PHYSICS HOLIDAY ASSIGNMENT Class-XIINumerical Problems1. A charge having magnitude Q is divided into two parts q and (Q-q). Is the two parts

exert a maximum force of repulsion on each other, then find the ratio Q/q.2. Two charges each of +Q unit are placed along a line. A third charge q is placed

between them. At what position and for what value of q, will the system be in equilibrium?

3. Two point charges Q1 and Q2 are 3m apart and their combined charge is 20µC (a) if one repels the other with a force of 0.075 N, what are the two charges? (b) if one attracts the other with a force of 0.525N. What are the magnitudes of the charges?

4. Four equal magnitude point charges (3µC) are placed at the corners of a square that is 40cm on each side. Two charges diagonally opposite to each other are positive and the other two are negative. Find the force on either negative charge.

5. Calculate the distance between the two points such that the electrical repulsive force between them is equal to the weight of either. Take mp=1.67 x 10-27 kg and charge of proton=1.6 x10-19 C

6. Two point charges 2µC and 6µC repel each other with a force of 12N. If each is given an additional charge -4µC, what will be the new force between them?

7. How far apart two protons be if the electrostatic force exerted by one on the other is equal to weight of the electron?

8. If 109 electrons move out of the body to another body every second, how much time is required to get a total charge of 1C on the other body?

9. How much positive and negative charged is there in a cup of water?10.Consider 3 charges q1, q2 and q3 each equal to q at the vertices of equilateral triangle

of side l. What is the force on charge Q placed at the centroid of the triangle?11.How many electrons make up one coulomb of charge?12.Two point charges +q and +4q are separated by a distance 6a. Find the point on the

line joining the two charges where the electric field is zero.13.Two point charges q1=+0.2C and q2=+0.4C are placed 0.1 m apart. Calculate the

electric field at (a) The midpoint between the two charges(b) A point on the line joining q1 and q2 such that it is 0.05m from q2 and 0.15m

away from q1.14. Four equal magnitude (4µC) charges are placed at the four corner of a square that is

20 cm on each side. Find the electric field intensity at the centre of the square, if all the charges are positive.

15.Two point charges q1 and q2 of magnitude +10-8C and -10-8C respectively are placed at 0.1m apart. Calculate the electric fields at points A, B and C as shown in figure.

C

0.1m 0.1m

B 0.05m q1 0.05m A 0.05m q1

16.Two charges of the values of 15 x 10-9C and 30 x 10-9C are placed at a distance 0.06m. Find the intensity of electric field at a point which is at a distance of 2 cm from the first and 4 cm from second charge respectively.

17.A charge q of mass m is released in a field E at rest. Find its displacement at time t.18.An oil drop carries 6 electronic charges and it has a mass of 1.6 x 10-12g and falls

with a terminal velocity in air. What magnitude of vertical electric field is required to make the drop move upwards with the same speed as it was formally moving downwards?

19.A molecule of a substance has a permanent electric dipole moment of magnitude 10-

29Cm. A mole of this substance is polarized (at low temp.) by applying a strong electrostatic field of magnitude 106 V/m. The direction of the field is suddenly changed by an angle of 60º. Estimate the heat released by the substance in aligning its dipoles along the new direction of the field. For simplicity, assume 100% polarization of the sample.

20.Two charges ±10µC are placed 5 x 10-3m apart. Determine the electric field at a point O, on a line passing through the normal to the axis of the dipole. The point O is at a distance 0.15m from the dipole.

21.The electric field components in figure are Ex=ax1/2, Ey= Ez= 0 in which α=800N/Cm1/2. Calculate (a) the flux through the cube and (b) the charge within the cube. Assume a=0.1m

y

nL nR

x

z a

22.The electric field in a certain region of space is given by E=200î. How much flux passes through an area A if it is a portion of (a) the x-y plane (b) the x-z plane (c) y-z plane?

23.The cylinder of length L and radius r has its axis coincident with the x-axis in the electric field in this region is E=200 î. Find the flux at

a) The left end of the cylinder b) The right end of the cylinder xc) The cylindrical wall d) The closed surface area of the cylinder E

24.An isolated sphere of 0.1m radius is deprived of 1012 electrons. Find the field intensity at the surface. Given e=1.6 x 10-19 C

25.Calculate the electric field at a distance of 35cm from the axis of a cylindrical rod of radius of 20cm and charge density 15 x 10-3 C/m3; what is the electric field at r = 10cm?

26.A charged spherical conductor has a surface density of 0.07 units. When its charge is increased by 4.4 units the charge density changes by 0.014 units. Find the radius of sphere and initial charge on it.

27.A charge q is placed at a distance at a distance r/2 from the centre of a spherical Gaussian surface of radius r. What is the flux through Gaussian surface?

28.A cylinder of large length has a charge of 2 x 10-19 C/m. Find the field intensity at a distance of 0.2m from it. Given ε0=1/36π x 109 in SI units.

29.A square frame of edge 10cm is placed with its positive normally making an angle 600

with a uniform electric field of 20V/m. Find the flux of the electric field through the surface bound by the electric frame.

30.The electric field and electric potential at a point charge kept in air is 20N/C and 10J/C respectively. Compute the magnitude of this charge.

31.Two point charges +4µC and -6 µC are separated by a distance of 20cm in air. At what point on the line joining the two charges, is the electric potential zero?

32.An infinite plane sheet of charge density 10-8 C/m2 is held in air. In this situation, how far apart the two equipotential surfaces whose potential difference is 5V?

33.Two point charges A and B of value +5 µC and +6 µC are kept 12cm apart in air. Calculate the work done when charge B is moved 2cm towards charge A.

34.ABCD is a square of side 0.2m. Charges of 4 x 10 -9 C and -4 x 10 -9 C are placed at the three corners of a square. Find the potential (i) At point A (ii) calculate the potential at the centre O, due to charges B,C and D. (iii) calculate the work done in the above example if charge of 2 x 10-9 C is moved from A to O.

4 x 10-9 C – 4 x 10-9 C D C

A B

20 cm 4 x 10-9 C

35.Two protons are released when they are 2 x 10-14m apart. Find their speeds when they are 5 x 10-14m apart. Mass=1.67 x 10-27 kg

36.Calculate the electric potential at the centre of the square of side √2m, having charges 100µC, –50 µC, 20 µC and –60 µC at the four corners of this square.

37.Two point charges A and B of 1.5 µC and 2.5 µC respectively are kept 30cm apart in air. Calculate the electric potential at a point which is 10cm from the mid point of straight line AB and is on a plane normal to AB passing through the midpoint of this line.

38.(a)Calculate the potential at point P due to a charge of 2 x 10-7C located 9 cm away (b) hence, obtain the work done in bringing a charge of 2 x 10 -9C from infinity to the point P. Does the answer depend on the path along which the charge is brought?

39.In the given figure, four charges are arranged at the corners of a square ABCD of side d (a) Find the work required to put together this arrangement. (b) A charge q0 is brought to the centre E of the square, the four charges being held fixed at its corners. How much extra work is needed to do this? +q -q A B

D C-q +q

40.(a) Determine the electrostatic potential energy of a system consisting of two charges 7µC and –2µC (& with no external field) placed at (–9cm, 0, 0) and (9cm, 0, 0) respectively.

O

q0

E

(b) How much work is required to separate the two charges infinitely away from each other? (c) Suppose that the same system of charges is now placed in an external electric field E=A (1/r2); A= 9 x 105C/m2. What would be the electrostatic energy of the configuration be?

PHYSICS HOLIDAY ASSIGNMENT

1. The area of each plate of a parallel plate capacitor is 2cm2 and the distance between the plates is 0.02cm. A potential difference of 6V is applied across the plates. Find the charge on the plates and the electric field established between the plates.

2. A 5µF parallel plate capacitor with a dielectric slab of dielectric constant 3 between the plates is charged to 100V and then isolated. What will be the potential difference if the dielectric is removed? How much work would be done to remove the dielectric?

C1 C2

3. Three capacitors are connected as shown in figure. If a 12V potential difference is applied to the 3µF 6µF Terminals, what will be 4µF(a) The total capacitance (b) Charge on each capacitor. C3

4. A capacitor of capacitance C1= 1 µF withstands the maximum voltage V1=6kV while a capacitor of capacitance C2= 2 µF the maximum voltage V1= 4kV. What voltage will the system of these two capacitors withstand if they are connected in series?

5. A parallel plate capacitor is maintained at a certain potential difference. When a 3mm thick slab is introduced between the plates, in order to maintain the same potential difference, the distance between the plates is increased by 2.4mm. Find the dielectric constant of the slab.

6. An 80µF capacitor is charged by a 50V battery. The capacitor is then disconnected from the battery and then connected across another uncharged 320 µF capacitor. Calculate the charge on the second capacitor.

Three identical capacitors C1, C2 and C3 of

Capacitance 6µF each are connected to C1 V 12V battery as shown. Find (a) Charge on each capacitor C2 C3

(b) Equivalent capacitance of network (c) Energy stored in the network of capacitors.

7. Two conducting spheres of radii 4cm and 7cm have charge of 500C and 600C respectively. Calculate the loss or gain in energy when they are connected together.

8. A capacitor half filled with a dielectric of

Dielectric constant 4 has a capacitance of 10µF. What will be its capacitance Without the dielectric?

9. Two electric bulbs of 50W and 100W are given. Which one of them will be brighter when they are connected to the mains (a) in series (b) in parallel?

10. Find the total energy in the capacitors given in the circuit. C4 2 µF

6V C1 C2 1µF C5 2µF

1 µF

C3 2 µF

11. The potential difference across the terminals of a storage battery is 10V in a closed circuit. If the external resistance is increased by 1Ω, the potential difference increases by 1V. A further increase in the external resistance of 3Ω produces a further increase of 2V in the potential difference. What is the emf E and internal resistance r of the battery?

12.In a discharge tube the number of hydrogen ions (i.e. protons) drifting across a cross-section per second 1 x 1018, while the number of electrons drifting in the opposite direction across another cross-section is 2.7 x 1018 per second if the supply voltage is 230V, what is the effective resistance of the tube?

13.The external diameter of a 5m long hollow tube is 0.10m and thickness of its wall is 5 x 10-3

m. Determine its resistance. Given ρCu = 1.7 x 10-8 Ωm 14. Two identical cells of emf 1.5V each joined in E=1.5V r

parallel provide supply to an external circuit consisting of two resistors of 17Ω each joined E=1.5V rin parallel. A very high resistance voltmeter reads the terminal voltage of the cells to be 1.4V. R= 17Ω What is the internal resistance each cell?

R= 17Ω16. Find the minimum number of cells required to produce an electric current of 1.5A through

resistance of 30Ω, given that emf of each cell is1.5V and internal resistance of each cell is 10Ω.17. A copper wire is stretched to make it 0.1% longer. What is the percentage change in the

resistance? 18. Find the drift velocity of electrons I a conductor of area of cross section 10-4 m2 for a current of

15A. Assume that density of the free electrons is 7.5 x 1020 per m2.19. A potential difference V is applied across a conductor of length L and diameter D. How are the

electric field E and resistance R of conductor affected when in turn (a) V is halved (b) L is halved (c) D is doubled?

20. Three equal resistors connected in series across a source of emf E dissipate 10W power. What could be the power dissipated if the same resistors are connected in parallel across the same source?

21. A copper wire has square cross-section 2mm on a side. It is 4m long and carries a current of 10A. The density of free electrons is 8 x 1028 m-3. (a) What is the current density of the wire? (b) What is electric field? (c) How much time is required for an electron to travel the length of the wire?

22. The potential difference across the terminals of a battery is E r i 8.5V when there is a current of 3A in the battery from A B the negative to the positive terminals. When the currentis 2A in the reverse direction, the P.D. becomes 11V. (a) What is the internal resistance of the battery? E r i (b) What is the emf of the battery?

23. The four arms of a Wheatstone bridge have the

following resistances: A CAB=100Ω BC=10 Ω CD=5 Ω DDA=60 Ω 10V

24. In a meter bridge, resistance in the right gap is 10Ω. The null point is found to occur at a distance

of 30cm from the left end. Calculate the resistance in the left gap and uncertainty in its value if uncertainty in the distance of the null point is ±0.5cm.

25. Three batteries of 2,1and 4V with internal resistances 4Ω, 3Ω, and 2Ω respectively, are arranged in parallel. Find the current in each wire using Kirchhoff’s Law.

26. A potentiometer having a wire 5m long stretched and it is connected to an accumulator having a steady voltage. A Daniel cell gives a null point at 300cm. if the length of the potentiometer wire is increased by 100cm; find the position of the balance point.

27. With two resistance wires in the two gaps of a meter bridge, the balance point was found to be 1/3m from the zero ends. When a 6W coil is connected in series with the smaller of the two resistances, the balance point is shifted to 2/3m from the same end. Find the resistance of the two wires.

28. A 10m long wire of uniform cross-section and 20Ω resistance is used in a potentiometer. The wire is connected in series with a battery of 5V along with an external resistance of 480Ω. If an unknown e.m.f. E is balanced at 6m length of the wire, calculate (a) the potential gradient of the potentiometer wire and (b) the value of unknown e.m.f.

29. All the seven arms of the electrical network shown in A D Efigure has equal lengths and equal resistances. Show that if a current I enters the network at the point A and leaves at point F, the current in the arm CD is 1/5.

B C F

30. In comparing the resistance of two coils P and Q with a meter bridge, the balance point is obtained at 30cm from the zero ends. The coils P and Q are interchanged and the balance point is obtained at 120cm from the zero ends. Find (a) the ratio of the resistance of the two coils and (b) the length of the bridge wire

31. A cell of e.m.f. E1 (=2V) and internal resistance 1Ω is connected in parallel with another cell of e.m.f. E2 (=1.5V) and internal resistance 2Ω. When the combination is in parallel with a resistance of 4Ω, find the current through each branch and also the potential difference across the 4Ω resistance.

32. Three resistance are joined to form a triangle ABC, such that AB=1Ω, BC=2Ω, CA=3Ω. A cell of e.m.f. 3V and internal resistance 1Ω is connected to points A and C. Determine the current in the three arms and also the potential difference at the cell terminals.

33. A 10V battery having an internal resistance of 1Ω is E1=10V r1=1Ωjoined in parallel with another of 20V and internal resistance 2Ω. The combination is placed across an E2=20V r2=2Ωexternal resistance of 30Ω.

R=30Ω34. In an experiment. to determine the internal resistance of a cell, the null point is obtained at

220cm, when the cell is shunted by a resistance of 5Ω. When the cell is shunted by a resistance of 20Ω, the null point is obtained at 300cm. Find the internal resistance of the cell.

35. Two cells of e.m.f. E1 and E2 (E1 > E2) are connected as shown in figure. When a potentiometer is connected between points A and B, the balancing length of the potentiometer is at 300 cm and between points A and C, the balancing length is 100cm. Calculate the ratio of the e.m.f. of the two cells.

A B C E1 E2

36. A potentiometer wire carries current. The potential difference across 70cm of it balances the potential difference across a 2Ω coil supplied by a cell of e.m.f. 2V. When a 1Ω coil is placed at parallel with the 2Ω coil, a length equal to 50cm of the potentiometer wire is required to balance the potential difference across the parallel combination. What is the internal resistance of the 2V cell?3

37. ABCD is a uniform circular wire of resistance 2Ω. AOC and BOD are two wires (each of resistance 1Ω) forming diameter at right angles to each other. Show that the resistance of the network is 15/14Ω, if the battery is placed in AD. B

38. Four resistances P = 5Ω, Q = 6Ω, R = 50Ω, X = 60Ω are connected in the four arms of the Wheatstone bridge. 5Ω 6ΩIf a cell of e.m.f.1.5V and negligible internal resistance A Cis connected across the bridge, calculate the current in the 50Ω 60Ωarms of the Wheatstone bridge and the cell.

D

E=1.5V

39. A cell of emf 2V and internal resistance 2Ω is connected with two wires of resistance 2Ω and 5Ω in parallel. Find the current in each wire using Kirchhoff’s Law.

40. Twenty four cells of internal resistance 0.5Ω and emf 1.5V are used for sending the maximum current through an external resistance of 3Ω. How will you group the cells? Find the maximum current.

PHYSICS HOLIDAY ASSIGNMENT

Numerical problems

1. A straight conductor carries a current of 2.5 A. calculate the magnetic field per unit length at appoint P as shown in fig. below. If the conductor is along z-axis, what is the plane in which the magnetic field lies at P?

2. A circular coil of 120 turns has a radius of 18 cm and carries a current of 3.0 A. what is the magnitude of the magnetic field intensity at a point on the axis of the coil at a distance from the centre equal to the radius of the coil?

3. A thousand turns of wire are wound on a thin tube 0.4 m long. If the current in the wire is 2 A, find the field in the tube.

4. Show that the field at the centre of a square coil which has sides of length l and carries a current I is given by B=2(2)1/2( µ0I/ πl).

5. Two wires A and B have equal length equal to 44 cm and carry a current of 10 A each. Wire A is bent into circle and wire B is bent into a square. (i) obtain the magnitude of the field at the centre of the wires. (ii) which wire produces greater magnetic field at the centre?

6. A solenoid of length 50 cm consists of 500 turns. Determine the magnetic field in the following cases when a current of 2A is passed through the solenoid.(a) magnetic field inside the solenoid.

(b) magnetic field near its ends.(c) field outside the solenoid as its middle.

7. A long straight wire AB carries a current of 4A. A proton P travels at 4 x 106 m/s parallel to a wire 0.2 m from it and in a direction opposite to the current as shown in fig. Calculate the force which the magnetic field of current exerts on the proton. Also specify the direction of the force.

8.

9.

10. What is the radius of the path of an electron (mass 9.1 x 10-31 kg and charge 1.6 x 10-19 c) moving

with the speed of 3 x 107 m/s in a magnetic field of 6 x 10-4 T perpendicular to it? What is the frequency? Calculate energy in keV.

11. A straight long conductor PQ carrying a current of 60 A, is fixed horizontally. Another long conductor XY is kept parallel to PQ at a distance of 4 mm in air. Conductor XY is free to move and carries a current I fig. calculate the magnitude and the direction of current I for which the magnetic repulsion just balances the weight of the conductor XY is 10-2 kg/m.

12. A circular coil of 100 turns, radius 10 cm carries a current of 5 A. It is suspended vertically in a uniform magnetic field of 0.5 T, the field lines making an angle of 600 with the plane of the coil. Calculate the magnitude of the torque that must be applied on it to prevent it from turning.

13. A galvanometer with a coil of resistance 120 shows full scale deflection for a current of 2.5 mA. How will you convert the galvanometer into an ammeter of range 0 to 7.5 A? Determine the net resistance of the ammeter. When an ammeter is put in a circuit, does it read slightly less or more than the actual current in the original circuit? Justify your answer.

14. A rectangular loop of sides 0.25 m and 0.10m carrying a current a current of 15 A with its longer side parallel to a long straight conductor 0.02 m apart carrying a current of 25 ampere. What is the net force on the loop?

15. A 100 turn closely wound circular coil of radius 10 cm carries a current of 3.2 A. (a) what is the field at the centre of the coil? (b) what is the magnetic moment of this coil?The coil is placed in a vertical plane and is free to rotate about a horizontal axis which coincides with the diameter. A uniform magnetic field of 2 T in the horizontal direction exists such that initially the axis of the coil is in the direction of the field. The coil rotates through an angle of 900 under the influence of the magnetic field. (c) What are the magnitudes of the torque on the coil in the initial and final position? (d) what is the angular speed acquired by the coil when it has rotated by 900? The moment of inertia of the coil is 0.1 kg m2.

16. In the circuit the current is to be measured. What is the value of the current if the ammeter shown (a) is a galvanometer with a resistance RG=60.00 Ω; (b) is a galvanometer described in (a) but converted to an ammeter by a shunt resistance rs = 0.02 Ω; (c) is an ideal ammeter with zero resistance?

17. If a proton is to be accelerated in a cyclotron (i) what should be the a.c. potential applied? (ii) How much energy will be required after 50 revolutions? (iii) what will be its speed then? The applied magnetic field is 1.5 T, the applied voltage is 105 V and mass of proton is 1.7 X 10-27 kg.

18. An alpha particle in a circular path of radius 0.45 m in a magnetic field with B=1.2 Wb m-2. Calculate (a)its speed (b) its kinetic energy (c) the potential difference through which it would have to be associated to achieve this energy. Mass of alpha particle= 6.6 X 10-27 kg.

19. What might be the mass of a positive ion that is moving at 107 m/s and is bent into a circular path of radius 1.55 m by a magnetic field of 0.134 Wb m-2.

20. A rectangular loop 6 cm in length and 2 cm wide is placed in a magnetic field of 0.02 T. if the loop contains 200 turns and carries a current of 50 mA, what is the torque on it? Assume the face of the loop is parallel to the field.

21. In a moving coil galvanometer, deflection of 10 degree is observed when a current of 15 mA is passed through it. (i) calculate the galvanometer constant. (ii) what will be the current which gives a deflection of 8 degree in the coil of the same galvanometer?

22. An electron accelerating by a potential difference V=1 kV moves in a uniform magnetic field at an angle α= 300 to the field B=29 mT. find the pitch of the helical trajectory.

23. An infinitely long straight conductor XY carrying a current of 5 A. An electron is moving with a speed of 105 m/s parallel to the conductor XY at a distance of 20cm. calculate the magnitude of the force experienced by the electron. Write the direction of the force.

24. A straight wire of mass 200 g and length 1.5m carries a current of 2 A. it is suspended in the mid-air by a uniform horizontal magnetic field B. what is the magnitude of the field?

25. A cyclotron’s oscillator frequency is 10 MHz. what should be the operating magnetic field for accelerating proton? If the radius of its ‘dees’ is 60 cm, what is the kinetic energy (in MeV) of the proton beam produced by the accelerator?

26. Two insulating infinitely long wires are lying mutually perpendicular to each other as shown in the fig. if the two wires carry currents I1 and I2 as shown in the fig, find the magnetic field at point P( a,b).

27. A galvanometer coil is 2 cm square and contains 100 turns. Its period is 20 s and its moment of inertia is 2 g cm2. The field of the magnet is 0.2 T. Determine the current sensitivity of the galvanometer.

28. A galvanometer has a sensitivity of 60 divisions A-1. When a shunt is used, its sensitivity becomes 10 divisions A-1. What is the value of shunt used, if the resistance of galvanometer is 20 Ω?

29. Two short bar magnets N1S1 and N2S2 of the magnetic moments 32 A m2 and 27 A m2 are placed on

the table as shown in the fig. find the magnitude and direction of the magnetic fields produced by these magnets at point P located on equatorial lines of both the magnets at a distance of 0.4 m and 0.3 m respectively from their centers.

30. A short magnet of magnetic moment 2 A m2 is lying in a horizontal plane with its north pole pointing 600 east of north. Find the net horizontal magnetic field at appoint north of the magnet 0.2 m away from it. Horizontal component of earth’s magnetic field= 0.3 x 10-4 T.

31. A small coil of radius 0.002 m is placed on the axis of a magnet of magnetic moment 105 JT-1 and length 0.1 m at a distance of 0.15 m from the center of the magnet. The plane of the coil is perpendicular to the axis of the magnet. Find the force on the coil, when the current of 2.0 A is passed through it.

32. The hysteresis loss for a specimen of iron weighing 12 kg is equivalent to 300 Jm-3cycles-1. Find the loss of energy per hour at 50 cycles s-1. Given, density of iron= 7,500 kg/m3.

33. A bar magnet has dipole strength 4.5 Am, magnetic length 12 cm and cross-sectional area 0.9 cm2. Find (a) intensity of magnetization (I), (b) magnetic intensity (H) at the centre and (c) magnetic induction (B) at the centre of the magnet.

34. The radius of the first electron orbit of a hydrogen atom is 0.5 A0. The electron moves in this orbit with a uniform speed of 2.2 x 106 m s-1. What is the magnetic field produced at the centre of the nucleus due to the motion of this electron? Use µ0/4π= 10-7 NA-2 and the electronic charge= 1.6 x 10-19 C.

35. A rectangular loop of sides 25 cm and 10 cm carrying a current of 15 A is placed with its longer side parallel to a long straight conductor 2.0 cm apart carrying a current of 25 A. what is net force on the loop?

36. Compare the current sensitivity and voltage sensitivity of the following moving coil galvanometers:

Meter A: n=30; A=1.5 x 10-3 m2; B=0.25 T; R= 20 Ω Meter B: n=35; A=2.0 x 10-3 m2; B=0.25 T; R= 30 Ω.

37. The current sensitivity of a moving coil galvanometer increases by 20 %, when its resistance is increased by a factor of 2. Calculate by what factor, the voltage sensitivity changes.

38. An electric field is flowing in a circular wire of radius a. at what distance from the centre on the axis of the circular wire will the magnetic field be 1/8 th of its value at the centre?

39. Electron (with a charge of 1.6 x 10-19 C on each) moving at right angles to the uniform magnetic field completes a circular orbit in 10-6 s. calculate the value of magnetic field. Given, mass of electron= 9 x10-31 kg.

40. A proton and an alpha particle having the same kinetic energy are allowed to pass through a uniform magnetic field perpendicular to their direction of motion. Compare the radii of the paths of proton and alpha particle.

41. (a) A d.c. supply of 120 V ids connected to a large resistance X. a voltmeter of resistance 10 KΩ placed in series in the circuit reads 4 V. what is the value of X? (b) what do you think is the purpose in using a voltmeter, instead of an ammeter, to determine the large resistance X?

42. An ammeter of resistance 100 Ω can measure a maximum current of 5 mA. What will you do to measure maximum current of 5 A with it?

PHYSICS HOLIDAY ASSIGNMENT Unit 4

Q-1 A square loop of side 10 cm and resistance of 0.70 Ω is placed vertically in the east-west plane. A uniform magnetic field of 0.10 T is set up across the plane in north-east direction. The magnetic field is decreased to zero in 0.70 s at a steady rate. Determine the magnitudes of induced emf and current during this time interval.

Q-2 A 10 Ω resistance coil has 1000 turns and at a time 5.5 × 10-4 Wb of flux passes through it. If the flux falls to 0.5 × 10-4 Wb in 0.1 second, find the emf generated in volts and the charge flown through the coil in coulombs.

Q-3 A wire 88 cm long bent into a circular loop is placed perpendicular to the magnetic flux density 2.5 Wbm-2. Within 0.5 s, the loop is changed into 22 cm square and flux density is increased to 3.0 Wbm-2. Calculate the value of the emf induced.

Q-4 A circular coil of radius 10 cm, 500 turns and resistance 2 Ω is placed with its plane perpendicular to the horizontal component of the earth’s magnetic field. It is rotated about its vertical diameter through 180⁰ in 0.25 s. Estimate the magnitudes of the emf and current induced in the coil. Horizontal component of the earth’s magnetic field at the place is 3.0 × 10-5 T.

Q-5 A coil of cross-sectional area A lies in a uniform magnetic field B with with its plane perpendicular to the field. In this position the normal to the coil makes an angle of 0⁰ with the field. The core rotates at a uniform rate to complete one rotation in time T. Find the average induced emf in the coil during the interval when the coil rotates :

(i) from 0⁰ to 90⁰ position

(ii) from 90⁰ to 180⁰ position

(iii) from 180⁰to 270⁰ position

(iv) from 270⁰ to 360⁰.

Q-6 A conducting circular loop is placed in a uniform transverse magnetic field of 0.02 T. Somehow, the radius of the loop begins to decrease at a constant rate of 1.0mm/s. Find the emf induced in the loop at the instant when the radius is 2 cm.

Q-7 A 70 turn coil with average diameter of 0.2 m is placed perpendicular to magnetic field of 9000 T. If the magnetic field is changed to 6000 T in 3 s, what is the magnitude of the induced emf?

Q-8 A wire 40 cm long bent into a rectangular loop 15 cm × 5 cm is placed perpendicular to the magnetic field whose flux density is 0.8 Wbm-2. Within 1.0 second, the loop is changed into a 10 cm square and flux density increases to 1.4 Wbm-2. Calculate the value of induced emf.

Q-9 A closed coil consists of 500 turns on a rectangular frame of area 4.0 cm2 and has a resistance of 50 Ω. It is kept with its plane perpendicular to a uniform magnetic field of 0.2 Wbm-2. Calculate the amount of charge flowing through the coil when it is turned over (rotated through 180⁰). Will this answer depend on the speed with which the coil is rotated?

Q-10 The magnetic flux through a coil perpendicular to its plane and directed into paper is varying according to the relation ɸ= (5t2 + 10t + 5) milliweber. Calculate the emf induced in the loop at t= 5 s.

Q-11 An aircraft with a wing span of 40 m flies with a speed of 1080 kmh-1 in the eastward direction at a constant altitude in the northern hemisphere, where the vertical component of earth’s magnetic field is 1.75 × 10-5 T. find the emf that develops between the tips of the wings.

Q-12 A jet plane is travelling west at 450 ms-1. If the horizontal component of earth’s magnetic field at that place is 4 × 10-4 tesla and the angle of dip is 30⁰, find the emf induced between the ends of wings having a span of 30 m.

Q-13 A conductor of length 1.0 m falls freely under gravity from a height of 10 m so that it cuts the lines of forceof the horizontal component of earth’s magnetic field of 3 × 10-5 Wbm-2. Find the emf induced in the conductor.

Q-14 A metallic rod of length L is rotated at an angular speed ω normal to a uniform magnetic field B. derive expression for the (i) emf induced in the rod (ii) current induced and (iii) heat dissipation, if the resistance of the rod is R.

Q-15 A 0.5 m long metal rod PQ completes the circuit as shown in fig. the area of the circuit is perpendicular to the magnetic field of flux density 0.15 T. if the resistance of the total circuit is 3 Ω, calculate the force needed to move the rod in the direction as indicated with a constant speed of 2 ms-1.

Q-16 A fan blade of length 2a rotates with frequency f cycles per second perpendicular to a magnetic field B. find the potential difference between the centre and the end of the blade.

Q-17 A copper disc of radius 10 cm placed with its plane normal to a uniform magnetic field completes 1200 rotations per minute. If induced emf between the centre and the edge of the disc is 6.284 mV, find the intensity of the magnetic field. Take π=3.14

Q-18 A rectangular coil of wire has dimensions 0.2 m × 0.1 m. The coil has 2000 turns. The coil rotates in a magnetic field about an axis parallel to its length and perpendicular to the magnetic field of 0.02 Wbm-2. The speed of rotation of the coil is 4200 r.p.m. calculate (i) the maximum value of the induced emf in the coil (ii) the instantaneous value of induced emf when the plane of the coil has rotated through an angle of 30⁰ from the initial position.

Q-19 A rectangular coil of 200 turns of wire, 15 cm × 40 cm makes 50 revolutions/second about an axis perpendicular to the magnetic field of 0.08 weber/m2. What is the instantaneous value of induced emf when the palne of the coil makes an angle with the magnetic lines of force (i) 0⁰ (ii) 60⁰ and (iii) 90⁰?

Q-20 A solenoidal coil has 50 turns per centimeter aling its length and a cross-sectional area of 4 × 10 -4 m2. 200 turns of another wire are wound round the first solenoid coaxially. The two coils are electrically insulated from each other. Calculate the mutual inductance between the two coils. Given μₒ=4π × 10-7

NA-2.

Q-21 (a) A toroidal solenoid with an air-core has an average radius of 15 cm, area of cross section 12 cm2 and 1200 turns. Obtain the self inductance of the toroid. Ignore field variation across the cross-section of the toroid.

(b) A second coil of 300 turns is wound closely on the toroid above. If the current in the primary coil is increased from zero to 2.0 A in 0.05 s, obtain the induced emf in the second coil.

Q-22 If the current in the primary circuit of a pair of coils changes from 10 A to 0 in ).1 s, calculate

(i) the induced emf in the secondary if the mutual inductance between the coils is 2H, and

(ii) the change of flux per turn in the secondary if it has 500 turns.

Q-23 Will there be any current induced in the coil shown in fig., if a bar magnet is swiftly moved towards or away from the coil. If yes, what will be the direction of current?

Q-24 Fig. shows two positions of a loop PQR in a perpendicular uniform magnetic field . In which position of the coil is there an induced emf?

Q-25 A square metal wire loop of side 10 cm and resistance 1 Ω is moved with a constant velocity vₒ in a uniform magnetic field of induction B=2 Wbm-2 as shown in fig. the magnetic lines are perpendicular to the plane of the loop (directed into the paper). The loop is connected to a network of resistors each of value 3 Ω. The resistances of loop wires OS and PQ are negligible. What should be the speed of the loop so as to have a steady current of 1 mA in the loop? Give the direction of the current in the loop ?

Q-26 In fig., a square loop has 100 turns, an area of 2.5 × 10-3 m2 and a reistance of 100 Ω. The perpendicular magnetic field has a magnitude of 0.40 T. if the loop is slowly and uniformly pulled out of the field in 1.0 s, find the work done.

Q-27 A circular coil of radius 8 cm and 20 turns rotates about its vertical diameter with an angular speed of 50 rad s-1 in a uniform horizontal magnetic field of magnitude 3.0 × 10-2 T. obtain the maximum and the average emf induced in the coil. If the coil forms a closed loop of resistance 10 Ω, calculate the maximum value of current in the coil. Calculate the average power loss due to Joule heating. Where does this power come from?

Q-28 A jet plane is travelling west at the speed of 1800 kmh-1. What is the voltage difference developed between the ends of the wing 25 m long, if the earth’s magnetic field at the location has a magnitude of 5.0 × 10-4 T and the dip angle is 30⁰?

Q-29 A coil has an inductance of 1 H. (i) At what frequency will it have a reactance of 3142 Ω ? (ii) What should be the capacity of a capacitor which has the same resistance at that frequency?

Q-30 An a.c. circuit consists of only an inductor of inductance 2 H. if current is represented by a sine wave of amplitude 0.25 A and frequency 60 Hz, calculate the effective potential difference ( Veff ) across the inductor. (π=3.14)

Q-31 A 1.50 μF capacitor is connected to a 220 V, 50 Hz source. Find the capacitive reactance and the current ( rms and peak ) in the circuit. If the frequency is doubled, what happens to the capacitive reactance and the current?

Q-32 A capacitor of 1 μF is connected to an a.c. source of emf E=250 sin 100π t. write an equation for instantaneous current through the circuit and give reading of a.c. ammeter connected in the circuit.

Q-33 A coil when connected across a 10 V d.c. supply draws a current of 2 A. when it is connected across a 10 V – 50 Hz a.c. supply, the same coil draws a current of 1 A. Explain why it draws lesser current in the second case. Hence determine the self inductance of the coil ( take π=3 ).

Q-34 An 80 V, 800 W heater is to be operated on a 100 V , 50 Hz supply. Calculate the inductance of the choke required.

Q-35 A student connects a long air core coil of magnanin wire to a 100 V d.c. sourceand records a current of 1.5 A. when the same coil is connected across 100 V, 50 Hz a.c. source the current reduces to 1.0 A.

(i) Give reason for this observation.

(ii) Calculate the value of the reactance of the coil.

Q-36 When 200 volts d.c. are applied across a coil, a current of 2 A flows through it. When 200 V a.c.of 50 cps are applied to the same coil, only 1.0 A flows. Calculate the resistance, impedance and inductance of the coil.

Q-37 A 60 – 10 W electric lamp is to be run on 100 V- 60 Hz mains.(i) Calculate the inductance of the choke required. (ii) If a resistor is to be used in place of choke coil to achieve the same result, calculate its value.

Q-38 A 12 Ω resistance and an inductance of 0.05/π H are connected in series. Across the ends of the circuit is connected a 130 v a.c. supply of 50 Hz. Calculate (i) the current in the circuit and (ii) Phase difference between the current and voltage.

Q-39 In the circuit shown in fig., the potential difference across the inductor L and resistor R are 120 V and 90 V respectively and the rms value of current is 3 A. calculate (i) the impedence of the circuit and (ii) the phase angle between the voltage and current.

Q-40 The virtual current in the a.c. circuit is shown in fig. is 10 A. find (i) virtual voltage across the coil L, (ii) impedance of the circuit and (iii) reactance of the coil.

Subject : Biology

Revision Assignment - 1 for Unit Test 1

Unit covered-1 (Reproduction)

Q1. In haploid organisms that undergo sexual reproduction,name the stage in the life cycle when meiosis occurs. Give reasons for your answer.

Q2 The flower of brinjal is reffered to as chasmogamous while that of beans is cleistogamous. How are they different from each other?

Q3 Where are Leydig cells located. What do they secrete?

Q4 What is corpus luteum. How is it formed. How does it function as an endocrine gland.

Q5. Are pollination and fertilization necessary in apomixes?Give reasons

Q6 What is parturition. Where do the Signals for it originate from?

Q7 Why is there a statutory ban on amniocentasis? Why is the technique so named?

Q8 Both coconut palm and date palm produce staminate flowers. One is monoecious and other is dioecious. Write the difference.

Q9 Define infertility. Write some causes of infertility. Name some assisted reproductive technologies to check the problem.

Q10 Give reasons as to why cell division cannot be a type of reproduction in multicellular organisms.

Q11 Trace Diagramatically the development of female gametophyte (embryosac) from MMC in a flower. Give a labelled diagram of final stage of female gametophyte.

Q12 Why is autogamy discouraged in plants? Mention 4 adaptations they have to ensure xenogamy.

Q13 What is menstrual cycle. Write down the hormonal control over the menstrual cycle. Mention briefly the role played by pituitary harmone and ovarian hormone in menstrual cycle.

Q14. What is polyembryony and how can it be commercially exploited ?

Q15 Banana is a partenocarpic fruit,whereas oranges show polyembryony.How are they different from each other with respect to seeds?

Q16 What is Oogenesis ? What are the steps of Oogenesis ? Explain them by flow chart.

Q 17 Name any three methods of contraceptives. Explain all of them.

Q 18 Incompatibility is a natural barrier in the fusion of gametes. Justify the statement.

Q 19 Explain why the first half of menstrual cycle is called proliferative phase .

Q 20 A mother of one year old daughter wanted to space her second child.Her doctor suggested CuT.Explain its contraceptive actions.

Q 21 In an angiosperm, the embryo sac is haloid,zygote is diploid and endosperm is triploid. Justify giving reasons for each stage.

Q 22 Show diagrammatically the stages of embryonic development of zygote upto implantation of blastocyst in uterus.

Q 23 Do practice of following diagrams :

(i) T.S of mature another.

(ii) An angiospermic ovule.

(iii) T.S. seminiferous tubule.(iv) Structure of a sperm (Human)(v) L.S of maize grain.

Q24 How do ‘implants’ act as an effective method of contraceptionin human

females? Mention its one advantage over contraceptive pills.

Q25 Expand the following:

(i) ART (ii) GIFT (iii) ICSI (iv) IUI (v) RTI

Subject : Biology

Revision Assignment 2 for Unit Test 2

Unit Covered - 2 (Genetics)

Chapter-1: Principle of Inheritance and Variation

Two Marks Questions

Q-1 Why is drosophila male fly referred as heterogametic& female is homogametic?

Q-2 Name the mechanism by which new alleles appear in a population.

Q-3 What is the cause of klinfelter syndrome? Mention its symptoms.

Q-4 Name the process of removing stamens from flower bud during hybridization. Why?

Q-5 How many autosomes are present in human sperm? Is it haploid or diploid?

Q-6 Name the animal which Morgan selected for his cytogenetic studies. Why?

Q-7 How many genes are responsible for?

(i) ABO system of blood group. Q-8 Who proposed chromosomal theory of inheritance? Write its main points.

Q-9 In human, genetically the sex of the child is determined by father not by mother. Explain?

Q-10. Why the son of a carrier mother and a normal father may be sufferer of haemophilia where as the son of haemophilic father and normal mother would not be? Under what circumstances it is possible for both the father and son to the sufferer from this trait?

Q-11 What is the cytological basis of Down’s syndrome? Give two physical symptoms of this disorder. Explain why the children borne to young women seldom show this abnormality?

Q-12 Differentiate between the following: -

(i) Down syndrome & Turner’s syndrome.

(ii) Complete linkage and incomplete linkage.

(iii) Back cross and Reciprocal cross.

(iv) Monohybrid and Dihybrid.

Q-13 What is test cross? How doest it differ from reciprocal cross?

Q-14 What is co-dominance? How is it different from dominance?

Q-15 Describe the mechanism of Inheritance of ABO system of blood groups, highlighting the principles of genetics involved in it.

Q-16 Explain phenomenon of multiple allelism and co-dominance by taking example of ABO blood group in human.

Q-17 What are similarities between the behavior of genes during inheritance and chromosome during cell division.

Q-18 What is pedigree analysis? What are the symbols used in such analysis. What is the utility of pedigree analysis?

Q-19 Haemophilia victims are mostly men very rarely women are affected by this defect why is it so?

Q-20 A man with AB blood group has married a woman with O group. Show the possible genotype and phenotype of progeny.

5 Marks Questions

Q-21 (i) Using punnet square trace through two generation, the details of a dihybrid cross between homozygous round yellow and wrinkled green seed varieties of pea plan.

(ii) Give F2 phenotypic ratio.

(iii) Identify the Mendalian principles with this ratio refers to.

Q-22 State three Mendalian principles of heredity. Describe any one cross in which Mendel got the phenotypic ratio 9:3:3:1.

Q-23 How are genetic disorder broadly classified? Explain with two examples for each.

Ch-2: Molecular basis of Inheritance and Evolution Two Marks Questions

Q-1 What is point mutation? Give an example.

Q-2 What is the function of enzyme Ligase & DNA polymerase?

Q-3 In what direction is the leading &lagging strand synthesised during DNA

replication.

Q-4 Give the initiation codon for protein synthesis. Name the amino acid it code for.

Q-5 What are introns and Exons,

Q-6 Name the enzyme that joins the short pieces in the logging strand during synthesis of DNA.

Q-7 What is meant by convergent & divergent evolution? Give examples.

Q-8 State Hardy- Weinberg’s principle. Write its equation.

2 or 3 Marks Questions

Q-9 Differentiate between template and coding strand.

Q-10 If the sequence of the coding strand in a transcription unit is written as follows:-

5’-A T G C A T G C A T GC A T G C A T G C A T 3’.

Write the sequence on mRNA.

Q-11 Write full forms of VNTS. How is VNTRS different from probe?

Q-12 Three cordons on m RNA are not recognized by t RNA. What are they? What is the general term used for them? What is their significance?

Q-13 Differentiate between codon and anticodon.

Q-14 What are three essential requirements of genetic material?

Q-15 How did Hershey and chase prove that DNA is the genetic material?

Q-16 Explain the steps involved in elongation of polypeptide chain during protein synthesis.

Q-17 What is a primer required during DNA synthesis? How is it formed? What for is it required inside a cell?

Q-18 What is meant by contact inhibition?

Q-19 What is inducer in the Lac operon? How does it ensure the ‘switching on’ of genes?

Q-20 Differentiate between euchromatin and Heterochromatin.

Q-21 What are non-hostone chorosomal proteins? What is their function?

Q-22 Give two reasons why both the strand of DNA are not copied during transcription?

Q-23 What is meant by R-cells and S-cells with which Fredrick Griffith carried out his experiments on Diplococcus pneumonia? What did he prove from these experiments?

Q-24 What are the three types of RNA? Mention their role in protein synthesis?

Q-25 How is nucleosome formed? Draw the diagram of a nucleosome?

Q-26 How does the hn RNA become the m RNA?

Q-27 How did Urey and Miller provide the conditions for primitive earth to prove the origin of life in their experiments?

Q-28 How did industrial melanism bring about the action of Natural selection?

Q-29 What does Oparin-Haldane hyprothesis about origin of life suggest? Who provided support to their hypothesis?

Q-30 Explain briefly how the principle of natural selection can be applied to the development of resistance in mosquitoes for DDT.

5 Mark Questions.

Q-31 (i)Describe the three different methods in which natural selection can produce

the change in the allelic frequencies of a population.

(ii)Name the common ancestor of ferns horsetails and gymnosperms.

Q-32 What does Lac operon consist of? How is the operator switch turned on and off in the expression of gene in this operon? Explain.

Q-33 Name and describe the factor that effect Hardy- Weinberg’s equilibrium?

Q-34 Explain the steps involved in a polypeptide synthesis. How are amino acids activated during polypeptide synthesis?

Q-35 What is meant by semiconservative mode replication? How did Meselon and stahl prove it experimentally?

Q-36 Illustrated below is a DNA segment which constitute a gene

S’ 3’

B’ 5’

(i) Will the whole gene be transcribed into RNA primarily? State ‘Yes” or ‘No’.

(ii) Name the shaded and unshaded parts of the gene. (iii) Explain how genes expressed?

(iv) How is this gene different from prokaryotic gene in its expression? Q-37 Describe the process of transcription of m RNA in an eukaryotic cell.

Q-38 What is satellite DNA? Name their two types. Mention the basis for the classification of satellite DNA.

Q-39 Describe the detail steps in the technique of DNA fingerprinting.

Q-40 Define bacterial transformation. Who demonstrated it experimentally and how?

Assignment for SA-1

Class-XII, Subject Biology

Unit covered:-3 (Biology in human welfare)

Chapters:- 1.Human Health & Disease. 2. Strategies for Enhancement in food production. 3. Microbes in human welfare.

1. What are hallucinogens and cannabinoids? Give two examples of each. Which system of the body get affected by them?

2. How do auto immune disease occur? Give an example.3. Differentiate between proto-oncogenes & oncogenes.4. What is metastasis? How it occurs?5. Differentiate between benign tumour & malignant tumour.6. What are allergen? How do they cause inflammatory response?7. What bad effect has Tobacco on respiratory system name to toxic substance

present in Tobacco.8. Explain LSD. What is source of LSD. What harm does it occur?9. What are desirable characters of bee variety suitable for bee keeping?

10. Discuss the role of plant breeding in enhancing food production.11. Explain the process of heterosis. How is it different from inbreeding depression.12. What is genetic manipulation? How it is useful in agricultural practices.13. What are opioids? Give their source & effect. Why is heroin called most dangerous

drug?14. Discuss the role of following with the reference to immunity.

1. Antibodies2. Helper-t cells 3. Interferon4. Phagocytes

15. What are interferon? How do they help in developing resistance to infections?16. Draw flow-chart to depict the multiplications of an HIV virus in host cell.17. What are difference ways to develop immunity? Write two difference between

active & passive immunity.18. What are single cell protein? Write the advantages & process of production of SCP.19. What is role of tissue culture in production of somaclones & somatic hybridization

for improvement of crops ?20. Write the causative organisms for the following disease. Mention their symptoms

also.1. Typhoid2. Elephantiasis3. Amoebiasis

21. What is alcoholism? Write the reason of alcoholism. Mention the ill effect of alcohol on liver.

22. Name the microbe involved in preparation of Bread & Swiss cheese. 23. What is sewage? Differentiate between primary & secondary treatment of

sewage. 24. Why is cattle drug used to produce the biogas? 25. Why are biogas plant mainly located in rural areas?

26. Define mycorrhizae? How are partners mutually beneficial to each other? 27. Show the relationship b/w BOD & dissolved oxygen. What is ill effect of

increase in BOD in water? 28. Explain the secondary treatment of sewage? 29. Discuss the role of various fungi in fermentation processes to produce

household products? 30. Give the Scientific name of the most common species of Honey Bee reared

in India. Why is it Advantageous to keep beehives in crop- fields during flowering periods?

31. MOET programme has helped in increasing the herd size of the desired variety of cattle. List the steps involved in conducting programme

32. Mention the cause and effect of inbreeding depression in cattle. How can it be overcome? Explain.33. What is Mutation? List the step how mutation breeding is carried out in agricultural crop.34. What are induced mutations? Give one example each of physical and chemical mutagen.35. How are somaclones cultured from explants in in vitro conditions? Why somaclones are called so?36. How does addition of a small amount of curd to fresh milk help in the formation of curd? Mention a nutritional quality that gets added to the curd.

37. (a)Baculoviruses are excellent candidates for integrated pest management in an ecologically sensitive area. Explain giving two reasons. (b) What is organic farming? Why is it suggested to switch over to organic

farming? 38. What are biofertilizers? Name the categories of organisms used as biofertilizers with example for each. How do they function in organic farming? 39. What is meant by the following:

1. Somatic hybrid2. Micropropagation

3. Explant4. Somaclones5. Tissue culture40. What are the two groups of cells that work for specific immunity?Explain

four unique features of specific immunity.

Subject : Computer Science

Assignment 1

Chapters Covered- 1

(1) Give two examples of object oriented language.

(2) Give the output :

# include <iostream.h>

void main ( )

int i , r ;

for ( i = 1 ; i <= 5 ; i ++ )

r = tot ( i ) ;

cout<<”\n The total is = “<< r ;

void tot ( int x )

static int s = 0;

s + = x ;

return (s);

(3) Find the output

#include<iostream.h>

int x = 10;

void pass( int &a, int b, int &c)

int x =4;

c+=x;

a*=::x;

b+=c;

void main()

int y=1, x=2;

pass(y, ::x, x);

cout<<x<<’:’<<y<<’:’<<::x<<endl;

pass(::x,x,y);

cout<< x<<’:’<<y<<’:’<<::x<<endl;

(4) Can cin operator read the space?

(5) How cout and puts differ from each other?

(6) Illustrate the use of #define to define a macro.

(7) Illustrate the use of inline functions with the help of an example.

(8) What is the difference between #define and constant?

(9) What is the purpose of using typedef command in c++?

(10)

What is a reference variable?

(11)

What is the difference between type casting and automatic type conversion?

(12)

Differentiate between ‘x’ and “x”.

(13)

Write a single statement to find largest of three numbers.

(14)

Exchange two variables without using third variable.

(15)

Write two console I/O functions.

(16)

Write any two built in functions.

(17)

How many values are returned by a function?

(18)

A function printchar is defined as

void printchar(char ch=’*’ , int len =40)

for (int x= 0; x< len, x++)

cout<<ch;

How will you invoke the function printchar for following output:

(i) To print ‘*’ 40 times(ii) To print ‘*’ 20 times

(iii) To print ‘=’ 40 times

(iv) To print ‘=’ 30 times

(19)

Rewrite the following program after removing the syntactical error(s), if any.Underline each correction.

#include <iostream.h>

const int multiple 3;

void main ()

value=15;

for (int counter = 1;counter=<5;counter++,value - =2)

if (value%multiple==0)

cout<< value * multiple << endl;

else

cout<< value+multiple << endl;

(20)

Rewrite the following C++ program after removing all the syntactical errors (if

any), underlining each correction. :

include<iostream.h>

#define PI=3.14

void main( )

float r;a;

cout<<’enter any radius’;

cin>>r;

a=PI*pow(r,2);

cout<<”Area=”<<a

(21)

Write the header files to which the following functions belong:

(i) getc ( ) (ii) isalnum ( ) (iii) scanf ( ) (iv) gotoxy ( )

(22)

Write the related library function name based upon the given information in

C++.

(i) Get single character using keyboard. This function is available in stdio.h file.

(ii) To check whether given character is alpha numeric character or not. This

function is available in ctype.h file.

Subject : Computer Science

Assignment 2

Chapter 9: Data Structures - Arrays

1. Write a function in C++ which accepts an integer array and its size as arguments / parameters and assign

the elements into a two dimensional array of integers in the following format:

If the array is : 1,2,3,4,5,6 If the array is 1,2,3

The resultant 2D array is given below The resultant 2D array is given below

1 0 0 0 0 0 1 0 0

1 2 0 0 0 0 1 2 0

1 2 3 0 0 0 1 2 3

1 2 3 4 0 0

1 2 3 4 5 0

1 2 3 4 5 6

2. An array MAT[20][10] is stored in the memory along the row with each element occupying 4 bytes of

memory . Find out the base address and the address of element MAT[10][5] , if the location of MAT[3][7]

is stored at the address 1000.

3. Write a function in C++ which accepts an integer array and its size as arguments/parameters and

exchanges the values of first half side elements with the second half side elements of the array.

Example:

If an array of eight elements has initial content as

2 , 4 , 1 , 6 , 7 , 9 , 2 3 , 1 0

The function should rearrange the array as

7 , 9 , 2 3 , 1 0 , 2 , 4 , 1 , 6

4. An array Arr[15][35] is stored in the memory along the column with each of its elements occupying 8

bytes. Find out the base address and the address of an element Arr[2][5], if the location Arr[5][10] is

stored at the address 4000.

5. An array Arr[35][15] is stored in the memory along the row with each of its element occupying 4 bytes.

Find out the base address and the address of an element Arr[20][5], if the location Arr[2][2] is stored at

the address 3000.

6. Define a function SwapArray( int [ ], int), that would accept a one dimensional integer array NUMBERS

and its size N. The function should rearrange the array in such a way that the values of alternate locations

of the array are exchanged (Assume the size of the array to be even)

Example :

If the array initially contains

2, 5, 9, 14, 17, 8, 19, 16,

then after rearrangement the array should contain

5, 2, 14, 9, 8, 17, 16, 19

7. An array ARR[5][5] is stored in the memory with each element occupying 2 bytes of space. Assuming the

base address of ARR to be 1500, compute the address of ARR[2][4], when the array is stored :

(i) Row Wise

(ii) Column Wise

8. Write a function in C++ to find the sum of diagonal elements from a 2 dimensional array of type float. Use

the array and its size as parameters with float as its return type.

9. Write a function in C++ to print the sum of all the values which are either divisible by 3 or are divisible by 5

present in a two dimensional array passed as a argument to the function.

10. Define a function Reversearray (int[ ], int) that would accept a one dimensional integer array NUMBERS

and its size N. The function should reverse the contents of the array without using any second array. Example

:

If the array initially contains

2, 5, 9, 14, 17, 8, 19, 16,

then after rearrangement the array should contain

1 6 , 1 9 , 8 , 1 7 , 1 4 , 9 , 5 , 2

11. Write a function check( ) to check if the passed array of 10 integers is sorted or not. The function should

retuen 1 if arranged in ascending order, -1 if arranged in descending order , 0 if it is not sorted.

12. Write a user defined function in C++ to display the sum of each row of a two dimensional array p[2][4]

containing integers.

13. Write a user defined function in C++ to display the sum of each column of a two dimensional array R[7]

[7] containing integers.

14. Assuming an array E containing elements of structure Employee is required to be arranged in descending

order of salary. Write a function to arrange the same with the help of bubble sort. The array and its size is

required to be passed as parameters to the function. Definition of structure is as follows:

struct Employee

int eno ;

char name[25];

float salary;

;

15. Write a function to sort the passed array of 10 integers in descending order using insertion sort.

16. Write a function to sort the passed array of 10 integers using selection sort.

17. Write a function in C++ to combine the contents of two equi sized arrays A and B by computing their

corresponding elements with th formula 2 * A[i] + 3 * B [i] , where value I varies from 0 to N-1 and

transfer the resultant content in the third same sized array.

18. From a two dimensional array A[3][4] , write a function to prepare a one dimensional array R[12] that

will have all the elements of A as if they are stored in column major form. For example, if array A is

1 2 3 4

5 6 7 8

9 10 11 12

The resultant array R should be

(i) 1 5 9 2 6 10 3 7 11 4 8

12

19. Write a function to merge the contents of two sorted arrays A and B into third array C . Assume array

A is sorted in ascending order, B is sorted in descending order, the array C is required to be in

ascending order.

20. Let A be N X N two dimensional array . Write user defined functions in c++ for the following :

(i) to find the number of non zero elements in A.

(ii) to find the sum of all the elements in A.

(iii) to find the sum of all the elements above the diagonal.

(iv) to find the sum of all the elements below the diagonal.

(v) To find the product of all the elements A[I][J] for which I ≠ J.

(vi) To find whether the array is symmetric , that is , whether

A[ I ] [ J ] = A[ J ] [ I ] FO R 0 ≤ I ≤ N - 1 , 0 ≤ J ≤ N -1

(vi) to find transpose of A and store the result in new array T of size N X N.

21. Suppose a one dimensional array AR containing integers is arranged in ascending order. Write a

function to search for one integer from AR with Binary Search method, returning an integer 0 to show

absence of the number and integer 1 to show presence of the number in the array. The function

should have three parameters: (1) an array AR (2) the number to be searched and (3) the number of

elements N in the array.

22. Given two arrays of integers X and Y of sizes m and n resp. Write a function Merge( ) which will

produce a third array named Z , such that the following sequence is followed :

All odd numbers of X from left to right are copied into Z from left to right.

All even numbers of X from left to right are copied into Z from right to left.

All odd numbers of X from left to right are copied into Z from left to right.

All even numbers of X from left to right are copied into Z from right to left.

Eg. : If X is 3 , 2 , 1 , 7 , 6 , 3 and Y is 9 , 3 , 5 , 6 , 2 , 8 , 1 0

The resultant array Z is 3 , 1 , 7 , 3 , 9 , 3 , 5 , 1 0 , 8 , 2 , 6 , 6 , 2 .

23. Write a function named Upper_half( ) which takes a two dimensional array A , with size N rows and N

columns as argument and prints the upper half of the array.

For Example ,

2 3 1 5 0 2 3 1 5 0

7 1 5 3 1 1 5 3 1

If A is 2 5 7 8 1 The output will be 7 8 1

0 1 5 0 1 0 1

3 4 9 1 5 5

24. The array a[20][10] is stored in the memory with each element requiring one byte if storage if the

base address of A is C0, determine the location of A[10][5] when the array is stored by column major.

25. Write a program to perform following operations on matrices . Use functions in this program.

(a) To input a matrix.

(b) (b)To display a matrix.

(c)To find sum of 2 matrices.

(d)To find difference of 2 matrices.

(e)To find product of 2 matrices.

26. Write a function to find maximum value of integers stored in a two dimensional array.

27. Write a program to check if a string is a palindrome or not.

28. 2-D array defined as A[4..7, -1..3] requires two words of storage space for each element . If the array

is stored in row major form , calculate the address of A[6,2] given the base address as 100.

29. An array V[15][30] is stored in the memory with each element requiring 8 bytes of storage . If V[8][12]

is stored at 7316 and V[12 ][2] is stored at 8196, find the address of V[6][5].

30. The following array of integers is to be arranged in ascending order

12 2 16 30 8 28 4 10 20 6 18

Give the contents of the array after each iteration using

(i) Selection Sort

(ii) Bubble sort

(ii) Insertion sort

Subject : Computer Science

Assignment 3

Chapters Covered- 2,3,4,5

(1) What is Encapsulation? How is it implemented in C++?

(2) What is Data Hiding? Give a suitable example.

(3) What is Polymorphism? How is it implemented in C++?

(4) What is Abstraction? How is it implemented in C++?

(5) Differentiate between procedural programming paradigm and OOPs.

(6) Write a program to show function overloading?

(7) How is function overloading different from functions with default arguments?

(8) Define a class Customer with the following specifications.

Private Members :

Customer_no integer

Customer_name char (20)

Qty integer

Price, TotalPrice, Discount, Netprice float

Member Functions:

Public members:

* A constructer to assign initial values of Customer_no as 111,Customer_name as “Leena”, Quantity as 0 and Price, Discount and Netprice as 0.

*Input( ) – to read data members(Customer_no, Customer_name, Quantity and Price) call Caldiscount().

* Caldiscount ( ) – To calculate Discount according to TotalPrice and NetPrice

TotalPrice = Price*Qty

TotalPrice >=50000 – Discount 25% of TotalPrice

TotalPrice >=25000 and TotalPrice <50000 - Discount 15% of TotalPrice

TotalPrice <250000 - Discount 10% of TotalPrice

Netprice= TotalPrice- Discount

*Show( ) – to display Customer details.

(9) Differentiate between private and protected members of the class.

(10) How do you access the members of a class

(a) Inside a member function?(b) Inside a non member function?

(11) Discuss pros and cons of inline functions.

(12) How is memory allocated to data members and member functions of a class.

(13) What are static members of a class?

(14) What are different types of constructors? Explain with a suitable example.

(15) Write situations in which a copy constructor is called?

(16) State the difference between copy constructor and assignment operator.

(17) Answer the questions (i) and (ii) after going through the following C++ class: [2]

class Stream

int StreamCode ; char Streamname[20];float fees;

public:

Stream( ) //Function 1

StreamCode=1; strcpy (Streamname,"DELHI"); fees=1000;

void display(float C) //Function 2

cout<<StreamCode<<":"<<Streamname<<":"<<fees<<endl;

~Stream( ) //Function 3

cout<<"End of Stream Object"<<endl;

Stream (int SC,char S[ ],float F) ; //Function 4

;

i) In Object Oriented Programming, what are Function 1 and Function 4 combined together referred as? Write the definition of function 4.

ii) What is the difference between the following statements?

Stream S(11,”Science”,8700); Stream S=Stream(11,”Science”,8700);

(18) Answer the questions (i) and (ii) after going through the following class:

class fun

int x,y,z ;

public:

fun (int a,int b,int c) //constructor 1

x=a;

y = b;

z = c;

fun(& fun); //constructor 2

;

(i) Create an object such that it invokes constructor 1.

(ii) Write complete definition for constructor 2.

(19) What will be the output of the following program:

#include<iostream.h>

class myclass

int a,b;

public :

myclass( int x, int y);

void show();

;

myclass :: myclass (int x, int y)

cout<<”in constructor”;

a = x;

b = y;

void myclass :: show( )

cout <<a << ‘ ‘<<b<<’\n’;

int main()

myclass ob(7,9);

ob.show();

return 0;

(20) What is an explicit constructor?

Subject : Multimedia & Web Technology

Class: XII

Revision Assignment 2 for Unit Test 2

1. In which of the following situations is it essential to use a server side script such as ASP? Justifyi. Validation of data entered by the user in a form.

ii. Showing data stired in a database on the server.iii. Showing the number of visitors to a website.iv. Increasing the size of an image when the curser is brought over it.

2. Explain the difference between ASP and HTML ? What are the advantages of ASP.3. What do you understand by Server side scripting?4. Explain with example the difference between implicit and explicit declaration of variables.5. How IF ..ELSE…END IF is different from SELECT CASE….END SELECT statement ? explain with syntax .6. Can we write both ASP and HTML code in one page? If yes, with what extension is it saved and how is it

processed ? if not why not?7. Name two technologies that are equivalent to ASP.8. Differentiate between MONTH() and MONTHNAME() functions.9. What is a recordSet?10. Name the methods used for :

i. Moving the cursor to the last record in the recordset ii. Adding a new record to the database

11. Explain the use of the Flush and Redirect methods of the response object.12. Name the object or component used for the following:

i. To show the value stored in a cookie.ii. To show banner advertisement about an error condition that has occurred in the script.

iii. To obtain information about an error condition that has occurred in the script.13. Write the command to remove the leading and trailing spaces from a character variable NAME, where NAME

=”##Smriti#Malhotra###”.(where # denotes the blank spaces)14. Write the difference between Sub Procedure and Function15. Find output

a) Response.write(ucase(mid(“ WEB TECHNOLOGY”,2,3))

b) Response.write(instr(“mistrust or DISTRUST” , “st”)c) Response.write( Right (“ CLASS XII , HOUR(#4:30:10 AM#)d) Response.write(INSTR ( LTRIM ( “ WEB TECHNOLOGY”) , “LOGY”))e) Response.write(LCASE(MID(“HeLLoW HoW ARe YoU “ , 3 , 9 )))f) Response.write( LTRIM(RIGHT(“congratulation##### ” , 9)))g) Response.write(( 13/5 >4 MOD 5) OR (2^3^2+19\2))h) Response.write(LCASE(LEFT(“STATEMENT”,4)))i) Response.Write(MonthName(Month(Cdate(“02/03/2006”))))j) Response.write(INT(-20*3/9+4))k) Response.write(MONTH(Date())+15))l) Response.write(ISNUMERIC(MID(“T20Match”,3,5)))

16. Name different data types supported by ASP.17. What do you understand by Dynamic array ? How is it declared ?

15. Identify the name the following:i. The keyword used to define a constant in ASP

ii. The Default primary Scripting language used in ASP.

18.

a) Convert the following coding in to for ………..next loop

<html>

<body>

<%

dim a,b,c,d,e,sum

a=1,b=20,c=3,d=4,e=5

do while b>=10

sum=a+b+c+d+e

a=a+3

b=b-7

c=c+3

d=d*4

e=e/2

loop %>

</body>

</html>

b. Convert the following coding in to do while ------loop

<html>

<body>

<%

s=array(12,45,87,54,90,76)

max=ubound(s)

for I = max to 1 step -2

s(I) = 10*s(I)

response.write (arr(I) & “<br>”)

next %>

</body>

</html>

19. Find the output of the following ASP coding

a) <html>

<body>

<%

i=7

b) <html>

<body>

<%

atx=array(10,20,30,40,50,60)

min=0

do while(i>=min)

atx(i)= atx(i)\3

i=i-2

response.write(atx(i))

loop %>

</body>

</html>

s=”mistrust or distrust”

m=len(s)

for I =max to 1 step 2

n=mid(s, I,2)

response.write (n)

response.write (“<br>”>

next %>

</body>

</html>

c) <% ans=0

I=1

Do while I<=3

Ans=ans+ analysis(i)

I=I+1

Response.write(ans)

Loop

Function analysis(a)

Analysis=a*a*a

End function

d) <% y=5

for x=1 to 5

if x>y then

document.write(y)

else

document.write(x)

end if

next %>

Class XII : Session 2015-16

Multimedia – Assignment

Topic : Communication and Network Concepts

1. Compare Optical Fiber and Coaxial transmission media. 2. Expand the following terminologies:

HTML,GSM,CDMA,XML,DHTML, WLL, ISP,FTP,URL ,ARPANET, NFS

3. Give two differences between XML and HTML.4. Define interspace.5. What do you understand by the terms Cookies and Firewall.6. What is the difference between Message switching technique and Packet switching technique.7. Give two applications of Cyber law.8. What is topology? Write two advantages and two disadvantages of star topology.9. Write one difference between Telnet and FTP.10. Define Circuit switching.

11. Explain the following terms in short: ISP, FTP , URL ,NIU12. What is the significance of ARPANET in the network?13. Give two major reasons to have network security.14. What is the purpose of using a web browser? Name two web browsers.15. Define the term bandwidth. Give unit of bandwidth.16. Explain the terms Bridge and Gateway.17. What is networking? Mention advantages of networking.18. When should switch be preferred over networking devices.19. Define protocol.20. Define following protocols

FTP, TCP/IP , SLIP/PPP , HTTP

21. What is a repeater and a router?22. What is the use of Modem.23. Differentiate between LAN,MAN and WAN.24. A company wants to form a network of their five computers to a server within the company premises.

Represent STAR ,BUS and RING topologies diagrammatically for this network.25. What is a hub? 26. What is 80-20 rule for network design?27. What is Telnet?28. What are the various media used for data transmission in a network system?29. What are different switching techniques?30. Give the advantages of Email and world wide web services provided by Internet.31. Differentiate between GSM and CDMA.

32. Write a short note on WLL.Do problems from book on page 732 , type C- Q 5 , 6

(1). (a) What is the difference between Message Switching technique and Packet

Switching technique?

(b) Expand the following terminologies :

(i) TCP/IP

(ii) XML

(iii) CDMA

(iv) WLL

(c) Write two application of Cyber Law. 1

(d) The Great Brain Organization has set up its new Branch at Srinagar for its office

and web based activities. It has 4 Wings of buildings as shown in the diagram :

Center to center distances between various blocks

Wing X to Wing Z 50m

Wing Z to Wing Y 70m

Wing Y to Wing X 125m

Wing Y to Wing U 80m

Wing X to Wing U 175m

Wing Z to Wing U 90m

Number of Computers

Wing X 50

Wing Z 30

Wing Y 150

Wing U 15

(i) Suggest a most suitable cable layout of connections between the Wings, and topology.

(ii) Suggest the most suitable place (i.e. Wing) to house the server of this organisation

with a suitable reason, with justification.

(iii) Suggest the placement of the following devices with justification:

(1) Repeater

(2) Hub/Switch

(iv) The organization is planning to link its head office situated in Delhi with the offices

at Srinagar. Suggest an economic way to connect it; the company is ready to

compromise on the speed of connectivity. Justify your answer.

.(2) (a) Compare Optical Fiber and Coaxial transmission media.

(b) Expand the following terminologies :

(i) HTML

(ii) GSM

(c) What is the difference between XML and HTML ? Write two differences.

(d) What do you understand by the terms Cookies and Firewall ?

(e) The Cyber Mind Organisation has set up its new Branch at Mizoram for its office

and web based activities. It has 4 Wings of buildings as shown in the diagram :

Center to center distance between various blocks

Wing X to Wing Z 40 m

Wing Z to Wing Y 60 m

Wing Y to Wing X 135 m

Wing Y to Wing U 70 m

Wing X to Wing U 165 m

Wing Z to Wing U 80 m

Number of Computers

Wing X 50

Wing Z 130

Wing Y 40

Wing U 15

(el) Suggest a most suitable cable layout of connections between the Wings and

topology. 1

(e2) Suggest the most suitable place (i.e. Wing) to house the server of this

organization with a suitable reason with justification. 1

(e3) Suggest the placement of the following devices with justification : 1

(i) Repeater

(ii) Hub/Switch

(e4) The organization is planning to link its head office situated in Delhi with the

offices as Mizoram. Suggest an economic way to connect it; the company is

ready to compromise on the speed of connectivity. Justify your answer.

Subject : ChemistryAssignment 1

TOPICS: Solid State and Solutions1 How many octrahedral voids are there in 1 mole of a compound having cubic closed packed

structure.2 Why is Frenkel defect not found in pure alkali metal halides.3 Name a salt which is added to AgCl so as to produce cation vacancies.4 Which point defect lowers the density of a crystal.5 Why does LiCl acquires pink colour when heated in Li vapours.6 Give reasons:

(a) Why is Frenkel defect found in AgCl.(b) What is the difference between phosphorus doped and gallium doped silicon

semiconductors.7 The density of copper metal is 8.95 g/cm3. If the radius of copper atom be 127.8 pm, is the

copper unit cell simple cubic, body-centered cubic or face centered cubic.8 The well known mineral fluorite is chemically calcium fluoride. It is known that in one unit cell

of his mineral there are 4 Ca+2 ions and 8 F- ions and that Ca+2 ions are arranged in a fcc lattice. The F- ions fill all the tetrahedral holes in the fcc lattice of Ca+2 ions. The edge of the unit cell is 5.46X10-8 cm in the length. The density of the solid is 3.18 g/cm3. Use this information to calculate Avogadro’s number.(Molar mass of CaF2 = 78.08 g/mol)

9 Lithium metal has a body centered cubic structure. Its density is 0.53 g cm-3 and its molar mass is 6.94 g mol-1. Calculate the volume of a unit cell of lithium metal.

10 (a) What changes occur when AgCl is doped with CdCl2.(b)What type of semiconductor is produced when silicon is doped with boron.

11 Sodium crystallizes in a bcc unit cell. Calculate approximate number of unit cells in 9.2 g of sodium.

12 The CsCl has cubic structure of Cl- ions in which Cs+ ion is present in the body centre of the cube. Its density is 3.99 g cm-3.(a) Calculate the length of the edge of the unit cell.(b) What is the distance between Cs+ and Cl- ions.

13 Analysis shows that a metal oxide has the empirical formula M0.96O1.00 . Calculate the percentage of M+2 and M+3 ions in the crystal.

14 KF has ccp structure. Calculate the radius of the unit cell if the side of the cube or edge lengthis 400 pm. How many F- ions and octahedral voids are there in the unit cell.

15 In a cubic closed packed structure of mixed oxides, the lattice is made up of oxide ions, one eighth of tetrahedral voids are occupied by divalent ions (A+2 ) while one half of octrahedral voids are occupied by trivalent ions(B+3). What is the formula of the oxide.

16 Out of 1 Molar glucose and 1 molar NaCl solution, which has higher freezing point . 17 Does solubility of ammonia in water increase on increasing the temperature 18 What will happen to the vapour pressure of water if common salt is added to it. 19 What is the value of van’t hoff factor for K3[Fe(CN)6] when it is completely dissolved in water. 20 Do equimolar solution sucrose and sodium chloride have same osmotic pressure? Justify your answer. 21 Give the increasing order of boiling point of the following solution with reason. 0.2 m NaCl solution 0.5 urea solution 0.1 MgCl2 solution 22 Calculate the osmotic pressure of 2% urea of solution at 27 degree celcius. 2 gm of a non-

Subject : English Core (301)

Class – XII (2015-16)

Revision Assignment 2 for Unit Test 2

Topics covered

Writing: : Appeal, Advertisements, Poster, Official letters, Articles,Text Books : Deep Water, The Rattrap, Keeping Quiet, Should Wizard…, Novel : The Invisible Man (Ch 1-5)

Writing –Write answer (Q1- Q3) in 50 words. (4marks each)Q1 Draft a suitable appeal for the public requesting donation for building a free charitable hospital for the

poor and the needy.(Note : Write the cause (why you are doing so),where, and attraction to the donors, name the charitable society (Regd.) etc. (50 words) 4

Q2 A leading concern “Micro Tools India Ltd.” requires a Chartered Accountant. An individual with CA degree having two years experience of an MNC can apply to the General Manager, Brakes and Brakes Pvt. Ltd., 116 Sect. 62, Noida, Ghaziabad with complete resume within seven days. Draft the advertisement for the classified column of a newspaper in 50 words . 4

Q3 Design and draft a poster on ‘Save Girl, Educate Girl.’ in 50 words . 4 Q4 Write a letter to the superintendent of police informing him of the theft of your motorcycle. You are

Karan of 121 –A Sector 25 , Panchkula, Chandigarh . 6 Q5 Libraries play a vital role in the life of a student .Developing extensive reading habit and visiting

libraries frequently are the principal objectives of education. Write an article on the topic of role of libraries in academics in 150-200 words. 10

Q6 Write an article on ‘The need for revival of patriotic spirit amongst the youth in India’ in 150-200 words. 10

Q7 Literature– Understanding Based QuestionsShort answer questions-30-40 words (2marks each)(a) What is the poet’s concept of doing nothing in ‘Keeping Quiet’?

(b) How did the experience of conquering his fear of water have a deeper meaning for Douglas? (c) Pick two instances from the story ‘The Rattrap’ to show that the peddler realized that he himself

was trapped? (d) How did the wizard solve as well as create problem for Roger?

Q 8- HOTS- Long Answer Type Questions-125- 150 words. ((6 marks each) (a) Even after receiving training from the instructor why did Douglas not feel confident to swim? What

did he do to regain his confidence?(b) The story “The Rattrap’ is not only entertaining but also philosophical. Bring out the entertaining and

philosophical elements of the story. (c) Jo is no longer a passive listener to Jack’s stories. How? (d) Jack’s handling of the ending of his story projects him in a poor light as a father. Do you agree?

Why? Why not?

Q9 Value Based Questions -125-150 words (6 marks each)(1) A man who does nothing never gets any opportunity to succeed. Discuss the dictum in the light of the

following expressions: “…finally one October I decided to get an instructor…”(2) It is said that poverty is the root cause of all evils. The wrong doings are the offspring of misfortunes

and miseries. Do you agree? Justify your answer with reference to the story “The Rattrap”.(3) We infer from the story “Should Wizard Hit Mommy” that adults should not impose their perspective

on children. Justify your answer. Q10 Long Text Reading- The Invisible Man (Novel) -125-150 words (6 marks each) (a) Why was Mrs. Hall shocked to see the visitor when she came to him with a mustard pot?

(b) What two reasons did the stanger give to Mrs. Hall for not being interrupted by anyone?

(c) Describe how the stranger was attacked by dog.

(d) Discuss the meeting of Dr. Cuss with the stranger.

(e) Describe the robbery episode at dawn in Bunting’s house.Subject : English Core

Class – XII

Revision Assignment 3 for Half Yearly Examination

Topics covered – Writing : Posters, Business letters, Job application, Speech, Debate, Informal invitation and reply Text Books: P-A Thing of Beauty &-Aunt Jennifer’s Tigers, L- Indigo and Going Places, Play-On the Face of it, Novel: The Invisible Man (Ch 6-10)Writing- Q1 Design and draft a poster on ‘Literacy For All’ in 50 words. 4

Q2 (a)You have decided to orgnise a family get together along with some interesting games for the children to celebrate NewYear. Draft an invitation letter to be sent to your relatives living in your city. 4

(b) Write a reply to the above invitation.(accepting or declining invitation) 4

Q3 You wish to buy 10 exercise bikes from TI Cycles and Fitness Equipment Ltd. Chennai. Write a letter to the Manager ( Marketing) placing your order. Ask for payment on delivery offer. Do quote the model number. You are Akshat,12-B Raja Nagar, Ghaziabad. 6

Q4 You are Aniket of 1/15 Cooper Road, Bangalore. You had sent your yearly subscription of India Today three months ago, but have not received the copies of the magazine for the month of April and May and the promised gift of a Titan watch. Write a letter of complaint to the Manager, Circulation Department, Living Media, Cannaught Place, New Delhi. Mention the necessary details.

6

Q5 You are Vansh/Vanshika, a post-graduate in HR management. You come across an advertisement in a national daily regarding a situation vacant for the post of Human Resource Manager in Matrix HR Services, a multinational company situated at Bangalore. Write an application to the Chief Executive Officer for the vacant post submitting your candidature for the same. Invent other relevant details. Also attach your full resume with the application. 6

Q7 You are to speak on the topic: ‘How to guard Indian Culture in the mess of Global Culture today’. Write the speech in 150-200 words. 10

Q8 `Write a debate for the motion- ‘Elections are the best test of a Democracy’ 10Literature– Understanding Based QuestionsQ9 Short answer questions-30-40 words. (3 marks each)

(a) How is man responsible for his own despondence? ( A Thing of…)(b) ‘The tigers created by Aunt Jennifer are symbolic of her aspirations.” Explain.(c) What was the conflict of duties that Gandhi ji underwent? How did he resolve it?(d) Who is responsible for Sophie’s tears? Why do you think so?(e) How does Mr. Lamb convince Derry that outer looks do not make any difference?

Q10 –HOTS- Long Answer Type Questions-125-150 words. (6Marks each)(a) The visit undertaken casually on the entreaty of an unlettered peasant occupied almost a year of Gandhi ji’s

life”. What events unfolded and with what results?(b) . “Sophie’s dream world clashes with the world of her family and friends” Do you think Sophie is

able to balance her dream world with her reality” Comment.(b) Mr. Lamb ,an old individual and Derry, a handicapped child are suffering from social exclusion and

therefore have bitter feelings. Write your views with reference to the story ’On the Face of it’.

Q11 Value Based Questions- Answer the following in 125-150 words. (6Marks each) (a) The mortality of a human being is a bare fact. This is also a reality that cowards die several times

before death. A human being must protest against injustice and exploitation and never forget his principles. Give your views.

(b) Sophie lives in a poor locality in miserable conditions. Even in her house dirt and squalor are all around and it affects the mindset of Sophie.

Write an article on “Cleanliness is next to godliness”.

Q12 Long Text Rading- The Invisible Man (Novel) 125-150 words. (6Marks each)

(a) What did Mr. and Mrs. Hall experience when they entered the room of the stranger? How do you explain this behaviour?

(b) Describe the escape of the stranger from Coach and Horses Inn.(c) What did Gibbons experience while taking a nap in the open fields of the village. (d) Narrate the episode of Mr. Thomas Marvel’s First meeting with the invisible man.(e) Give a brief character sketch of Mr. Thomas Marvel.(f) Discuss the entry of a new stranger in the village after the invisible man’s escape from that place.

Subject : English Core

Class – XII (2015-16)

Revision Assignment 1 for Unit Test 1

Topics covered –

Writing: Notice, Advertisement, Letter to the Editor Text Books: P- My Mother at Sixty-Six, P- An Elementary School Classroom in a Slum, The Last Lesson, Lost Spring, The Tiger King, The Enemy,

Writing - Answer Q1- Q4 in 50 words. (4 marks each) Q1 Your school is organizing a Bal Mela on Children’s day in the school. The Primary wing of the

school is going to put up various stalls in the mela. Draft a notice giving details of the mela as well as inviting the senior students to attend the same. You are Jai, Secretary, Cultural Society.

Q2 As the Head boy/ Head girl of Mother Merry Public School, Ashok Vihar, Delhi, you are organising a career counselling session for XI & XII Std. students of your school Write a notice giving its details to be displayed on your school notice board.

Note : (Name the dignitary who will throw light on various vistas open for youth and mention about the exhibition corner in the school)

Q3 You are the Senior manager at Sahni Travels and Tours. Construct an advertisement offering an attractive package tour to Kullu- Manali, mention discounts and offers as well. Give other details.

Q4 You want to sell your shop, a Gift Gallery, as you are going abroad. Draft an advertisement for the classified column of a local daily giving all particulars.

Q5 You are working for an advertising agency. Design and draft an attractive advertisement for a company which is launching a new mobile phone.

Q6. Jai is a resident of Delhi, He recently visited a tourist place. He found how the tourists abuse the available facilities and thus endanger the environment. As jai write a letter to the editor of a national daily highlighting the situation giving your strong views and suggest ways to deal with the situation.

Q7 Literature – Understanding Based QuestionsShort answer questions-30-40 words. (3 marks each)

(1) Describe the state of mind of the poet in’My Mother at Sixty-Six”.

(2) How does Stephen Spender highlight the miserable condition of the people?

(3) What does the poet Stephen Spender want for the children and why?

(4) What universality of human nature does the teacher comment upon in “The Last Lesson”?

(5) How was the order from Berlin going to make a difference to the lives of the students?

(6)“Garbage to them is gold”. Bring out the significance of this statement.

(7) Why hasn’t Firozabad changed with time?

(8) How did the Maharaja manage to retain his throne?

(9) Why does the writer compare the new born prince’s claim with the bulletins issued by war office?

(10) Why couldn’t the General’s plan of eliminating the American prisoner succeed?

Q8 HOTS- Long Answer Type Questions-125-150 words. (6 Marks each)(1) In the story M. Hamel emerges not only as a dedicated teacher but also as a sensitive and

understanding human being”. Elaborate the character of M. Hamel in light of the above statement. (2) “Poverty is a vicious cycle for refugees, slum dwellers and bangle makers.”Discuss in the light of

the lesson.

(3) Bring out the element of humour, satire and irony in the story “The Tiger King.”

(4) Many of us believe in superstitions. How did the superstitious belief prevail in the story and the prediction by the astrologer governed the life of the Tiger King.

(5) General plays an instrumental role in Sadao’s decision of saving the life of the injured prisoner. Discuss.

Q 9 Value Based Questions -125-150 words (6 Marks each)(1) How does humanity dominate patriotism as per the message given in the lesson ‘enemy’?(2) In the Last Lesson, the teacher tells the students that they all had the habit of procrastination. How

did the people of Alsace suffer on account of this?(3) In search of decent living conditions and better means of survival people are migrating to

metropolitan cities. In this rat race they are losing their identity. One should not lose one’s identity in search of gold. Comment.

(4) Kamala Das is shattered and feels agonized on her inability to take care of her mother who is ageing & nearing her death. You feel that youth should take care of the aged. Write an article on- ‘Taking care of the aged, our duty’.

Subject : Chemistry

Assignment 3

Chapters Covered-5 , 16,10,11,12and 13

1 What is collodion solution. Give one example.2 Which will be adsorbed more readily on the surface of charcoal and why,NH3 or CO2.

3 What is electrokinetic potential or zeta potential.4 Gelation is generally added to ice creames, Why.5 Which of the electrolyte is more effective for the coagulation of Fe(OH)3 sol and why. Na2PO4,

K2SO4, NaCl.6 What phenomena occur , when silica gel and anhydrous calcium chloride are placed separately

in two corners of a vessel containing water vapour.7 What are catalytic poisons, catalytic promoters and coenzymes.8 Explain the origin of charge on colloidal particles.9 What is meant by Autocatalysis and Induced catalysis.10 Answer the following :

(i) Why silica gel is used as a humidizer.(ii) What is the significance of Gold number.(iii) Ferric hydroxide sol coagulates on addition of aqueous solution of sodium sulphate

11 Explain as to what happens when :(i) Persistant dialysis of a colloidal sol is carried out.(ii) A beam of light is passed through colloidal sol.(iii) A dilute solution of FeCl3 is added to freshly prepared Fe(OH)3 sol.(iv) Gelation is added to gold sol.

12 Explain the following in brief.(i) Sun looks red at the time of sunset.(ii) Physisorption is multimolecular while chemisorptions is Monomolecular.

13 In which of the following does adsorption takes place and why .(i) Silica gel placed in the atmosphere saturated with water .(ii) Anhydrous CaCl2 placed in the atmosphere saturated with water.

(b) How does BF3 act as a catalyst in industrial process.

14 In thermal power stations, coal is burnt to produce steam for generation of electricity. The smoke produced is passed through electrostatic precipitators before allowing it to escape into the atmosphere.

Answer the following-

(i) Why is smoke passed through electrostatic precipitators in thermal power stations.(ii) Which property of colloidal solution is used in an electrostatic precipitator.(iii) How does coal ash affect our environment.(iv) What value is promoted through the use of electrostatic precipitator.15 Colloidal solutions are heterogeneous solutions which containparticles of intermediate size

between those of true solutions and suspensions. These particles are found to have charge. Answer the following questions:

(i) When there is a cut and it is bleeding, we apply alum to stop bleeding.How does it work.(ii) Collodian medicines are used for intramuscular injections. Why.(iii) Name the colloidal solution used for curing the disease Kala azar.

(iv) Name a colloidal solution of silver used as eye lotion.16 Ashraf is 50 years old and has diabetes. He uses saccharine as sweetening agent in tea and

coffee and sugar free in sweets. Lakshmi too is diabetic. She controls her sugar level in diet by using less sugar and by exercising.a. Who is able to handle diabetes more efficiently and why? (1)b. What value do you derive from this? (1)c. What are the harmful effects of artificial sweeteners? (1)

17 An organic compound ‘ A ‘ having molecular formula C3 H6 on treatment with aq. H2SO4

give ‘B’ which on treatment with Lucas reagent gives ‘C’. The compound ‘C’ on treatment

with ethanolic KOH gives back ‘ A’ .Identify A, B , C .

18 An organic compound A (C6H6O) gives a characteristic colour with aq. FeCl3 solution.(A) On reacting with CO2 and NaOH at 400k under pressure gives (B) which on acidification gives a compound (C) .The compound (C) reacts with acetyl chloride to give (D) which is a popular pain killer. Deduce the structure of A,B,C & D.

19 An aromatic compound (A) having molecular formula C6H6O on treatment with CHCl3 and KOH gives a mixture two isomers ‘B’ and ‘C’ both of ‘B’ & ‘C’ give same product ‘D’when distilled with Zn dust. Oxidation of ‘D’ gives ‘E’ of formula C7H6O2. The sodium salt of ‘E’ on heating with soda lime gives ‘F’ which may also be obtained by distilling ‘A’ with zinc dust. Identify compounds ‘A’ to ‘F’ giving sequence of reactions.

20 Compound ‘A’ of molecular formula C5H11Br gives a compound ‘B’ of molecular formula C5H12O when treated with aq. NaOH. On oxidation the compound yields a mixture of acetic acid & propionic acid. Deduce the structure of A, B & C.

21 Do the following conversions-

(i) Ethene to 1,2 –ethanediol

(ii) Phenol to Salicyldehyde

(iii) Phenol to Salicyldehyde

(iv) Phenol to salicylic acid

(v) Methanol to Ethanol

(vI) Phenol to Benzyl Alcohol

(VII) l – propanol to 2 – bromo propane

22 Convert

1. 1 - Butene to 1 — chlorobutane.

2. Ethene to ethanol.

3. Chlorobenzene to phenol.

4. Methyl bromide to acetic acid.

5. 2- chlorobutane to sec- butyl ethyl ether.

6. Chlorobenzene to benzyl chloride.

7. Chlorobenzene to Benzene.

8. Methane to Ethane.

9. Benzene to o- chlorotoluene.

10. 1- chloropropane to 2- iodopropane.

23 A compound ‘A’ with formula C5H10O gives a positive 2, 4 –DNP test but a negative Tollen’s test It can be oxidizing to carboxylic acid ‘B’ of molecular formula C3H6O2, when treated with alk. KMnO4 under vigorous conditions. The salt of ‘B’ gives a hydrocarbon ‘C’ on Kolbes’ electrolytic decarboxylation. Identify A,B.C & write chemical equations.

24 Acompound A with molecular formula C5H12O on oxidation forms compound B with molecular formula C5H10O. The compound B gives iodoform test but does not reduce ammoniacal silver nitrate. The compound B on reduction with Zn – Hg/ HCl gives compound C with molecular formula C5H12. Identify A,B.C & give the chemical reactions involved.

25 An organic compound A, which has a characteristic odour, on treatment with NaOH forms two compound B and C. Compound B has molecular formula C7H8O which on oxidation gives back A. Compound C is the sodium salt of an acid. C, when heated with soda lime yields an aromatic hydrocarbon D. deduce the structures of A to D.

26 Two moles of compound (A) on treatment with a strong base gives two compounds (B) and (C). The compound (B) on dehydrogenation with Cu gives (A) while acidification of (C) gives carboxylic acid (D) having molecular formula CH2O2. Identify (A) to (D)

27 Conversions

1. Toluene to benzaldehyde

2. Acetaldehyde to Acetamide

3. Methanol to acetic acid

4. Methanol to Ethanol

5. Acetic acid to Propionic acid

6. Ethyl alcohol to acetone

7. Acetone to tert butyl alcohol

8. Toluene to m- nitrobenzoic acid

9. Phenol to acetophenone

10. Acetaldehyde to Acetone

28 Give Reasons :-

1. Carboxylic acid is stronger acid than phenol.

2. Ethanol is more soluble in water than ethyl chloride

3. Aldehydes are more reactive than Ketones towards nucleophilic additions.

4. Carboxylic acids has higher boiling points than alcohols of same no. of carbon

atoms.

5. Ethanoic acid has molar mass of 120 in vapour state.

6. Carboxylic acids do not give characteristic reactions of carbonyl group.

7. Formaldehyde does not undergo aldol condensation.

Inverse Trigonometric Functions

1 Mark Questions

Q1 Find the value of tan (cos–14/5 + tan–12/3)

Q2 If we consider only the Principal value of the inverse trigonometric functions, then find the value of tan

Q3If then x =

Q4

If (a < 0)and x (– a, a), simplify tan–1 Q5 then the value of

Q6

Find The value of

Q7

If find the value of . Q8

Find the principal value of

Q9 If then what will be the range of y?

Q10Show that

Q11

Find the value of

Q12

Find the value of Q13

Find the value of Q14 Express in terms of Sine and cosine

Q15 Write down the domain and Range of

4 Marks Questions

Q1 Solve of the equation tan–1(x – 1) + tan–1x + tan–1(x + 1) = tan–1(3x)

Q2 Solve of the equation

Q3

Find the value of

Q4, then find the value of x

Q5 Evaluate

Q6 Find the value of at x =

Q7 What is the +ive integral solution of

?

Q8 Q.8 Find value of

Q9, then find

whether α >β

Q10then solve for x.

Q11

Find the value of x satisfying the equation

Q12Find the solution of equation

Q13

Write the Simplified form of

Q14Evaluate

Q15

Find the value of

6 Marks Questions

Q1

Express in the simplest form

Q2 Prove that

Q3 Solve

Q4Show that

Q5 Find the value of:

Q6 Prove that 2 tan-1tanα/2tan(π/4-β/2)= tan-1sin αcos β/(sin β+ cos α

C.B.S.E. Examination QuestionsCONTINUITY AND DIFFERENTIABILITY

1. Verify Rolle’s Theorem for the function f(x) = x2 – x – 12 in [-3,4]. ( c = 12 )

2. Show that the function f(x) = 2x - |x| is continuous at x = 0 .3. Discuss the continuity of f(x) at x = 0 if

f ( x )=2 x−1 ,∧x<02 x+1 ,∧x ≥0 .

4. Evaluate limx →0

e x−1√1−cosx

.

5. If the function f (x) 3 ax+bif x>111 if x=1

5 ax−2 bif x<1

Is continuous at x = 1 , find the value of a and b.6. Verify Lagrange’s Mean Value Theorem for the function f(x) = x2 = x – 1 in [0,4].7. Verify Lagrange’s Mean Value Theorem for the function f(x) = √ x2−4 in the interval [2,4]. (c = √6)8. Differentiate log(sin√ x2+1) w.r.t. x .

9. If y = log √ 1−cos x1+cos x

, show that dydx

=cosec x .

10. Differentiate esin x+ ( tan x ) x w.r.t x .

11. Differentiate tan−1(√1+x−√1−x√1+x+√1−x ) .

12. If y = log √ 1+cos2 x1−e2 x , find dy

dx .

13. If x = a ( −sinθ¿ and y = a(1 - cosθ ¿ , find dydx at θ=π

2 .

14. If y = log √ 1+sin 2 x1−tanx

, find dydx .

15. If x = a( cos θ+θsinθ ¿ and y = a(sinθ−θcosθ ¿ , find dydx .

16. If y = A cos nx + B sin nx , show that d2 ydx2 +n2 y = 0 .

17. if y = ex (sinx+cosx ) prove that d2 ydx2 −2 dy

dx+2 y=0 .

18. If y = √ 1−sin 2 x1+sin2 x

, show that dydx

+sec2( π4−x ) = 0.

19. If y = tan−1 √ 1+sinx1−sinx

, find dydx .

20. Differentiate cot−1( 1−x1+x ) w.r.t. x.

21. Prove that ddx x

2 √a2− x2+ a2

2sin−1( x

a ) = √a2−x2

22. Differentiate w.r.t x tan−1( √1+sinx+√1−sinx√1+sinx−√1−sinx )

23. Find dydx , if y = xcosx + (sin x)tan x .

24. If y = cot-1 √ 1+sin x1−sin x

, find dydx

.

25. If x = a( 1+t 2

1−t 2 ) and y = ( 2 t1−t 2 ) ,find dy

dx .

26. . If x = a ( +sinθ¿ and y = a(1 – cosθ ¿ , find d2 ydx2 at θ=π

2 .

27. If y = x+√ x2+a2 n , prove that dydx =

ny√x2+a2

28. If f(x) = ( 3+x1+x )

2+3 x

, find f ‘ (0).

29. If x = 3 sin t – sin 3 t and y = 3 cos t – cos 3 t, find d2 ydx2 at ¿ π

2 .

30.Differentiate xx sin-1 √ x w.r.t. x .

31. If x = 2 cosθ−cos2 θ and y = 2 sin θ−sin 2θ , d2 ydx2 at θ=π

2 .

32. If y xcosx + (cos x)sin x , find dydx .

33. If y = xx show that d2 ydx2 − 1

y ( dydx )

2

− yx = 0 .

34. If y = tan−1(√1+x2−√1−x2

√1+x2+√1−x2 ) , find dydx .

35. Verify Rolle’s Theorem for f(x) = sin x + cos x in [0,π2 ] .

36. Verify Rolle’s Theorem for f(x) = (x – 1)(x – 2)2 in [1,2 ] .

37. y √ x2+1=log (√ x2+1−x) show that (x¿¿2+1)+ dydx

+ xy+1=0 .¿

38. If y = 3 e2x + 2 e3x , prove that d2 ydx2 −5 dy

dx+6 y=0 .

39. If f(x) = x2−25x−5

, w h en x≠ 5

k . w h enx=5 is continuous at x = 5 , find the value of k .

40. Verify Rolle’s Theorem for the function f(x) = x2 – 4x + 3 on [1,3] .

Assignment 1 DETERMINANTS

1 Mark Questions

Q1If A is a square matrix of order 3 and | A | = 5, find the value of |−3 A|

Q2 If is cube root of unity find the value of

Δ =

|1 ω ω2

ω ω2 ωω2 1 1

|

Q3 Find the value of determinant

Δ =

|1 2 48 16 32

64 128 256|

Q4 Find the value of determinant

Δ =

|2 2 2x y z

y+z z+x x+ y|

Q5 If a, b, care in A.P. find the value of determinant

Δ =

|x+1 x+2 x+ax+2 x+3 x+bx+3 x+4 x+c

|

Q6

For what value of k, the matrix[2 k3 5 ] has no inverse

Q7 A B C are three non zero matrices of same order, then find the condition on A such that AB = AC B = C

Q8Let Abe a non singular matrix of order 3 x 3, such that |AdjA|=100,

find |A|.Q9 If A is a non singular matrix of order n, then write the value of Adj(AdjA) and

hence write the value of Adj(AdjA) if order of A is 3 and | A | = 5Q10 Let A be a diagonal A = (d1, d2, ……………, dn ) write the value of | A |.

Q11 Using determinants find the value of the line passing through the points (-1,3) and (0,2).

Q12 Using determinants find the value of k for which the following system of equations has unique solution,

2x – 5y = 26 3x + ky = 5

Q.3.Find dydx ,if

i)ax2 + 2hxy + by2=0 ii)log(xy)=x2 + y2

iii)y=cos(x+y) iv)ey=cos(x+y)

v)x=ylog(xy) vi)2x + 2y = 2x+y

vii)x √1+ y + y√1+x viii)sin(xy) + cos(xy) = tan(x+y)

Q.4. Find dydx ,if

i)sin2x + 2cosy + xy=0 ii)sin(xy) + xy =x2 - y

iii)sin x + 2cos2y +xy=0 iv)ytan x - y2cos x + 2x=0

v)log(sin x) + cos(xy) + exy=0 vi)tan(x+y) + tan(x-y)

Q.5.Differentiate the following functions w.r.t. x:

i) ex+e− x

ex−e− x ii)log

iii)log√ 1+sin x1−sinx iv)log

Q.6.Differentiate

i)x2 w.r.t. x3 ii)log(1+x2) w.r.t. tan-1x

iii)x w.r.t. sin-1x iv) sin-14x√1−4 x2 w.r.t. √1−4 x2

v) tan-1 w.r.t. sec-1 x vi) tan−1 x1+ tan−1 x w.r.t. tan-1x

vii)sin-1 w.r.t. tan-1x viii)(log x)tan x w.r.t. sin(mcos-1x)

ix)tan-1 w.r.t. tan-1x x)sin-1 w.r.t. cos-1

xi) tan-1 w.r.t. tan-1x

Q.7.If y= sin-1√1−x + cos-1√ x , show that dydx =

−1√x (1−x) .

Q.8.If y=tan−1(√ 1−cos x1+cos x )(0≤ x<π ¿ , show that dy

dx =12

Q.9.Differentiate the following functions w.r.t. x:

i)x3sin4x(log x)5 ii)log tan( π4

+ x2 )

iii)(log x)x + (sin x)x iv)sin2(cot−1 √ 1+x1−x )

v)b tan-1( xa+ tan−1 1

x ) vi)log(ex( x−2x+2 )

34)

vii)(cos x )log x + (log x)x viii) (x x )x

Q.10. Find dydx

, when

i) x=a(cos t+ log tan t2 ), y= asin t ii) x=log t + sin t, y=et + cos t

iii)y=sin-12x√1−x2 + sec-1 1√1−x2

iv)y=tan-1 x1+√1−x2

v)x=√a2− y2 + a2 loga−√a2− y2

a+√a2− y2 vi)y=sin-1x √1−x−√ x√1− y2

vii)y=tan-1[ √1+ x2+√1−x2 √1+x2−√1−x2 −1 ]

viii)x=etan−1( y− x2

x2 ) ix)y=cot−1 √1+sinx+√1−sinx√1+sinx−√1−sinx

x)y=log √1+x+√1−x√1+x−√1−x

12

Q.11. Find d2 ydx2 , if

i)x=at2 , y=2at ii) x=acos3θ , y=asin3θ

iii) x=a(θ+sinθ¿, y= a(1-cosθ ¿ iv)y=x2sec x

v)y=e3x tan x vi)y=sin2x sinx

vii)y=log( x2

ex )

Q.12.If y=cot-1x , prove that (1+x2)d2 ydx2 +2xdy

dx =0.

Q.13.If y=log(log x) , prove that xd2 ydx2 +dy

dx +x( dydx )

2

=0.

Q.14.If y= sec x +tan x ,prove that cos x.d2 ydx2 = y2.

Q.15.If y=ex(cos x + sin x),prove that d2 ydx2 -2dy

dx +2y=0.

Q.16.If y=(sin-1x)2 , prove that (1- x2)d2 ydx2 - xdy

dx - 2 =0.

Q.17.If y=sin(msin-1x) , prove that

(1- x2)d2 ydx2 -xdy

dx +m2y=0.

Q.18.If x+y=ex-y,prove that d2 ydx2 =

4(x+ y )(x+ y+1)3 .

Q.19.If p2= a2cos2θ + b2sin2θ ,show that

p + d2 pdθ2 = a2 b2

p3

Q.20.If sin y=x sin(α + y ¿, prove that dydx = sin2(α + y)

sinα .

Q.21.If xy=ex-y , prove that dydx =

log x(1+ log x )2 .

Q.22.If y=log(sin x) , find d2 ydx2 at x=π

4 .

Q.23.If y=xlog( xa+bx ) , find d2 y

dx2 at x = 1b .

Q.24.If y=2sin x + 3sin cos x , find d2 ydx2 at x=π

2 .

Q.25.If √1−x2 + √1− y2 = a(x - y) , prove that dydx =√1− y2

√1−x2 .

Q.26.If x = 2 sin−1√ t 2

1+t 2 ,y=cos−1 √ 11+ t2 , prove that dy

dx independent of t.

Q.27. xpyq =(x+y)p+q , prove that dydx = y

x .

Q.28. Find dydx if :

i)y= ex +ex+e x−−−−−−∞

ii)y=√ x√x√x−−−−−−∞

iii)y=√sin x+√sin x+√sin x−−−−−∞ iv)y=axax−−−−−∞

Q.29. If y=2tan−1¿¿ , show that dydx =

11+ x2 .

Q.30.If y=tan−1( ax ) + log√ x−a

x+a ,prove that dydx = 2 a3

x4−a4 .

Q.31.If y=5x

3√1−x2 + cos2(2x+1) , find dydx .

Q.32.Show that the derivatives of sin−1√ x−βα−β and tan−1 √ x−β

α−x are indentical.

Q.33. Verify that y=(x3-x)log(kx) satisfies the equation

(x3 - x)dydx - (3x2-1)y = x( x2 – 1)2 .

Q.34.If cos−1( yb )=log( x

n )n

,show that x2y2 + xy1 + n2y =0 .

Q.35.If y=log( xa+bx )

x

, show that x3y2=(xy1-y)2 .

Q.36.If extan−1 x,show that (1+x2)y2-2(1- x + x2)y1 +(1- x)2y = 0.

Q.37.If ea sin−1 x , show that (1- x2)y2- xy1 =a 2y .

Q.38.If y= xx−p , show that xy1= y(1- y).

Q.39.If ax2 + 2hxy + by2 = 1 , show that d2 ydx2 = h2−ab

(hx+by )3 .

Q.40.If x=secθ−cosθ and y=secnθ - cosnθ , then show that

(x2+4)( dydx )

2

= n2(y2+4) .

Q.41.If y=a(x+√ x2−1 )n+b (x−√x2−1)n , show that( x2 - 1)y2+ xy1 - n 2y =0.

Q.42.If y=e−kx

2 (acos nx + bsin nx) , prove that y2 + ky1 + (n2+ k2

4 ) y=0 .

Q.43.If y=13

log x+1√x2−x+1

+ 1√3

tan−1 2 x−1√3 ,prove that dy

dx = 4 √21+ x4 .

Q.44.If y=2tan−1 x √21−x2 + log 1+x √2+x2

1−x √2+ x2 ,prove that dydx

= 4 √21+x4 .

Q.45.If y=cos−1( a+bcos xb+acos x ) for b>a, prove that dy

dx= √b2−a2

b+acos x .

Q.46.If y= 2√a2−b2 tan−1√ a−b

a+b. tan x

2 , show that dydx

= 1a+bcos x and

d2 ydx2 = bsin x

(a+bcos x )2.

DETERMINANT

1. Find the number of values of k (using Matrices and Determinant) for which the system of equations (k+1)x + 8y = 4k kx + (k+3) y = 3k-1

has infinitely many solution ?

2. Without expanding a determinant at any stage , show that

x2 + x x + 1 x – 2 2x2 + 3x – 1 3x 3x – 3 = xa + b x2 + 2x + 3 2x – 1 2x - 1

where ‘a’ and ‘b’ are determinants of order 3 not involving ‘x’ ?3. If x, y ,z є R , then the value of determinant

(2x + 2-x)2 (2x - 2-x)2 1 (3x + 3-x)2 (3x - 3-x)2 1 (4x + 4-x)2 (4x - 4-x)2 1

Is equal to ?

4. Check whether the following statement of determinant is true or false:-

x + 1 (x + 2) x + a x + 2 (x + 3) x + b x + 3 (x + 4) x + c

where a , b , c are in A.P. ?

5. If a1 , a2, a3, … , ar are in G.P. ,then prove that the determinant ar+1 ar+5 ar+9

ar+7 ar+11 ar+15 is independent of r ?

ar+11 ar+17 ar+21

6. Find the number of distinct roots of Sin x Cos x Cos x Cos x Sin x Cos x = 0 in the interval -π/4 ≤ x ≤ π/4 is ? Cos x Cos x Sin x

7. Find the value of the determinant

1 a a2- bc 1 b b2- ca 1 c c2- ab

8. For the positive value of x , y, z the numerical value of the determinant is

1 logxylogxzlogyx 1 logyzlogzxlogzy 1

9. If x≠ y≠ z and x x2 1 + x3

y y2 1 + y3 = 0 z z2 1 + z3

prove that xyz = -1 ?10. If a, b, c are all different and

a a3 a4 - 1b b3 b4- 1 = 0 c c3 c4 - 1show that abc( ab + bc + ca) = a + b + c ?

11. A triangle has its three sides equal to a, b, and c. If the coordinates of its vertices are A(x1,y1) , B(x2,y2) and C(x3,y3) , show thatx1y1 2

x2y2 2 = (a+b+c)(b+c-a)(c+a-b)(a+b-c)x3y3 2

12. The sum of three numbers is 6. If we multiply the third number 2 and add the first number to the result, we get 7. By adding the second and third numbers bto three times the first number we get 12. Use determinant to find the numbers.

13. For what values of a and b, the system of equations 2x + ay +6z = 8 x + 2y + bz = 5

x + y + 3z =4 has(i) A unique solution(ii) Infinitely many solutions(iii) No solution

Value Based Questions Mathematics – XII

1. Everyone wants to be a perfect ideal human being. Let us assume that dishonesty is one of the factors that affects our perfectness and perfectness has an inverse square relationship with dishonesty. For any value x of level of dishonesty we have a unique value y of perfection.

i. Write down the equation that relates y with x.

ii. Is this relationship from xє X = (0, ∞) to y є (0, ∞), forms a function?

iii. For what level of dishonesty one can achieve 1/4th level of perfection?

iv. What will be the change in level of perfection when the level of dishonesty changes from 4 to 2?

2. A trust fund has Rs.30,000 that is to be invested in two different types of bonds. The first bond pays 5% p.a. interest which will be given to orphanage and second bond pays 7% interest p.a. which will be given to financial benefits benefits of the trust . Using matrix multiplication, determine how to divide Rs.30,000 among two types of bonds if the trust fund obtains an annual total interest of Rs.1800.

i. What are the values reflected in the question?

ii. Why is it required to help orphan children?

3. In a survey of 20 richest person of three residential society A,B,C it is found that in society A, 5 believes in honesty, 10 in hardwork, 5 in unfair means while in B, 5 in honesty, 8 in hard in work, 7 in unfair means and in C, 6 in honesty, 8 in hardwork, 6 in unfair means. If the per day income of 20 richest persons of society A,B,C are Rs.32,500; Rs.30,500; Rs.31,000 respectively, then find the per day income of each type of people by matrix method.

i. Which type of people has more per day income.

ii. According to you, which type of person is better for country.

4. A window is in the form of rectangle surmounted by a semi-circular opening. Total perimeter of the window is 10m. What will be the dimensions of the whole opening to admit maximum light and air?

i. How having large windows help us in saving electricity and conserving environment?

ii. Why optimum use of energy is required in the indian context?

5. In a competition, a brave child tries to inflate a huge spherical balloon bearing slogans against child labour at the rate of 900 cu.cm of gas per second. Find the rate at which the radius of the balloon is increasing when its radius is 15cm.

i. Which values have been reflected in this question?

ii. Why child labour is not good for society?

6. A manufacturing company makes two types of teaching aids A and B of mathematics of class XII. Each type of A requires 9 labour hours for fabricating and 1 labour hour for finishing. Each type of B requires 12 labour hours for fabricating and 3 labour hours for finishing. For fabricating and finishing, the maximum labour hours available are 180 and 30, respectively. The company makes a profit of Rs.80 on each piece of type A and Rs.120 on each piece of type B. How many pieces of type A and B should be manufactured per week to get a maximum profit? What is the maximum profit per week?Is teaching aid necessary for teaching learning process? If yes, justify your answer.

7. A village has 500 hectares of land to grow two types of plants, X and Y. The contribution of total amount of oxygen produced by plant X and plant Y are 60% and 40% per hectare respectively. To control weeds, a liquid herbicide has to be used for X and Y at rates of 20 litres and 10 litres per hectare, respectively. Further no more than 8000litresof herbicides should be used in order to protect aquatic animals in a pond which collects drainage from this land, How much land should be allocated to each crop so as to maximize the total production of oxygen?

i. How do you think excess use of herbicides affect our

environment?ii. What are the general

implications of this question towards planting trees around us?

Subject : Foundation of Information Technology

Assignment 1, UT- 1

Chapters Covered-1,2

1. Write the HTML code to create a framed web page in the following format:a. the page is divided into two frames horizontally.b. the top frame is 25% of the page width and displays FileA.html.c. the bottom frame is 75% of the page width and displays FileB.html.

2. Observe the two tables – ITEMS and SALES of a database named products given below and answer the questions given below:

i. Name the view in which the two table are shown – design or database

ii. Identify a tuple from the table SALES.iii. Identify any one data item from the

table ITEMS.iv. Name the foreign key for the table

SALES.v. Mention the cardinality of the table

ITEMS vi. What type of relationship will exist

between these two tables?

3. Observe the table – TableApp of a database named Application given below and answer the questions that follow:

i. Name the view in which the table is shown – Design or Datasheet.

ii. Can this view be used to add a new record to the above table?

iii. Write one special feature of AutoNumber Datatype used above.

iv. What does the key symbol next to the AppID field name designate?

v. What is the degree of the above table?vi. A new field named AppDescription is

added to the table that will contain a detailed description about 2000 characters. Name the appropriate data type that should be used for this field

4. Name the event to be used in the following on VBScripti. To perform an action when the

button gains focus.ii. To perform an action when a

button is clicked.5. Rewrite the following code using

DO….WHILE instead of FOR loop without affecting the output:

Input Number

Check Divisibility by

Divisibility Result

<HTML> <BODY> <SCRIPT LANGUAGE=”VBScript”> DIM A,B,C Count A=0 B=1 FOR Count = 3 TO 10 STEP 2 C = A + B Document.Write(C & “ “) A = B B = C NEXT </SCRIPT>6. Give the output of the following code:<HTML> <BODY> <SCRIPT LANGUAGE=”VBScript”> DIM Num, Flag Flag=0 Num=10 For A=2 to Num/2 IF Num Mod A = 0 Then Document.Write(Num+1) ELSE

Document.write(Num-1) END IF Next </SCRIPT> </BODY> </HTML

7.

Write the HTML code for creating the above displayed form. Write the embedded VBScript code for the click event of the “Divisibility Result” button such that it displays a message box based on whether the number input in the first textbox is divisible by the number input in the second textbox according to the

following criteria:

If number is divisible then message displayed is “Wow ! Belong to our family”.

If number is not divisible then message displayed is let’s look for my friends”

8. Observe the following script:<Script Language=”VBScript”>Option ExplicitDim A,BA=10B=20I=1Do While I<5 C=B-A Document.Write(C) A=A-1 B=B+2 I=I+1Loop</Script>

Every time this script is executed, the programmer receives an error as soon as the for loop is reached. Identify the error and write the corrected code.

9. Predict the output of the following code:<Script Language = “VBScript”> DIM s, len1, len2 s=”play” len1=len(s) FOR num= 1 to len1 Document.Write(LEFT(s,num)) NEXT </Script>

10. Name the event to be used in the following situations:a. To perform an action when the button

gains focus.b. To perform an action when a button is

clicked

Current Date

No. of Days Worked

Wages per day

Total Salary CalculateClear

11.

Write the code to display the above form and add the vbscript to display the results as written when user enters no. of days that he has worked and wages per day and clicks on calculate button.(total salary of No. of days *Wages per day)

12. Write HTML code to generate the following form:Write the VBScript code to display the fees for the Dance Course asRs. 600 for children aged 6 – 10Rs. 1,000 for children aged 11-16When the user clicks on the CALCULATE button. If the user enters any age other than the above then an error message “Not Eligible” should be displayed13. Write the equivalent do…..while loop

for the following statements without affecting the output:

Current Date

Dim list(5)For i=5 to 0 step -1 If I mod 2 = 0 then list(i) = i+1 End ifNext

14. Name the following :a. The key used to relate two tablesb. The access data types used to store

monetary values.c. Any two data types used to store

alphanumeric characters.d. The most common type of

relationship in which each record in the first table can have many matching records in the second table.

15. Name any five DBMS other than MS-ACCESS

16. What is the function of input mask?17. Mention any two attributes of the

<TEXTAREA> tag along with their usage.

18. What is meant by inline images?

19. Name the attributes of <EMBED> tag to be used in the following situations:a. To hide the sound control box.b. To play the sound track repeatedly

four times.20. How can we insert comments in a

HTML document?21. What is the use of ALT attribute of

<IMG> tag?22. How can images be aligned centrally

on a webpage?23. What is the wrong with the following

code?a. <UL type=”square” START=4>b. <OL type=”a” START=”d”>

24. The ________ attribute of the <A> tag is used to specify the section names while creating an internal linking.

25. Identify the following in vbscript:a. Keyword used to execute a

subroutineb. Keyword used to declared a

subroutinec. The inbuilt function which has a

combined effect of LTRIM and RTRIM

d. Keyword used to declared a variable

e. Keyword used to declared a constant

f. The operator used to return the remainder in a division operation.

26. Which function you will use for the following:a. To return a Boolean value that

indicates whether a specified expression can be evaluated as a number.

b. To return the position of the first occurrence of on string within the other. The search begins at the first character of the string.

Subject: Business Studies

Revision Assignment

UT- 1

Understanding Based Questions

Chapter I

Nature and Significance of Management

(1 Mark Questions)

1. In order to be successful, an organisation, must change it goals according to the needs of the environment. Which characteristic of management are highlighted in the statement.

2. To meet the objectives of the firm, management of Angora Ltd. offers employment to physically challenged persons. Identify the organizational objective it is trying to achieve.

3. Name the level of management involved in

a. Overseeing the activities of workers.

b. Taking key decisions.

4. Give any 2 functions of middle level management.

5. Give any 2 functions of low level management.

6. Which function of management is known as essence as management.

7. Management of any organisation strive to attain different objectives Enumerate any 2 Such objectives.

8. Give any 2 characteristics of management.

9. Name the level of management the following posts belong to :

a.Purchase Manager. b. CEO c. Superintendent.

10. What do you mean by “effectiveness” ?

11. What do you mean “efficiency” ?

Short Answer Type Questions

(3-4 Marks)

1. How does management help in achieving group goals and increasing efficiency?

2. What do you mean by “levels of Management”? Draw a diagram showing the levels of management.

3. State any three functions of top level management.

4. Explain the Social objectives of management?

5. Explain the term “Management as an Art.”

6. Explain the term “Co-ordination” and its importance in management.

7. “Effectiveness and efficiency are 2 Sides of the same coin.” Comment.

8. “Survival, Profit and growth are three important economic objective which management helps the organisation to achieve’” Explain this statement.

9. Management is a group activity. Explain.

10. Briefly explain the planning and organising functions of management.

Long Answer Type Questions

(5-6 Marks)

1. Management is the process of working with and through other to achieve organizational objectives in a changing environment”. In the light of this statement explain briefly the characteristics of management.

2. “Without management, the resources of production. will remain resources and shall never become production”. In the light of this statement explain the importance of management in business.

3. Explain briefly the important features of management as a profession.

4. Is management an exact science ? Explain.

5. Is management becoming a profession ? Discuss in the light of the emerging trend.

6. “co-ordination is the process of achieving unity of action among inter-dependant activities and departments of an organisation. Explain the nature of coordination in the light of this statement.

High Order Thinking Skill Questions/ Application Based Questions

Hots Questions1. In order to be successful, an organisation must change its goals according to the needs of the

environment. Which characteristic of management are high lighted in this statement ?

2. To meet the objectives of the firm, management of Angora Ltd. offers employment to physically challenged persons. Identify the organizational objectives it is trying to achieve.

3. Name the level of management involved in

(a) overseeing the activities of workers.

(b) Taking key decisions.

4. Name the level of management the following posts belong to :

i. Purchase Manager

ii. CEO

iii. Supervisory level5. Bhavan is the manager of northern division of a large corporate house. At what level does he work in the

organisation? What are her basic functions?

6. “Lack of proper management results in wastage of time, money and efforts.” Do you agree with this statement? Give reasons in support of your answer.

7. “Management is regarded as a perfect science like Physics or Chemistry.” Do you agree ? Explain in brief any 5 reasons.

8. “Management is neither as precise nor as comprehensive as natural and pure sciences are”. Why? Explain.

9. Your grandfather has retired as the director of a manufacturing Co. At what level of management was he working? What functions do you think he was performing at that level? State any four functions.

10. Your uncle is employed in Deepti Ltd., as a production manager. At what level of management is he working. State any three functions that he might be performing at that level.

11. Miss Amita is associated with Fortune Ltd. She told you that her workers have goods relations with her. At what level of mgt. is she ?

12. Why management is necessary where there is a group of people working in an organisation?

13. What is the main focus of the management?

14. “Management is the process of getting things done to achieve goals effectively & efficiently” what is the process in the definition?

15. Can planning prevent problems?

16. Name that intangible force which creates productive relationship among resources of an organisation.

17. Why is management an intangible force?

18. Why is management necessary for all organisation regardless of whether they are big or small?

19. A petrol pump needs to be managed as much as a school or a hospital.” Which characteristic of management has been highlighted here?

20. Mr. Donalds, the fast food giant, made major changes in its menu to be able to survive in the Indian market. Which characteristic of mgt. is highlighted.

21. What is the main objectives of any organisation?

22. Why does mgt. help people to adapt environment changes?

23. What should a mgt. do in order to ensure harmony in the organisation ?

24. A manager applies the various theories of mgt. in his unique personalized way ? What aspect of nature of mgt. does this statement indicate

25. There is no restriction in anyone being appointed or designated as a manager of any business enterprise. What aspect of management as a profession does this statement indicate ?

26. Ankit Enterprise Ltd. manufactures tea. The production department produces more of tea than required and sales department is not able to sell the total production. What quality of mgt. do you think the Co. is lacking ?

Value Based Questions

1. A Cloth manufacturer distributes its defective product at free of cost (after getting them repaired

from Nari Niketan at lower cost) to orphanage. Which values are being attested in this solution?

2. An organization has production, purchase, marketing, finance and human resource

departments. All of them working together to achieve organizational goals. From your point of

view which value which value is reflected here?

3. A manufacturer of fridge has used new technology in place of using harmful gases, which do not cause

air pollution. Which value being followed here?

4. A production manager has directed his employees to put/throw different types of wastes like papers,

plastics & chemicals in the respective earmarked dustbins. By this which value he want to inculcate

among his employees?

5. An industrial unit, working in a backward area opens schools for education at nominal cost for the

children of its employees and local people. By this act which value is promoted here?

6. A factory established in a residential locality, uses machines creating heavy noise while running.

Factory Manager is always ready to provide financial help to local people. Due to noise pollution student

can’t study properly and residence can’t sleep/work properly. The owners also know it. Which values are

affected here?

7.A famous doctor charges high for consultation from his patients and refuses to treat the poor patients

without consultation charges. He also pays attention to the medical representatives and agents of Pharma

co. he takes gifts and commission also. In your view, is it professional behavior of doctor? Does he

follow the code of conduct of doctor?

Chapter-2

PRINCIPLES OF MANAGEMENT

1. Prince the manager of a business undertaking, is very lax with his fellow employees and

subordinates. He does not given them parameters or rules for reporting to work and completion of

assignments. Which principle of management is overlooked?

2. “Workers should be encourage to develop and carry out their plans for development. “Identify the

principle of management formulated by Fayol.

3. “A manager should replace ‘I’ with ‘we’ in all his conversation with worker to faster team spirit.”

Identify the principle of management emphasized here.

4. Priyanka, manager, experts his subordinates to adapt to the new environs and working condition

without giving them time to settle down. Which principle of management is being overlooked?

5. Which principle of Taylor advocates scientific enquiry as opposed to hit and trail?

6. Who gave the concept of scientific management ? What was his profession?

7. Why is Taylor most remembered?

8. What is the premise of scientific management?

9. What is meant by ‘mental revolution’ according to Taylor?

10. Name two companies which have successfully implemented standardization and simplification of

work.

11. What is the basis of formation of scientific management?

12. What is the objective of standardisation?

13. How does the techniques of ‘motion study’ help to improve the efficiency of workers?

14. List any two principle of Scientific Management’ formulated by Taylor for managing an

organization scientifically.

Conceptual Questions

1. Fayol points out the danger and cost of unnecessary labour turnover in one of this ‘Principle’.

Name & explain the principle.

2. Workers should be encouraged to development carry out their plans for improvements. Identify

the principle of management formulated by Fayol.

3. Why does the principle of unity of command not hold good in the case of functional

foremanship?

4. Explain four techniques which facilitate application of the principle of scientific management.

5. Which principle of management envisages that each group of activities having the same

objectives must have one head and one plan? Explain the principle with a suitable example.

6. Name and explain the technique of Taylor which is the strongest motivation for a worker to reach

standard performance.

7. The directors of Bhupender Ltd. An arganisation manufacturing computers, want to double the

sales & have given this responsibility of their sales manager. The sales manager has no authority

either to increase the sales expenses or appoint new salesman. Hence he could not achieve this

target. Is the sales manager responsible for not achieving the target? Explain in brief, the relevant

principle in support of your answer.

8. Name the principle and explain of Fayol which suggests that communication from top to bottom

should follow the official lines of command.

9. Hina and Harish are typists in a company having same educational qualifications. Hina is getting

Rs. 3000 per month and Harish Rs. 400 per month as salary for the same working hours. Which

principle of management is violated in this case? Name and explain the principle.

10. Taylor’s techniques of management are universally applicable. Do you agree? Give any four

reasons in support of your answer.

11. “Taylor’s principles of scientific management and Fayol’s principle of management are mutually

complementary “. Do you agree? Give any five reasons in support of your answer .

12. The production manager of Bharat Ltd. Instructs a salesman to go slow in selling the product,

whereas the marketing manager is insisting on fast selling to achieve the target. Which principle

of management is being violated in this case? State the consequences of violation of the this

principle.

13. Priya and Nandita are working in a organization. They perform similar jobs but they are paid

their salaries at different rates. Which principle of management is violated in this situation?

Explain the principles in brief.

14. In each of the following cases tell which principle of management as given by Henry Fayol being

violated and how.

a) When a sales manager is not given the right to discount to the buyer necessary to conclude a

large scale. Contract, whichwill be profitable for the company

b) When each division of the company does not have a separate plan of action.

c) When a subordinate receives order from two superiors.

d) When a manager awards contract for supply of raw material to a particular party which

happens to be owned by his relative ignoring other parties who can supply the same at a cheaper

rate.

e) When a subordinate habitually contacts higher authority in the company by passing his/her

immediate superior.

f) When the tools and /or raw materials are not found at the right place in the company.

15. Identify the techniques of scientific management which are described by the statements

given below.

Also give reason.

a) When many specialists supervise each worker.

b) When uniformity is introduced in materials machines tools method of work and working

condition

after due research.

c) To determine standard time taken to perform a will defined job.

d) Giving variable wages to workers and management based on their performance.

e) Change in the attitude of workers and management towards are another from competition to

cooperation.

f) To fine out one best way to do job.

16.If an organization does not provide the right place for physical & human resources in the

organization. Which principle is violated? What are the consequences?

1 Mark Questions

1. What do you mean by managerial principles ?2. Give one difference between managerial principles and pure scientific principles.3. What is the difference between Principles & Values ?4. How are the principles of management formed ?5. Why is it said that principles of management are universal ?6. How can you say that managerial principles are flexible ?7. If the co. doesn’t provide the right place for physical and human resources, which principles of

management is violated ?8. Which device helps subordinates of the same level of different departments to communicate

directly in case of emergency ?9. Which principle promotes team spirit ?10. Who emphasized on administrative principles of management ?11. What is positive effect of principle of division of work ?12. What is the negative effect of not following the principle of division of work ?13. What is principle of initiative ?14. What is the objective of principle of unity of direction ?15. What is the negative effect if principle of order is violated ?16. Which principle of management suggest that employees should be treated with justice and

kindness ?17. What is the purpose of gang plank ?18. What is the principle of unity of direction ?19. Which technique of scientific management give high compensation to better performer ?20. Which technique of scientific management seeks to find out one best way of doing a job ?21. What is the objective of scientific management ?22. Name the technique of scientific management which focuses on separation of planning and

execution function.23. Name the personnel who work under the production In charge ?24. What is the objective of method study ?25. What is the objective of ‘Time Study’ ?

3-4 Marks Questions

1. What do you mean by management principles ?

2. “Management principles are evolutionary” Explain.

3. Briefly explain the nature of managerial principles.

4. “Management principles are dynamic”. Comment.

5. “Management principles aim at influencing human behaviour”. Explain.

6. “Management principles are relative not absolute”. Explain.

7. How does managerial principles ensure optimum utilization of resources and effective administration ?

8. Define Scientific management any name any three principles of it.

9. How does ‘mental revolution’ helpful in effective management ?

10. Explain the principle ‘Science, not the rule of Thumb” given by Taylor.

11. Explain the principle ‘Harmony not discord’.

12. Name the techniques of scientific management.

13. What do you mean by Time Study ? What is its objective ?

14. Explain ‘fatigue study’ and its objective.

15. Explain the techniques of differential piece rate system.

16. Distinguish between unity of command and unity of direction on the basis of.

(i) Meaning

(ii) Aim

(iii) Implications.

5-6 Marks Questions

1. Explain the principles of scientific management given by Taylor.

2. Explain any functional foremanship techniques of Scientific Management with diagram.

3. Explain the importance of managerial principles.

4. Are the principles of management given by Henry Fayol and F.W. Taylor are complimentary or supplementary to each other. Justify your answer.

Value Based Questions

1. In an organization Ashok and Sheela are working at the same posts but being male employee Ashok

has more rights than Sheela. Which value is violated here?

2. A firm has taken the decision to employ more male employees than female employees because they

can work overtime in case of excess work. Which values are being affected here?

3. An organization proposes the use of CFL’s and LED’s which consumes less electricity than normal

bulbs for its lighting arrangements. Which value is attained by the organization?

4. An organization has done plantation around its factory premises and only after purifying the wastes, it

throws it into the drains. Which values are being followed by the organization?

5. An entrepreneur wants to start his business in backward area because govt. gives many incentives &

rebates in taxes. Which results in low cost and he will be able to see the product at low prices. There he

will be able to get large area by deforestation. Which values are being affected here?

Chapter-III

Business Environment

VERY SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS (1 MARK)

1. What is Business Environment?

2. How have customers benefited by increased competition after liberalisation and globalisation?

3. How can the firms cope up with changing technological environment?

4. What do you mean by Globalisation?

5. Which policy of Indian Government has moved India towards globalisation?

6. What do you mean by disinvestment?

7. Give one measure taken by Indian Government to introduce liberalisation.

8. What do you mean by first mover advantage?

9. What are Values?

10. Which of the sector was given importance after independence?

11. What was the responsibility given to private sector after independence?

12. What do you mean by Liberalisation?

13. Which two factors are included in Technological Environment?

14. What is meant by opportunities?

15. What do you mean by Innovation?

16. Name the economic reforms introduced to free Indian business from unnecessary controls and restrictions.

SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS (3 OR 4 MARKS)

1. Define Business Environment. State two important concerns of business environment.

2. Explain the specific and general forces of business environment ?

3. Enumerate the benefits of understanding business environment.

4. What are the main dimensions of business environment ? What does environment consist of?

5. Explain the role of political environment in shaping the business.?

6. Explain the concept of technological environment.

7. What do you understand by legal environment? Give two examples which protect consumers' interests.

8. List the various changes initiated by the Government of India since 1991.

9. List some important factors that influence the working of a business enterprises?

LONG ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS ( 5 OR 6 MARKS)

1. What do you mean by business environment? Explain the key components of business environment.

2. What do you understand by economic environment? List the main aspects of economic environment.

3. Social environment of business is important for a business enterprise". Explain ?

4. Enumerate negative impacts of liberalization and globalisation.

5. Enumerate any ten Positive impacts of liberalization and globalization.

6. Explain any five negative impacts of liberalization and globalization.

HOTS Questions ( 1 Mark)

1. Why is business environment uncertain? - 1 Mark

2. What is meant by Market Orientation? - 1 Mark

3. How can environment awareness help managers? - 1 Mark

4. How can political stability be beneficial to the economy? - 1 Mark

5. What was the immediate cause of economic reforms in 1991? - 1 Mark

6. What is meant by threats?- 1 Mark

7. Give one of the most important objectives of Indian development

programmes at the time of independence.- 1 Mark

HOTS Questions (3-4 Marks)

8. 'Environment provides both constraints and opportunities." Comment.

9. Business environment or Environmental Scanning helps in the identification of threats and early warning signals." Explain

10. What is meant by liberalization? List the impact of changes in government policy on business and industry.

11. Explain the meaning of the term Privatisation? List any two reforms made under

Long Answer Questions ( 5-6 Marks)

12. Enumerate the various ways in which managers respond to changes in business environment.

14. Explain the changes initiated by the Government of India since 1991.

16. Explain any five ways in which managers have responded to changes in business environment.

Value Based Questions

1. In recent times the Govt. has increased the prices of diesel and LPG. Which value is being overlooked

here?

2. After the change in Government Policies, foreign companies like coca-cola has prohibited to work in

India. These steps of the government have boosted which values?

Selection Test

Chapter-IV Planning

Hots Questions

1. One of the functions of management is closely connected with creativity and innovation. Identify the management functions

2. Which functions of management is considered as the base of all other function ?

3. State any two consequences if there was no planning.

4. What is meant by ‘Pervasiveness of planning’ ?

5. Planning requires logical and systematic thinking rather than guen work. Which feature of planning is highlighted here ?

6. What is the focus of planning ?

7. Planning requires logical and systematic thinking rather than guen work. Which feature of planning is highlighted here ?

8. What is the focus of planning ?

9. How does planning reduce the risks of uncertainty ?

10. ‘Planning provides directions’. State two benefits derived from it.

11. Explain how controlling is not possible without planning.

12. Name any two factors which affect business plans.

13. While formulating a plan, the manager is required to make certain assumptions about the future. What are these assumptions called ?

14. How are alternative courses of action evaluated wile formulating a plan ?

15. How should a manager select the best possible course of action ?

16. Strategy is a comprehensive plan which includes three dimensions. Enumerate them.

17. Name the type of plan which serves as a guide for overall business planning and define the future state of affairs which the organization strives to realise.

18. Name the type of plan which provides a basis for interpreting the strategy.

19. State the relationship between policies and objectives.

20. Name the type of plan in which the minutest details are worked out, that is procedures, rule and budget within the broad frame work of policy.

21. Name the type of plan which is also a control device from which deviation can be taken care of.

22. Though a budget is a control device from which deviations can be taken care of, yet it comes under planning. Why ?

23. ‘Offering 30% jobs to women.’ What type of plan is it ?

24. Puneet electronics decides to sell television sets though exchange of old television sets. What type of plan is it ?

25. A company needs a detailed plan for its new project-Construction of shopping mall. What type of plan is it ?

26. Which function of management is considered as the base of all other functions ?

27. Which limitation of planning suggest that the employees step thinking and become the blind follows of plan ?

28. In which type of plan the sequences to perform a job are determined ?

29. Which plan suggests acts and non-action of employees ?

30. ‘No Smoking’-this statement is related to which type of plan ?

31. Mc Donald co. does not give its franchise to any other co. Which is running food business. This is related to which type of plan ?

32. In which step of planning process the planners make predictions and assumptions regarding future ?

33. ‘No enterprise can achieve its objectives’. Do you agree with this statement ? Give any five reasons in support of your answer.

34. Planning is not a guarantee of success of a business. Comment.

35. ‘Sometimes planning fails in spite of the best efforts of management’. Do you agree ? Give any five reasons in support of your answer.

36. Give two examples of goal, objectives, policy.

Very Short Answer type (3-4 Marks)

1. Define planning.

2. Point out whether Planning is a physical or mental activity.

3. Does planning eliminate risk ?

4. How does planning affect initiative ?

5. Name the managerial function, which is the beginning and end of all managerial activities.

6. Name three types of plan.

7. ‘Planning in mental preposition to do things!’ Who thinks so ?

8. Why is planning regarded as pervasive function of management ?

9. How does planning restrict creativity ?

10. What is meant by policies as a type of plans ?

11. Explain rule as a type of plan ?

12. Name the other name of directional plan.

13. Enumerate the differences between policies and strategies.

14. Distinguish between rules and methods.

15. State the limitations of planning.

16. How does planning help co-ordination ?

17. Explain the characteristics of a sound plan.

18. Write features of planning.

19. Why does planning fail sometimes in spite of the best efforts of management?

20. Planning involves choice. Explain.

Long Answer Type Questions (5-6 Marks)

1. Explain briefly any six points which highlighted the importance of planning.

2. State steps involved in planning process.

3. Planning is looking ahead and controlling is looking back. Explain.

4. What is planning ? How can Government policies and technological changes create problems in Planning ?

5. How does planning help co-ordination, facilitate decision making and promote creativity ?

6. How does planning reduce the risk of uncertainty, provide the bases of control and lead to economy ?

7. In spite of best efforts of managers sometimes planning fails to achieve desired results due to its

limitations. Explain any six limitations .

Value Based Questions

1. Which quality of employee is restricted by the act of planning?

2. Removal of mobile towers from residential area is being planned by the government to promote

which value?

3. Government is planning to construct a ware house in remote area to store necessary goods. So as to

make them available even at the time of bad weather regularly. Which values are being considered here to

be achieved by the government?

4. In order to reduce the cost, an organization is planning the following:

a) To reduce the charities to the social and religious institution.

b) To arrange skilled workers from outside inspite of semi-skilled local employees.

c) To increase the working hours.

d) To increase the rate of remuneration.

Which value will be affected by the decisions?

5. Tobacco manufacturer is planning to sell its products outside the School & colleges. Which values

are violated

here from your point of view?

6. In an organization executive director takes all the decision himself. He does give order only to the

subordinates. Which value is overlooked here?

Chapter – V Organising

Hots Questions

Q.1 Why does informal organisation exist within the framework of formal organisation? Give any two

reasons for the emergence of informal organization.

Q.2 A manager is of the view that he is not responsible for the quality of work that he has delegated to

his subordinate. “Do you agree with his view points? Explain.

Q.3 In a large organisation, why is decentralization considered almost essential?

Q.4 “Informal organisation cannot be altogether eliminated”. Do you agree with this statement? Give

reasons in support of your answer.

Q.5 Sushma Ltd. is engaged in the production of marble articles. The members of the org. have

friendly relations among them. What type of org. is Sushma Ltd.? Explain any 3 benefits of

developing such an org.

Q.6 In an electrical goods manufacturing Co. there are four main activities. Marketing, Production,

Finance and Personnel. The General Manager is planning to structure the organisation. Which

type of org. goal structure should be adopt and why? Give two reasons.

Q.7 Why does organising function earn due importance in the context of effective mgt?

Q.8 The first step in the process of organising is identification and division of work? Why is the work

divided into manageable activities?

Q.9 How can departments or divisions be created?

Q.10 How does organizing lead to specialization?

Q.11 How does organizing lead to optimum utilization of resources?

Q.12 Define span of management.

Q.13 How is span of management related to organisation structure?

Q.14 Which tern denotes “the number of subordinates that can be effectively managed by superior?

Q.15 Which type of organizational structure is suitable for high degree of specialization?

Q.16 Whether decentralization increases the importance of subordinates or reduces it?

Q.17 How does the concept ‘authority’ arise?

Q.18 What is the source of origin of ‘Responsibility’?

Q.19 “For effective delegation , the authority granted must be commensurate with the assigned

responsibility” Why?

Q.20 How does delegation facilitate employee development?

Q.21 How does delegation facilitate better co-ordination?

Q.22 As an organisation grows in size and complexity it becomes centralized or decentralized? Why?

Q.23 Why is it said that decentralized in spite of its benefits, should be applied with caution ?

Q.24 Why is it easy to fix responsibility in formal organisation?

Q.25 Which network of interaction facilitates emotional and mutual objectives to be fulfilled in an

organisation?

Q.26 Which organisational structure is suitable for a multiproduct manufacturing company?

Q.27 Which organizational structure is suitable for a uni-product manufacturing company?

Q.28 Name the concept which reduces the work load of a manager.

Q.29 Define span of control.

Q.30 In ABC Ltd. are the decisions are taken by top level management only. Which policy is followed

by organisation? Explain the drawback of this organisation.

Q.31 Delegation of authority is based on elementary. Principal of division of work. Explain.

Q.32 An organisation is manufacturing medicines cosmetics, textiles and soaps. What kind of organizational

structure is suitable for this organisation and why?

Q.33 “Authority can be delegated but accountability cannot be”. Explain.

Q.34 “The existence of informal organisation depends on the formal organisation”. Comment.

Q.35 “A manager is of view that he is not responsible for the quality of work that he has delegated to

his subordinate”. Do you agree with this view point ? Justify your answer.

Q.36 The directors of Narmade Ltd. have asked their marketing manager to achieve a target sale of 100 units per

day. The marketing manager has delegated the task to his deputy sales manager working under him. The deputy

sales manager could not achieve the target. Who is responsible for non-completion of task? Explain in brief the

relevant principal.

Q.37 Bhuvan & Co. are running a shoe manufacturing company successfully. So they planned to expand

their business activities by adding more line of product ie. leather bags, belts and garments. Which

type of structure would you recommend after expansion and why?

Very Short Answer Questions ( 1 Mark)

Q.1 Which organizational structure is suitable for a multi-product manufacturing company?

Q.2 Which organizational structure is suitable for a uni-product manufacturing company?

Q.3 Out of formal and informal organisation which is dependant upon which?

Q.4 How informal organisation is created?

Q.5 Name the organisation in which employees are allowed to communicate freely and there are no

rules and regulations.

Q.6 Distinguish between formal and informal on the basis of purpose.

Q.7 Name the concept which reduces the workload of a manager.

Q.8 Define span of control.

Q.9 Define job description.

Q.10 In ABC Ltd. all the decisions are taken by top level management only. Which policy is followed

by organisation? Explain the drawback of this organization

Short Answer Type Question

Q.1 How does informal system work.

Q.2 Write notes on functional org.

Q.3 Explain the importance of organizing as a function of mgt.

Q.4 What do you mean by divisional organization? Explain its characteristics.

Q.5 Give any three demerits of divisional organisation.

Q.6 Differentiate between formal and informal organisation on the basis of formation, purpose,

structure and communication.

Q.7 State any 3 circumstances in which functional organisation is more suitable.

Q.8 Explain how organizing helps in ‘specialisation’ and co-ordination.

Q.9 Explain the meaning of formal organisation.

Q.10 How is accountability related to authority? Explain.

Q.11 Delegation of authority is based on the elementary principle of division of work. Explain.

Q.12 Distinguish between decentralization and delegation on the basis of nature, control, need &

responsibility.

Q.13 Authority can be delegated but responsibility cannot. Explain.

Q.14 Delegation of authority is necessary in all types of organizations. Explain with reasons in support.

Long Answer Type QuestionsQ1. Distinguish between formal and informal organisation?

Q2. Explain the concepts of delegation and decentralization bringing out its distinction?

Q3. What is meant. by functional structure? Give its merits & demerits?

Q4. Why is organising considered an important function of management? Give any six reasons?

Q5. “Delegation is the entrustment of responsibility and authority to another and the creation of

accountability for performance.” Explain the elements of delegation in the light of this statement.

Value Based Questions

Q. 1 An electronic company manufacturing TV and Refrigerator wants to bring two new

products Washing Machines and AC’s in the market. For each product separate division are to be

set up. Incharge of working machine division and AC’s division will be female and disabled

person respectively. Which values have been considered here?

Q.2 In an organization top level management has not distributed work among the subordinate

according to their abilities and skill but has been distributed on the basis of caste and religions.

Which values are neglected here?

Q.3 A manager has kept all right of decision making with himself. Each and every employee has

to come to him for orders again and again. Which values are being violated here?

Q.4 In an organization formal organization is followed strictly where the employees have to

work as per the directions only. The employees are performing under pressure. In your view,

what changes are required in this company?

CHAPTER–VI

STAFFING (1 Mark)

1. Which functions of management helps in obtaining right people and putting them on the right jobs.

2. Name the process concerned with searching for prospective candidates for vacant job position.3. Differentiate between work load analysis and work force analysis?4. Out of training and development, which one is a wider concept ?5. What is pre-requisite to selection ?6. If right kind of employees are not available it will lead to :—7. Any two duties of Human resource management.

8. What is an inherent part of human resource management ?

9. What is both a line as-well as a staff activity ?

10. What is recruitment ?

11. What are the internal sources of Recruitment ?

12. Why recruitment is regarded as a Positive Process and selection is a negative process.

13. If you wish to plan for a lifetime what is required ?

14. Why the importance of employee training has increased.

Short Answer Type Question

1. “Selection is a negative process”. Explain.

2.How is staffing a line as well as staff function?

3. Despite the internal sources of recruitment being economical, why do the companies not always use this source?

Give any four reasons.

4. Mr. Abhi , a newly appointed production manager of ABC Ltd. Is of the view that there is no benefit in training of

workers.Do you agree

with his views? Give reasons.

Long Answer Type Questions1.“Human resource management has replaced the traditional concept of Labour Welfare and Personnel

management.” Do you agree with this statement. Explain

2.Which function of management helps in obtaining right people and putting them at the right jobs?

Explain any five points of importance of this function.

3. Define staffing process. What are various steps involved in it? Explain these steps.

4. The staffing function is performed by every manager& not necessarily by a separate department? Explain.

5. Describe any three on the job and off the job training methods.

Value Based Questions

Q.1 A personnel manager while selecting new employees appoints only those persons who fulfills his

personal requirement directly or indirectly. Which values are violated here?

Q.2 In an organization the female employees are getting promotion late as compared to male

employees. Which value is missing here?

Q.3 An employee has been terminated due to a small mistake without hearing him, while the

other one was not terminated on the same mistake. Which value has been neglected here?

Q.4 An automobile Company runs a factory in a backward area. It has opened a training center

to train the people. Which value has been kept in mind here?

Q.5 An organization places an advertisement for employment mentioning some terms there in.

those terms are not followed during selection of employee. Which values are ignored ?

Q.6 A production manager pays less than the minimum wages and gets their signatures on

minimum wages. Which values are not being followed by him?

Unit –VII Directing

Q.31 A Supervisor hears the suggestions and also implements the good suggestions while taking

decision for the employees? Which value has been given importance here?

Q.32 In an organization the good environment, refreshment Corner and entertainment rooms

have been made for all employees. Which values have been considered here?

Q.33 In an organization the employees are being paid fair wages/ remuneration and productivity

based bonus. Which values are highlighted here?

Q.34 A liquor manufacturing firm provides liquors to its employees at cheaper rates to motivate

them. Which values are deficient in this plan?

Q.35 In an organization, informal communication is stressed instead of formal communication

which results in non reaching of proper communication to proper person in proper time. It results

in either non completion or delay in work. Which values have been violated her?

Q.36 A leader solves the problems relating to work and the personal problems also of the

followers. Which value he is following here?

Half Yearly Examination

CHAPTER VII – DIRECTINGHOTS QUESTIONS

Q1. Give examples as to how directing takes place at each level of organization? (1)

Q2. A co. wants to replace manual production technique with mechanized techniques. labour unions are resisting this change. Which function of management will help in introducing this change and how?

(1)

Q3. An element of the directing function seeks to provide inducement to employees to act in a particular manner. Name this element. Can this inducement be in a negative manner also if so give examples. (1)

Q4. In Maslow’s need hierarchy identify the needs which can be satisfied with financial incentives and also those which can be satisfied with non financial incentives? (1)

Q5. Narainmurthy and J R D Tata are leaders of great status and eminence. Why do you think these role was critical in building their organisation’s fortunes? (1)

Q6. Explain the elements in communication process which come in between the receiver and sender? (1)

Q7. Explain the concept of noise with suitable example?

Q8. Explain how communication

(a) Increases managerial efficiency

(b) promotes co-operation and industrial peace.

Q9. What are the classification of vertical communication. Give example?

Q10. What is grapevine communication. How is both useful and a cause for disturbance in an organization?

Q11. Ram finds his task as a typist. routine and filled with boredom. His supervisor senses his predicament and wants to motivate him. Suggest ways and means by which he can be motivated?

Q12. Sometimes emotions or state of mind stand in way of effective communication. Name the type of barriers cited above. Give any two examples of such type of barriers?

Q13. Sachin, manager in evergreen industries Ltd is not successful as he is unable to communicate effectively. Suggest some measures where by he can improve his effectiveness.

Q14. A type or communication satisfies social and psychological needs of employees? Name this type of communication. Why is it beneficial to an organisation?

Q15. Techniques of direction cannot be standardised and be the same for all types of employees. Do you agree. Give reasons?

Q16. Explain briefly how directing brings about stability in an organisation.

Q17. To ensure that operations at the shop floor are ably carried out, the services of a good supervisor is required. Do you agree. Give reasons?

Q18. Why are needs arranged in a Hierarchy? Explain the various types of needs as per Maslaw’s hierarchy citing individuals and organisation as examples.

Q19. “What is a perquisites?

Q20. Money is the biggest motivates”. Do you agree. Give examples of needs which cannot be satisfied with monetary incentives alone?

QUESTION BANK

Q.1 Define leadership. (1)

Q.2 What is incentive? (1)

Q.3 Give two functions of a supervisor. (1)

Q.4 Explain laissez faire or free rein leaders (1)

Q.5 Give the motivational process. (1)

Q.6 How’s delegation a means of directing? (1)

Q.7 Explain informal leaders. (1)

Q.8 How are managerial and leadership qualities interrelated. (1)

Q.9 Why is informal communication known as Grapevine? (1)

Q.10 Give the communication process. (1)

Q.11 Distinguish between formal communication & informal communication. (1)

Q.12 Anil and Sunil are working in Astro Ltd as production incharge & sales incharge respectively. One day

during lunch time Sunil informed Anil that due to computerization many people are going to be retrenched

Name which type of communication is this, state any two limitations of this type of communication.

(3)

Q.13 ‘Directing is the process around which all performance of an organization revolves.. Do you agree. Give two

points in support of your answer. (3)

Q.14 Establish the importance of motivation in modern organization by giving three suitable reasons.

(5)

Q.15 Define the terms “Monetary and Non Monetary Incentive” Enumerate various Financial and non-financial

incentives used to motivate people to improve performance. (3)

Q.16 Explain the following :- (3)

a) Job Enrichment

b) Suggestion system

c) Job security

Q.17 “Efficiency and productivity” depend upon quality of leadership. Do you agree. Give two reasons to support

your answer. (3)

Q.18 Explain the ‘communication network’ and how it works? (3)

Q.19 Name the type of written communication in which two departmental heads communicate with each other.

Why is this type of communication required? (3)

Q.20 Write a note on downward communication and upward communication. (3)

Q.21 Differentiate between formal & informal communication on the basis of :- (5)

i)Channel ii) Nature iii) Speed iv) Need v) Records.

Q.22 Workers of a factory often seek guidance of production Manager the production manager finds himself over

burdened. Advise the way to relieve the production manager. (5)

Q.23 How can an organisation overcome the barrier to effective communication? (5)

Q.24 Give examples individual needs and organizational needs in relation to Moslow’s need hierarchy.

(5)

Q.25 Explain briefly responsibilities of a supervisor towards workers. (5)

Chapter – VIII Controlling

Short Answer Questions

1. What is feedback in controlling ?

2. What is the significance of standard ?

3. What is deviation in controlling ?

4. Which two steps in the process of control are concerned with compelling events to conform to plan ?

5. What is compared with that in controlling ?

6. What is the last step in the process of controlling ?

7. What is meant by budgetary control ?

8. Name the two techniques of analysing deviations ?

9. How does controlling help in achieving organizational goals ?

10. How does controlling help in efficient utilisation of resources ?

11. How does controlling helps in ensuring order and discipline ?

12. Why is controlling called a backward looking function ?

13. What is critical point control ?

14. What do you mean by ‘key result area (KRA’s) in the context of controlling ?

15. Only increase in labour cost beyond 2% should be brought to the notice of the management. Which principle of control have been highlighted by this statement ?

HOTS Questions:

1. Name the two techniques of Controlling.

2. What is ‘deviation’ in Controlling Process ?

3. Name any one type of budget.

4. How does controlling help in achieving organizational goals ?

5. How does controlling help in ensuring order and discipline ?

6. What is MBE ?

7. Define Standard.

8. Why controlling is called backward looking function ?

9. Name the first step in Controlling Process.

10. What is the basis of Controlling Process ?

15. Give one corrective measure to improve the motivation level of workers.

Short Answer Questions (3-4 Marks)

Q1. “Controlling is blind without Planning’ Comment.

Q2. “Controlling is the last function of management”. Comment.

Q3. ‘If you try to control everything, you may end up controlling nothing”. Explain.

Q4. “Planning is looking ahead and controlling is looking back”. Comment.

Q5. What is ‘critical point control’ ?

Q6. What is control by Exception.

Q7. “Controlling doesn’t require any process”. Comment.

Q8. “An ideal control technique is one that check every bit of performance” comment.

5-6 Mark

Q1. Y Ltd. Produces safety pins on a mass scale. The co.’s policy is that at the most 2% of the daily production could be defective over a three months period it has been observed that 8-10% of the production is defective.Identify the managerial function required to correct the above situation. Briefly explain the procedure to be followed for the purpose.

Q2. X Ltd. is engaged in manufacturing machine components. The target production is 200 units per day. The company had been successfully attaining this target until two months ago. Over the last two months, it has been observed that daily production varies b/w 150 & 170 units.Identify the management function to rectify the above situation. Briefly state the procedure to be followed so that the actual production may come up to the target production.

Q. 3 “Control does not require any process”. Comment.Q 4. Explain to a newly appointed foreman, under whose supervision school bags are being made,

how he has to carry out process of control ?

Q 5. “An ideal control technique is one that checks every bit of performance”. Comment.

Q 6. There are two managers Rahim and Pankaj. Rahim is saying that controlling is forward looking where as according to Pankaj controlling is looking back Who correct ? Explain why ?

Q 7. If planning is done carefully and accordingly other functions of management are going in the right direction, then there is no need of the controlling functions of management’. Do you agree with the statement. Give reasons in support of your answer ?

(5-6 Marks Questions)1. Define management controlling. Explain the various steps involved in controlling process.2. Explain the importance of controlling.3. ‘If planning is done carefully and accordingly other functions of management are going in right

direction then there is no need of the controlling function of management.’ Do you agree with the statement ? Justify your answer.

4. How are planning and controlling interdependent and inter-linked ?

Value Based QuestionsQ.1 In controlling process, standards were set according to the efficiency of the average

employee. Which value has been kept in mind while setting the standards?

Q.2 On coming to know the negative deviations, fines are imposed on errorssing employees.

Which value is being violated her?

Q.3 In company employees achieved quantitative standard but could not attain qualitative

standards. Which values have been ignored here?

Q.4 A manager observes that an old employee is not doing the required work. Manager scolds

him rudely without asking him the reasons. In your view how the manager would have behaved

and which values he should have kept in his mind?

Q.5 A supervisor observes that during working hours some employees were busy in gossiping

instead of working. Inspite of instructions they did not start working .when the matter was

brought to the notice of management the union threatened to go on strike. In your view was the

behavior of employee and the union was justified?

CHAPTER–IX

FINANCIAL MANAGEMENT

HIGH ORDER THINKING SKILLS QUESTIONS

Q. 1 Write the full form of the terms :-

a) EBIT b) ROI (1)

Q.2 State which type of capital structure (more equity based or debt based) would a company adopt when.

a) The stock market is bullish b) The stock market is bearish. (1)

Q.3 Seema is a manufacture who deals in bakery products. Reena also a manufacturer deals in stainless steel ware.

Based on length of operating cycle state who would require more working capital?

(1)

Q.4 State the foremost objective of financial management. (1)

Q.5 “Ploughing back of profits holds the key to success of a business enterprises”. Do you agree. Give two reasons.

Q.6 Give reasons why fixed capital requirement of the electronic and computer industry are different from those of

furniture industry.

Q.7 A decision in financial management is basically concerned about now much to raise and from which source.

Name the type of decision. Also explain two vital factors to be kept in mind while taking such decisions.

(3)

Q.8 You are the finance manager of DO WELL INDUSTRIES LTD.. The firm has earned a profit of 100 crores.

Management wants to retain the profit fully in the business without paying any dividend Advise the

management on the negative impact of doing so. (Any two reasons).

(3)

Q.9 Name the activity which essentially involves “preparation” of financial blue of an enterprise’s future

operations. “Also state any two advantages of this activity. (3)

Q.10 Explain giving reasons why firms with :- (4)

a) High debtors turnover ratio and

b) High inventory turnover ratio require lesser amount of working capital.

Q.11 Explain with the suitable example how ‘lead time’ affects working capital requirements of a business?

(4)

Q.12 Apollo Ltd, has earned a profit which is very high,. However the firm faces a short term liquidity

crunch .Explain how it will affect the dividend decision which are to be taken.

(4)

Q.13 What are the condition that a company must consider before it tardes on equity?

(4)

Q.14 “Capital budgeting decisions can make or break a firms fortunes? Do you agree. Give reasons why? (four

reasons) (5)

Q.15 Swaja, the finance manager of OPTIMA LTD. A firm dealing in telecommunication equipment chose a capital

structure which was Lightly geared :-

i) What do you understand by a highly geared capital structure?

ii) What are the implications of choosing such a structure? (5)

Q.16 Rama Enterprises a small business concern wants to expand its capital base. However the firm faces a major

threat of takeover by a bigger concern in the same line of operations.

(5)

a) Advice the firm on what type of capital it should raise?

b) Give reasons also.

Q.17 i) What is interest coverage ratio? (6)

ii) How does it affect capital structure?

iii) Illustrate effect of interest coverage ratio on capital structure with a suitable example.

Q.18 State whether the following require huge or low fixed capital give reason also

i) The manufacturing concern. (6)

ii) The cottage/small scale industry.

iii) A petrochemical Co. which is going to diversify operations and enter the textile business also .

Q.19 Inflation has affected working capital requirement of all firms”. (6)

a) What do you think is impact of inflation on working capital?

b) Give reasons for your answer.

c) Also explain how credit allowed and credit availed affects working capital requirements of a

business.

Q.20 Comment on the fixed capital requirement of the following industries giving suitable reasons :-

(6)

a) A construction firm? Which has provisions to tease earthmoving equipment and bulldozers.

b) A electronic goods manufacture who has entered into a collaboration with a giant firm in South East

Asia.

QUESTION BANK ( VERY SHORT ANSWER)

Q1. When is the dividend decision treated as a residual decision ? 1

Q2. What is ‘stock dividend’ ? How does it affect a company ? 1

Q3. When is a capital structure said to be optimum ? 1

Q4. State the concept of financial leverage ? How is it computed ? 1

Q5. Explain the term financial risk. 1

Q6. Define business finance. 1

Q7. Give the full form of 1

ROI

ICR

Q8. When an asset said to be more liquid ? 1

Q9. To avoid the problem of shortage and surplus of funds what is required in financial management ? Name

the concept involved. 1

Q10. Depict the effect of a higher debtor turnover ratio on working capital needs of a firm.

1

Q11. Distinguish between fixed and working capital. 3

Q13. Capital structure and capitalisation way consist of the same components and yet they may differ”.

Explain briefly. 3

Q14. Explain any four factors which affect the capital structure of a business enterprises.

4

Q15. What are capital budgeting decisions ? Explain factors affecting such decisions.

4

Q16. State and explain whether the following have small or large working capital requirements.

(i) A firm trading in biscuits

(ii)A manufacturer of steel pipes

(iii) A firm selling ice-creams.

(iv) A firm following a liberal credit policy. 5

Explain why management of fixed capital is considered critical to an enterprises success.

Q17. Explain how the following affect capital structure

(a) Stock market conditions

(b) cost of debt. 5

Q18. Clearly state the role of a financial manager in a business. 6

Q19. Explain any five factors affecting financing decisions. 6

Q20. (a) Which decision determines the amount of profit to be retained in the business ? Explain any two

factors affected this decision.

(b) Name the other two important decision taken by a financial manager. 6

Value Based Questions

Q.1 In a company profits are heavy and in future less scope of expansion exists. Company has

decided to pay a very less dividends. Here which value and whose interest have been affected?

Q.2 A company wants to show higher profit and for this:

a) Depreciation was charged at lower rates.

b) Goodwill, Patents, Trademarks and other intangible assets were shown at higher value.

Explain the value which is affected her?

Q.3 A wholesaler of onion comes to know that due to less production the prices of onion will

increase heavily. He store the onion and during rising prices. Earn heavy profits by selling the

stored onion. From the earned profits he provides some money for social activities also. In this

situation which values he affects here. ?

Chapter – X

Financial Market

HOTS QUESTIONS

Q1. Write the full form of

i. NSDL

ii. DFHI

Q4. De materialization of securities has totally stream lined the working of Stock Exchanges in India.

Comment.

Q5. Volvo Ltd is proposing to issue capital through on live system of stock exchange and has entered into an

agreement with The Stock exchange. What would this type of issue be called ?

Q6. “Demutualization has reduced conflict the interest between exchange & broker”. How ?

Q7. Certain instruments of money market is short term self liquidating & used to finance credit sales name the

instruments.

Q8. State briefly how SEBI acts as watch dog of investors interest.

Q10. “Financial market perform an allocative function”. How ?

Q11. Explain briefly how call rate is interlinked to other sources of finance such as commercial papers and

certificate deposit.

Q12. A Method of floating new issues does not deal directly to public but operates through inter me

chases like issuing louses and brokers’ Name the Mehtod.

Q13. “Stock Exchange spread the equity cult in the country”. Do you agree. Give reason.

Q14. Name the benchmark of the BSE (Bombay stock Exchange). What does it indicate ?

Q15. Distinguish between rights issue and private placement as methods of floating new issue.

Q16. How has SEBI played a developmental role in raising the standard of trending in ‘Indian Stock

Market’ ?

Q17. Briefly discuss price discovery mechanism in financial market.

Q18. What are financial assets ? How do financial market provide liquidity to time ?

Q19. What is the other name given to zero coupen bond issued by RBI on behalf of Govt of India ? Why

are they called zero coupen bond.

Q20. Financial market are a boon to buyers & sellers as they reduce the cost of transaction. Explain how ?

Q21. What is bridge financing ?

Question Bank

Q1.State the two categories into which financial markets are classified? (1)

Q2.Why are financial markets said to perform allocative function? (1)

Q4.Brite Industries Ltd raises its share capital by allotment to some selected individuals and institutional investors. Name the method chosen by it to raise capital? (1)

Q5.Define a stock exchange? (1)

Q6.Explain briefly how stock exchanges provide liquidity and market ability to existing securities? (1)

Q9.What is the name given to the benchmark index of the Bombay stock exchange? (1)

Q10.State briefly have SEBI protects the interest of the investors? (3)

Q11.Explain the following concepts with reference of a stock exchange:-

(a) Listing of security

(b) DeMat Account

Q12.Excel Ltd proposes to raise capital from the public to the time of Rs.100 crores. It proposes to go public through the online system of the stock exchange. What is this method of raising capital called? State briefly the procedure for the same? (3)

Q13.Briefly differentiate between dematerialisation of securities and demultualisation of stock exchange? (3)

Q14.State briefly the names of the three interest groups for productions of whose interest SEBI was established. Also write how it protects the interests of any one such group? (3)

Q15.How does a stock exchange aid in pricing of securities? (3)

Q16. What is call money? Explain the effect of call rate on other sources of finance such as commercial paper. (4)

Q17.State any two regulatory and protective functions of SEBI (4)

Q18. Write a brief note on the organisation of SEBI? (4)

Q19.Explain briefly with an example why treasury bills are also called zero coupon bonds?

Q20.What is Bridge Financing? Which instrument of money market is used as a source of Bridge Financing? (5)

Q21.Write the objectives of SEBI? (5)

Q22.(a) Name the methods of floatation of issues in the primary market. (6)

(c) Name and describe the privilege given to existing shareholders to subscribe to new issues.

(d) Name the main investors in the primary market.

Value Based Questions

Q.1 A public Ltd. Co. achieved the minimum subscriptions by (private placement). Whose

interest has been ignored here?

Q.2 A fast food manufacturing foreign company plans to open chain of cheap fast food

centers near the schools in Delhi. According to you what will be the results of this plan?

Q.3 A Company does window dressing in its financial statement to attract investors and

creditors. Is it correct in your opinion? Which values are affected here?

Subject: AccountancyRevision Assignment-1

Fundamentals of Partnership Accounting1 A and B contribute Rs. 50,000 and Rs. 30,000 respectively as capital on which they agree to allow

interest at 6% p.a. Their profit sharing ratio is 3:2 and the profit for the year is Rs. 4,000 before allowing interest on capitals. What will be the Interest on capital payable to each partner?

1

2 Define goodwill. 13 If fixed amount is withdrawn in the beginning of each quarter, for what period the interest on the total

amount will be calculated?1

4 R and S were partners in a firm sharing profits in the ratio of 3:5. Their Fixed Capitals were: Ram Rs. 5, 00,000 and Shyam Rs. 9, 00,000. After the accounts of the year had been closed, it was found that interest on capital at 10% per annum as provided in the partnership agreement has not been credited to the Capital Accounts of the partners. Pass a necessary entry to rectify the error.

3

5 Pappu and Munna are partners in a firm sharing profits in the ratio of 3:2. The partnership deed provided that Pappu was to be paid salary of Rs.2,500 per month and Munna was to get commission of Rs.10,000 per year. Interest on Pappu’s drawings was Rs.1,250 and on Munna’s drawings and on Munna’s drawings Rs.425. Capital of the partners were Rs.2,00,000 and Rs.1,50,000 respectively, and were fixed. The firm earned a profit of Rs.90,575 for the year ended 31.2.2004. Prepare P/L Appropriation Account of the firm. Also prepare the capital accounts of the partners.

3

6 The average profits of the firm are Rs.1,50,000. The total tangible assets in the firm are Rs.14,00,000 and outside liabilities are Rs.4,00,000. In the same type of business, the normal rate of return is 10% of the capital employed. Calculate the value of goodwill by capitalization of Super Profit Method.

3

7 Ram and Shyam were partners in a firm sharing profits in the ratio of 3:5.They admit Radhe as a new partner for ¼ share, which he acquired equally from Ram and Shyam. General Reserve appeared in the books at Rs.40,000, also there was a debit balance of Rs.12,000 in profit and loss account. Partners do not want to disturb General Reserve but want to take up P/L balance. Give necessary journal entry to give effect to above.

3

8 The partners of a firm distributed the profits for the year ended 31st March,2003, Rs.1,40,000 in the ratio 2:2:1 without providing for the following adjustments:(1) A and B were entitled to salary of Rs.1,500 per quarter.(2) C was entitled to commission of Rs. 8,000(3) A and C had guaranteed a minimum profit of Rs.50,000 p.a. to B(4) Profits were to be shares in the ratio of 3:3:2.Pass necessary journal entries.

4

9 Rajan and Rajni are partners in a firm. Their capitals were Rajan Rs.3,00,000; Rajni Rs.2,00,000. During the year 2012 the firm earned a profit of Rs.1,50,000. Calculate the value of goodwill of the firm assuming that the normal rate of return is 20%.

3

10 Ragesh and Ravi are partners with capitals of Rs. 50,000 and Rs. 60,000 respectively. On 1st January 1998, Ragesh gives a loan of Rs. 10,000 and Ravi introduced Rs. 20,000 as additional capital. Profit for the year ending 31st March 1998 was Rs. 15,200. There is no partnership deed. Both Ragesh and Ravi expect interest @ 10% p.a. on the loan and additional capital advanced by them. Show how the profits would be divided? Give reasons.

3

11 The partners of a firm distributed the profits for the year ended 31st March,2003, Rs.1,40,000 in the ratio 2:2:1 without providing for the following adjustments:(1) A and B were entitled to salary of Rs.1,500 per quarter.(2) C was entitled to commission of Rs.8,000(3) A and C had guaranteed a minimum profit of Rs.50,000 p.a. to B(4) Profits were to be shares in the ratio of 3:3:2.Pass necessary journal entries.

3

12 A, B and C are partners in a firm. A and B sharing profits in the ratio of 5:3 and C receiving a salary of Rs. 150 per month, plus a commission of 5% on the profits after charging such salary and commission or 1/5 the of the profits of the firm, whichever is larger. Any excess of the latter over the former is, under the partnership agreement, to be borne personally by A. The profits for the year ended 31st March, 2010 amounted to Rs. 10,710 after charging C’s salary. Prepare the Profit and Loss Appropriation Account showing the division of the profits of the firm.

4

13 M and N were partners in a firm sharing profits in the ratio of 3:1. Their Balance sheet as on 31.3.2014 was follows. From April1,2014 they decided to share profits equally.

Liabilities Amt. Assets Amt.CreditorsBills PayableOutstanding SalaryInvestment Fluc. FundCapital Accounts: M 2,00,000 N 1,80,000

28,00080,0002,000 10,000 3,80,000

CashDebtorsStockPlantLand and BuildingInvestments

50,000 60,000 40,0001,00,0001,50,0001,00,000

5,00,000 5,00,000 (1) Goodwill of the firm is valued at Rs.90,000.

(2) Plant is to be appreciated to Rs.1,30,000 and the value of land and building is to be appreciated by 5%

(3) Stock is overvalued by Rs.6,000(4) A provision for bad and doubtful debts is to be created at 5% on debtors.(5) There were unrecorded creditors Rs.4,500(6) Investments amounted to Rs.80,000

Partners decided not to open goodwill account. Also do not want to record the revised values of assets and liabilities. Give necessary journal entries to record the above adjustments and draw the final Balance Sheet.

6

Revision Assignment-2Reconstitution of PartnershipAdmission of the Partner

1 Kumar & Rao were partners in a firm sharing profits equally. They admitted ghosh as a new partner for 1/4th share in the profits.Ghosh acquired his 1/4th share from Kumar & Rao in the ratio of 3:2respectively.Ghosh brought Rs 2,70,000 for his capital and Rs 39,000 for 1/4th share of goodwill. Calculate new profit sharing ratio of Kumar, Rao Ghosh and pass necessary journal entries for the above transactions in the books of the firm.

3

2 Rao, Ramesh and Gopal were partners in a firm sharing profits in the ratio of 3:5:2. They admitted Sudarshan as a new partner. Rao, Ramesh and Gopal each surrendered 1/10th of his share in favour of Sudarshan. Sudarshan brought Rs. 4, 00,000 for his capital and Rs. 30,000 for his share of goodwill. Calculate new profit sharing ratio of Rao, Ramesh, Gopal and Sudarshan and also pass necessary journal entries in the books of the firm for the above transactions.

3

3 A and B are partners in a firm sharing profits in the ratio of 3:1. They admitted C as a new partner. The new profit sharing ratio of A, B and C will be 2:1:1. C brought Rs.2,50,000 for his capital but could not bring his share of goodwill Rs.10,000 in cash.Pass necessary journal entries in the books of the firm for the amount of capital brought in by C and for the treatment of goodwill.

3

4 Arti and Bharti are partners in a firm sharing profits in 3:2 ratios. They admitted Sarithi as a new partner and the new profit sharing ratio will be 2:1:1.Sarthi brought Rs 10,000 for her share of goodwill.Goodwill already appeared in the books of Arti and Bharti at Rs 5,000.Pass necessary journal entries in the books of the new firm for the above transactions.

3

5 M and N were partners in a firm sharing profits in 7:3 ratio. They admitted O as a new partner. The new profit sharing ratio will be 3:1:1. O brought Rs.2,00,000 for his capital and Rs.20,000 for his 1/5 share of goodwill. Half of the goodwill was withdrawn by M and N.Calculate sacrificing ratio and pass necessary journal entries in the books of the firm for the above transactions.

3

6 M and N were partners in a firm sharing profits in 7:3 ratio. They admitted O as a new partner. The new profit sharing ratio will be 3:1:1. O brought Rs.2,00,000 for his capital and Rs.20,000 for his 1/5 share of goodwill. Half of the goodwill was withdrawn by M and N. Calculate sacrificing ratio and pass necessary journal entries in the books of the firm for the above transactions.

4

7 X and Y were partners in a firm sharing profits in 5:3 Ratio they admitted Z as a new partner for 1/3rd share in the profit. Z was to contribute Rs. 20,000 as his capital. The Balance Sheet of X and Y on 1.4.2007 the date of Z’s admission was as follows:

Liabilities Amount Rs.

Assets Amount Rs.

CreditorsCapital:

X 50,000Y 35,000

General Reserve

27,000

85,00016,000

Land and BuildingPlant and MachineryStockDebtors 20,000Less- Provision for doubtful debts 1,500InvestmentsBank

25,00030,00015,000

18,50020,00019,500

1,28,000 1,28,000

Other terms agreed upon were: i. Goodwill of the firm was valued at Rs. 12,000. ii Land and Building were to be valued at Rs. 35,000 and Plant and Machinery at Rs. 25,000. iii. The provision for doubtful debts was found to be in excess by Rs. 400. iv. A liability for Rs. 1,000 included in sundry creditors was not likely to arise. v. The capitals of the partners be adjusted on the basis of Z’s contributions of capital in the firm. vi. Excess or shortfall if any to be transferred through bank account. Prepare Revaluation

Account, Partner’s Capital Accounts and the Balance Sheet of the new firm.

8

8 The following is the Balance Sheet as on 31st December, 2002 of A and B, who share profits and losses in the ratio of 3 : 2 :Liabilities Rs. Assets Rs.Capital Accounts:A B General Reserve

Workmen's Compens Fund Creditors

10,00010,00015,000

5,00010,00050,000

Plant & MachineryLand and Buildings Debtors 12,000Less: Prov.for doubtful debts 1,000 Stock Cash

10,0008,000

11,00012,0009,000

50,000On 1st January, 2003, they agreed to admit C into partnership on the following terms:(i) Provision of doubtful debts would be increased by Rs. 2,000.(ii) The value of Land and building would be increased to Rs. 18,000.(iii) The value of stock would be increased by Rs. 4,000.(iv) The liability against Workmen’s Compensation Fund is determined at Rs. 2,000.(v) C brought in as his share of goodwill Rs. 10,000 in cash.(vi) C would bring further cash as would make his capital equal to 20% of the total capital of the new firm after the above revaluation and adjustments are carried out.

8

Prepare Revaluation Account, Partner’s Capital Accounts and Balance Sheet of the firm after C’s admission.

9 Ali & Bali were partners in a firm sharing profits in the ratio of 3 : 2. They admitted Khali as a new partner for 1/6th share in the profits. Khali was to bring Rs. 40,000 as his capital and the capitals of Ali and Bali were to be adjusted on the basis of Khali’s capital having regard to profit sharing ratio. The Balance Sheet of A and B as on 3 1.3.2006 was as follows:

Balance Sheet of A and B as on 31.3.2006

LiabilitiesAmount Assets Amount

Creditors Bills Payable Invest.Fluct.FundAdvertisement suspenseGeneral Reserve Capitals

Ali Bali

36,00020,00010,00010,00024,000

1,50,00080,000

3,30,000

CashInvestmentsDebtors StockMachineryBuilding

10,00020,00034,00024,000 42,0002,00,000

3,30,000

The other terms of agreement on C’s admission were as follows:i. Khali fails to bring Rs. 12,000 for his share of goodwill.

ii. Building will be valued at Rs. 1, 85,000 and machinery was increased by Rs. 40,000.

iii. A provision of 6% will be created on debtors for bad debts.

iv. Investments were valued at Rs.8,000

v. Capital accounts of Ali and Bali will be adjusted by opening Current Accounts.

Give necessary Journal entries and also prepare Revaluation Account, Partners Capital Accounts and the Balance Sheet of Ali, Bali and Khali.

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Revision Assignment-3

Topic: Retirement and Death of the Partner

1 What is the nature of the amount due to an outgoing partner? 1

2 How can the amount due to the Retiring Partner be settled? 1

3 X,Y, Z share profits in the ratio of 5:3:2 respectively. Y retires and X & Z decide to share future profits and losses in the ratio of 3:5. At the time of retirement of Z, Debtors and Provision for doubtful Debts appeared at Rs.38,000 and Rs.4,000 respectively. Rs.3,000 debtors proved bad. A provision of 5% is to be created on S. debtors for doubtful debts. Pass necessary journal entries.

3

4 A,B,C Partners in a firm. B retires and his claim including his capital and his share of goodwill is Rs.40,000. He is paid in kind of a vehicle valued at Rs.20,000 unrecorded in the books till the date of retirement and the balance in cash. Give necessary journal entry to record payment to B.

3

5 A, B and C were partners sharing profits in the ratio of 6:4:5. Their capitals were A-Rs.1,00,000, B-Rs80,000 And C-Rs.60,000. B retired. New Ratio between A&C determined at 11:4. On B’s retirement goodwill of the firm was valued at Rs.1,80,000. Journalise. Show your working Clearly.

4

6 Ganesh, Shyam and Ram are partners in a firm sharing profits in the proportion of ½, 1/6 and 1/3 respectively.

Liabilities Amt. Assets Amt.Bills PayableSundry creditorsReserve Capital Accounts: Ganesh 30,000 Shyam 30,000 Ram 28,000

12,00018,00012,000 0000000000000 88,000

Freehold PremisesMachineryFurnitureStockSundry Debtors 20,000Less: Reserve for bad debts 1,000Cash

40,00030,00012,00022,000 0000019,0007,000

1,30,000 1,30,000

Ram retires from the business and the partners agree to the following revaluation:a) Freehold premises and stock are to be appreciated by 20% and 15% respectively.b) Machinery and furniture are to be depreciated by 10% and 7% respectivelyc) Bad debts reserve is to be increased to Rs.1,500d) A goodwill is valued at Rs.21,000 on Ram’s retirement.e) The continuing partners have decided to pay off Ram by bringing in or paying off cash &adjust their capitals in their new profit sharing ratio after retirement of Ram. Pass necessary ledger accounts and draw the balance sheet of reconstituted firm.

7 Pam, Neil and Sam are partners sharing profits in the ratio of 3:2:1. Neil retired from the firm due to his illness. On that date the Balance Sheet of the firm was as follows as on March 31.2007. Liabilities Rs. Assets Rs.General Reserve 12,000 Bank 7,600Sundry Creditors 15,000 Debtors 6,000

Less Provision for Bad debts 400 5,600

Bills Payable 12,000 Stock 9,000Outstanding Salary 2,200 Furniture 41,000Provision for legal damages 6,000 Premises 80,000Pam’s capital 46,000 Neil’s capital 30,000 Sam’s capital 20,000 1,43,200 1,43,200

Additional Information:(i) Premises have appreciated by 20%, stock depreciated by 10% and provision for doubtful

debts was to be made 5%on debtors. (ii) Further, provision for legal damages is to made for Rs. 1200 and furniture to be brought

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up to Rs. 4500.(ii) Goodwill of the firm be valued at Rs. 42,000.(iii) Rs. 26,000 from Neil’s Capital Account be transferred to his loan account and balance be

paid through bank; if required, necessary loan may be obtained from Bank.(iii) New profit sharing ratio of Pam and Sam is decided to be 5:1.

Give the necessary ledger accounts and balance sheet of the firm after Neil’s retirement.

8 A , B and C were partners in a firm sharing profits in the ratio of 5:3:2. On 31st March , 2006 their Balance sheet was as under : Liabilities

Rs. Assets Rs.

Capitals A 30,000B 25,000C 15,000 Reserves Creditors

000000 000000 00000000 70,000 6,000 11,000

Cash Debtors Patents Stock MachineryBuildings

8,000 8,000 11,000 10,000 30,000 20,000

87,000 87,000 A died on 1st October , 2006. It was agreed among his executors and the remaining partners that :(i) Goodwill to be valued at two and a half years purchase of the average profits of the previous four years which were 2003: Rs. 13,000 ; 2004 : Rs. 12,000 ; 2005 : Rs. 20,000 and 2006 : Rs. 15,000.(ii) Patents be valued at Rs. 8,000 ; machinery at Rs. 28,000 ; and building at Rs. 25,000.(iii) Profits for the year 2006-07 be taken as having accrued at the same rate as that of the previous year.(iv) Interest on capital be provided at 10 per cent per annum.(v) Half of the amount due to A to be paid immediately to the executor and the balance transferred to his ( Executor ) Loan account.Prepare A’s Capital account and A’s executors account as at 1st October , 2006.

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Revision Assignment-4

Dissolution of the Firm

1 What is the difference between dissolution of Partnership and dissolution of Partnership firm? 12 State an example of internal liabilities. 14 Rohit and Suresh are in partnership, sharing profit in the ratio of 2:3. On March 31st, 2005, they

agree to dissolve the business. Pass necessary January entries at the time of dissolution to record the following:(a) Realisation Expenses amount to Rs.2,000.(b) Deferred revenue advertising expenditure appeared at Rs.60,000.(c) P&L Account on the assets side of the balance sheet was Rs.30,000.(d) An unrecorded asset of Rs.3,000 was taken over by Suresh.(e) Liabilities amounting to Rs.24,000, already transferred to Realisation Account, were settled at Rs.22,000 .Loan to Rohit was adjusted through his capital Account, Rs.15,000.

5

5 The following is the Balance Sheet of A and B on 31” December, 2004:

LiabilitiesRs. Assets Rs.

Sundry Creditors Bills Payable Mrs. A's Loan Mrs. B's Loan General Reserve Salaries Outstanding

30,0008,0005,000

10,00010,0001,000

Cash in hand Cash at Bank Stock-in-Trade Investment Debtors 20,000 Less: Provision 2,000Plant

5008,0005,000

10,000

18,00020,000

8

A's Capital B's Capital

10,00010,000

_________84,000

Building Goodwill Profit & Loss A/c

15,0004,0003.500

84,000 The firm was dissolved on 31st December, 2004 on the following terms:(a) A promised to pay off Mrs. A’s loan and took away stock-in-trade at Rs. 4,000.(b) B tool away half the investment at 10% discount.(c) Debtors realized Rs. 19,000.(d) Creditors and Bills Payable were due, on an average basis, on month after 31st December, but they were paid immediately on 31st December, at a discount of 6% per annum.(e) Plant realized Rs. 25,000, Building Rs. 40,000, Goodwill Rs. 6,000 and remaining investments at Rs. 4,500.(f) There was an old typewriter in the firm which had been written off completely from the books of the firm. It was now estimated to realize Rs 300. It was taken away by B at this estimated price.(g) Realization expenses were Rs. 1000.You are required to give necessary ledger accounts to close the books of the firm.

6 A, B and C who share profits in the ratio of 3:3:1 agreed upon the dissolution of their partnership firm on 31st December 2008 on which date their balance sheet was as under:

Liabilities Amount Assets AmountCapitals Cash at bank 5,420 A 50,000 Debtors: 9,400 B 10,000 60,000 Less

provision

(700) 8,700

Mrs. A’s loan 8,000 Goodwill 14,000Sundry creditors 20,500 Investments 20,830Employee Provident Fund 14,000 Stock 8,050Investment fluctuation fund

6,000 C’s capital a/c 11,500

1,08,500 1,08,500 The following transactions took place:

i. The investment was taken over by A for Rs. 17,500. A also agreed to discharge his wife’s loan.

ii. B took over stock at Rs. 7,500. iii. Machinery realised Rs. 50,000 and debtors realised 50% of their book value. iv. The expenses of realisation amounted to Rs. 500. Prepare Realisation account, partners’

capital accounts and cash account to close the books of the firm.

7 Ram, Shyam, and Mohan are partners sharing profit in the ratio 2:2:1.On January 1, 2007 their Balance sheet was as follows:

LiabilitiesAmount Assets Amount

Sundry creditors 12,000 Cash In Bank 12,200General Reserve 5,000 Debtors 8,000 Capital Accounts: Less: Provisions (200) 7,800Ram 15,000 Stock 6,000Shyam 12,000 Furniture 2,000

Mohan 6,000 33,000 Building 22,000 50,000 50,000

The firm was dissolved on the date. The assets realized as under:Debtors 7,000Stock 5,000Furniture 1,000Building 25,000The creditors were settled for Rs 11,000. It was found however that there was liability for Rs 3,000 for damages, which has to be paid. The expenses dissolution amounted Rs 1,000.Give realization Account the capital accounts of the partners & Bank Account .