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    SAMPLE COPY

    SAT II (SUBJECT TEST)

    GENERAL DIRECTIONS COMMON FOR ALL CLASSES (VIII TO X )

    1. This Test Booklet titled SAT II (Subject Test) is exclusively made for the student of

    Class IX. It comprises of three subjects PHYSICS, CHEMISTRY AND BIOLOGY.

    2. The students are required to Attempt ANY TWO subjects of their Choice Each of the subjects is

    allotted a MAXIMUM TIME LIMIT OF 1 HOUR.

    3. The students are required to submit back the Test Booklet with their respective ANSWERBook (OMR

    SHEET)after the completion of the test.

    4. Each of the subject section also starts with SET OF INSTRUCTIONS. GIVEN BEFORE THE

    START OF EACH SUBJECT.

    5. The students are required to go through the instructions and follow the same.

    DISCLAIMER

    This SAMPLE PAPER is only an indicative specimen but the USA UnivQuest open

    Mock Test (SAT-II) will be comprising of the same number of questions

    (Subject-wise), the way the Actual SAT-II (Subject Test) are designed.

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    SAT - II SUBJECT TESTPHYSICS SAMPLE PAPER FOR OPEN MOCK SAT CLASS - IX

    Directions: - Each of the questions or incomplete statements below is followed by five answer choices. Select theone that is best in each case.

    1. The ratio of magnitude of displacement to distance is(A) always < 1 (B) always = 1

    (C) always > 1 (D) may be 1(E) more than 2

    2. The distances travelled by a body falling from rest in the first, second and third seconds are in the ratio

    (A) 1:2:3 (B) 1:3:5(C) 1:4:9 (D) none of these(E) none

    3. The distance-time graph of an object moving in a fixed direction is

    shown in figure. The object(A) is at rest(B) moves with a constant velocity(C) moves with a variable velocity

    (D) moves with a constant non zero acceleration

    (E) moves with variable acceleration

    4. The velocity-time graph of a linear motion is shown infigure. The distance travelled in 8 sec., is(A) 5 m (B) 16 m

    (C) 8 m (D) 19 m

    (E) 20 m

    5. Two bodies A and B of mass 100 gm and 200 gm respectively are dropped near the earths surface. Let

    the acceleration of A and B be a1and a2respectively(A) a1= a2 (B) a1< a2(C) a1> a2 (D) cant say anything

    (E) cant say anything

    6. A bomb of mass 9 kg explodes into two pieces of masses 3 kg and 6kg.The velocity of mass 3kg is 16

    m/sec. The velocity of mass 6 kg will be(A) 8 m/sec (B) 6 m/sec

    (C) 4 m/sec (D) 2 m/sec

    7. The momentum of a body of given mass is proportional to its

    (A) Volume (B) shape(C) speed (D) colour(E) 10 m/sec

    8. Action reaction forces(A) act on the same body (B) act on different bodies(C) act along different lines (D) act in the same direction

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    (E) acceleration

    9. The buoyant force on a body acts in a

    (A) vertically downward direction (B) vertically upward direction

    (C) horizontal direction (D) direction between the horizontal and vertical(E) None

    10. When a body is thrown up, the force of gravity is(A) in the upward direction (B) in the downward direction(C) zero (D) in the horizontal direction

    (E) can act in any direction

    11 Newtons law of gravitation is valid

    (A) on the earth only (B) on the moon only

    (C) in the Laboratory only (D every where(E) cant say

    12. Pressure at a point inside a liquid does not depend on

    (A) The depth of the point below the surface of the liquid

    (B) The nature of the liquid(C) The acceleration due to gravity at that point(D) The shape of the containing vessel(E) density of the liquid

    13 If R is the radius of earth, the height at which the weight of a body becomes of its weight on the

    surface of earth is

    (A) 2R (B) R

    (C) (D)

    (E) R/8

    14. A body is dropped from a height h. It acquires a momentum P, then the mass of the body is

    (A) (B)

    (C) (D)

    (E)2P

    gh

    15. When a body is wholly or partially immersed in a liquid it appears to lose weight. This loss of weight is

    equal to the weight of

    (A) water displaced by the body (B) liquid displaced by the body(C) equal volume of water (D) equal volume of liquid

    (E) none

    16. A man is at rest in the middle of a pond on perfectly smooth ice. He can get himself to the shore by

    making use of Newtons(A) First law (B) second law(C) third law (D) all the law

    (E) None of the above

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    17. The principal of conservation of momentum states that the linear momentum of a system

    (A) Can not be chaged(B) Can not remain constant

    (C) Can be changed only of internal forces act

    (D) Can be changed only if external forces act(E) None

    18. A body at rest breaks into two pieces of equal masses. The parts will move(A) in same direciton(B) along different lines

    (C) in opposite directions with equal speeds(D) in opposite directions with unequal speeds(E) can move in any direction

    19. Suppose the pressure at the surface of mercury in a barometer tube is P1and the pressure at the surface ofmercury in the cup is P2(A) P1= 0, P2= atmospheric pressure (B) P1= atmospheric pressure, P2= 0

    (C) P1= P2= atmospheric pressure (D) P1= P2= 0

    (E) None

    20. If the earth loses its gravity, then for a body(A) weight becomes zero, but not the mass (B) mass becomes zero, but not weight(C) neither mass nor weight is zero (D) both mass and weight are zero

    (E) None

    21. A body is dropped form a certain height. When it lost an amount of potential energy U, it subsequentlyacquires a velocity v. The mass of the body is

    (A) (B)

    (C) (D)(E) None

    22. A sound wave produces 60 compressions and 60 rarefactions in 0.6 seconds then the frequency of sound

    wave is

    (A) 50 Hz (B) 100 Hz(C) 200 Hz (D) 300 Hz

    (E) none

    23. A body of mass 2kg is dropped from a height of 1m. Its kinetic as it reaches the ground is

    (A) 19.6 J (B) 19.6 N

    (C) 19.6 kg (D) 19.6 m

    (E) none

    24. The frequency of a source is 20 kHz. The frequencies of the sound waves produced by it in water and air

    will(A) be the same as that of the source

    (B) depend upon the velocity of the waves in these media(C) depend upon the wavelength of the waves in these media(D) depend upon the density f the media

    (E) None

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    25. If the kinetic energy of a body becomes four times of its initial value, then the new momentum will be

    (A) three times its initial value (B) four times its initial value(C) twice its initial value (D) unchanged

    (E) Cant say

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    SAT - II SUBJECT TESTCHEMISTRY SAMPLE PAPER FOR OPEN MOCK SAT CLASS - IX

    PART - A

    Directions: Each set of lettered choices below refers to the numbered formulas or statements immediately

    following it. Select the one lettered choice that best fits each formula or statement; then fill in the correspondingoval on the answer sheet. In each set, a choice may be used once, more than once, or not at all. A choice may beused once, more than once or not at all in each set.

    Note: For all questions involving solutions and/or chemical equations, you can assume that the system is in water

    unless otherwise stated.

    The actual paper contains 20 to 25 questions.

    Questions 1 4(A) Carbon Disulphide

    (B) Protium

    (C) Deuterium(D) Brownian Motion(E) Phosphorus

    1. Zig-Zag movement of small particles suspended in a liquid or gas.

    2. The heavy hydrogen isotope.

    3. Sulphur is soluble in the solvent.

    4. Substance with an atomicity 4.

    Questions 5-8(A) Iodine

    (B) Naphthalene(C) Phosphorus(D) Graphite

    (E) Humidity

    5. Organic compound which undergoes sublimation.

    6. Rate of evaporation is inversely proportional to it

    7. Non metal with very high melting point(3700C)

    8. Non metal having lustrous appearance.

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    PART B

    Directions: Each question below consists of two statements, statement I in the left hand column and statementII in the right hand column. For each question determine whether statement I is true or false and whetherstatement II is true or false. Then, fill in the corresponding T or F ovals on your answer sheet. Fill in oval CE onlyif statement II is a correct explanation of statement I.

    The actual paper contains 15 questions. This section begins with no. 101

    I II

    101. The majority of non metals existas gases at room temperature

    BECAUSE Non-metals have very low boilingpoints

    102. Diamond is a good conductor of

    heat

    BECAUSE Diamond is a non metal.

    103. A solution is considered a mixture BECAUSE Solution does not have a fixedboiling point

    104. Mass of 1-mole of atoms isknown as gram-atomic mass

    BECAUSE 1-mole of atoms contains avogadronumber of atoms

    105. Valency of sodium is 1 BECAUSE Sodium gains one electron to achieve

    inert gas configuration

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    PART C

    Directions: Each of the incomplete statements or questions below in followed by five suggested completionsor answers. Select the one that is best for each case and fill in the corresponding oval on the answer sheet.

    The actual paper contains 40 to 50 questions. This section begins with the serial number after Part A

    9. Bromine vapours are(A) heavier than air (B) lighter than air

    (C) nearly equal dense to air (D) equally dense to that of air(E) noble gas

    10. Rigid means

    (A) unbending (B) inflexible(C) both (A) and (B) (B) none of them(E) cant say

    11. Solid to liquid change is called

    (A) solidification (B) melting

    (C) boiling (D) vapourization(E) sublimation

    12. Factors affecting evaporation are

    (A) temperature (B) surface area(C) humidity (D) all of them

    (E) none

    13. The total number of moles of O-atom in 16 gm of SO2are(A) 0.25 moles (B) 0.33 moles(C) 1 mole (D) 0.5 moles

    (E) 0.05 moles14. Choose the wrong statement:

    (A) 1 Mole means 6.02 1023

    particles

    (B) Molar mass is mass of one molecule(C) Molar mass is mass of one mole of a substance

    (D) Molar mass is molecular mass expressed in grams(E) Mole can be regarded as gram atom or gram molecule

    15. Entire positive charge in an atom is concentrated in a small area at its centre called nucleus. This was

    suggested by(A) Thomson (B) Rutherford(C) Bohr (D) Dalton

    (E) Darwin

    16. The number of proton in nitrogen atom is(A) 8 (B) 7

    (C) 14 (D) 10

    (E) 917. The electron species are most stable

    (A) 2, 8, 2 (B) 2, 8

    (C) 2, 8, 1 (D) 2, 5(E) 2, 8, 4

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    SAT - II SUBJECT TESTBIOLOGY SAMPLE PAPER FOR OPEN MOCK SAT CLASS - IX

    1. How many chromosomes are present in the body of human being?

    (A) 46 (B) 23 pair(C) Millions (D) 23 in no.

    (E) None of these

    2. Desmosomes or tonofibrils are

    (A) Sub cellular particles

    (B) Another name of dictyosomes(C) Developed from plasma lemma at the point of cell contact

    (D) Pores present on cell wall(E) none of these

    3. Meiosis takes place in

    (A) Autosome (B) Sex chromosome

    (C) Haploid chromosome (D) a and b both(E) All of the above

    4. Haploid chromosomes are found in(A) Cell of cheeks (B) Gametes of reproductive cells

    (C) Cell of hairs (D) a and b both(E) None of these

    5. Find odd one out

    (A) Parenchyma (B) Collenchyma

    (C) Sclerenchyma (D) Xylem(E) chlorenchyma

    6. Which of the following tissue is responsible for formation of the hard covering of seeds and nuts, and thehusk of coconut?

    (A) Parenchyma (B) Collenchyma

    (C) Sclerenchyma (D) Apical meristem(E) Chlorenchyma

    7. Disease existing at or before birth is

    (A) Congenital (B) Communicable(C) Non communicable (D) None of these(E)Acquired

    8. 10% law of flow of energy in ecosystem was proposed by

    (A) Lindeman (B) Carl mobins

    (C) Tansley (D) Darwin(E) Lamark

    9. The outermost zone of a biosphere reserve is

    (A) Buffer zone (B) Core zone(C) Manipulation zone (D) Red zone(E) All of these

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    10. Reservoir of Rabies is

    (A) Cat (B) Pigs(C) Dog (D) Rabbits

    (E) all of these

    11. A patient is generally advised to specially consume more meat, milk and eggs in diet only when he suffersfrom

    (A) Scurvy (B) Kwashiorkor(C) Rickets (D) Anaemia(E) All of these

    12. The vector of the malaria parasite is ..mosquito.(A) female Aedes (B) maleAnopheles

    (C) Female Anopheles (D) Culex

    (E) Male Aedes

    13. AIDS stands for

    (A) Acquired Immuno Desturbity Syndrome

    (B) Acquired Infection deficiency Symptoms

    (C) Acquired Immuno Deficiency Syndrome(D) Acute Immuno Desability Syndrome(E) All of these

    14. BCG stands for

    (A) Bacillus cholerae- guarine

    (B) Bacillus calmette guerine(C) Bibrio choleric guarine(D) None of these

    (E) All of these

    15. The unwanted plants are known as(A) Grasses (B) Shrubs

    (C) Weeds (D) seeds(E) herbs

    .

    16. Biochemical cycle with gaseous phase is(A) Carbon (B) Sodium(C) Phosphorus (D) Magnesium

    (E)calcium

    17. Burning of fossil fuels affects(A) Nitrogen cycle (B) Carbon cycle

    (C) Phosphorus cycle (D) Water cycle(E)Sulphur Cycle

    18. Biochemical Oxygen Demand (BOD) in river water(A) Remains unchanged when algal bloom occurs(B) Has no relationship with concentration of oxygen in the water

    (C) Gives a measure of salmonella in the water(D) Increases when sewage gets mixed with river water

    (E) All of these

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    19. Eukaryotic and multicellular body organism are not found in

    (A) Monera (B) Fungi(C) Plantae (D) Animalia

    (E) Cryptogameae

    20. Archaeopteryx shows the characters of(A) reptiles and birds (B) reptiles and mammals

    (C) fishes and amphibia (D) birds and mammals(E) reptile and amphibia

    21. The basic unit of classification is(A) Variety (B) Species(C) Family (D) Group

    (E) Order

    22. The correct sequence of Taxonomic categories is(A) Division- Class- Family- Order- Genus- Species

    (B) Division- Class- Order- Family- Genus- Species

    (C) Phylum- Order- Class- Family- Genus- Species

    (D) Class- Phylum- Order- Family- Species- Genus(E) Class- Phylum- Order- Family- genus- kingdom

    23 Which of the following is not an amphibian?

    (A) Salamander (B) Frog

    (C) Toad (D) Tortoise

    (E) Icthyophis

    24. Budding is a mode of asexual reproduction in

    (A) Hydra and starfish (B) Hydra and sponges(C) Hydra and tapeworm (D) Sponges and starfish

    (E) Fishes and frog

    25. Nephridia of earthworm are analogous to(A) Trachae of insects (B) Gills of prawn

    (C) Nematoblasts of hydra (D) Flame cells of tape worm

    (E) None of the above

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    ANSWER KEYS

    PHYSICS

    1. D 2. B 3. B 4 D

    5. A 6. A 7. C 8. B

    9 B 10. B 11. D 12. D

    13. B 14 A 15. B 16. C

    17. D 18. C 19. A 20. A

    21. D 22. B 23. A 24. A

    25. C

    CHEMISTRY

    PART A

    1. D 2. C 3. A 4. E

    5. B 6. E 7. D 8. A

    PART B

    101. T, T, CE 102. T, T 103. T, T, CE 104. T, T

    105. T, F

    PART C

    9. A 10. C 11. B 12. D

    13. D 14. B 15. B 16. B

    17. B

    BIOLOGY

    1. C 2. C 3. B 4. B

    5. D 6. C 7. A 8. A

    9. C 10. C 11. B 12. C

    13. C 14. B 15. C 16. A

    17. B 18. D 19. A 20. A

    21. B 22. B 23. D 24. B

    25 D

    Disclaimer : This is only a sample paper. In the actual SAT II physics paper there will be a total of 75

    questions.