357. Intermaxillary suture are sometimes raised forming a longitudinal midline ridge known as: (AFMC 2003) a. Torus auditory b. Torus mandibularis c. Torus palatine d. Torus maxillaris

358. Peritonsillar abscess is also known as: (Karnataka [snip]) a. Retropharyngeal abscess b. Tonsillar abscess c. Quinsy d. Thornwaldt’s abscess

359. Third molar caries with extension of the lesion towards tonsillar fossa and shift of tonsil reveals which of the following complication? (UP 2002) a. Parapharyngeal abscess b. Retropharyngeal abscess c. Tonsillar abscess d. Dental abscess

360. Peritonsillar abscess can extend posteriorly into: (Delhi 2000) a. Anterior triangle of neck b. Parapharyngeal space c. Posterior triangle on neck d. Submaxillary space

361. Swelling between tonsillar area and superior constrictor muscle is know as: (AI 1991) a. Quinsy b. Dental abscess c. Parapharyngeal abscess d. Retropharyngeal abscess

362. The most common malignancy of the oropharynx: (MP 2006) a. Tonsil b. Soft palate

c. Tongue base d. Valleculae

363. Killiance dehiscence is seen in (JIPMER 1999) a. Oropharynx b. Nasopharynx c. Cricopharynx d. Vocal cords

364. Odynophagia is (MH PGM CET 2000) a. Pain during swallowing b. Difficulty in swallowing c. Bad odour from mouth d. Psychiatric disease

365. Openings of the tube of bronchoscope are known as: (CMC 2002) a. Holes b. Apertures c. Vents d. Any of the above

366. Indications for tracheostomy are all EXCEPT: a. Acute epiglottitis b. Maxillofacial trauma c. Laryngeal malignancy d. Extensive consolidation of lung

367. Most common complication of Tracheostomy is: (JIPMER 2000) a. Stenosis b. Infection c. Pneumonia d. Respiratory failure

368. Collar stud abscess is seen in: (Orissa 2004) a. Pyogenic cervical abscess b. Peritonsillar abscess c. Retropharyngeal abscess d. TB lymphadenitis

369. A tracheostomised patient, with portex tracheostomy tube, in the ward, developed sudden complete blockage of the tube. Which of the following is best next step in the management? (AIIMS May 2004) a. Immediate removal of the tracheostomy tube b. Suction of tube with sodium bicarbonate c. Suction of tube with saline d. Jet ventilation

370. After a long-standing tracheostomy patient developed almost complete stenosis of trachea, treatment is: (AIIMS 2001) a. Tracheal dilation b. Laser with stent c. Surgery d. Removal of stenosed part with anastomosis

371. Not true regarding pterygopalatine fossa: (Orissa 2005) a. Inferomedial to the foramen rotundum lies the Vidian (Pterygoid) canal, which connects the foramen lacerum to the pterygopalatine fossa. b. Medially, the pterygopalatine fossa communicates through the pterygomaxillary fissure with the infratemporal fossa c. It communicates with the middle cranial cavity through the foramen rotundum and pterygoid canal. d. It contains the sphenopalatine ganglion and the third segment of the maxillary artery.

372. White oral lesions are seen in EXCEPT: (Kar 2002) a. Leukoplakia

b. Keratosis c. Addison’s disease d. Candidiasis

373. All of the following cause a grey-white membrane in the throat EXCEPT (SGPGI 2005) a. Streptococcal tonsillitis b. Diphtheria c. Ludwig’s angina d. Adenoviral pharyngitis

374. True statement about faucial diphtheria is: (Delhi 2001) a. Pearly white membrane b. Bleeding occurs if the membrane is tried to remove c. Bleeds when membrane is removed d. Membrane can be removed easily

375. Collar stud abscess is seen in: (Orissa 2004) a. Pyogenic cervical abscess b. Peritonsillar abscess c. Retropharyngeal abscess d. TB lymphadenitis

376. Steeple sign is seen in: (SGPGI 2005) a. Croup b. Acute epiglottitis c. Laryngomalacia d. Quinsy

377. The antibiotic of choice in acute epiglottitis pending culture sensitivity report is: (Kar 2001) a. Erythromycin

b. Rolitetracycline c. Doxycycline d. Ampicillin

378. Which of the following statement is true for Ludwig’s angina? (Delhi 2000) a. It is an ischemic, painful condition of Pectoralis minor muscle b. It is diffuse cellulitis affecting the floor of the mouth c. Glycerin nitrate, local application is quite helpful d. None of the above

379. Submandibular space infection is known as: (Manipal 2002) a. Ludwig’s angina b. Vincent’s angina c. Parapharyngeal abscess d. None

380. Which of the following structures are preserved in radical neck dissection? (Kar 2002) a. Vagus nerve b. Accessory Nerve c. Internal jugular vein d. Sternocleidomastoid muscle

381. Palatal myoclonus is seen in: (SGPGI 2005) a. Epilepsy b. Multiple sclerosis c. Cerebellar infarction d. Guillain Barre syndrome

382. What is the correct sequence of the following while resuscitating an infant with Foreign Body Airway Obstruction? (UPSC 2004)

1. Chest thrust 2. Tongue-jaw lift 3. Back blows Select the correct sequence form the codes given below: Codes: a. 1,3,2 b. 3,2,1 c. 3,1,2 d. 2,1,3

383. A patient presented with a 3.5 cms size lymph node enlargement, which was hard and presented in submandibular region. Examination of the head and neck did not yield any lesion. The next investigation to be done: (CMC 2005) a. CXR b. Triple endoscopy c. Supravital staining of oral mucosa d. Laryngoscopy

384. Most common tumor to produce metastasis to cervical lymph nodes: (AIIMS MAY 2002) a. Glottic Carcinoma b. Nasopharyngeal carcinoma c. Carcinoma Base of tongue d. Carcinoma lip

385. Best diagnostic modality for Nasopharyngeal angiofibroma is: (AIIMS 1997) a. Angiography b. Biopsy c. CECT d. MRI

386. Investigation of choice for Nasopharyngeal angiofibroma is:

(MP 2002) a. MRI b. CECT c. Helical CT d. Angiography

387. Causes of posterior soft tissue nasopharyngeal mass include all EXCEPT: (AMU 1996) a. Plasmacytoma b. Choanal atresia c. Thornwaldt’s Cyst d. Aneurysm of the carotid artery e. Chordoma

388. All muscles of Palate are supplied by cranial accessory nerve except: a. Tensor palati b. Palatoglossus c. Palatopharyngeus d. None

389. All muscles of Pharynx are supplied by cranial accessory nerve except: a. Thyropharyngeus b. Inferior constrictor c. Stylopharyngeus d. Superior constrictor

390. All muscles of Tongue are supplied by hypoglossal nerve EXCEPT: a. Myoglossus b. Palatoglossus c. Genioglossus d. Hyoglossus

391. Cranial accessory nerve supplies: (Orissa 99) a. Palate b. Pharynx c. Palatoglossus d. All

392. Mandibular nerve supplies: (PGI 89) a. Tensor palati b. Tensor tympani c. Both d. None

393. Most frequent site of branchial cyst is at: (MH-SS-CET 2005) a. Upper third of posterior border of sternocleidomastoid b. Lower third of anterior border of sternocleidomastoid c. Upper third of anteromedial border of sternocleidomastoid d. Supraclavicular fossa

394. The main differential diagnosis is second branchial cleft cyst include all EXCEPT: a. Thyroglossal duct cyst b. Cystic hygroma c. Laryngocele d. Ranula

395. Which of the following is not the site for PARAGANGLIOMA? (AIIMS Nov 2003) a. Carotid bifurcation b. Jugular foramen c. Promontory in middle ear d. Geniculate ganglion

396. Bano Begum presented with bleeding from ear, pain, tinnitus and increasing deafness. Examination revealed red swelling/mass behind the intact tympanic membrane that blanches on pressure with pneumatic speculum. Treatments for her include all EXCEPT: (AIIMS 2001) a. Preoperative embolisation b. Radiotherapy c. Surgery d. Interferons

397. Which of the following is the most beneficial technique of using chemotherapy with a course of radiotherapy in head and neck malignancies? (AIIMS NOV 2004) a. Neo adjuvant chemotherapy b. Adjuvant chemotherapy c. Concurrent chemotherapy d. Alternating chemotherapy and radiotherapy

398. Which implant is used in Nasopharyngeal carcinoma: (Kerala 2005) a. Caesium b. I-131 c. Gold d. Iridium

399. A male aged 60 years has foul breath, he regurgitates food that is eaten 3 . Likely diagnosis is: (AIPGE 2001) a. Zenker’s diverticulum b. Meckel’s diverticulum c. Scleroderma d. Achalasia cardia

400. Main problem associated with carotid body tumor operation is: (Maharashtra 2000) a. The tumor blends with bifurcation of carotid artery b. The tumor blends with jugular vein c. Recurrence d. Vaso vagal Shock

401. True about Carotid body tumor is all EXCEPT: (AIIMS Nov 2004) a. It is highly vascular mass b. True cut biopsy is investigation of choice c. Operative intervention is best avoided in elderly patients. d. Radiotherapy has no effect

402. Investigation of choice for carotid body tumor? (AFMC 2004) a. Angiography b. USG with colour Doppler c. CECT d. MRI

403. A 40 year old patient is suffering from carotid body tumor. Which of the following is the best choice of treatment for him? (AIIMS 2004 may) a. Excision of tumor b. Radiotherapy c. Chemotherapy d. Carotid artery ligation both proximal and distal to the tumor

404. Lower esophageal sphincter: (AIIMS 2005 may) a. Has no tonic activity

b. Has a tone which is provided by the sympathetic system c. Relaxes on increasing abdominal pressure d. Relaxes ahead of the peristaltic wave

405. A young patient presents with history of dysphagia more to liquids than solids. The first investigation you will do is: (AIIMS may 2003) a. Barium swallow b. Esophagoscopy c. Laryngoscopy d. CT chest

406. Barium study in Trendelenburg position is done for the diagnosis of: (Kerala 2003) a. Upper GIT disorders b. Hiatal disorders c. Esophageal disorder d. Crohn’s disease

407. On a chest radiograph, a double shadow behind the heart, signs of aspiration pneumonia and absence of air in stomach is suggestive of: (KAR 2003) a. Aneurysm of thoracic aorta b. Achalasia c. Carcinoma esophagus d. Peptic ulcer (stomach)

408. “Rat-tail” appearance on barium swallow examination is seen in: (Maharashtra 2002) a. Achalasia cardia b. Carcinoma esophagus c. Hiatus hernia d. Diffuse esophageal spasm

409. “Cobble stone” esophagus is feature of: (Orissa 94) a. Candidial oesophagitis b. Cytomegalovirus oesophagitis c. Herpes oesophagitis d. Hiatus hernia

410. “Rat tail Appearance” in barium swallow is a feature of: (KAR 2005) a. Carcinoma of Esophagus b. Achalasia Cardia c. Barret’s esophagus d. Chronic Reflux oesophagitis

411. ‘Cork-screw’ esophagus is seen in: (AI 2002; KAR 2001) a. Vigorous achalasia cardia b. Scleroderma c. Diffuse esophageal spasm d. Carcinoma esophagus

412. Dysphagia lusoria due to: (AIIMS Nov 2003; Manipal 2002) a. Esophageal diverticulum b. Aneurysm of aorta c. Esophageal web d. Compression of esophagus by aberrant blood vessel

413. Dysphagia lusoria is commonly due to: (Manipal 2002) a. Abnormal origin of left subclavian artery b. Abnormal origin of right subclavian artery c. Compression by aortic arch d. Obstruction by foreign body

414. Corkscrew esophagus is seen in which of the following conditions? (AIPGE 2002) a. Carcinoma esophagus b. Scleroderma c. Achalasia cardia d. Diffuse esophageal spasm

415. Treatment for achalasia associated with high rate of recurrence: (AIPGE 2002) a. Pneumatic dilatation b. Laparoscopic myotomy c. Open surgical myotomy d. Botulinum toxin

416. Barrett’s oesophagus is: (AIPGE 2002) a. Lower oesophagus lined by columnar epithelium b. Upper oesophagus lined by columnar epithelium c. Lower esophagus lined by ciliated epithelium d. Lower esophagus lined by pseudostratified epithelium

417. Adenocarcinoma of esophagus develops in: (AIPGE 2002) a. Barrett’s esophagus b. Long standing achalasia c. Corrosive structure d. Alcohol abuse

418. Most common site for squamous cell Carcinoma esophagus is:

(AIPGE 2001) a. Upper third b. Middle third c. Lower third d. Gastro esophageal junction

419. Dysphagia lusoria is due to: (NOV. 2003 AIIMS ) a. Oesophageal diverticulum b. Aneurysm of aorta c. Oesophageal web d. Compression by aberrant blood vessels

420. A 30 years old male, presents with symptoms of regurgitation of foul smelling food, and dysphagia. He is diagnosed to have cricopharyngeal diverticulum. Management of choice is: ( AIIMS 2001) a. Excision of the diverticula b. Cricopharyngeal myotomy alone c. Myotomy with excision of the sac d. Marsupialization of the sac

421. Bhanwarilal presents with feature of foul smelling food regurgitation, dysphagia and pain. He was diagnosed to have cricopharyngeal diverticulum. Treatment of choice will be: (AIIMS 2000) a. LASER vaporization b. Excision of the diverticulum with cricopharyngomyotomy c. Excision of the diverticulum d. Marsupialisation of the diverticulum

422. Best substitute for esophagus after esophagectomy is: (MP 99; Ai 96) a. Stomach b. Jejunum c. Right colon d. Left colon

423. A young patients with dysphagia move for liquids than solids. He regurgitates food often at night. Radiography shows a rat-tailed appearance. Likely diagnosis is: (AIIMS May 1996) a. Achalasia cardia b. CA oesophagus c. Zenker’s diverticulum d. Diffuse esophageal spasm

424. A male aged 60 years has foul breath; He regurgitates food that is eaten 3 a gurgling sound is often heard on swallowing: Likely diagnosis is: (AI 2001) a. Zenkers diverticulum b. Meckels diverticulum c. Scleroderma d. Achalasia cardia

425. All are true regarding Plummer Vinson syndrome, except: (AIIMS Dec 97) a. Oesophageal web b. Predisposes to malignancy c. Koilonychia d. Common in elderly males

426. The following are predisposing factors for Esophageal carcinoma except: (AI 1996) a. Plummer-Vinson syndrome b. Tylosis palmaris c. Chronic Achalasia d. Benzene therapy

427. Hyperkeratosis of palm and sole is seen in: (AIIMS Dec 97) a. Carcinoma colon b. Hepatoma c. Adenocarcinoma lung d. CA oesophagus

428. The adenocarcinoma of esophagus-developed in: (AI 2002) a. Barrett’s esophagus b. Long standing achalasia c. Corrosive structure d. Alcohol abuse

429. Adenocarcinoma of esophagus is commonly found in: (AI 1998) a. Achalasia acardia b. Barrett’s oesophagus c. Plummer Vinson syndrome d. Chronic smoking

430. Most common site for squamous cell carcinoma esophagus is: (AI 2001) a. Upper third b. Middle third

c. Lower third d. Gastro-esophageal junction

431. Which neo-adjuvant chemotherapy is used in Esophageal carcinoma: (AI 1996) a. Cisplatin b. Cyclophosphamide c. Doxorubicin d. Methotrexate

432. The commonest side effect of cisplatinum in a patient using it for esophageal carcinoma is: (AIIMS May 01) a. Acute tubular necrosis b. Thrombocytopenia c. Hepatic failure d. Cardiomyopathy

433. Constrictions normally present in esophagus are all EXCEPT: (MH-PGM-CET-2000): a. 10 cm from the incisor teeth b. 15 cm from the incisor teeth c. 25 cm from the incisor teeth d. 40 cm from the incisor teeth

434. Which of the following play vital role in preventing gastro oesophagus reflux? (PGI 2001) a. Sphincteric action of lower esophageal muscle fibers or fibers of right cura. b. Mucosal flap produced by muscularis mucosa of the stomach. c. Difference between intrathoracic and intraabdominal pressure.

d. Acute gastroesophageal angle.

435. The most common complication seen in hiatus hernia is: (AI 2005) a. Oesophagitis b. Aspiration pneumonitis c. Volvulus d. Oesophageal stricture

436. The hypopharynx includes all the following EXCEPT: (JIPMER 2003) a. Pyriform fossa b. Epiglottis c. Post cricoid region d. Valeculae

357. Ans: (c) (Torus palatine)

358. Ans: (c) (Quinsy)

359. Ans: (a) (Parapharyngeal abscess)

360. Ans: (b) (Parapharyngeal space)

361. Ans: (a) (Quinsy)

362. Ans: (a) (Tonsil)

363. Ans: (Cricopharynx)

364. Ans: (a) (Pain during swallowing)

365. Ans: (c) (Vents)

366. Ans: (d) (Extensive consolidation of lung)

367. Ans: (b) (Infection)

368. Ans: (d) (TB lymphadenitis)

369. Ans: (a) (Immediate removal of the tracheostomy tube)

370. Ans: (d) (Removal of stenosed part with anastomosis)

371. Ans: (b) (Medially, the pterygopalatine fossa communicates through the pterygomaxillary fissure with the infratemporal fossa)

372. Ans: (c) (Addison’s disease)

373. Ans: (c) (Ludwig’s angina)

374. Ans: (b) (Bleeding occurs if the membrane is tried to remove)

375. Ans: (d) (TB lymphadenitis)

376. Ans: (a) (Croup)

377. Ans: (a) (Erythromycin)

378. Ans: (b) (It is diffuse cellulitis affecting the floor of the mouth)

379. Ans: (a) (Ludwig’s angina)

380. Ans: (a) (Vagus nerve)

381. Ans: (b) (Multiple sclerosis)

382. Ans: (c) (3,1,2)

383. Ans: (b) (Triple endoscopy)

384. Ans: (b) (Nasopharyngeal carcinoma)

385. Ans: (c) (CECT)

386. Ans: (b) (CECT)

387. Ans: (b) (Choanal atresia)

388. Ans: (a) (Tensor palati)

389. Ans: (c) (Stylopharyngeus)

390. Ans: (b) (Palatoglossus)

391. Ans: (d) (All)

392. Ans: (a), (b)

393. Ans: (c) (Upper third of anteromedial border of sternocleidomastoid

394. Ans: (d) (Ranula)

395. Ans: (d) (Geniculate ganglion)

396. Ans: (d) (Interferons)

397. Ans: (a) (Neo adjuvant chemotherapy)

398. Ans: (d) (Iridium)

399. Ans: (a) (Zenker’s diverticulum)

400. Ans: (a) (The tumor blends with bifurcation of carotid artery)

401. Ans: (b) (True cut biopsy is investigation of choice)

402. Ans: (c) (CECT)

403. Ans: (a) (Excision of tumor)

404. Ans: (d) (Relaxes ahead of the peristaltic wave)

405. Ans: (a) Barium Swallow

406. Ans: (b) (Hiatal disorders)

407. Ans: (b) (Achalasia)

408. Ans: (b) (Carcinoma esophagus)

409. Ans: (a) (Candidial oesophagitis)

410. Ans: (a) (Carcinoma of Esophagus)

411. Ans: (c) (Diffuse esophageal spasm)

412. Ans: (d) (Compression of esophagus by aberrant blood vessel)

413. Ans: (a) (Abnormal origin of left subclavian artery)

414. Ans: (d) (Diffuse esophageal spasm)

415. Ans: (b) (Laparoscopic myotomy)

416. Ans: (a) (Lower oesophagus lined by columnar epithelium)

417. Ans: (a) (Barrett’s esophagus)

418. Ans: (b) (Middle third)

419. Ans: (d) (Compression by aberrant blood vessels)

420. Ans: (c) (Myotomy with excision of the sac)

421. Ans: (b) (Excision of the diverticulum with cricopharyngomyotomy)

422. Ans: (a) (Stomach)

423. Ans: (a) (Achlasia cardia)

424. Ans: (a) (Zenker’s diverticulum)

425. Ans: (d) (Common in elderly male)

426. Ans: (d) (Benzene therapy)

427. Ans: (d)(Ca Esophagus)

428. Ans: (a) (Barrett’s Esophagus)

429. Ans: (b) (Barrett’s esophagus)

430. Ans: (b)(Middle third)

431. Ans: (a) (Cisplatin)

432. Ans: (a) (Acute tubular necrosis)

433. Ans: (a) 10 cm

434. Ans: (a), (b), (c), (d)

435. Ans: (a) (Oesophagitis)

436. Ans: (d) Valeculae