcription and transposition, during data entry the system analyst should ?
a. Provide for a check digitb. Provide for a hash totalsc. Provide batch totalsd. All of above
Answer = D
5) In the system concepts, the term integration ?
a. implies structure and orderb. refers to the manner in which each component functions with other component of the
systemc. means that part of the computer system depend on one anotherd. refers to the holism of systeme. None of above
Answer = D Explanation: system integration is the bringing together of the component subsystems into one system and ensuring that the subsystems function together as a system. In information technology, systems integration is the process of linking together different computing systems and software applications physically or functionally, to act as a coordinated whole
6) RAD is a linear sequential software development process model. RAD is an acronym for ?
a. Rapid Application Developmentb. Rapid Action Developmentc. Rough Application Developmentd. Rough Action Development
Answer = A Explanation: Rapid application development (RAD) is a software development
methodology that uses minimal planning in favor of rapid prototyping. The "planning" of software developed using RAD is interleaved with writing the software itself
7) In risk analysis of spiral model, which of the following risk includes ?
a. Technicalb. Managementc. Both A and Bd. None of these
Answer = C
8) The model remains operative until the software is retired ?
a. Waterfallb. Incrementalc. Spirald. None of these
Answer = C Explanation: The spiral model is based on continuous refinement of key products for requirements definition and analysis, system andsoftware design, and implementation (the code). At each iteration around the cycle, the products are extensions of an earlier product. This model uses many of the same phases as the waterfall model, in essentially the same order, separated by planning, risk assessment, and the building of prototypes and simulations
9) A quantitative measure of the degree to which a system, component, or process posses a given attribute ?
a. Measureb. Measurementc. Metricd. None of these
Answer = C
10) RAD is not appropriate when ?
a. Fast finding already doneb. Technical risks are highc. Testing is not neededd. None of above
Answer = B Explanation: RAD model may not be useful for large, unique or highly complex projects.This method cannot be a success if the team is not sufficiently motivated and nor is unable to work cohesively together.
1) Round Robin algorithm is essentially the preemptive version of ?
a. FIFOb. Shortest Job Firstc. Shortest Remainingd. Longest time first
Answer = a Explanation: In round robin algorithm time slices are assigned to the processes in equal portion and in circular order.2) A page fault occurs ?
a. when the page is not in the memoryb. when the page is in the memoryc. when the process enters the blocked stated. when the process is in the ready state
Answer = aExplanation: A page fault occurs when a process accesses a page that has been mapped into the address space, but is not loaded into the physical memory. 3) Which of the following will determine your choice of systemssoftware for your computer?
a. Is the applications software you want to use compatible with it ?b. Is it expensive ?c. Is it compatible with your hardware ?d. Both 1 and 3
Answer = DExplanation: The choice of the software should be compatible with the hardware and should not be expensive enough.4) What is a shell ? ?
a. It is a hardware componentb. It is a command interpreterc. It is a part in compilerd. It is a tool in CPU scheduling.
Answer = B Explanation: A Shell is the command line interpreter that provides the traditional user interface for the UNIX operating system. Users direct the operation of the computer by entering commands as text for a command line interpreter to execute or by creating text scripts of one or more such commands.5) Routine is not loaded until it is called. All routines are kept on disk in a relocatable load format. The main program is loaded into memory & is executed. This type of loading is called... ?
a. Static loadingb. Dynamic loadingc. Dynamic linkingd. Overlays
Answer = C Explanation: Dynamic linking provides the facility to load or unload routines at runtime
6) In the blocked state ?
a. the processes waiting for I/O are foundb. the process which is running is foundc. the processes waiting for the processor are foundd. none of the above
Answer = A Explanation: All the processes that are waiting for the completion of some event such as I/O operation or a signal are in Blocked state.7) What is the memory from 1K - 640K called ?
a. Extended Memoryb. Normal Memoryc. Low Memoryd. Conventional Memory
Answer = D
8) Virtual memory is ..... ?
a. An extremely large main memoryb. An extremely large secondary memoryc. An illusion of extremely large main memoryd. A type of memory used in super computers.
Answer = C Explanation: Virtual memory allows a program to be designed as though there is only one kind of memory, "virtual" memory, which behaves like directly addressable read/write memory (RAM).9) Which is not the state of the process ?
a. Blockedb. Runningc. Readyd. Privileged
Answer = D10) The number of processes completed per unit time is known as.... ?
a. Outputb. Throughputc. Efficiencyd. Capacity
Answer = B Explanation: Throughput is the amount of data transfer from one place to another. It is measured in Kbps, Gbps, Mbps
1) Which of the following file name extension suggests that the file is Backup copy of another file ?
a. TXT
b. COMc. BASd. BAK
Answer = D Explanation: BAK extension is used for the backup files however the extension should be removed before opening the file to open it correctly. Eg : "myfile.doc.bak"should be renamed with "myfile.doc".2) FIFO scheduling is.....
a. Preemptive Schedulingb. Non Preemptive Schedulingc. Deadline Schedulingd. Fair share scheduling
Answer = B Explanation: In the non preemptive scheduling the CPU can not take back from the process to which it is assigned, until it completes its execution3)Switching the CPU to another Process requires to save state of the old process and loading new process state is called as ...
a. Process Blockingb. Context Switchc. Time Sharingd. None of the above
Answer = B Explanation: The old state of the process can be saved through the concept of context switching.4)The Banker's algorithm is used
a. to prevent deadlock in operating systemsb. to detect deadlock in operating systemsc. to rectify a deadlocked stated. none of the above
Answer = A Explanation: In an operating system, a deadlock is a situation which occurs when a process enters a waiting state because a resourcerequested by it is being held by another waiting process, which in turn is waiting for another resource. If a process is unable to change its state indefinitely because the resources requested by it are being used by other waiting process, then the system is said to be in a deadlock.5)A thread
a. is a lightweight process where the context switching is lowb. is a lightweight process where the context switching is highc. is used to speed up pagingd. none of the above
Answer = A6) A tree structured file directory system
a. allows easy storage and retrieval of file namesb. is a much debated unnecessary featurec. is not essential when we have millions of filesd. none of the above
Answer = A Explanation: It is easy to access anything if it is in hierarchical structure.7) Full Form Of PCB
a. Program Control Blockb. Process Control Blockc. Process Communication Blockd. None of the above
Answer = B Explanation: It is also called the Task Controlling Block or Task Struct that contains the information needed to manage a particular process8)The mechanism that bring a page into memory only when it is needed is called....?
a. Segmentationb. Fragmentationc. Demand Pagingd. Page Replacement
Answer = C Explanation: Under the concept of demand paging , the page is brought into the memory only when it is needed9) Which technique was introduced because a single job could not keep both the CPU and the I/O devices busy?
a. Time-sharingb. Spoolingc. Preemptive schedulingd. Multiprogramming
Answer = D Explanation: Through Multiprogramming multiple processes gets executed at a same time10) Which directory implementation is used in most Operating System ?
a. Single level directory structureb. Two level directory structurec. Tree directory structured. Acyclic directory structure
Answer = C
1)Virtual memory is ?
a. Extremely large main memoryb. Extremely large secondary memoryc. An illusion of an extremely large memoryd. A type of memory used in super computers
Answer = C Explanation: Virtual memory is a feature of Operating System that enables a process to use a memory independent of other processes.2) Spatial locality refers to the problem that once a location is referenced ?
a. It will not be referenced again
b. It will be referenced againc. A nearby location will be referenced soond. None of Above
Answer = BExplanation: Spatial locality or locality of reference stats that the same value or related value is going to be referenced again.3) Which of the following is an example of SPOOLED device?
a. The terminal used to enter the input data for a program being executedb. The secondary memory device in a virtual memory systemc. A line printer used to print the output of number of job'sd. None of above
Answer = C Explanation:Line printer used to print the output of number of job's is an example of print spooling. In print spooling documents are loaded into the buffer and then the printer pulls then off the buffer at its own rate.
4) Page fault occurs when ?
a. The page in corrupted by application softwareb. The page is in main memoryc. The page is not in main memoryd. One tries to divide number by 0
Answer = CExplanation:Page fault occurs when the page that is not in the main memory is tried to be accessed.
5) Overlays is ?
a. A part of Operating Systemb. A specific memory locationc. A single contiguous memory that was used in the olden days for running large programs
by swappingd. Overloading the system with many user files
Answer = C Explanation: An overlay is when a process replaces itself with the code of another program.
6) Determine the number of page faults when references to pages occurs in the order 1,2,4,5,2,1,2,4. Assume that the main memory can accommodate 3 pages and the main memory already has the pages 1 and 2. With page 1 having been brought earlier that page 2(Assume LRU algorithm is used) ?
a. 3b. 5c. 4d. None
Answer = C Explanation:As the reference string is 1,2,4,5,2,1,2,4 so if LRU page replacement algorithm is used then there will be 4 page faults.
7) Concurrent processed are processed that ?
a. Do not overlap in timeb. Overlap in timec. Are executed by processor at the same timed. None of Above
Answer = B Explanation:Concurrent means something that executed at the same time ad something else.
8) The rage replacement policy that sometimes leads to more page faults when the size of the memory is increased is ?
a. FIFOb. LRUc. no such policy existsd. None of Above
Answer = A Explanation:If the size of memory is increased and FIFO page replacement algorithm is used then there will be more page faults.
9) The only transition that is initiated by the user process itself is ?
a. blockb. dispatchc. wake upd. None of Above
Answer = A10) Working set(r,k) at an instance of time t, is a set of ?
a. k future references that operating system will makeb. Future references that the operating system will make in the next 'k' time unitsc. k references with high frequencyd. Pages that have been referenced in the last k time units
Answer = D
1) In UNIX the status of the process may be ?
a. runningb. orphanc. sleepingd. zombiee. All of above
Answer = E Explanation:No Explanation
2) Which of the following processes has a PID I ?
a. Kernel
b. UNIXc. hiltd. shell
Answer = C Explanation:No Explanation
3) The PID of kernel process is ?
a. undefinedb. 0c. 1d. 3
Answer = BExplanation: No Explanation 4) Which of the following command is not a cursor movementcommand ?
a. nb. ac. $d. je. None of above
Answer = B Explanation:No Explanation 5) The Commands used to compare the files is known as ?
a. compb. duc. cmpd. ccpe. None
Answer = C
6) Which of the following command is used with vi editor to delete asingle character ?
a. zb. yc. ad. xe. None of above
Answer = D
7) Which command is used with vi editor to move the cursor one row up ?
a. ib. jc. hd. ke. None of above
Answer = D
8) Which command is used with the vi editor to move the cursor to the left ?
a. ib. kc. jd. he. None of above
Answer = D
9) Which command is used with the vi editor to save file and remain in the editing mode ?
a. :qb. q!c. :wd. :xe. None of above
Answer = C
10) Which command is used to extract specific columns from the file ?
a. catb. grepc. cutd. pastee. None of above
Answer = C
1) PMTLR is acronym for ?
a. Page Map Table Limit Registerb. Page Memory Table With Limit Registerc. Both A and Bd. None of these
Answer = A
2) Paging is ?
a. Virtual memoryb. Memory management schemec. Allocation of memoryd. Deadlock prevention scheme
Answer = BExplanation: paging is one of the memory-management schemes by which a computer can store and retrieve data from secondary storage for use in main memory.
3) Chaining and indexing are the strategies of ?
a. Contiguous allocationb. Non - Contiguous allocationc. Partition allocationd. Static allocation
Answer = B Explanation: Chaining and Indexing are Non Contiguous Allocation strategies that contains pointes to the memory locations.
4) Which of the following scheduler is in charge of handling the swapped out process ?
a. short termb. long termc. medium termd. none of these
Answer = AExplanation: The short-term scheduler (also known as the CPU scheduler) decides which of the ready, in-memory processes are to be executed (allocated a CPU) next following a clock interrupt, an IO interrupt, an operating system call or another form of signal.
5) Round robin scheduling algorithm falls under the category of ?
a. Preemptive schedulingb. Non preemptive schedulingc. sometimes preemptive sometimes non preemptived. None of these
Answer = AExplanation: Round-robin (RR) is one of the simplest schedulingalgorithms for processes in an operating system. As the term is generally used, time slices are assigned to each process in equal portions and in circular order, handling all processes without priority.In order to schedule processes fairly, a round-robin scheduler generally employs time-sharing, giving each job a time slot or quantum (its allowance of CPU time), and interrupting the job if it is not completed by then. So it falls under preemptivescheduling.
6) Only the process executing the critical section is allowed access to the shared variable, all other processes should prevented from doing so until the completion of the critical section. This is often referred to as ?
a. Mutual exclusionb. Semaphoresc. Deadlockd. Interprocess communication
Answer = AExplanation: N/A 7) Partition Description Table (PDT) collect the ?
a. Current Partition Statusb. Attributesc. Both A and B
d. None of theseAnswer = CExplanation: n/a
8) Belady's Anomaly is a behavior of which page replacement algorithm ?
a. FIFOb. Optimalc. Circular FIFOd. LRU
Answer = A Explanation: Bélády's anomaly proves that it is possible to have more page faults when increasing the number of page frames while using the First in First Out (FIFO) page replacement algorithm.
9) Which of the following is an operating system call ?
a. CREATEb. LINKc. SYSTEMd. All of these
Answer = D Explanation: N/A
10) The reference bit is used for the purpose of ?
a. Improving MRU algorithmb. Implementing LRU page replacement algorithmc. Checking of the page table entry is in cache memoryd. Checking to see if parameters are passed to a procedure by value or by address
Answer = A Explanation: N/A
1) A shift register can be used for ?
a. Serial to parallel conversionb. Parallel to serial conversionc. Digital delay line d. All of the abovee. None of the above
Answer = D Explanation:Shift registers can have both parallel and serial inputs. These are often configured as serial - in - parallel- out or parallel - in - serial - out.
2) Semiconductor memory is-
a. Somewhat large than the magnetic core memoryb. A non-volatile memoryc. Somewhat slower than magnetic core memoryd. All of abovee. None of these
Answer = B Explanation: Semiconductor memory is an electronic storage deviceoften used as computer memory. Examples of semiconductormemory is: ROM, flash memory, magnetoresistive random-access memory (MRAM)3) Which of the following is a universal gate ?
a. ANDb. EX-ORc. ORd. NAND
Answer = D Explanation: NAND is the universal gate as using this gate we can have all other gates like AND, OR, EX-OR, NOT.4) The logic 1 in positive logic system is represented by ?
a. Zero voltageb. Lower voltage levelc. Higher voltage leveld. Negative voltage e. None of the above
Answer = CExplanation:The logic 1 is represented by higher voltage while 0 is represented as low voltage.5) Which function -positive logic is equivalent to OR function in negative logic?
a. NOTb. ORc. ANDd. NORe. None of the above
Answer = C Explanation: AND function performs performs as OR in negative logic.
6) Which of the following logic expressions is wrong ?
a. 1+0=1b. 1+1=0c. 1+0+1=1d. 1+1+1=1e. None of the above
Answer = C Explanation: 1+0 = 1 again this result is added to 1 as 1+1 which is equal to 0 with carry 1 but not equal to 1.7) A Combination logic circuit that is used when it is desired to send data from two or more source through a single transmission line is known as-
a. Decoderb. Encoderc. Multiplexerd. De multiplexere. None of the above
Answer = CExplanation:Multiplexer is a device that selects one of the analog or digital input and send it through single transmission line.
8) The m-bit parallel adder consists of-
a. (m+1) full addersb. m/2 full addersc. m-1 full addersd. m full adderse. None of the above
Answer = D Explanation:No explanation
9) A logic circuit which is used to change a BCD number into an equivalent decimal number is-
a. Decoderb. Encoderc. Multiplexerd. Code convertere. None of the above
Answer = A Explanation:Decoder is used to convert the BCD numbers into decimal.
10) Which of the following property is true in context of Well Formed Formula(WFF) ?
a. Each letter is a termb. If x and y are terms then x = y is a formulac. If P is a formula then 7p is a formula
d. All of aboveAnswer = B Explanation:No explanation for this question.
1) Half adder is an example of ?
a. Combinational Circuitsb. Sequential Circuitsc. Asynchronous Circuitsd. None of these
Answer = A Explanation: Combinational circuits are the circuits whose output depends on the inputs of the same instant of time.2) In JK flip flop same input, i.e at a particular time or during a clock pulse, the output will oscillate back and forth between 0 and 1. At the end of the clock pulse the value of output Q is uncertain. The situation is referred to as ?
a. Conversion conditionb. Race around conditionc. Lock out stated. None of these
Answer = B Explanation:A race around condition is a flaw in an electronic system or process whereby the output and result of the process is unexpectedly dependent on the sequence or timing of other events.
3) In a JK flip flop, if j=k, the resulting flip flop is referred to as ?
a. D flip flopb. T flip flopc. S-R flip flopd. None of these
Answer = C Explanation: In JK flip flop if both the inputs are same then the flip flop behaves like SR flip flop.
4) Master slave flip flop is also referred to as ?a. Level triggered flip flopb. Pulse triggered flip flopc. Edge triggered flip flopd. None of these
Answer = B Explanation:The term pulse triggered means the data is entered on the rising edge of the clock pulse, but the output does not reflect the change until the falling edge of clock pulse.
5) Fetch and decode cycle is required in ?
a. Direct addressingb. Immediate addressingc. Indirect addressingd. None of above
Answer = B Explanation:Fetch and decode cycle is required in Immediate addressing because it stores the operand directly on which the operation is performed.
6) Valid bit in each cache is associated with ?
a. Each memory byte in cacheb. Each memory word in cachec. One bit with the all memory wordsd. None of above
Answer = A Explanation:No explanation
7) In J-K flip flop the function K=J is used to realize ?
a. D flip flopb. S-R flip flopc. T flip flopd. Master slave flip flop
Answer = D Explanation: T flip flop allows the same inputs. So if in JK flip flop J = K then it will work as T flip flop. 8) An encoder has 2n input lines and ..... output lines ?
a. 2b. nc. 2*nd. n*n
Answer = B Explanation:No Explanation.
9) ASCII code for alphabet character requires ..... bits ?
a. 16b. 15c. 8d. 7
Answer = D Explanation:No explanation
1) What is the hexadecimal equivalent of a binary number 10101111 ?
a. AFb. 9Ec. 8Cd. All of above
e. None of aboveAnswer = AExplanation:No Explanation
2) A NOR gate recognizes only the input word whose bits are ?
a. 0's and 1'sb. 1'sc. 0'sd. 0's or 1'se. None of above
Answer = C Explanation: No Explanation 3) The operation which is commutative but not associative is ?
a. ANDb. ORc. EX-ORd. NAND
Answer = D Explanation: No Explanation 4) All digital circuits can be realized using only ?
a. EX-OR gatesb. Half addersc. Multiplexersd. OR gates
Answer = B Explanation: No Explanation 5) The XOR gates are ideal for testing parity because even parity words produces a ...... output and odd parity word produces a ....... output ?
a. low, highb. high, lowc. odd, evend. even, odde. None of above
Answer = A Explanation: No Explanation
6) Flip flop output is always ?
a. Complementaryb. Independent of each otherc. the samed. same as inputse. None of above
Answer = A Explanation: No Explanation 7) A half adder adds ..... bits ?
a. 16
b. 10c. 8d. 2e. None of above
Answer = D Explanation:No Explanation 8) How many flip - flop circuits are needed to divide by 16 ?
a. Twob. Fourc. Eightd. Sixteen
Answer = C Explanation: No Explanation 9) A flip flop is a ..... elements that stores a 216 binary digits as a low or high voltage ?
a. chipb. busc. I/Od. memorye. None of above
Answer = D Explanation: No Explanation 10) A positive AND gate is also a negative ?
a. NAND gateb. AND gatec. NOR gated. OR gatee. None of these
Answer = D Explanation: No Explanation
1) Which of the following is a minimum error code ?
a. Octal codeb. Binary codec. Gray coded. Excess-3 code
Answer = CExplanation: No Explanation 2) In a positive edge triggered JK flip flop, a low J and low K produces ?
a. High stateb. Low statec. toggle stated. no change
Answer = D Explanation: In JK Flip Flop if J = K = 0 then it holds its current state. There will be no change.
3) Negative numbers can't be represented in ?
a. signed magnitude formb. 1's complement formc. 2's complement formd. None of above
Answer = D Explanation: No Explanation 4) Which of the following architecture is not suitable for realising SIMD ?
a. Vector processorb. Array processorc. Von Neumannd. All of above
Answer = CExplanation: No Explanation 5) The XOR operator + is ?
a. commutativeb. associativec. distributive over AND operatord. A and B
Answer = DExplanation: As A + B = B + A and A + ( B + C) = (A + B ) + C Hence it is commutative and associative.
6) The binary equivalent of the Gray code 11100 is..... ?
a. 10111b. 00111c. 01011d. 10101
Answer = A Explanation: The rule for changing the Gray code to binary is that first bit remains the same and the next bit is obtained by adding the first LSB of binary to the second LSB of Gray code and so on... So the answer of the question is 10111.
7) An assembler that runs on one machine but produces machine code for another machine is called ?
a. simulatorb. emulatorc. cross assemblerd. boot strap loader
Answer = C Explanation: Cross assembler is an assembler which runs on one type of processor and produces machine code for another.
8) Which of the following unit can be used to measure the speed of a computer ?
a. SYPSb. MIPSc. BAUDd. FLOPSe. B and D
Answer = E Explanation: MIPS measures the execution speed of computers CPU but not the whole system. FLOPS is a measure of computer'sperformance especially in the field of scientific calculations that makes heavy use of floating point calculations.9) Which of the following logic families is well suited for high speed operations?
a. TTLb. ECLc. MOSd. CMOS
Answer = B Explanation: ECL is used for high speed applications because of its price and power demands.
10) Which of the following comments about half adder are true?
a. It adds 2 bitsb. It is called so because a full adder involves two half addersc. It does half the work of full adderd. It needs two inputs and generates two outputse. A, B and D
Answer = EExplanation: No Explanation
1) The term sum - of - product in Boolean algebra means ?
a. The AND function of several OR functionsb. The OR function of several AND functionsc. The OR function of several OR functiond. The AND function of several AND functions
Answer = B Explanation: Sum-Of-Products expressions lend themselves well to implementation as a set of AND gates (products) feeding into a single OR gate (sum).2) The fan out capability of a digital building block can be defined as ?
a. The number of inputs that one output can transmit tob. The amount of cooling required for fanning the hear outc. The number of inputs that can transmit to one inputd. The maximum power dissipation that the unit can stande. None of above
Answer = A
3) The ALE line of an 8085 microprocessor is used to ?
a. Execute an RST by hardwareb. Executes the instruction supplied by external device through the INTA signalc. Executes an instruction from memory location 20 Hd. Executes a NOP
Answer = AExplanation: ALE is address latch enable. the lower order address remains only for a single T satate then ths data is latched and the lower order address bus stores the data.4) The cost for storing a bit is minimum in ?
a. Cacheb. Registerc. RAMd. Magnetic tape
Answer = D Explanation: N/A
5) The index register in a digital computer is used for ?
a. Pointing to the stack addressb. Indirect addressingc. Keeping track of number of times a loop is executedd. Address modification
Answer = D Explanation: An index register in a computer's CPU is a processorregister used for modifying operand addresses during the run of a program, typically for doing vector/array operations.
6) After reset the CPU begins execution from the memory location ?
a. 0000Hb. 0001Hc. FFEFHd. 8000H
Answer = A Explanation: N/A
7) A single register to clear the lower four bits of the accumulator in 8085 assembly language is ?
a. XRI 0FHb. ANI FOHc. XRI FOHd. ANI OFH
Answer = BExplanation: ANI FOH ANDs the accumulator with immediate. F leaves the high nibble whatever it is, 0 clears the lower nibble
8) If the total number of states in the fetching and execution phases of an 8085 instruction is known to be 7; the number of machine cycles is ?
a. 0b. 1c. 2d. 3
Answer = C
9) Von Neumann architecture is ?
a. SISDb. SIMDc. MIMDd. MISD
Answer = A Explanation: In computing, SISD (single instruction, single data) is a term referring to a computer architecture in which a single processor, a uniprocessor, executes a single instruction stream, to operate on data stored in a single memory. This corresponds to the von Neumann architecture.
10) A typical application of MIMD is?
a. railway reservationb. weather forecastingc. matrix multiplicationd. All of above
Answer = A Explanation: MIMD (multiple instruction, multiple data) is a technique employed to achieve parallelism.
1) The.... is ultraviolet light erasable and electricityprogrammable.This allows the user to create and store until programs and data are perfected. ?
a. EPROMb. PROMc. ROMd. RAM
Answer = A Explanation: N/A2) What table shows the electrical status of digital circuits output for every possible combination of electrical states in the inputs ?
a. Function Tableb. Truth Tablec. Routing Table
d. ASCII TableAnswer = A Explanation: No Explanation3) The gray code for decimal 7 is ?
a. 0111b. 1011c. 0100d. 0101
Answer = CExplanation: First convert decimal seven to binary that is 0111 thenconvert it into gray code.4) Which of the following electronic component are not found in ordinary ICs?
a. Diodesb. Transistorsc. Resistorsd. Inductors
Answer = D Explanation: Inductor is a passive two terminal electronic componentthat stores energy in its magnetic field5) Choose the correct statements ?
a. Bus is a group of information carrying wiresb. Bus is needed to achieve reasonable speed of operationc. Bus can carry data or addressd. A bus can be shared by more that one devicee. All of above
Answer = EExplanation: A bus have all the four features.6) If the memory access takes 20 ns with cache and 110 ns without it,then the hit ratio (cache uses 10 as memory) is ?
a. 93 %b. 90 %c. 87 %d. 88 %
Answer = B Explanation: If we find what we want in the cache then it is called Hit otherwise it is miss.7) Any instruction should have at least ?
a. 2 operandsb. 1 operandc. 3 operandsd. None of above
Answer = D Explanation: An instruction can be without operand also.8) The number of clock cycles necessary to complete 1 fetch cycle in 8085 is ?
a. 3 or 4
b. 4 or 5c. 4 or 6d. 3 or 5
Answer = C Explanation: No Explanation9) Motorola's 68040 is comparable to ?
a. 8085b. 80286c. 80386d. 80486
Answer = DExplanation: Motorola 68040 is a microprocessor released in 1970. It is called as oh - four - oh or oh forty10) The addressing mode used in the instruction PUSH B ?
a. Directb. Registerc. Register Indirectd. Immediate
Answer = CExplanation:In register indirect addressing mode the operand is found from the memory whose address is fetched from the register in theinstruction code.
1) On receiving an interrupt from an I/O device, the CPU ?
a. halts for a predetermined timeb. hands over control of address bus and data bus to the interrupting device.c. branches off to the interrupt service routine immediatelyd. branches off to the interrupt service routine after the completion of the
current instruction.Answer = D2) To get boolean expression in the product of sum form from a given Karnaugh map?
a. don't care condition should not be presentb. don't care conditions if present should be takes as zerosc. one should cover all the 0's present and complement the resultingexpression.d. one should cover all the 1'a present and complement the resultingexpression.
Answer = C 3) The reduced form of the boolean expression (A + B)(A + C) is ?
a. AB + ACb. AC + Bc. A + B + Cd. A + BC
Answer = D 4) Name the cache also known as internal cache ?
a. L1 cacheb. L2 cache
c. L3 cached. L4 cache
Answer = A Explanation:L1 cache is also known as internal cache and it resides in the CPU. L2 is known as secondary cache and it is within the motherboard.5) Which of the following is not a CPU register ?
a. Memory control registerb. Memory data registerc. Memory buffer registerd. Instruction register
Answer = A Explanation: There is no MCR in the CPU
6) The main task of memory address register is?
a. stores the address of next location in the main memoryb. stores the address of next location in cache memoryc. stores the address of next location in secondary memoryd. stores the address of output device to which the data is sent
Answer = A Explanation: No Explanation7) Which register indicates whether the data register holds the data to be transferred or not ?
a. MARb. MBRc. MDRd. Status register
Answer = D Explanation: No Explanation8) Which of the following operation represents the machine cycle?
a. Fetch - Execute - Decode - Storeb. Execute - Decode - Store - Fetchc. Decode - Fetch - Store - Executed. Fetch - Decode -Execute - Store
Answer = D Explanation: In Fetch phase the instruction is brought into the computer, in Decode phase the instruction in divided into different parts, in Execute phase the decoded instruction is executed by the CPU and finally the result sent to the output device or main memory.9) The decoding phase of instruction cycle is also known as ?
a. Translatingb. Interpretingc. Analyzingd. Breaking
Answer =B Explanation: Decoding phase is also known as interpreting as theinstruction in interpreted to determine two key attribute of the instruction, the opcode and the operand.
10) Cache memory is used to transfer data between?
a. Main memory and secondary memoryb. Processor and main memoryc. Processor and secondary memoryd. Processor and output device
Answer = B Explanation: Cache is always placed between the main memory and processor in the computer system.
1) Which memory stores the data permanently ?
a. Primary memoryb. Secondary memoryc. Cache memoryd. Registers
Answer = B Explanation: Secondary memory stores the data permanently until we remove it.2) Which of the following is the cheapest type of memory?
a. Secondary memoryb. Primary memoryc. Cache memoryd. ROM
Answer = AExplanation: Secondary memory is the cheapest form because it cannot process the data through the CPU directly. The data must be brought into the primary memory form execution. Therefore secondary memory is the form of slowest memory.3) Which of the following is auxiliary memory of the computer system ?
a. ROMb. SRAMc. Cache memoryd. Magnetic tape
Answer = A Explanation:ROM is the secondary memory which stores the data permanently also known as auxiliary memory.4) What does IBG stands for ?
a. Intra byte gapsb. Inter block gapsc. Inter bit gapsd. Intra block gaps
Answer = BExplanation:Inter block gaps is the space between the two consecutive physical blocks of memory.5) On what type of ROM data can be written only once ?
a. PROMb. EPROMc. EEPROM
d. EROMAnswer = A Explanation:In Programmable Read Only Memory once the data is written it remains there forever.6) In optical storage system which medium is used for reading and recording data ?
a. Laser lightb. Black lightc. High energy visible lightd. Ultraviolet light
Answer = A Explanation: Optical storage system use the laser light to retrieve as well as to record the data.7) Which is known as solid state memory ?
a. Parallel serial busb. Universal parallel busc. Universal serial busd. Universal computer bus
Answer = C Explanation:No Explanation8) In MO system which of the following temperature is used as a recording medium ?
a. Room temperatureb. Curie temperaturec. Neel temperatured. Boiling point temperature
Answer = B Explanation:Curie temperature is used for recording data in Magneto Optical system. Curie temperature is the temperature at which the material loses its magnetic properties and above this temperature the material becomes paramagnetic.9) The amount of space available in the computer system for holding the data is called?
a. Storage spaceb. Storage areac. Storage capacityd. Storage address
Answer = AExplanation: No Explanation 10) Which of the following is not a type of magnetic storage system ?
a. Magnetic tapeb. Floppy diskc. Compact diskd. Hard disk
Answer = CExplanation: Compact disk is the optical storage system not the magnetic storage system.
1) Computer use thousands of flip flops. To coordinate the overall action, a common signal called the ..... is sent to each flip - flop.?
a. latchb. masterc. clockd. slavee. None of above
Answer = C Explanation: To coordinate the overall action, a square wave signal called the clock is sent to each flip flop. This signal prevents the flip flop from changing states until the right time.2) Which of the following flip flop is free from race around condition ?
a. SR flip flopb. T flip flopc. Master slave flip flopd. All of above
Answer = C Explanation: Toggling more that once during a clock cycle is called racing. JK master slave flip flop avoids racing.3) Which logic family dissipates the minimum power ?
a. DTLb. ECLc. TTLd. CMOSe. None of above
Answer = D Explanation: CMOS dissipates low power. Typically the static power dissipation is 10 nw per gate which is due to the flow of leakage currents.4) The functional capacity of SSI devices is ?
a. 1 to 11 gatesb. 12 to 99 gatesc. 100 to 10,000 gatesd. More than 10,000 gatese. None of above
Answer = A Explanation: No Explanation5) What advantage do ICs have over discrete devices due to their greater complexity ?
a. Smaller sizeb. Higher Reliabilityc. Lower costd. All of above
Answer =D Explanation: ICs can also combine analog and digital circuits on a single chip to create functions such as A/D converters and D/A converters. Such circuits offer smaller size and lower cost, but must carefully account for signal interference.
6) A subtractor is usually not present in computer because ?
a. It is expensiveb. It is not possible to design itc. The adder will take care of subtractiond. None of above
Answer = C Explanation: A subtractor can be designed using the same approach as that of an adder.7) A chip having 150 gates will be classified as ?
a. SSIb. MSIc. LSId. VLSI
Answer = C Explanation: Latent semantic indexing (LSI) is an indexing and retrieval method that uses a mathematical technique called Singular value decomposition (SVD) to identify patterns in the relationships between the terms and concepts contained in an unstructured collection of text.8) Pseudo instructions are ?
a. assembler directiveb. instruction in any program that have no corresponding machine codeinstructionc. instruction in any program whose presence or absence will not change the output for
any inputd. None of above
Answer = A Explanation: Pseudo instructions are simply the assembly instructionsthat do not have a direct machine language equivalent.9) Programming in a language that actually controls the path of signals or data within the computer is called ?
a. micro programmingb. system programmingc. assembly programmingd. machine language programming
Answer = A Explanation:No Explanation10) Which of the following is not typically found in the status registerof micro processor ?
a. overflowb. zero resultc. negative resultd. none of above
Answer = D Explanation: A status register or flag register is a collection of flag bits for a processor. The status register is a hardware register which contains information about the state of the processor
1) The advantage of single bus over a multi bus is ?
a. low costb. flexibility in attaching peripheral devicesc. high operating speedd. A and B
Answer = D Explanation: However single bus costs low and it is easy to attachperipheral devices in single bus but multibus architecture have a greatadvantage in speed and of course, will affect performance also2) In serial communication, an extra clock is needed ?
a. to synchronize the devicesb. for programmed baud rate controlc. to make efficient use of RS-232d. None of above
Answer = B Explanation: No Explanation3) In which of the following instruction bus idle situation occurs ?
a. EIb. DAD rpc. INX Hd. DAA
Answer = B
4) The addressing used in an instruction of the form ADD X Y is?
a. absoluteb. immediatec. indirectd. index
Answer = A Explanation: The effective address for an absolute instruction address is the address parameter itself with no modifications.5) The speed imbalance between memory access and CPU operation can be reduced by ?
a. cache memoryb. memory interleavingc. reducing the size of memoryd. A and B
Answer = D
6) Which of the following does not need extra hardware for DRAM refreshing ?
a. 8085b. Motorola - 6800c. Z - 80d. None of these
Answer = C Explanation: No Explanation7) The first operating system used in micro processor is ?
a. Zenixb. DOSc. CPIMd. Multics
Answer = C Explanation: No Explanation8) Instead of counting with binary number a ring counter uses words that have a single high..... ?
a. bytesb. gatec. bitd. chip
Answer = C Explanation: No Explanation9) The memory cell of a dynamic RAM is simpler and smaller that the memory cell of a ...... RAM ?
a. volatileb. semiconductorc. staticd. bipolare. None of above
Answer =CExplanation: No Explanation10) A multiplexer with a 4 bit data select input is a ?
a. 4 : 1 multiplexerb. 16 : 1 multiplexerc. 2 : 1 multiplexerd. 8 : 1 multiplexer
Answer = D Explanation: No Explanation
1) The average search time of hashing with linear probing will be less if the load factor ?
a. is far less than oneb. equals onec. is far greater than oned. None of above
Answer = A
2) The complexity of binary search algorithm is ?
a. nb. nlogn
c. logn
d. n2
Answer = D
3) The postfix equivalent of the prefix * + ab - cd is ?
a. ab + cd - *b. abcd + - *c. ab + cd * -d. ab + - cd *
Answer = A
4)The linked list implementation of sparse matrices is superior to the generalized dope vector method because it is?
a. Conceptually easierb. Completely dynamic c. Efficient in accessing an entryd. Efficient if the sparse matrix is a band matrixe. A and B
Answer = E
5) Sparse matrix have ?
a. many zero entriesb. many non-zero entriesc. higher dimensiond. none of above
Answer = A Explanation: A sparse matrix is a matrix populated primarily with zeros6) Which of the following algorithm solves the all pair shortest pathproblem ?
a. Dijkstra's algorithmb. Floyd's algorithmc. Prim's algorithmd. Warshall's algorithm
Answer = B Explanation: The Floyd–Warshall algorithm (also known as Floyd's algorithm, Roy–
Warshall algorithm, Roy–Floyd algorithm, or the WFI algorithm) is a graph analysis algorithm for finding shortest paths in a weighted graph (with positive or negative edge weights) and also for finding transitive closure of a relation R.
7) As part of maintenance work, you are entrusted with the work of rearranging the library books in a shelf in proper order, at the end of each day. The ideal choice will be ?
a. Bubble sortb. Insertion sortc. Selection sortd. Heap sort
Answer = B Explanation:N/A
8) The way a card game player arranges his cards as he picks them up one by one, is an example of ?
a. bubble sortb. selection sortc. insertion sortd. merge sort
Answer = C Explanation: He scans throught the rest of the cards and pick the one with least value and places it next to the point till which he has already sorted the cards9) The average successful search time for sequential search on 'n' items is ?
a. n/2b. (n - 1)/2c. (n + 2)/2d. log(n) + 1
Answer = C Explanation:N/A10) Linked lists are suitable for which of the following problems ?
a. Insertion sortb. Binary searchc. Radix sortd. Polynomial manipulation
Answer = B Explanation: Through Linked list binary search can be performed efficiently.
1) If the sequence of operations - push(1), push(2), pop, push(1), push(2), pop, pop, pop, push(2), pop are performed on a stack, the sequence of popped out values are ?
a. 2, 2, 1, 1, 2b. 2, 2, 1, 2, 2c. 2, 1, 2, 2, 1d. 2, 1, 2, 2, 2
Answer = AExplanation: The elements are popped from the top of the stack.2) Queue can be used to implement ?
a. radix sortb. quick sortc. recursiond. depth first search
Answer = A Explanation: A simple version of an LSD radix sort can be achieved using queues as buckets.3) A machine took 200 sec to sort 200 names, using bubble sort. In 800 sec, it can approximately sort ?
a. 400 namesb. 800 namesc. 750 namesd. 800 names
Answer = AExplanation:For sorting 200 names bubble sort makes 200 x 199/2 = 19900 comparisons. The time needed for 1 comparison is 200 sec. In 800 sec it can make 80,000 comparisons. We have to fine n, such that n(n - 1)/2 = 80,000. From this n is approximately 400.4) A machine needs a minimum of 100 sec to sort 1000 names by quick sort.The minimum time needed to sort 100 names will be approximately ?
a. 50.2 secb. 6.7 secc. 72.7 secd. 11.2 sec
Answer = B Explanation: In the best case quick sort algorithm makes n log(n)comparisons. so 1000 x log (1000) = 9000 comparisons, which takes 100 sec. To sort 100 names a minimum of 100 log(100) = 600 comparisonsare needed. This takes 100 x 600/9000 = 6.7 sec.5) The number of binary trees with 3 nodes which when traversed in post order gives the sequence A,B,C is ?
a. 3b. 9c. 7d. 5
Answer = DExplanation: Five trees are
6) The average search time of hashing with linear probing will be less if the load factor ?
a. is far less than oneb. equals onec. is far greater than oned. none of above
Answer = AExplanation:Load factor is the ratio number of records that are currentlypresent and the total number of records that can be present. If the load factor is less, free space will be more. This means probability of collision is less. So the search time will be less.7) A binary tree that has n leaf nodes. The number of nodes of degree 2 in this tree is ?
a. log2nb. n - 1c. nd. 2n
Answer = B Explanation: It can be proved by induction that a binary tree with n leaf nodes will have total of 2n - 1 nodes. So number of non-leaf nodes is (2n - 1)-n=n-18) The principal of locality justifies the use of ?
a. Interruptsb. DMAc. Pollingd. Cache memory
Answer = DExplanation:In principal of phenomenon the same value or same memorylocation is being used frequently.9) Sparse matrices have ?
a. many zero entriesb. many non- zero entriesc. higher dimensiond. none of above
Answer = A Explanation: A sparse matrix is a matrix populated primarily with zeros10) The postfix expression for * + a b - c d is?
a. ab + cd - *b. ab cd + - *c. ab + cd * -d. ab + - cd *
Answer = A Explanation: No Explanation
1)What is Data Structure ?
a. Way to organize datab. Accessing of data elements in specified mannerc. Organization of mathematical and logical conceptsd. All of Above
Answer = D Explanation:A Data Structure may be organized in different ways : The logical
or mathematical model of a particular organization of data is called Data Structure.
2) Which operation is not possible on Data Structure ?
a. Traversingb. Insertionc. Readingd. Deletion
Answer = C Explanation:Possible operations on the Data Structure are Traversing, Insertion, Searching and Deletion.
3) The memory address of the first element is called ?
a. Floor Addressb. Foundation Addressc. First Addressd. Base Address
Answer = D Explanation:The memory address of the first element is often called base address in Data Structure.
4) The value of first linked list address is ?
a. 0b. -1c. 1d. None of Above
Answer = 0 Explanation: No explanation for this question.
5) Two dimensional arrays are also called ?
a. Matrix Arrayb. Table Arrayc. Both a and bd. None of the Above
Answer = C Explanation:Two dimensional arrays are called as matrix array and table arrays because they contains rows and columns.
6) The situation in linked list START=NULL is called ?
a. Overflowb. Underflowc. Both of aboved. None of Above
Answer = B Explanation:It is the situation when we are trying to delete an item from the empty linked list.
7) Length of the linear array can be found by using the formula ?
a. UB - LB + 1b. LB + UBc. LB - UBd. LB - UB + 1
Answer = A Explanation:The length of linear array can be found by using UB - LB + 1 Where UB is upper Bound, LB is Lower Bound of the array.8) The restriction while using the binary search is ?
a. List should be small in numberb. List should be large in numberc. List should be sortedd. No restriction
Answer = C Explanation: Binary search can be applied to a list only if the list is either in ascending or descending order.
9) The terms PUSH and POP are related to ?
a. Arraysb. Stacksc. Linked Listd. None
Answer = B Explanation:PUSH is used for inserting an element into the stack and POP is used for deleting an elements from the stack.
10) The operation of processing element is called ?
a. Traversingb. Insertingc. Deletingd. Searching
Answer = AExplanation:Traversing means visiting or processing each element exactly once.
1) An unnormalized relation contains values ?
a. Atomicb. Non - Atomicc. Classifiedd. None of these
Answer = C
2) A relation scheme is said to be in ...... form if the values in the domain of each attribute of the relation are atomic ?
a. Unnormalizedb. First Normalc. BoyceCODDd. None of these
Answer = B
3) A second Normal form does not permit ...... dependency between a non prime attribute and the relation key ?
a. Partialb. Multic. Functionald. Valued
Answer = A
4) A relation scheme is in ..... if it is in the 1NF and if all non prime attributes are fully functionally dependent on the relation key ?
a. First Normal Formb. Second Normal Formc. Boyce Codd Normal Formd. Fourth Normal Form
Answer = D
5) In a Third Normal Form relation, every ......attribute is non - transitively and fully dependent on the every candidate key ?
a. Primeb. Non Primec. Uniqued. None of these
Answer = C
6) A generalization of the Boyce Codd Normal form to relation schemes which includes the multivalued dependencies is called ?
a. Second Normal Formb. Third Normal Formc. Fourth Normal Formd. Fifth Normal Form
Answer = D
7) 5 NF is related to ?
a. Functional dependencyb. Multivalued dependencyc. Join dependencyd. None of these
Answer = D
8) Project join Normal form is also referred to as ?
a. Second Normal Formb. Third Normal Formc. Fourth Normal Formd. Fifth Normal Form
Answer = D
9) The compiled form of the definition is known as ?
a. Data Dictionaryb. Directoryc. System catalogd. All of above
Answer = B
10) Once a sequence is created, it is documented in the ?
a. Databaseb. Datatablec. Data Dictionaryd. Data Document
Answer = C
1) A transparent DBMS ?
a. Can not hide sensitive information from usersb. Keep its logical structure hidden from usersc. Keeps its physical structure hidden from usersd. Both B and C
e. None of aboveAnswer = C Explanation: It is a kind of database management system which is totally physically invisible to the users , transparency in a distributed DBMS refers to a complete separation of higher level semantics of a system from lower level implementation.the advantage of a fully transparent DBMS is the high level of support it provides for the development of complex applications.
2) Primitive operations common to all record management system include ?
a. Printb. Sortc. Look upd. All of abovee. None of above
Answer = C
3) The master list of an indexed file ?
a. Is sorted in ascending orderb. contains only a list of keys and record numbersc. has a number assigned to each recordd. Both B and Ce. None of above
Answer = C Explanation: An indexed file contains records ordered by a record key. Each record contains a field that contains the record key.4) A condition that led to the development of database was ?
a. A demand for more data to support information needsb. An increase in the amount of data handled by organizationsc. The poliferation of data filesd. All of abovee. None of above
Answer = D
5) Information can be transferred between the DBMS and a ?
a. Spreadsheet programb. Word processor programc. Graphics programsd. All of abovee. None of above
Answer = D
6) Goals for the design of the logical schema includes ?
a. Avoiding data inconsistencyb. Being able to construct queries easily
c. Being able to access data efficiencyd. All of abovee. None of above
Answer = D
7) A locked file can be ?
a. Accessed by only one userb. Modified by users with the correct passwordc. Is used to hide sensitive informationd. Both B and Ce. None of above
Answer = A Explanation: File locking is a mechanism that restricts access to a computer file by allowing only one user or process access at any specific time
8) Versatile report generator can provide ?
a. Columnar totalsb. Subtotalsc. Calculationsd. All of abovee. None of above
Answer = D
9) A trigger is ?
a. A statement that enables to start any DBMSb. A statement that is executed by the user when debugging an applicationprogramc. A condition the system tests for the validity of the database userd. A statement that is executed automatically by the system as a side effect of
modification to the databaseAnswer = D Explanation: A database trigger is procedural code that is automatically executed in response to certain events on a particular table or view in a database
10) Manager's salary details are hidden from the employee. This is ?
a. Conceptual level data hidingb. Physical level data hidingc. Externel level hidingd. None of above
Answer = C Explanation: The external view level is closest to the users. It is concerned with the way the data is viewed by individual users.
1) Related fields in a database are grouped to form ?
a. Data Fieldsb. Data Recordc. Menud. Banke. None of above
Answer = BExplanation: Related fields in the data base are grouped into the Records. Records are the total of all information of a particular item. 2) Entities having primary key are called ?
a. Primary Entitiesb. Strong Entitiesc. Weak Entitiesd. Primary Key
Answer = B Explanation: Entity having its own primary key is called a strong entity and the entity not having its own primary key is called a weak entity.3) In the E-R diagrams, the term cardinality is a synonym for the term ?
a. Attributeb. Degreec. Entitiesd. Cartesian
Answer = D Explanation: No Explanation 4) TRUNCATE statement in SQL is a ?
a. DML statementb. DDL statementc. DCL statementd. None of above
Answer = B Explanation: TRUNCATE statement remove all records from a table, including all spaces allocated for the records are removed.5) The default date format in SQL is ?
a. DD-MON-YYb. DD-MM-YYc. DD-MM-YYYd. MM-DD-YY
Answer = A Explanation: No Explanation 6) For adding number of hours to a date, which of the followingstatement is used ?
a. Date + Numberb. Date + Number/24c. Date + Number of Hoursd. None of above
Answer = B Explanation: For example we want to add 3hrs to the date then we use the statement : DATE + 3/24
7) Which syntax is the more accurate for creating SYNONYM ?
a. CREATE [PUBLIC] SYNONYM synonym for objectb. CREATE SYNONYM synonym for object from table namec. CREATE [PUBLIC] SYNONYM synonym for column named. None of these
Answer = A Explanation: No Explanation 8) A data dictionary is a special file that contains ?
a. the names of all fields in all filesb. the data types of all fields in all filesc. the widths of all fields in all filesd. All of abovee. None of above
Answer = D Explanation: Refer: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Data_dictionary
9) A command that lets you change one or more fields of a record is ?
a. insertb. Modifyc. Look-upd. All of abovee. None of above
Answer = B Explanation: No Explanation 10) In a large DBMS ?
a. Each user can see only a small part of the entire databaseb. Each user can access every sub schemac. Each sub schema contains every field in the logical schemad. All of abovee. None of above
Answer = A Explanation: No Explanation
1) Who invented microprocessor ?
a. Joseph Jacquardb. Herman H Goldsteinc. Marcian E Huffd. George Boole
Answer =C2) .INI extention refers to which kind of file ?
a. Image fileb. System filec. Hypertext related filed. Image color matching profile file
Answer =B3) Who built the world's first binary digit computer ?
a. Alan Turingb. Konrad Zusec. George Booled. Ken Thompson
Answer =B4) What is VCM ?
a. Virtual Connection Managerb. Virtual Channel Memoryc. Video Controlled Modemd. Voice Connection Module
Answer =B5) Who is largely responsible for breaking the German Enigma Codes created a test provided a foundation for artificial intelligence ?
a. Alan Turingb. Jeff Bezosc. George Booled. Charles Babbage
Answer = A6) Who co - founded Hotmail in 1996 and then sold the company to microsoft ?
a. Shawn Fanningb. Ada Byron Lovelacec. Sabeer Bhatiad. Ray Tomlinson
Answer = C7) What was the first ARPANET message?
a. Hello worldb. Cyberspace, the final frontierc. mary has a little lampd. Lo
Answer = D
8) Where are the headquarters of Microsoft located ?
a. Santa Clarab. Tucsonc. Redmondd. Richmond
Answer = A9) What does DOCSIS stands for ?
a. Data over cable service internet standardb. Data over cable security internet standardc. Data over cable secure international standardd. Data over cable service interface srandard
Answer = D10) Who designed the first electronic computer - ENIAC?
a. Von Neumannb. Joseph M Jacquardc. J.P.Eckert and J.W.Mauchlyd. All of above
Answer = C
