mock cat test 2007
TRANSCRIPT
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Questions: 75, Time: 2.5 hours
Directions: This test is of two and a half hoursduration and is to be done in one sitting. No breaks
are to be taken. A student must attempt questions inall sections. Answers must be marked in the appropri-
ate oval in the answer sheet by a HB pencil.
There are 75 questions. Each question carries 4
marks. For each wrong answer, minus one mark willbe awarded. There is nomark for question that is not
attempted.
Attempting differentsub-sections is necessary. The
student must show compe-tence in each sub-section.
Cut off in each section:
Minimum 33% of the marksallocated for that section. A
student must score a mini-
mum of 33 (net score afternegative marking) in eachsection.
The test is designed to
help you with the new patternof the CAT and is modelled
on last years pattern. Thistest gives a practice of the
changed format but students
should be prepared for any changes in the format. Itis based by Mastermind Education, Tel: 98880 22329.
E-mail: [email protected]
SectionIVERBAL ABILITY
No. of questions: 25
Each question carries 4 marks.
Negative marks for wrong answers:1
Directions Q. 1-5: Read the passage given
below and answer the questions based on it.
Passage 1
Nature is full of surprises. When atoms werefirst proved to exist (and that was a mere century
ago), they were thought to be made only of electrons
and protons. That explained a lot, but it did not quite
square with other observations. Then, in 1932, James
Chadwick discovered the neutron. Suddenly every-
thing made senseso much sense that it took only
another 13 years to build an atomic bomb.
It is no exaggeration to say that biology is now
undergoing its neutron moment. For more than
half a century the fundamental story of living things
has been a tale of the interplay between genes, in theform of DNA, and proteins,
which the genes encode and
which do the donkey work
of keeping living organisms
living. The past couple of
years, however, have seen
the rise and rise of a third
type of molecule, called
RNA.
The analogy is not per-
fect. Unlike the neutron,
RNA has been known aboutfor a long time. Until the
past couple of years, howev-
er, its role had seemed
restricted to fetching and
carrying for DNA and pro-
teins. Now RNA looks every
bit as important as those
two masters. It may, indeed,
be the main regulator of what goes on in a cellthe
cells operating system, to draw a computing analo-
gyas well as the author of many other activities. As
important, molecular biologists have gone fromthinking that they know roughly what is going on in
their subject to suddenly realising that they have
barely a clue.
That might sound a step backwards; in fact, it is
how science works. The analogy with physics is
deeper than just that between RNA and the neutron.
There is in biology at the moment a sense of barely
contained expectations reminiscent of the physical
sciences at the beginning of the 20th century. It is a
feeling of advancing into the unknown, and that
where this advance will lead is both exciting and
mysterious.As Samuel Goldwyn so wisely advised, never
make predictionsespecially about the future. But
Mock CAT Test 2007
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here is one: the analogy between 20th-century
physics and 21st-century biology will continue, for
both good and ill.
Physics gave two things to the 20th century.
The most obvious gift was power over nature. That
power was not always benign, as the atomic bomb
showed. But if the 20th century was distinguished byanything from its predecessors, that distinctive fea-
ture was physical technology, from motor cars and
aeroplanes to computers and the internet.
It is too early to be sure if the distinguishing
feature of the 21st century will be biological techno-
logy, but there is a good chance that it will be. The
driving force of technological changenecessityis
also there. Many of the big problems facing humani-
ty are biological, or are susceptible to biological
intervention. The question of how to deal with an
ageing population is one example. Climate change,
too, is intimately bound up with biology since it is
the result of carbon dioxide going into the air faster
than plants can remove it. And the risk of a new,
lethal infection suddenly becoming pandemic as a
result of modern transport links is as biological as it
gets. Even the fact that such an infection might itself
be the result of synthetic biology only emphasises
the biological nature of future risks.
Physics gave the 20th century a more subtle
boon than mere power. It also brought an under-
standing of the vastness of the universe and human-
itys insignificant place in it. It allowed people, in
William Blakes phrase, to hold infinity in the palm of
a hand, and eternity in an hour.
Biology, though, does more than describe
humanitys place in the universe. It describes
humanity itself. And here, surprisingly, the rise of
RNA may be an important part of that description.
Ever since the human-genome project was complet-
ed, it has puzzled biologists that animals, be theyworms, flies or people, all seem to have about the
same number of genes for proteinsaround 20,000.
Yet flies are more complex than worms, and people
are more complex than either. Traditional genes are
thus not as important as proponents of human
nature had suspected nor as proponents of nurture
had feared. Instead, the solution to the puzzle seems
to lie in the RNA operating system of the cells. This
gets bigger with each advance in complexity. And it
is noticeably different in a human from that in the
brain of a chimpanzee.
If RNA is controlling the complexity of the
whole organism, that suggests the operating system
of each cell is not only running the cell in question,
but is linking up with those of the other cells when a
creature is developing. To push the analogy, organs
such as the brain are the result of a biological inter-
net. If that is right, the search for the essence of
humanity has been looking in the wrong genetic
direction.
Of course, such results are speculative and
primitive. But that is the point. Lord Rutherford, who
proved that atoms exist, knew nothing of neutrons.
Chadwick knew nothing of quarks, let alone super-
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symmetry. Modern biologists are equally ignorant.
But eventually, the truth will out.
1. Drawing a similarity with physics, the author
says that the analogy is not perfect. Which of the fol-
lowing would NOT be the reason that the analogy is
not perfect?
I. RNA has been known for a long time, unlikethe neutron.
II. The understanding of the RNA is as
important as the discovery of the neutron.
III. Biology and physics are entirely different
subjects.
IV. There is in biology at the moment a sense
of barely contained expectations.
(1) Only I (2) I and II (3) Only II
(4) II and III (5) None of these
2. Which of the following is/are true in the con-
text of the passage?
I. Never make predictionsespecially about
the future.
II. All advancements in science benefit
mankind in some way or the other.
III. Scientists are now closer to understanding
what goes inside a cell.
IV. The challenges mankind faces are all
related to biology.
(1) I and II (2) II and III (3) III and IV
(4) I and IV (5) None of these
3. Listed below are some of the problems that
can be addressed by biotechnology, according to the
passage. Which of the following would NOT be a
problem that biotechnology can help solve?
(1) A solution to climate change.
(2) Creating an artificial living organism.
(3) Creating vaccines to fight lethal infections.
(4) A solution to growing more fuel.
(5) A solution to the ageing population.
4. Which of the following is the best reason that
the author says that living organisms are the result
of a biological internet?
(1) Messages can be passed from one organ to
another in the human body.
(2) The brain is like the operating system that
controls all the organs.
(3) Every development in the body is linked up
to everything else.
(4) The RNA is the controlling element of the
whole organism.
(5) The search for the essence of humanity has
been looking in the wrong genetic direction.
5. Which of the following best sums up the
essence of the passage:
(1) Humanity has been looking in the wrong
direction in its understanding of life.
(2) Modern biologists are ignorant, but now they
are closer to the truth.
(3) The RNA is the factor that controls the build-
ing of life.
(4) Biology is now undergoing its neutron
moment and is poised for new discoveries.
(5) Technological change in biotechnology is
arising out of the driving force of technology.
Directions Q. 6-10: Given below are para-
graphs with their last line missing. Select from the
given choices the most appropriate line that best
completes the given paragraph.
6. Since the IPCC report, the science has
tended to confirm the idea that something serious is
happening. In the 1990s, satellite data seemed to
contradict the terrestrial data that showed tempera-
tures rising. The disparity puzzled scientists and
fuelled scepticism. The satellite data, it turned out,
were wrong: having been put right, they now agreewith terrestrial data that things are hotting up.
__________________.
(1) Glaciers are melting surprisingly swiftly.
(2) Arctic sea ice, for instance, is melting unex-
pectedly fast, at 9% a decade.
(3) Observations about what is happening to the
climate have tended to confirm what the
models predicted would happen.
(4) A range of phenomena, such as hurricane
activity, that were previously thought to be
unconnected to climate change are now
increasingly linked to it.
(5) The world is warming up because of human
activity, the IPCC report has argued.
7. It is true that the allocation for secondary
education has indeed increased by just under
Rs 2,000 crore. But it is immediately evident that this
is not even a small proportion of the requirement for
meeting the growing demand given the population
bulge and the need to ensure universal education up
to Class VIII and increasing enrolment up to Class X.
______________________.
(1) This is despite the fact that the goal of sarva
shikshais nowhere near being reached.(2) So clearly the Central government continues
to wash its hands of the financial commit-
ment that will be necessary to ensure univer-
sal school education.
(3) Since elementary education covers only up to
Class V, the resources for Classes VI to VIII
have to be met from the secondary education
budget.
(4) While enrolment at the primary stages has
improved the dropout rates remain very
high, especially of girls.
(5) Even by the end of elementary school (Class
V) at least 25 per cent of children in the rele-
vant age group will not complete elementary
education.
8. Former Director-General of Council of Scien-
tific and Industrial Research R.A. Mashelkar has
brought disgrace upon India's scientific establish-
ment by producing a tawdry, poorly argued, unbal-
anced and pro-big business report on Indias patents
law, at the core of which lies rank plagiarism.
Mashelkar has withdrawn the discredited report of
the Technical Expert Group on Patent Law Issues,
which he headed. ____________________.
(1) He says he did this to uphold scientific
ethics.
(2) He says: I stand by the report and its find-
ings, 100 per cent... .
(3) He claims that there was no plagiarism and
that it would be wrong to attach motives to
the fact that a critical part of his committees
report was bodily lifted from a previously
published paper.
(4) He minimises and trivialises this thoroughly
deplorable and indefensible practice as con-
sisting of mere technical inaccuracies or a
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copying error by the sub-committee that
wrote the draft.
(5) What is crucial is that the plagiarised portion
forms the heart of the Mashelkar Commit-
tees recommendation.
9. As far as I can recall, the Indian Penal Code,
1860, and the Information Technology Act, 2000, arethe only laws dealing with the subject of obscenity in
India. Section 292 of the IPC prohibits the sale of
obscene books, pamphlet, and so on, and prescribes
a sentence of two years and a fine of Rs 2,000 to a
first offender. A repeat offender gets five years and
a fine of Rs 5,000. Section 293 deals with sale of such
material to a person under 20.
__________________________.
(1) This law has been invoked by the police in
several instances of the Net being used to sell
pornography.
(2) How far can acts of child pornography be
brought under these sections will merit a
debate.
(3) Section 67 of the IT Act deals directly with
pornography on the Net.
(4) It renders publication or transmission of
material that is lascivious or which appeals
to the prurient interest of another person an
offence punishable with a sentence of five
years and a fine of Rs 100,000.
(5) Performing obscene acts and reciting
obscene songs in public are punishable
under Section 294.
10. With all the air-conditioning, the cushioned
seats, the more comfortable coaches and all the rest,
one needs really to look at the entire process of
undertaking a train journey. Is it, one needs to con-
sider, a passenger-friendly experience? This is not
merely a matter of comfortable seats and all the
other facilities being provided. The purchase of a
ticket is where the process of a journeys passenger-
friendliness, or lack of it, begins. __________________.
(1) True, it comes with an assurance that it will
almost certainly be confirmed on the day of
the journey.
(2) Most passengers will agree that it is usual to
get a wait-listed ticket even a fortnight before
the journey.
(3) With all the counters, all the electronics, the
computers and the now much-touted on-line
booking arrangements, the process is as
mystifying as it is harrowing.
(4) Why is it so difficult to provide a ticket that
is confirmed, as in the case of an air journey?
(5) And the other great Indian railway mystery:
No ticket has the passengers name on it
just the letter.
Directions Q. 11-15: From the alternatives,
choose the one which correctly classifies the four
sentences as
F: Fact: if it relates to a known matter of direct
observation, or an existing reality or something
known to be true.
J: Judgment: if it is an opinion or an estimate or
anticipation of common sense or intention.
I: Inference: if it is a logical conclusion or
deduction of something, based on the knowledge of
facts.
11. A. The capacity to absorb investment is not
a stand-alone intrinsic factor of the
scientific community; it is actually a
function of several factors that depend
on the systems and mechanisms that are
in (or not in) place for the administration
of S&T in the country.B. Investing 2 per cent of the GDP in S&T is
indeed a desirable objective if we wish to
become a developed nation.
C. The President urged that there be a
focused action plan to realise this pro-
gressively and suggested the constitu-
tion of a joint team comprising members
from all the scientific departments of the
government to work out the growth plan
in an integrated way.
D. Significantly, he recommended allocating
0.5 per cent of the GDP for basic
research as against the present level of
around 0.2 per cent.
(1) FFFI (2) FIIJ (3) FJFF
(4) FIFF (5) IJFF12. A. The passage of the Scheduled Tribes and
Other Traditional Forest Dwellers(Recognition of Forest Rights) Bill, 2006,is an important step in the struggle toreverse the historical marginalisation ofthe tribal people of India.
B. The Scheduled Tribes, constituting about8.4 per cent of the population, have been
denied access to benefits from land andforests by both the medieval and themodern State.
C. Thus, the displacement of tribal peopleinto forests was not a colonial phenome-non alone, but British imperialism accen-tuated it by setting up State monopolyover forests.
D. As a consequence, a centralised and
often autocratic forest management
came into force in India.
(1) JIFI (2) JIIF (3) FIIJ
(4) FIII (5) JIII13. A. In their ongoing study of wild balsams,
researchers of the Edhkwehlynawd
Botanical Refuge of Udhagamandalam
noticed that some of the native species
had become rare.
B. It took them three years to locate Impa-
tiens denisonii; they made three annual
field trips during August-September,
when the balsams are in bloom, and
reported the sighting of the species on
the third such visit.
C. It is likely that this was the first scienti-fic collection of the species since British
naturalist Richard Henry Beddome first
documented it in 1862.
D. The study was the most authoritative
text on the subject and was prescribed
in universities.
(1) IFIJ (2) IJIF (3) IIJF
(4) JIIJ (5) IFJI
14. A. Watching Tony Blairs awkward
demeanour alongside George Bush at
the White House, it was striking just
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how American a country Britain has
become.
B. It has long been a cliche that the UK is
the 51st State of the union, but it has
never seemed a more appropriate
description.
C. Indeed, there is a case for saying thatafter effectively living in sin for so long,
its time to make the special relation-
ship legitimate.
D. Britain is never going to join the USA,
but if it did the Prime Minister would
probably have a lot more clout on the
other side of the Atlantic than he does
now.
(1) FIJJ (2) JIIJ (3) IJJJ
(4) JIFJ (5) IJJF
15. A. The problem is that in exercising one
precious right, we often extinguish that
right in othersthose who constitute
what is called the unorganised sector of
society.
B. When a political party or a trade union,
or a group of trade unions, decides to
call a bandh and shut down a State for a
day, lakhs of people who are in the
unorganised sector, lose their earnings
for that day.
C. Most of them depend on their daily earn-
ings to manage their households and
have to do without the means to feed
their families.
D. More often than not, bandhs have no
effect on public awareness of the rea-
sons they were organised for, except in a
vague way.
(1) IIIJ (2) JIII (3) IIIF
(4) JIIF (5) IIFF
Directions Q. 16-25: Read the passages given
below and answer the questions based on them.
Passage 2
Neanderthal man was a strong, large-brained,
skilful big-game hunter who had survived for more
than 200,000 years in the harsh European climates
of the last Ice Age. But within a few thousand years
of the arrival of modern humans in the continent, he
was extinct. Why that happened is a matter of abid-
ing interest to anthropologically inclined descen-
dants of those interloping moderns. The extinction
of Neanderthal man has been attributed variously to
his having lower intelligence than modern humans,
to worse language skills, to cruder tools, or even to
the lack of a propensity for long-distance trade. The
latest proposal, though, is that it is not so much
Neanderthal man that was to blame, as modern
woman.
In existing pre-agricultural societies there is,
famously, a division of food-acquiring labour
between men, who hunt, and women, who gather.
And in a paper published in Current Anthropology,
Steven Kuhn and Mary Stiner of the University of Ari-
zona propose that this division of labour happened
early in the species history, and that it is what
enabled modern humans to expand their population
at the expense of Neanderthals.
As Adam Smith noted, division of labour leads
to greater productivity because it allows people to
specialise and become very good at what they do. In
the vast majority of cases among historically known
and present-day foragers, men specialise in hunting
big game, while women hunt smaller animals and
collect plant food. In colder climes, where long win-ters make plant-gathering difficult or impossible for
much of the year, women often specialise in making
clothing and shelters.
The archaeological record, however, shows few
signs of any specialisation among the Neanderthals
from their appearance about 250,000 years ago to
their disappearance 30,000 years ago. Instead, they
did one thing almost to the exclusion of all else: they
hunted big game. There are plenty of collections of
bones from animals such as reindeer, horses, bison
and mammoths that are associated with Nean-
derthals, but few remains of rabbits or tortoises.
There is also little sign of preserved seeds and nuts,
or of the specialised grinding stones that would have
been needed to process them. And there are no bone
awls or needles that would suggest that Nean-
derthals were skilled leather workers, despite the
abundance of animal skins that their hunting would
have provided.
Signs of division of labour come only with the
arrival of modern humans into Europe around
40,000 years ago. That is when evidence appears of
small animals being eaten routinely and plant foods
being gathered. It is also when tools designed for
sophisticated leather working emerge.
Dr Kuhn and Dr Stiner suggest that division of
labour actually originated in a warmer part of the
worldAfrica seems most likelywhere plant foods
could be gathered profitably all year round. But as
humans brought the idea of division of labour north,
the female side of the bargain gave the species a sig-
nificant advantage by providing fallback foods when
big game was scarce and allowing more people to
inhabit a given piece of land in times of plenty. Mod-
ern human populations grew, Neanderthal popula-
tions shrank, and the rest is prehistory.
Of course, the archaeological record cannot
prove which sex was doing what, or even if speciali-
sation was determined by sex at all. But almost all
known groups of foragers divide mens and womens
work the same way, which makes it likely that the
same rule applied in the past, and for the same
reasonsmen tend to be stronger and faster, and
women are more likely to be occupied with childcare.
That it was division of labour which gave mod-
ern humanity its edge over the Neanderthals is not a
completely new idea. A study published by Jason
Shogren of the University of Wyoming used a mathe-
matical model to suggest it would work, particularly
if combined with trade. But Dr Shogrens thesis was
that wimpy, useless hunters were the ones who
stayed at home and crafted objects, while the real
men went out and killed things. Dr Kuhn and Dr
Stiner, by contrast, assign to women the main role in
establishing the antecedents of modern economics,
and thus launching the process of growth that
continues to this day.
16. According to the study, women helped
modern man by doing which of the following?
A. Providing food
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B. Providing clothing and shelters
C. Hunting large animals
D. Staying at home and crafting objects
(1) Only A (2) A and B
(3) B and C (4) A, B and D
(5) All of the above
17.
The conclusion of the studies to assign towomen the main role in establishing the antecedents
of modern economics, can be:
(1) accepted as true as the evidence is convinc-
ing
(2) extrapolated with activities of modern
women to see that it is right
(3) accepted as most probably true as the con-
clusion is logical
(4) accepted with a pinch of salt, at best
(5) accepted as somewhat near the truth
18. According to the passage, Neanderthals did
all of the following except:
A. Long distance trade
B. Hunting
C. Leather processing
D. Farming
(1) A and C (2) A, B and C (3) B, C and D
(4) C and D (5) A, C and D
19. Which of the following would strengthen
the conclusion reached by the researchers?
(1) The finding of large number of cooking
implements of the Neanderthal man.
(2) The evidence of bones of small animals dat-
ing back to 2,50,000 years.
(3) Cave paintings which show that language
was developed by ancient man.
(4) Farming and sewing implements that were
only 30,000 years old.
(5) None of the above
20. It can be inferred from the passage that:
(1) Modern man drove Neanderthal man to
extinction by killing him
(2) Modern man drove Neanderthal man to
extinction by enslaving him
(3) Modern man drove Neanderthal man to
extinction by better specialization
(4) Modern man drove Neanderthal man to
extinction by cornering resources needed
for survival
(5) Modern man was often in conflict with the
Neanderthal man
Passage 3
In the early 1990s, globalisation was supposed
to be the wave of the future. The writings of global-
ist thinkers such as Kenichi Ohmae and Robert Reich
celebrated the emergence of the so-called borderless
world. The process by which relatively autonomous
national economies become functionally integrated
into one global economy was touted as irre-
versible. And the people who opposed globalisation
were disdainfully dismissed as modern-day incarna-
tions of the Luddites.
Today, what passes for an international econo-
my remains a collection of national economies.
These economies are interdependent no doubt, but
domestic factors still largely determine their dynam-
ics. Globalisation, in fact, has reached its high-water
mark and is receding. During globalisations heyday,
we were told that State policies no longer mattered
and that corporations would soon dwarf States. In
fact, States still do matter. The European Union, the
United States government, and the Chinese State are
stronger economic actors today than they were a
decade ago. In China, for instance, transnational cor-
porations (TNCs) march to the tune of the State
rather than the other way around.Moreover, State policies that interfere with the
market in order to build up industrial structures or
protect employment still make a difference. Indeed,
over the last 10 years, interventionist government
policies have spelled the difference between deve-
lopment and underdevelopment, prosperity and
poverty. Malaysias imposition of capital controls
during the Asian financial crisis in 1997-98 prevent-
ed it from unravelling like Thailand or Indonesia.
Strict capital controls also insulated China from the
economic collapse engulfing its neighbours.
Fifteen years ago, we were told to expect the
emergence of a transnational capitalist elite that
would manage the world economy. Indeed, globalisa-
tion became the grand strategy of the USA, which
envisioned the U.S. elite being the primus inter pares
first among equalsof a global coalition leading
the way to the new, benign world order. Today, this
project lies in a shambles. The nationalist faction has
overwhelmed the transnational faction of the eco-
nomic elite. Nationalism-inflected States are now
competing sharply with one another, seeking to
beggar one anothers economies.
The World Trade Organisation (WTO) was born,
joining the World Bank and the International Mone-
tary Fund (IMF) as the pillars of the system of inter-
national economic governance in the era of globali-
sation. With a triumphalist air, officials of the three
organisations meeting in Singapore during the first
ministerial gathering of the WTO in December 1996
saw the remaining task of global governance as the
achievement of coherence, that is, the coordination
of the neoliberal policies of the three institutions in
order to ensure the smooth, technocratic integration
of the global economy.
But now Sebastian Mallaby, the influential pro-
globalisation commentator ofThe Washington Post,
complains that trade liberalisation has stalled, aid
is less coherent than it should be, and the next finan-
cial conflagration will be managed by an injured fire-
man. In fact, the situation is worse than he
describes. The IMF is practically defunct. Knowing
how the Fund precipitated and worsened the Asian
financial crisis, more and more of the advanced
developing countries are refusing to borrow from it
or are paying ahead of schedule, with some declaring
their intention never to borrow again. These include
Thailand, Indonesia, Brazil and Argentina. Since the
Funds budget greatly depends on debt repayments
from these big borrowers, this boycott is translating
into what one expert describes as a huge squeeze
on the budget of the organisation.
The World Bank may seem to be in better health
than the Fund. But having been central to the deba-
cle of structural adjustment policies that left most
developing and transitional economies that imple-
mented them in greater poverty, with greater
inequality, and in a state of stagnation, the Bank is
also suffering a crisis of legitimacy. This can only be
worsened by the recent finding of an official high-
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level experts panel headed by former IMF chief
economist Kenneth Rogoff that the Bank has been
systematically manipulating its data to advance its
pro-globalisation position and conceal globalisa-
tions adverse effects.
Fred Bergsten, the pro-free trade American
economist, once compared trade liberalisation andthe WTO to a bicycle: they collapse when they are not
moving forward. The collapse of an organisation that
one of its Director-Generals once described as the
jewel in the crown of multilateralism may be
nearer than it seems.
21. Which of the following, according to the
author, is/are the reasons why globalisation in
retreat?
I. The rise of the nationalist State
II. The IMF is practically defunct
III. The lack of coordination of the three
institutions
IV. People getting sick of the effects of
globalisation
(1) I, II and III (2) II, III and IV
(3) I and II only (4) Only I
(5) All of the above
22. Strict capital controls also insulated China
from the economic collapse engulfing its neigh-
bours. What would be the effects of the strict capi-
tal controls through which a collapse was avoided?
(1) Capital controls would control the power of
globalisation and thus prevent collapse
(2) Capital flows would impose restrictions on
global capital flows and thus insulate the
economy.
(3) Capital flows would have the effect of
bringing in responsibility of individual gov-
ernments, thus preventing an economic
meltdown.
(4) Capital controls are what is advocated by
the IMF and World Bank and stand in the
way of globalisation.
(5) Capital flows have the effect of controlling
transnational corporations (TNCs) that
usually bring about economic collapse.
23. What would be the best meaning of Lud-
dites after reading the passage?
(1) A person who opposes globalisation.
(2) A nationalist person.
(3) A person who opposes things for the sake of
opposing.
(4) A person who opposes technology.
(5) A traditional minded person.24. According to the passage,
I. The international finance institutions are
facing a financial crunch.II. The international finance institutions are
facing questions of legitimacy.III. The days of the international finance
institutions are numbered.
(1) I (2) II (3) III(4) I and II (5) I, II and III
25. Which of the following would be a conse-
quence of the line, Nationalism-inflected States arenow competing sharply with one another, seeking to
beggar one anothers economies?
(1) India and Pakistan are always at loggerheadsand their peace talks never succeed.
(2) Israel attacking Lebanon and trying to
destroy its economy.
(3) Conflicts among African States.(4) China dumping goods in a country.
(5) India's Infosys competing with Accentre to
bag a contract.
Section II
QUANTITATIVE ABILITYNo. of questions: 25
Each question carries 4 marks.Negative marks for wrong answers:1
Directions Q. 26-50: Each question is inde-
pendent unless stated.
26. Nine parallel chords are drawn in a circle of
diameter 10 cm. If the distance between any two of
the adjacent chords is 1 cm, which of the following
statements is always true?
(1) One of the chords is diameter of circle.
(2) At least 2 chords must be of equal length.(3) The difference between the lengths of any
two adjacent chords on the same side of
diameter is > 1 cm.
(4) There is only one way to draw such chords.
(5) None of these.
27. Nine mangoes, four apples and six pine-
apples cost Rs 114. Four mangoes, six apples and
nine pineapples cost Rs 114. What is the cost of five
mangoes?
(1) Rs 30 (2) Rs 40 (3) Rs 45
(4) Rs 50 (5) cannot be determined
28. A, B, C are running in the same direction ona circular track. The track is marked with numbers
from 1 to 12, like the dial of a clock. The 12 numbers
are uniformly spaced along the track. A overtakes B
once at 4 and next time at 8. A overtakes C once at 2
and the next time again at 4. What is ratio of Bs
speed to Cs speed?
(1) 7 : 4 (2) 2 : 1 (3) 3 : 2
(4) 7 : 1 (5) None of these
29. R and S start simultaneously from a point A
on a circular track and run in same direction. The
speed of R is nine times speed of S. How many times
are they diametrically opposite to each other by thetime S completes three complete rounds on the
track?
(1) 27 (2) 54 (3) 60
(4) 48 (5) 44
30. In an isosceles trapezium ABCD, with
and CD = q, which of the following is always true?
(1) p < r (2) p = r (3) p > r
(4) p2
= r2
(5) None of these
31. A number, 3N, when divided by D leaves a
remainder 13 where N and D are natural numbers. If4N divided by D leaves a remainder of 9, then what
is the remainder when N is divided by D?
(1) 17 (2) 21 (3) 25
(4) 27 (5) Cannot be determined
32. The class X of Vidyaniketan School has four
sections A, B, C and D. The average weight of stu-
dents of A, B, C together and A, C, D together are 45
kg and 55 kg while the average weight of students of
A, B, D together and B, C, D together are 50 kg and
60 kg. Which of the following could be the average
weight of students of all four sections together?
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(1) 47.6 kg (2) 49.9 kg (3) 53.7 kg
(4) 56.5 kg (5) 58.5 kg
33. Two students take square of a certain num-
ber and express it in box 5 and 6 respectively, where
box 5 and box 6 represents the remainders obtained
when squares of any number is divided by 5 & 6
respectively. A third student takes two representa-tions made by them and adds up the numbers.
Which of the following cannot be the value of units
digit of sum obtained by third student?
(1) 2 (2) 6 (3) 8 (4) 7 (5) 9
34. A class of 30 primary school boys goes out
on a camping trip. They have with them a bag con-
taining some marbles. During the night, one boy
takes out two thirds of the marbles and places 2
marbles back. He is in turn followed by the other
boys, each of whom in turn, performs the same
operation. If the 13th boy and the 23rd boy got the
same number of marbles, what was the initial num-
ber of marbles in the bag?
(1) 330
1 (2) 330
230
1 (3) 230
1
(4) 230
(5) None of these
35. In the figure below, AL is perpendicular to
BC and CM is perpendicular to AB. If CL = AL = 2BL,
find
(1) 2 (2) 3 (3) 4
(4) 5 (5) Cannot be determined
Directions for questions 36 and 37: Read the
following information and answer the questions
that follow.
In a class of 128 students, 100 passed in
Mathematics, 96 passed in Physics, 99 passed in
Chemistry, 90 passed in Biology, while 40 passed in
all the four subjects.
36. What could be the maximum number of stu-
dents who failed in all four subjects?
(1) 25 (2) 28 (3) 13
(4) 12 (5) 10
37. Taking only the basic information into
consideration, what could be the maximum number
of students who could have passed in exactly two
subjects?
(1) 29 (2) 39 (3) 49
(4) 19 (5) 9
Directions for questions 38 to 43: Answer the
following questions as per the best of your ability.
38. There are a certain number of red, blue and
green marbles in the box. The ratio of the number of
red marbles to that of blue marbles is the same as
ratio of number of blue marbles to that of green mar-
bles. If the sum of the number of red marbles and
green marbles is 74, which of the following can be
the number of blue marbles in the box?
(1) 20 (2) 35 (3) 42
(4) 56 (5) 75
39. Consider a function f(n) defined for non-
negative integer values of n. f(n) = (1)Sn+1 + (1)Sn +
f(n 1) where f(0) = 1 and Si = 1 + 2 + 3 + 4 + ...........
+ iwhere i N. What will be the value of the expres-
sion G? [Where G = f(1) + f(2) + f(3) + ............. f(25)]
(1) 26 (2) 24 (3) 22
(4) 20 5. None of these
40. A boy wants to write all the possible fivedigit numbers with distinct digits such that each
number is a multiple of each of its five digits. How
many of these numbers will be divisible by 5?
(1) 4 (2) 6 (3) 2
(4) 1 (5) None of these
41. Out of a total of one hundred dozen
employees, one more than twelve dozen are illiter-
ate. Out of a total of thirty dozen female employees
305 are literate. Find the percentage of illiterate
males with respect to literate males.
(1) 12% (2) 20% (3) 18%
(4) 8% (5) None of these42. A big number of 90 digits is written by writ-
ing even consecutive numbers beginning with 2 side
by side. What is the 90th digit of the big number?
(1) 2 (2) 4 (3) 6 (4) 8 (5) 9
43. Let x, y and z be three positive numbers
such that x + y + z = 30. Then the minimum value of
(1) 1 (2) 0.9 (3) 0.3
(4) 0.1 (5) None of these
44. When three consecutive numbers are multi-plied we get 3360. What is the sum of these three
numbers?
(1) 42 (2) 45 (3) 48 (4) 51 (5) 52
45. What are the last three digits of (2005)2005
?
(1) 025 (2) 125 (3) 375
(4) 625 (5) None of these
46. There were two different copper alloys, the
first containing 40% less copper than the second.
When these were melted together, the resulting alloy
contained 36% of the copper. Determine the percent-
age of copper in the first and second alloy, if it is
known that there was 6 kg. of copper in the copperin the first alloy and 12 kg. in the second.
(1) 35%, 75% (2) 20%, 60%
(3) 30%, 70% (4) 15%, 55%
(5) None of these
Directions for questions 47 and 48: Read the
following information and answer the questions
that follow.
A shopkeeper buys 10 biscuit packets, each
packet containing 10 biscuits. Each packet is bought
at the same price. He intends to sell n (0 < n < 10)
packets, each at a profit of 20% while all the remain-ing packets are opened and the biscuits therein sold
separately, each biscuit being sold at a profit of 50%.
In this manner he sells all packets of biscuits. Each
biscuit in any packet costs a whole number of rupees
and the total revenue obtained after selling all
biscuits is Rs 144.
47. What is the C.P. of each packet in rupees?
(1) 1 (2) 12 (3) 10
(4) 9 (5) Cannot be determined
48. What is the value of n?
(1) 2 (2) 1 (3) 4
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(4) 5 (5) Cannot be determined
Directions for questions 49 and 50: Answer
the following questions to the best of your ability.
49. E = 4(4!) + 5(5!) + 6(6!) + ........ 19(19!) +
20(20!). What is the remainder when E is divided by
64?
(1) 24 (2) 40 (3) 32(4) 16 (5) 12
50. Anil wrote down all the possible three digit
numbers with distinct digits on black board of these
numbers. Biswas erased all the numbers whose first
and last digits were either both odd or both even.
How many numbers are left on the board?
(1) 450 (2) 360 (3) 400
(4) 320 (5) 300
Section IIIDATA/REASONING ABILITY
No. of questions: 25
Each question carries 4 marks.Negative marks for wrong answers:1
Directions for questions 51 to 52: Read the
information given below and answer the questions
given after that.
ABC Co decided to have a quality check on its
production before the supply is sent to the cus-
tomers. The system applied is: A set of 20 articles is
manufactured and 4 of them are chosen at random.
If any one of them is found to be defective then the
whole set is put under 100% screening again. If nodefectives are found, the whole set is sent to the
customers.
51. Find the probability that a container having
only one defective article will be sent back for
screening?
52. Find the probability that a box containing 3
defective items will be sent to the customers?
Directions for questions 53 to 56: In a race,
participants are given scores from 1 to 10. 10 friendsparticipated in a race and every one secured different
scores. The following incomplete table gives the ratio
of some of their scores. For example B has scored dou-ble of A; or A has scored half of B.
A B C D E F G H I J
A - 1 : 2 2 : 1
B 2 : 1 -
C 4 : 1 -
D - 2 : 1
E -
F - 2 : 3
G - 1 : 3
H -
I 4.5 : 3 -
J -
53. What is the score of H?
(1) 3 (2) 7
(3) 5 (4) 6
(5) Indeterminate
54. What is the score of I as a percentage of Js
score?
(1) 60%(2) 55.55%
(3) 80%
(4) 110%
(5) 180%
55. Whose score cannot be found?
(1) C (2) D
(3) H (4) A
(5) Everyones score can be found
56. Which of the following statements is true?
(1) C scores more than A.
(2) Combined score of B and C is equal to A.(3) Combined score of I and G is equal to F.
(4) Ds score is the average of the score of all
friends combined.
(5) None of these
Directions for questions 57 to 59: Answer
these based on the figure which represents the flow ofnatural gas through pipelines across major cities A, B,
C, D and E (in suitable units). Assume that supply
equals demand.
57. What is the number of units demanded in
B?
(1) 400
(2) 350(3) 450
(4) 500
(5) 550
58. If the number of units demanded in C is
225, what is the value of M?
(1) 875
(2) 1075
(3) 775
(4) 850
(5) 950
59. If the total demand in E is 80% of thedemand in A, what is the demand in A ?
(1) 2400
(2) 2500
(3) 4500
(4) 4750
(5) None of these
Directions for questions 60 to 63: Study the
table to answer these questions.
TableNumber of Cancer Cases over Two Years
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for Selected Countries.Country 2006 (in '00 2006 (Rate 2007 (in '00
cases) per 10,000) cases)A 53 0.1 46
B 345 2.1 145
C 87 1.1 39
D 81 33.9 26
E 84 0.8 23F 1365 0.9 209
G 661 13.0 239
H 516 1.9 236
J 36 0.2 16
K 95 1.8 23
L 262 3.9 156
M 19 0.0 18
N 1862 3.3 563
P 47 56.2 11
Q 49 0.5 18
R 337 5.0 235
S 61 1.2 35
T 17 0.3 12
U 896 1.5 235
V 39 1.4 14
W 31 0.0 5
X 501 0.6 12
Y 217 1.4 73
Z 31 0.9 22
AA 39 0.8 13
AB 46 0.4 35
AC 48 0.1 21
AD 71 0.8 32
AE 162 2.4 83
AF 655 1.1 241AG 21,861 8.9 6445
AH 869 1.4 219
AJ 19 0.0 13
All countries that have reported more than five
hundred cancer cases to the WHO in 2007 are listed
here. The left column gives the total number of
cases reported by each country for 2006, the middle
column gives the 2006 rate (cancer cases per 10,000
population) and the last column shows the number
of cases reported in early 2007.Most of the 2007 reports were for only the first
quarter of the year. Owing to reporting delays of sixmonths or more, cases reported in 2007 actuallywere diagnosed in 2006.
60. What is the population of AD on the basisof the reported cases of cancer in 2006 (in thou-sands)?
(1) 825,000 (2) 812,500 (3) 810,000(4) 780,000 (5) None of these61. Which country has reported the second
highest number of cancer cases to WHO during2006?
(1) N (2) AG (3) F (4) U (5) Q62.
The countries which have reported lessthan 2000 cases both the 2006 and early 2007 are(1) M, J and P (2) V, AJ and W(3) W, M and T (4) M, T and AJ(5) None of these63. Which of the following are true from the
table ?
I. The reported cancer cases of M, W and AJ as
compared to their population are negligible.
II. The 2006 rate is highest for P though the
reported cases are only 4700.
III. The population of R is 664,000 in 2006.
IV. P reported more than 20,000 cases of
cancer in early 2007.
(1) I, II and III (2) II and III (3) I and II
(4) I, II and IV (5) I, II, III and IV
Directions for Questions 64 to 67:
There are three coalitions, namely Apple,
Banana and Guava, in the national politics of a
Socialist Democratic country on this Earth. Apple,which has won 255 seats in the current election,
comprises of A, C, D, E, and J. Banana, which has won
232 seats in the current election, comprises of B, F,
G, H, I, K, L, M, N, and O. Rest of the parties belong
to Guava coalition. The total number of seats con-
tested in the election was 509.
Rules of Government Formation:
I. If a coalition gets more than half of the total
seats, then it can form the national govern-
ment.
II. If no one gets the required majority, then the
nation will go for another general election.Part V R1 R2 R3 R4 R5 R6 R7 R8 R9 R10 R11 R12
A 30 13 2 22 11 8 18 1 8 6 19 7
B 2 7 10 16 2 18 38 0 8 24 10 3
C 1 0 0 0 0 12 0 0 0 0 4 26
D 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 35 1
E 0 19 0 0 2 0 0 0 0 0 0 0
F 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 19 0
G 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 16 0
H 0 0 0 0 0 0 12 0 0 0 0 0
I 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 11 0 0 0
J 1 0 0 0 1 3 0 0 0 0 2 3
K 0 0 0 0 0 0 9 0 0 0 0 0L 0 6 0 0 0 1 0 0 0 0 1 0
M 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 8 0 0
N 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 1 0 5 0
O 0 0 0 0 4 0 0 0 1 0 0 0
P 5 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0
Q 5 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0
R 0 1 0 0 1 1 0 0 0 0 1 0
S 0 4 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0
T 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 4 0
Here, R1 implies Region 1, R2 implies Region 2and so on.
64. Party E comes out of Apple coalition and
joins Banana coalition; party J pulls itself out of Applecoalition and joins Guava coalition; party F and Gcomes out of Banana coalition and joins Apple coali-tion; and party A in Region 6 splits into two groupsof equal representatives, one group remains with theApple coalition and another joins Guava coalition. Inthis scenario which coalition will have the requirednumbers to form the national government?
(1) Guava (2) Banana(3) Apple (4) Apple or Guava(5) Nation to go for general election65. Five seats fell vacant in Region 12 after the
untimely death of the sitting members of the currentparliament. Two of these seats were formerly won byparty C, two by party A, and one by party B. Afterfresh elections in these five seats, party C retainedone of the seat and the other seat went to party A;party A retained one seat and the other went toparty B; and party B retained its only seat which wentfor re-elections. The percentage of seats of party C inregion 12 is:
(1) 69.5% (2) 65% (3) 62.5%(4) 60% (5) 59.5%
66. It has been seen that the number of seats
won by party A in region 1 is directly proportional to
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the number of voters who voted in the elections. In
the last elections all 10 million listed voters voted in
region 1. In the current election there is a ten per
cent increase in the list of eligible voters, out of
which eighty per cent voted in addition to the 10 mil-
lion voters who voted last time. Assuming that in the
other regions party A has won same number of seatsas in the last elections, what will be the approximate
number of seats won by party A in the current elec-
tions?(1) 148 (2) 147 (3) 145(4) 144 (5) Cannot be determined67. Last election in Region 10, out of ten million
voters, thirty per cent were very old voters. In thecurrent elections fifty per cent of them died andwere removed from the list of eligible voters. At thesame time two million new citizens got voting rights.If the number of seats won by party B in region 10 isdirectly proportional to the number of votes in that
region, then approximately how many seats party Bwill win?
(1) 22 (2) 23 (3) 24(4) 25 (5) Cannot be determined
Directions for Questions 68 to 72:
Souravs Fish Salon serves a special Friday night
seafood banquet consisting of seven courseshilsa,
pomfret, Indian shrimp, rahu, kingfish, lobster and
bhetki. Diners are free to select the order of the
seven courses, according to the following conditions:
The kingfish is served sometime after rahu.
Exactly one course should be served betweenthe pomfret and the Indian shrimp. (Pomfret before
Indian Shrimp)
The lobster is served some time before the
pomfret.
The kingfish is served either fifth or sixth.
The hilsa is served second.
68. Which one of the following sequences
would make for an acceptable banquet?
(1) rahu, hilsa, lobster, bhetki, pomfret, king-
fish, Indian shrimp
(2) rahu, hilsa, bhetki, pomfret, kingfish, Indian
shrimp, lobster(3) lobster, hilsa, pomfret, rahu, kingfish,
Indian shrimp, bhetki
(4) lobster, hilsa, rahu, kingfish, pomfret,
bhetki, Indian shrimp
(5) None of these
69. If kingfish is the fifth course served, then
which one of the following MUST be true?
(1) Pomfret is the third course served
(2) Indian shrimp is the fourth course served
(3) Bhetki is the seventh course served
(4) Lobster is the first course served
(5) Cannot be determined
70. Which one of the following would make it
possible to determine the EXACT ordering of the
courses?
(1) Pomfret is the fourth course served
(2) Indian shrimp is the fifth course served
(3) Kingfish is the sixth course served
(4) Lobster is the first course served
(5) None of these
71. If kingfish is the sixth course served, then
which one of the following CANNOT be true?
(1) Rahu is the fifth course served
(2) Indian shrimp is the seventh course served
(3) Pomfret is the fifth course served
(4) Lobster is the third course served
(5) None of these
72. If Bhetki is the third course served, which
one of the following MUST be true?
(1) Pomfret is the fourth course served
(2) Kingfish is the fifth course served(3) Rahu is the first course served
(4) Indian shrimp is the seventh course served
(5) None of these
Directions for Questions 73 to 75:During one week, a human resource director
conducts five interviews for a new job, one interviewper day, Monday through Friday. There are six candi-dates for the jobRam, Shyam, Trilochan, Usha,Veena, and Kishore. No more than two candidatesare interviewed more than once. Neither Shyam norUsha nor Veena is interviewed more than once, and
no other candidate is interviewed more than twice.The schedule of interviews is subject to the follow-ing conditions:
If Trilochan is interviewed, then Trilochanmust be interviewed on both Monday andFriday.
If Shyam is interviewed, then Usha is alsointerviewed, with Shyams interview takingplace earlier than Ushas interview.
If Ram is interviewed twice, then Ram'ssecond interview takes place exactly twodays after Ram's first interview. (on the thirdday)
If Veena is interviewed, then Kishore is inter-viewed twice, with Veenas interview takingplace after Kishores first interview and
before Kishore's second interview. If Usha is interviewed, then Ram is also
interviewed, with Ushas interview takingplace on a day either immediately before orimmediately after a day on which Ram isinterviewed.
73. Which of the following could be a complete
and accurate list of candidates the human resources
director interviews and the days on which those
interviews take place?(1) Monday: Shyam; Tuesday: Usha; Wednesday:
Ram; Thursday: Kishore; Friday: Ram.
(2) Monday: Shyam; Tuesday: Kishore; Wednes-
day: Ram; Thursday: Kishore; Friday: Usha.
(3) Monday: Trilochan; Tuesday: Ram; Wednesday:
Shyam; Thursday: Ram; Friday: Trilochan.
(4) Monday: Trilochan; Tuesday: Ram; Wednes-
day: Kishore; Thursday: Veena; Friday:
Trilochan.
(5) None of these
74. If Veena is interviewed on Tuesday, then
which one of the following MUST be true?
(1) Trilochan is interviewed on Friday
(2) Usha is interviewed on Thursday
(3) Ram is not interviewed
(4) Shyam is not interviewed
(5) None of these
75. If Kishore is not interviewed, then which
one of the following MUST be true?
(1) Ram is interviewed on Thursday
(2) Shyam is interviewed on Tuesday
(3) Trilochan is interviewed on Monday
(4) Usha is interviewed on Wednesday
(5) None of these
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Section I
1. (4) I is a valid reason for the analogy not being
perfect. II is a reason for the analogy being
perfect and III is immaterial in this case. IV is
clearly mentioned as the analogy being
deeper. Hence II and III are not valid reasons
for the analogy not being perfect.
2. (5) All the given statements are false. I is
contradicted by the author directly; II is false
as all findings are not benign; III is false
because they have barely a clue and IV is
false because all challenges may not be
related to biology.
3. (2) Note that (2) is not a problem at all, in fact, it
may even be a threat. All others are problems
that biotechnology can address.
4. (3) The second last paragraph explains the
biological internet. The other choices are too
narrow in their description.
5. (4) The essence of the passage is that humanity
has been looking at the wrong things but
now they have a clue and great things are
going to happen in the future.
6. (3) Things are hotting up the next sentence
should confirm these findings, which is
happening in (3).
7. (3) The argument is about allocation of
secondary education and universal
education. Hence the next sentence should
be about financing the elementary education,
which is part of universal education. No
other choice addresses this.
8. (1) The paragraph is about the charges against
Mashelkar. It should continue with his
justification for making the mistake, which is
stated in (1) only.
9. (5) The paragraph is describing punishment. It
talks of Section 293, and in the next line it
should talk about further penalties, in
Section 294, hence (5).
10. (3) The paragraph talks about is not merely a
matter of comfortable seats and all the other
facilities being provided. The purchase of a
ticket hence it should continue with (3)
which states that the process is quite
mystifying and confusing.
11. (3) Statement A is fact as it states a direct
relationship, B is judgment as it mentions a
desirable objective, while C and D are direct
facts.
12. (5) Statement A is judgment as it states
important step, B, C and D are inferences
from other facts.
13. (1) Statement A is inference from research, B is a
direct fact, C is inference as it says it is
likely and D is judgment: most
authoritative
14. (3) Statement A is inference from watching Tony
Blair, all other statements are judgments: B:
appropriate description, C: its time to
and D: will have a lot more clout
15. (1) Statement A is inference, in exercising one
right, B: When a political party, C is
inference from their economic conditions. D
is judgment as it says that they have no
effect
16. (2) Women are mentioned to do A and B only. C
was done only by men and D by wimpy
fellows.
17. (3) The arguments are quite logical and the
conclusion seems probably true but we
cannot say it is convincing, because other
reasons are not explored.
18. (5) The passage mentions that they did not do
long distance trade, nor evidence has been
found for leather processing or farming.
19. (4) The passage states that modern man
developed farming and sewing, hence only
(4) matches this finding.
20. (3) The passage is about division of labour,
hence better specialization has to be the
answer.
21. (4) The only reason mentioned in the passage is
(I). II is an effect, not the cause while III is too
narrow. IV is nowhere mentioned.
22. (2) Note that the reason given is countries
unravelling like others. Thus an insulation
would prevent them from economic collapse.
23. (4) people who opposed globalisation were
disdainfully dismissed as modern-day
incarnations of the Ludditesthis means
that Luddites belonged to the past and thus
they would be persons who opposed all
technology.
24. (5) The given statements can be inferred from
the last few paragraphs. Though one
institution is mentioned for financial crunch
etc, we can infer that all of them are facing
similar problems.
25. (4) The line talks of competition beggaring one
anothers economies. In all the choices the
consequences are different except in (4)
where the economy will suffer.
Section II
26. (5) Construct the figure as follows:
The nine parallel chords are shown as aboveand C5 is diameter.
We can now shift these chords by a small
distance say 1 cm downward and all
conditions of the question are still met.
27. (1) Form the simple equations:
9m + 4a + 6p = 114 (1)
and 4m + 6a + 9p = 114 (2)
(1) 3 (2) 2 gives 19m = 114
m = Rs 6
C.P. = 6 5 = Rs 30.
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ANSWERS AND EXPLANATIONS
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28. (1) Let speeds of A, B, C be a, b, c.
In the time B covers 4 units A cover 12 + 4
= 16 unitsIn the time C covers 2 units A covers 12+2
= 14 units
Hence
29. (1) In each round R completes he is
diametrically opposite S exactly once. By the
time S completes 3 rounds, R completes 27
rounds and hence he is diametrically
opposite S on 27.
30. (1)
An isosceles trapezium is a cyclic
quadrilateral.
31. (2) The equations are: 3N = Dx + 13 (i)
and 4N = Dy + 9 (ii)
Subtracting (i) from (ii) we get:
N = D(y x) 4
OR Remainder R = D 4 (because a ve
remainder means adding the
remainder in the divisor)
When 3N is divided R becomes 3R
i.e. 3D 12 = 13 3D = 25
or D = 25 (because 25 is not a multiple of 3)
Now R = D 4 = 21.
32. (3) Average of A, B, C = 45.
A, C, D = 55.
A, B, D = 50.
B, C, D = 60.
Let a, b, c and d be the no. of students in
section A, B, C and D respectively.
Total = 150a + 155b + 160c + 165d (Adding
a's, b's, c's and d's)
33. (2) We need the remainder of squares when theyare divided by 5 and 6.Denoting the sets by S5 and S6 we have
R5 = {0, 1, 4} and R6 = {0, 1, 3, 4}.
34. (5) Let us assume that each boy gets at least onemarble (>0). Hence after every operation thenumber of marbles in the bag shoulddecrease. This implies that successive boysshould get decreasing number of marbleseach. But it is given that 2 boys got the samenumber of marbles. Hence our initialassumption is not valid. This means each boygets no or zero marbles. This is possible ofonly if number of marbles in bag is 3.
35. (2)
36. (3) There are 128 students in a class with100 + 96 + 99 + 90 passes i.e. 385 passes.Now 40 students have a total of 160 passes,therefore rest 88 students have 225 passes.Now each of these 75 students can getalmost 3 passes.
Therefore number of students with no passes= 88 75 = 13.
37. (2) As calculated above 88 students have toprovide for 225 passes.Taking the maximum number of studentswith two passes still have to take a total of225 passes.Let x number of students have passed inexactly two of the subjects. This implies theremaining 88 x must have passed in all thethree subjects.Thus the equation will be 3(88 x) + 2x = 225.Solve and get x = 39.
38. (2) R B Gx y
x y x = 7, y = 5
39. (5) f(1) = (1)S2 + (1)S1 + f(0) = 1,
f(2) = (1)S3 + (1)S2 + f(1) = 1
f(3) = (1)S4
+ (1)S3
+ f(2) = 1, f(4) = 1,
f(5) = 1, f(6) = 1, f(3) = 1, f(8) = 1
The pattern is repeating itself in cycle of
four.
Sum of four terms is zero. As 25 = 6(4) + (1)
f(1) = 1
40. (4) Since the number has to be a multiple of 5 it
can have only 5 in units place and not 0The number can have only odd digits
(since units digit is 5) i.e. 1, 3, 5, 7, 9
But sum of these is not a multiple of 3 hence
we cannot have a multiple of 5.
No such number can be made.
41. (1) Total employees = 1200.
Total illiterates = 145.
Female employees = 12 30 = 360
Male employees = 840.
Female illiterates = 360 305 = 55;
Male illiterates = 145 55 = 90.
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42. (2)
43. (3)
44. (2)
45. (2)
46. (2)
47. (3)
48. (1)
49. (2)
50. (2)
51. (2)
52. (1)
53. (2)
54. (5)
57. (1)
58. (2)
59. (2)
60. (5)
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[ MANAGEMENT SPECIAL ]
61. (1)
62. (4)
Q. 64
64. (3)
65. (1)
66. (2)
67. (4)
68. (1)
69. (3)
70. (2)
71. (1)
72. (4)
73. (2)
74. (4)
75. (3)