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1 Master of Business Administration (MBA) - Semester III MB0050 Research Methodology4 Credits Book ID: B1700 Self-Assessment Questions

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Master of Business Administration (MBA) - Semester III

MB0050 –Research Methodology– 4 Credits

Book ID: B1700

Self-Assessment Questions

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Unit 1 Introduction to Research

1. The researcher who is conducting the research must be Objective and neutral in approach.

2. Research always requires a Structured and sequential method of enquiry

3. Research is done for Proving existing theories or arriving at new models

4. An important aspect of business research is its Decision assisting nature.

5. Applied research is the kind of research where one needs to apply specific statistical

procedures. (True/ false)

6. In basic research, the context is vast and the time period is flexible. (True/ false)

7. The research that is especially carried out to test and validate the study hypotheses is termed

(a) Fundamental resaeach

(b) Applied research

(c) Conclusive research

(d) Exploratory research

8. The research studies that explore the effect of one thing on another and more specifically, the

effect of one variable on another are known as

(a) Causal research

(b) Applied research

(c) Conclusive research

(d) Exploratory research

9. Every research study always begins with a hypothesis. (True/ false)

10. The group of individuals from whom one needs to collect data for the study is called the

sample. (True/ false)

11. The assumption about the expected result of a research is called the Hypothesis 12. The data collection methods may be classified into Primary and secondary data methods.

13. Marketing department of a business organization carries out researches related to:

(a) Product

(b) Pricing

(c) Promotion

(d) All the above

14. Demand forecasting, and quality assurance and management are part of

(a) Personnel and human resource management

(b) Marketing function

(c) Financial and accounting research

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(d) Production and operations management

15. The research study must follow a Sequential plan for investigation.

16. One of the most important aspects of a research study is that it must be Replicable if one

follows similar conditions.

1.10 Terminal Questions 1. How would you define business research? Illustrate with examples. 2. What are the different types of researches that can be conducted by a researcher? 3. Distinguish between descriptive and causal research studies? 4. Describe in details the steps to be carried out in a typical research study. 5. Can research be carried out in all areas of business? Explain with examples about the kind of studies that can be done. 6. What are the features of a good research study?

Answers to Terminal Questions 1. Research is a careful, systematic, patient study and investigation in some field of knowledge, undertaken to establish facts or principles.’ Refer to section 1.2 for further details. 2. Research may be fundamental (or basic) or applied research. Based on the nature of enquiry or the objective, research can be exploratory or conclusive. Refer to section 1.3 for further details. 3. Conclusive research can further be divided into descriptive and causal research. Refer to section 1.3.2 for further details. 4. A research study usually follows a structured sequence of steps. Refer to section 1.4 for further details. 5. Different kinds of studies are carried out in the area of business management such as marketing, finance, human resources and operations. Refer to section 1.5 for further details. 6. For a research to be recognized as significant, it must follow some basic criteria. Refer to section 1.6 for further details.

Unit 2 Research Problem and Formulation of the Research Hypotheses

1. The management decision problem must be reduced to a Research problem.

2. A research problem can be defined as A gap in the decision makers’ existing body of knowledge

which inhibits efficient decision making.

3. Simple research problems usually test Linear relationships.

4. Complex problems look at the interrelationship between Multiple variables.

5. The management problem is a difficulty face by the Decision maker

6. The management research problem has to be converted into a Research problem before it can

be tested.

7. The management decision problem can be tested, that is, subjected to research enquiry. (True/

False)

8. How can students be made to learn the course on research methodology is a research problem.

(True/False)

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9. Which of these is not a step in the problem identification process?

(a) Discussion with subject experts

(b) Review of existing literature

(c) Theoretical foundation and model building

(d) Management decision making

10. The Publication Manual of the American Psychological Association (2001) and the Chicago

Manual of Style (1993) are:

(a) Well known works on research

(b) Referencing style guides in management

(c) Publishing journals

(d) Management journals

11. A valuable source of problem formulation is based on informal interviews conducted with

industry experts. (True/False)

12. Formulation of the research problem does not require primary data collection. (True/False)

13. The causal variable is also called Independent variable.

14. The Dependent variable is also called the effect.

15. If one evaluates the impact of the pedagogy of Prof. N S on the research methods course

grades of students, then Prof. N S, here, is the unit of analysis. (True/False)

16. Moderating variables are the ones that have a strong effect on the relationship between the

independent and dependent variables. (True/ False)

17. The hypotheses are always made in question form. (True/False)

18. The hypotheses must be measurable and quantifiable. (True/False)

19. The hypotheses that talks about relation between two or more variables is called a Relational

hypotheses.

20. If one is making a proposition about the magnitude or behaviour of a particular population, we

call it a Descriptive hypothesis.

21. A formal document that presents the research objectives, design of achieving these objectives

and the expected outcomes/deliverables of the study is called

(a) Research design

(b) Research proposal

(c) Research hypothesis

(d) Research report

22. In a research proposal, the time-bound dissemination of the study with the major phases of the

research has to be presented using the

(a) CPM

(b) GANTT charts

(c) PERT charts

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(d) All the above

23. Academic proposals require extensive literature review. (True/False)

24. External organizational proposals are generally conducted by external research agencies.

(True/False)

2.11 Terminal Questions 1. How would you distinguish between a management decision problem and a management research problem? Do all decision problems require research? Explain and illustrate with examples. 2. Explain the step wise process of problem identification with an example 3. What are the components of a sound research problem? Illustrate with examples. 4. What is a research hypothesis? Do all researches require hypotheses formulation? Explain the different types of hypotheses available for research with examples. 5. What are the steps involved in writing a research proposal. Give examples. 6. What are the different kinds of research proposals that can be formulated?

Answers to Terminal Questions 1. The problem recognition process starts with the decision maker and some difficulty or decision dilemma that he/she might be facing. Refer to section 2.3 for further details. 2. The process of identifying the research problem involves a number of steps. Refer to section 2.4 for further details. 3. There are some essential elements of a typical research problem – the unit of analysisand a clear definition of the variables under study. Refer to section 2.5 for futher details. 4. Any assumption that a researcher makes on the probable direction of the results that might be obtained on completion of the research process is termed as a hypothesis. Refer to section 2.6 for further details. 5. A research proposal is a formal document that presents the research objectives, design of achieving these objectives and the expected outcomes/deliverables of the study. Refer to section 2.7.1 for further details. 6. There are three different kinds of research proposals available to the researcher – academic, internal and external. Refer to section 2.7.2 for further details.

Unit 3 Research Designs

1. The execution details of the research question to be investigated are referred to as the

Research design.

2. Research designs come After the problem formulation stage.

3. Researcher design is the same as research method. (True/false)

4. The formulated design must ensure:

(a) Converting the research question and the hypotheses into measurable variables

(b) Specifying the process to complete the above task

(c) Specifying the ‘control mechanism(s)’

(d) All the above

5. Previously collected findings in facts and figures which have been authenticated and published

are referred to as Secondary data sources.

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6. A carefully selected small set of individuals representative of the larger respondent population

under study is called a Focus group.

7. The case study method is generally focused on a single unit of analysis. (True/False)

8. Expert opinion survey and respondent group discussions together form a two-tiered research

design. (True/False)

9. A research study that tracks the profile of a typical social networking user is an example of an

exploratory research design. (True/False)

10. If one wants to assess changes in investment behaviour of general public over time, the best

design available to the researcher is a longitudinal design. (True/False)

11. A study to analyse the profile of the supporters of Anna Hazare would need a cross-sectional

research design. (True/False)

12. Married couples are the unit of analysis in a cohort analysis. (True/False)

13. Different groups of people tested over a single stretch of time is a special characteristic of a

longitudinal design. (True/False)

14. The research variable in a longitudinal research design is studied over fixed intervals in time.

(True/False)

15. Descriptive designs do not require any quantitative statistical analysis. (True/False)

16. External validity refers to generalization of the sample results to that of population.

17. Test units are selected at random in quasi-experimental design. (True/ False)

18. There cannot be more than two independent variables in a factorial experiment. (True/False)

19. There is no possiblity of error in true experimental research design. (True/ False)

20. In the true experimental design and statistical design, the respondents are selected at random

which may not be the case in real life. (True/False)

3.10 Terminal Questions 1. How would you define research designs? What are the three principles to be taken care of when selecting a research design? 2. What are exploratory designs? What are the methods that can be used in an exploratory design? 3. What are descriptive designs? What are the different kinds of descriptive designs available? 4. Distinguish between internal and external validity of the experiments. 5. Explain the four types of experimental designs. 6. Discuss the various sources of errors.

Answers to Terminal Questions 1. The research design is the specific framework that has been created to seek answers to the research question. Refer to Section 3.2 for further details. 2. Exploratory designs are the simplest and most loosely structured designs. Refer to Section 3.3 for further details. 3. The objective of descriptive research studies is to provide a comprehensive and detailed explanation of the phenomena under study. Refer to Section 3.4 for further details. 4. Internal validity tries to examine whether the observed effect on a dependent variable is actually caused by the treatments (independent variables) in question, while external validity refers to the generalization of the results of an experiment. Refer to Section 3.5 for further details. 5. There are four types of experimental designs. Refer to Section 3.5 for further details.

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6. All the research designs have some scope of error. Refer to Section 3.6 for further details.

Unit 4 Primary and Secondary Data

1. The data that is always collected first in a research study is called Primary data.

2. Secondary data is not always specific to the research problem under study.

3. Census data is an example of primary data source. (True/False)

4. Sampling frame of the respondent population is an example of secondary data. (True/False)

5. Primary data methods have a significant time and cost advantage over secondary data.

(True/False)

6. Cash register receipt is an example of _Internal secondary data sources.

7. Customer grievance data available with the company is an important source of Secondary data.

8. Statistical abstracts of India are prepared by Central Statistical Organization.

9. The Ministry of Planning prepares the National Sample Survey (NSS). 10. Poor’s Statistical Services are a government publication on the people below the poverty

line.(True/False)

11. Syndicate sources are periodic in nature.(True/False)

12. Observation is a direct method of collecting

(a) Primary data

(b) Secondary data

(c) Both

(d) Published data

13. Observing the remains or the leftovers of the consumers’ basket is referred to as

(a) Structured observation

(b) Unstructured observation

(c) Trace analysis

(d) Mechanical observation

14. In case one wants to know why some people use plastic bags for carrying their grocery even

after the imposition of a ban on plastic bags by the Delhi Government, one may use the

observation method to collect the data. (True/False)

15. Usually the observation method entails that the observation is disguised, i.e., carried out

without the respondent’s knowledge. (True/False)

16. A focus group discussion generally involves a Moderator who steers the discussion on the

topic under study.

17. Online focus groups are conducted in Web-based chat rooms.

18. The ideal number of participants in a focus group discussion is

(a) 2–6

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(b) 6–10

(c) 8–12

(d) 10–15

19. Special respondent sub-strata who are passionately involved with a brand or product category

are known as

(a) Brand-obsessive group

(b) Online focus group

(c) Special focus group

(d) Brand ambassadors

20. The interview method is a one-to-one interaction between Investigator/interviewer and the interviewee 21. The Unstructured interview has no defined guidelines. 22. When interviews are conducted with the help of the computer they are called Computer-

assisted personal interviewing (CAPI).

4.10 Terminal Questions 1. Distinguish between secondary and primary methods of data collection. 2. How can secondary data be classified? Elaborate on each type with suitable examples. 3. What are syndicated data sources? 4. What is the observation method? What are the different types of observation methods available to the researcher? 5. What are focus group discussions? What are the types of focus groups available to the researcher? 6. Explain the interview method of data collection. What are the uses of the technique? What are the different types of interviews?

Answers to Terminal Questions 1. The data sources could be either problem specific and primary or historical and secondary in nature. Refer to Section 4.2 for further details. 2. Secondary data can be divided into internal and external sources. Refer to Section 4.3.3 for further details. 3. Information gathered by a service or company for public release and sold by subscription is called syndicated data. Refer to Section 4.3.3 for further details. 4. Observation is a direct method of collecting primary data. Refer to Section 4.4 for further details. 5. Focus group discussion is a highly versatile and dynamic method of collecting information from a representative group of respondents. Refer to Section 4.5 for further details. 6. Personal interview is a one-to-one interaction between the investigator/ interviewer and the interviewee. Refer to Section 4.6 for further details.

Unit 5 Attitude Measurement and Scaling

1. The arithmetic mean cannot be computed for ordinal scale data. (True/ False)

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2. Branded shirts are more expensive than unbranded shirts – this is an example of affective

components. (True/False)

3. The Ratio scale measurement has a natural zero.

4. The difference between the score on Ordinal scale does not have meaningful interpretation.

5. Coding and analysis of attitudinal data obtained through the use of pure graphic rating scale can

be done very quickly. (True/False)

6. A comparative rating scale attempts to provide a common frame of reference to all respondents.

(True/False)

7. The Likert scale is a single item scale. (True/False)

8. The Likert scale is a balanced rating scale with an Odd number of categories and a neutral point. 9. In Constant sum rating scale, if an attribute is twice as important as some other attribute it

receives twice as many points.

10. A scale is said to be valid if it measures what it is supposed to measure. (True/False)

11. A scale is said to be reliable if it is free from systematic errors. (True/ False)

12. The Sensitivity of a scale can be increased by adding more number of questions to it.

5.8 Terminal Questions 1. What is the meaning of measurement in research? Give examples. 2. Discuss four types of measurements using examples. 3. Define attitude. What are its various components? 4. Explain an itemized rating scale. What are the various issues involved in constructing an itemized rating scale? 5. Outline the steps involved in constructing a Likert scale. 6. Briefly explain the concepts of reliability, validity and sensitivity

Answers to Terminal Questions 1. The term ‘measurement’ means assigning numbers or some other symbols to the characteristics of certain objects.Refer to Section 5.1 for further details. 2. There are four types of measurement scales—nominal, ordinal, interval and ratio. Refer to Section 5.2 for further details. 3. An attitude is viewed as an enduring disposition to respond consistently in a given manner to various aspects of the world, including persons, events and objects. Refer to Section 5.2.1 for further details. 4. In the itemized rating scale, the respondents are provided with a scale that has a number of brief descriptions associated with each of the response categories.Refer to Section 5.3.2 for further details. 5. The Likert scale is a multiple item agree–disagree five-point scale. Refer to Section 5.3.2 for further details. 6. There are three criteria for evaluating measurements: reliability, validity and sensitivity.Refer to Section 5.4.1 for further details.

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Unit 6 Questionnaire Design

1. The questionnaire can be used to collect Primary data from a sample of subjects.

2. The questionnaire method follows a predetermined Sequence

3. Exploratory studies should most often make use of the Unstructured interview method

4. The questionnaire should Encourage the respondent and result in a meaningful response.

5. In case the population under study is widely scattered, one makes use of the Questionnaire.

6. In case the population is illiterate it is best to use the Schedule.

7. The formalized-unconcealed questionnaire is the most difficult to interpret. (True/False)

8. The process of questionnaire design is called the schedule (True/False)

9. The non-formalized, concealed questionnaire is the most frequently used questionnaire.

(True/False)

10. Sampling control is highest in

(a) a web-based survey

(b) e-mail based survey

(c) schedule

(d) mail/fax survey

11. The most cost-effective questionnaire administration method is through

(a) web based

(b) schedule

(c) telephone survey

(d) mail survey

12. Response rate is highest in a

(a) mail interview

(b) schedule

(c) email survey

(d) web based survey

13. Interviewer bias is high in a telephonic survey. (True/False)

14. Qualifying questions are also termed as filter questions. (True/False)

15. ‘Are you a vegetarian?—Yes/No’ is an example of an open-ended question. (True/False)

16. ‘Do you sing and dance?’ is an example of a double-barrelled question. (True/False)

17. ‘Do you not think that all fairness creams make false claims? –Yes/No’ is an example of a

loaded question. (True/False)

18. The questionnaire has many advantages. Which of these is not one of them?

(a) Adaptability

(b) Anonymity

(c) Fast and economical

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(d) Applicable to all sections of society

19. If the investigator distributes the questionnaire to his friends and acquaintances or if there is

self-selection of the subjects, it could lead to

(a) Lower response

(b) Higher response

(c) Skewed sample response

(d) None of the above

20. The chance of researcher bias is very low in the questionnaire method.

6.9 Terminal Questions 1. What is a questionnaire? What are the criteria of a sound questionnaire? 2. Write short notes on the following: (a) Formalized and concealed questionnaire (b) Non-formalized and unconcealed questionnaire (c) Non-formalized and concealed questionnaire 3. What are the steps involved in the questionnaire design? Explain in detail the questionnaire design process. 4. What are the different criteria for designing questions in a questionnaire? 5. What are the advantages and disadvantages of the questionnaire method? Illustrate with suitable examples.

Answers to Terminal Questions 1. The questionnaire is a research technique that consists of a series of questions asked to respondents. Refer to Section 6.2 for further details. 2. Based on the structure, questioannaires can be divided into three categories. Refer to Section 6.3 for further details. 3. Questionnaire design is a well-structured and standardized process. Refer to Section 6.4 for further details. 4. There are certain designing criteria that a researcher should keep in mind when writing the research questions. Refer to Section 6.4 for further details. 5. The questionnaire has many advantages over other data collection methods. Refer to Section 6.5 for further details.

Unit 7 Sampling

1. The difference between the sample result and the results obtained through a census using the

identical procedure is known as sampling error. (True/False)

2. A population which is being sampled is also called the universe. (True/False)

3. Which of these is not a sampling frame?

(a) List of registered voters in a constituency

(b) Subscribers listed in a telephone directory

(c) The total number of students registered with a university

(d) 30 students who are surveyed of a class of 150 MBA students 4. A subset of the

population is called

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(a) Element

(b) Sampling unit

(c) Sample

(d) Sampling frame

5. A judgemental sample provides a better representation of the population than a probability

sample. (True/False)

6. Non-probability methods are those in which the sample units are chosen purposefully.

(True/False)

7. The criteria for stratification should be related to the Objectives of the study.

8. Only the initial sample unit is chosen randomly in a systematic sampling.

9. For a 90% confidence, the value of Z would be 1.645.

10. The size of the sample depends upon the size of the population. (True/False)

11. The most commonly used approach for determining the size of sample is the Confidence

interval approach covered under inferential statistics.

12. The size of the sample is directly proportional to the variability in the population and the value

of Z for a confidence interval.

7.8 Terminal Questions 1. Differentiate between sample and census. Explain the various sources of non-sampling errors. 2. Differentiate between the stratified random sampling and systematic sampling. 3. Why is judgemental sampling used in research? Can it result in more representative sample than a random sample? 4. Explain the difference between simple random sampling with replacement and without replacement. 5. Explain giving example why a random sample may not result into a representative sample. 6. Explain the factors that should be considered while selecting a sample for research.

Answers to Terminal Questions 1. A census is a complete enumeration of the population, while a sample is a subset of the population. Refer to section 7.2.1 and 7.2.2 for further details. 2. Systematic sampling and stratified random sampling are types of probability sampling design. Refer to section 7.3.1 for further details. 3. Under judgemental sampling, experts in a particular field choose what they believe to be the best sample for the study in question. Refer to section 7.3.2 and 7.3.1 for further details. 4. Simple random sampling with replacement (SRSWR) and simple random sampling without replacement (SRSWOR) are types of probability sampling design. Refer to Section 7.3.1 5. We may not get a representative sample using a random sample with or without replacement. Refer to section 7.3.1 for further details. 6. The size of a sample depends upon the basic characteristics of the population, the type of information required from the survey and the cost involved. Refer to section 7.4 for further details.

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Unit 8 Data Processing

1. The editing process is carried out at two levels, the first of these is field editing and the second is

Central in-house editing.

2. Going back to the respondent to check any errors during questionnaire administration is known as Backtracking

3. Backtracking is best suited for industrial surveys. (True/False)

4. Plug value refers to the fudged value that an investigator might put for a missing response.

(True/False)

5. The smallest code entry a researcher makes in a code book is a field. (True/False)

6. Several fields together can be clubbed into a record. (True/False)

7. In a data matrix every column represents a single case. (True/False)

8. All categories formulated for data entry must be mutually exclusive. (True/ False)

9. The process of identifying and denoting a numeral to the responses given by a respondent is

called Coding

10. In case the question is a Likert type question and it has agreement/ disagreement on a five-

point scale, the number of corresponding columns in the code book would be One

11. Test tabulation is conducted on open-ended questions. (True/False)

12. For classifying nominal data one can tabulate using class intervals. (True/ False)

13. Numerical data, like the ratio scale data, can be classified into

(a) class intervals (b) Codes

(c) fields (d) files

14. 10–15 years; 16–20 years; 21 years and beyond is an example of

(a) inclusive class interval (b) exclusive class interval

(c) Class interval (d) none of the above

8.8 Terminal Questions 1. What is data editing? Mention its significance. 2. Distinguish between field editing and centralized in-house editing. Mention the standard processes available to the researcher to carry out the editing process. 3. How do you code data? What guidelines should be followed to carry out the task? Discuss by giving suitable examples. 4. Distingush between coding closed-ended structured questions and coding open-ended structured questions 5. Explain the classification and tabulation of data.

Answers to Terminal Questions 1. Data editing is the process that involves detecting and correcting errors (logical inconsistencies) in data. Refer to Section 8.2 for further details.

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2. Field editing is the preliminary editing of the collected information done by the field investigators or supervisors, while the second level of editing takes place at the researcher’s end. Refer to Section 8.2.1 and 8.2.2 for further details. 3. The process of identifying and denoting a numeral to the responses given by a respondent is called coding. Refer to Section 8.3 for further details. 4. The method of coding for structured questions is easier as the response categories are decided in advance. Refer to Section 8.3.1 and 8.3.2 for further details. 5. When the data is huge, the researcher may have to reduce the information into homogenous categories. This is called classification of data. Refer to Secion 8.4 for further details.

Unit 9 Univariate and Bivariate Analysis of Data

1. Median can be computed for ordinal scale data. (True/False)

2. To carry out Inferential analysis, sample should be drawn at random.

3. The standard deviation as a measure of dispersion is independent of units of measurement.

(True/False)

4. The range could be obtained from interval scale data. (True/False)

5. The positive square root of Variance is called standard deviation.

6. To compare the variability of two distributions, Coefficient of variation can be used.

7. The correlation coefficient can assume any value between 0 and 1.(True/False)

8. High association between two variables does not imply cause and effect relationship.

(True/False)

9. In a cross table, the percentages should be computed in the direction of Independent variable.

10. The first step in computing the percentages in a cross table is to identify Dependent and independent variables.

9.8 Terminal Questions 1. Differentiate between descriptive and inferential analysis of data. 2. Explain with the help of examples various measures of central tendency. 3. Discuss various measures of dispersions. List out their merits and demerits. 4. How does one go about preparing cross-table between two variables each having two categories? In what ways should percentages be calculated to interpret the results of a cross-tabulation? 5. You are presented with the following table of frequency counts to show the nature of relationship between age and watching of movies in a cinema hall. What conclusion can be drawn? Frequency of Age watching movies Under 35 35 & above 4 or more times in a month 200 80 Less than 4 times in a month 130 190 Total 330 270

6. Compute the correlation coefficient between sales and advertising expenditure of a company from given data. Also interpret the results. S. No. 1 2 3 4 5 Sales (` crore) 236 300 453 500 720 Advt. Exp. (` crore) 10 11 13 14 17

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Answers to Terminal Questions 1. Descriptive analysis refers to transformation of raw data into a form that will facilitate easy understanding and interpretation. Refer to Section 9.2 for further details. 2. There are three measures of central tendency that are used in research— mean, median and mode. Refer to Section 9.3.4 for further details. 3. There is a need to study the spread of a distribution of a variable and the methods which provide that are called measures of dispersion. . Refer to Section 9.3.5 for further details. 4. A cross-tabulation counts the number of observations in each crosscategory of two variables. Refer to Section 9.4 for further details. 5. Identify the dependent and independent variables and compute percentage in the direction of independent variables. Refer to Section 9.4 (i) for further details. 6. Simple correlation measures the degree of association between two variables. Refer to Section 9.4 (ii) for further details.

Unit 10 Testing of Hypotheses

1. The probability of committing a type I error is denoted by Alpha .

2. When population standard deviation is unknown and sample size is small, a T test is appropriate

for testing of mean.

3. The null hypothesis could be specified as H0 : p > 0.22. (True/False)

4. Accepting a null hypothesis when it is false is called type II error (True/ False).

5. Whenever the degrees of freedom exceed 30, the t distribution can be approximated by Z distribution. (True/False) 6. The sample standard deviation could be used as an unbiased estimate of the population standard deviation. (True/False) 7. The expression ˆ is called Standard error of means.

8. The t distribution is Flatter than normal distribution.

9. The degrees of freedom in the two sample t test for testing the equality of means is given by n1 + n2 – 2. (True/False) 10. An alternative hypothesis while testing the equality of two population means could be written as H1 : μ1 = μ2. (True/False) 11. While testing the equality of two means under small sample when population variances are not equal Degrees of freedom for the test are to be computed. 12. When both samples are greater than 30, the test for equality of means is conducted using Z test. 13. Normal distribution may be used as an approximation to a binomial distribution whenever both np and nq are at least 5, where the notations have their usual meanings. (True/False) 14. A t test could be used to test for a specified value of a population proportion. (True/False)

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15. An estimate of the combined proportion while testing for the equality of two population proportion is given by the total number of successes in the two samples divided by the sum of sizes of two samples. (True/False) 16. The estimate of standard error of difference between two sample proportion is obtained under the assumption that Null hypothesis is true.

10.10 Terminal Questions 1. Explain the various steps involved in the tests of hypothesis exercise. 2. Indicate whether a Z or t distribution is applicable in each of the following cases while conducting test for population mean. (i) n = 31 s = 12 (ii) n = 15 s = 9

(iii) n = 64 s = 8

(iv) n = 28 = 10

(v) n = 56 = 6

3. The company XYZ manufacturing bulbs hypothesizes that the life of its bulbs is 145 hours with a known standard deviation of 210 hours. A random sample of 25 bulbs gave a mean life of 130 hours. Using a 0.05 level of significance, can the company conclude that the mean life of bulbs is less than the 145 hours? 4. Average annual income of the employees of a company has been reported to be `18,750. A random sample of 100 employees was taken. Then average annual income was found to be `19,240 with a standard deviation of `2,610. Test at 5 per cent level of significance whether the sample results are representative of population results. 5. If 54 out of a random sample of 150 boys smoke, while 31 out of random sample of 100 girls smoke, can we conclude at the 0.05 level of significance that the proportion of male smokers is higher than that of female smokers? Use the 0.05 level of significance to test the null hypothesis that the prescribed programme of exercise is not effective in reducing weight. 6. In a departmental store’s study designed to test whether the mean balance outstanding on 30-day charge account is same in its two suburban branch stores, random samples yielded the following results: n1 = 60 X1 = `6420 s1 = `1600 n2 = 100 X2 = `7141 s2 = `2213

where the subscripts denote branch store 1 and branch store 2. Use the 0.05 level of significance to test the hypothesis against a suitable alternative.

Answers to Terminal Questions 1. There are a number of steps in carrying out a testing of hypothesis exercise. Refer to Section 10.2 for further details. 2. For large sample Z test is used. Refer to Section 10.2.2 for further details. 3. A Z test will be used. Refer to Section 10.3 for further details. 4. A Z test will be used. Refer to Section 10.3 for further details. 5. A Z test will be used. Refer to Section 10.6 for further details. 6. A Z test will be used. Refer to Section 10.4 for further details.

Unit 11 Chi-Square Analysis

1. For the application of a chi-square test, the expected frequency in each cell should be at least five. (True/False) 2. The sample value of the chi-square can be negative. (True/False)

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3. If there are k categories of data, the degree of freedom would be K-1 4. In a cross table, where chi-square test is applied the null hypothesis is that the two variables are related. (True/False) 5. The expected frequencies in a cross table are computed under the assumption that null hypothesis is true. (True/False) 6. If any cell has a zero frequency, the chi-square cannot be applied. (True/ False) 7. The sum of each row and each column for the observed and expected frequencies need not be equal. (True/False) 8. If there are 3 rows and two columns, the degrees of freedom for chi square test are 3_. 9. The combined estimate of proportion is obtained under the assumption that Null hypothesis is true. 10. To test the equality of three population proportions, the alternative hypothesis is written as H1 : p1 = p2 = p3. (True/false)

11.8 Terminal Questions 1. What is a 2 test? Point out its applications. Under what conditions is this test applicable? 2. What is chi-square test of the goodness of fit? What precautions are necessary while applying this test? Point out its role in business decision making. 3. A cigarette company interested in the relation between sex of a person and the type of cigarettes smoked has collected the following data from a random sample of 150 persons:

Test whether the type of cigarette smoked and the sex are independent. 4. A survey was carried out in a state among the doctors belonging to the rural health service cadre (500 doctors) and among the medical education directorate cadre (300 teaching doctors). They were asked a question, ‘Would it be acceptable to you, if the government proposes to hire all the doctors on a fixed period contractual basis?’ The doctors were to answer either as ‘Acceptable’ or ‘Not Acceptable’. There was no third category ‘Undecided’. The following was the data compiled in a cross-tabulated format: Test an appropriate hypothesis using a 5 per cent level of significance. 5. The following figures show the distribution of the digits in numbers chosen at random from a telephone directory:

Test an appropriate hypothesis using a 5 per cent level of significance. 5. The following figures show the distribution of the digits in numbers chosen at random from a telephone directory:

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Answers to Terminal Questions 1. Chi-square is a test which is very widely used as it does not require very strict assumptions for its applicability. Refer to Section 11.1 for further details. 2. It tells us whether the given data is taken from a particular distribution. Refer to Section 11.2 for further details. 3. This is the test for independence of variables. Refer to Section 11.3 for further details. 4. This is the test for independence of variables. Refer to Section 11.3 for further details. 5. This is the test on equality of more than two population proportion. Refer to Section 11.4 for further details.

Unit 12 Analysis of Variance

1. Completely randomized design involves the testing of the equality of means of two or more

groups.

2. In completely randomized design, there is one Dependent variable and one independent

variable.

3. In one-way ANOVA, both the dependent and the independent variables have metric

measurements. (True/False)

4. The equality of variances between the sample and within the samples compared using an F

statistic in one-way ANOVA. (True/False)

5. In a two-way analysis of variance, the effect of the extraneous factors is removed from the value

of the error sum of squares as obtained in a one way analysis of variance. (True/False)

6. In a randomized block design, the effect of One extraneous variable is removed.

7. In a factorial design with two independent variables, one having two categories and second

having three categories, the total number of interactions is six. (True/False)

8. In factorial design, the dependent variable is either interval or ratio scale, whereas one

independent variable is interval scale and the other one is nominal. (True/False)

9. In factorial design, the dependent variable is the Interval or the ratio scale and there are two or

more independent variables which are nominal scale.

10. In factorial design, if there are two independent variables each having three cells, there would

be a total of Nine interactions.

12.8 Terminal Questions 1. What is the analysis of variance? What are the assumptions of the technique? Give a few examples where the technique could be used. 2. Differentiate using suitable examples between the one-way and two-way analysis of variance. 3. What are the characteristics of randomized block design?

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4. What is a factorial design? Explain the terms, main effects and interaction effects in relation to factorial design. 5. Explain the meaning of interaction between the variables with the help of a suitable example. 6. The following data represents the numbers of units produced by four operators during three different shifts:

Perform a two-way analysis of variance and interpret the result.

Answers to Terminal Questions 1. If there are more than two populations, the test for the equality of means could be carried out by the analysis of variance (ANOVA) technique. Refer to Section 12.1 for further details. 2. If there is one independent variable (one factor) divided into various categories, we have one-way analysis of variance. In the two-way analysis of variance, two factors each divided into the various categories are involved. Refer to Section 12.2 and 12.3 for further details. 3. A randomized block design has one dependent and two independent variables each with two or more categories. Refer to Section 12.3 for further details. 4. A factorial design is a design that allows the experimenter to find out the effect of two or more independent variables, each having two or more categories, along with their interactions on dependent variable. Refer to Section 12.4 for further details. 5. In the factorial design, it is possible to find out the effect of two or more independent variables, each having two or more categories, along with their interactions on dependent variable. Refer to Section 12.4 for further details. 6. In two-way analysis of variance, we remove the effect of the extraneous factors from the error sum of squares as obtained from one-way ANOVA. Refer to Section 12.3 for further details.

Unit 13 Research Report Writing

1. The Research report _is a concrete proof of the study that was undertaken.

2. Reports written for the purpose of recording the process carried out in terms of scope and framework of the study are called (a) Working papers (b) Business reports

(c) Survey reports (d) Technical reports 3. Technical reports have the information related to technology of the study written in detail. (True/False) 4. Survey reports alway have an academic orientation. (True/False) 5. The title page, followed by the letter of authorization, acknowledgements, executive summary and the table of contents are found in the (a) Preliminary section (b) Appendices

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(c) Main report (d) Executive summary

6. Methodology of research is given in which part of the report? (a) Preliminary section (b) Appendices (c) Main report (d) Executive summary 7. The referencing protocol of a footnote and bibliography is the same. (True/ False) 8. Annotated bibliography contains some brief information about the nature of information sought from the article. (True/False) 9. When the objective is to demonstrate trends and some sort of pattern in the data, a Line chart is the best option available to the researcher. 10. The ideal number of lines in a chart is Five or less. 11. The arrangement of data in a table is usually done in descending order. (True/False) 12. The pie chart cannot show changes over time, as it simply shows the cross-section of a single time period. (True/False)

13.7 Terminal Questions 1. What are the different kind of reports available to the researcher? Do the criteria become different for different kinds of reports? Explain with examples. 2. What should be the ideal structure of a research report? What are the elements of the structure defined by you? 3. What are the guidelines for effective report writing? Illustrate with suitable examples. 4. What are the guidelines a researcher must follow for tabular representation of the research results? 5. Discuss the guidelines for graphical representations of data in reports. What are the audio-visual aids available for the purpose?

Answers to Terminal Questions 1. Based on the size of the report, it is possible to divide the report into brief reports and detailed reports. Refer to Section 13.2 for further details. 2. Whatever the type of report, the reporting requires a structured format and by and large, the process is standardized. Refer to Section 13.3 for further details. 3. There are some features of a good research study that should be kept in mind while documenting and preparing the report. Refer to Section 13.4 for further details. 4. Numerical data is best represented in tabular form. Refer to Section 13.4.1 for further details. 5. Data can be presented through visual representations in the form of graphs. Refer to Section 13.4.2 for further details.

Unit 14 Ethics in Research

1. In India, the Pharmaceutical companies have defined their code of ethics for doing research. 2. Social Research Association (SRA) is an international organization that has defined ethical principles to be followed by researchers.

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3. The client can ask the researcher to collect data from populations who will give a positive response to the research questions. (True/False) 4. The ethical code on the client side requires that one draw conclusions only based on the data obtained. (True/False) 5. The client should ask a reputed agency to submit a proposal and then get the work done by a group of MBA students. (True/False) 6. The researcher should not reveal any data about the study without the consent of the client. (True/False) 7. Once the research has started there is no harm in revealing the name of the company to others.(True/False) 8. The control of Quality and privacy are important checks in a study. 9. In a study to find out the comparative standing of products, the researcher might also need to guard the Purpose of the study. 10. The most important and vulnerable person in the research study is the Respondent from whom the data is to be collected. 11. American Association for Public Opinion Research has made code of ethics for surveyor researchers. 12. The respondents of the Experimental group must be told clearly about the experimental condition. 13. The study must be conducted on samples truly Representative of the respondent population 14. The information collected must have a Standard set of instructions 15. The basic tenets that the researcher must not forego include (a) Professional creed (b) Professional confidentiality (c) Professional objectivity (d) All the above

14.10 Terminal Questions 1. How can you follow an ethical path for conducting your research? Are there any guidelines available for this? Elaborate. 2. Does the client also need to maintain certain ethical standards? Explain. 3. What are the aspects that the researcher has to be careful about while conducting a study? 4. How do you follow an ethical practice while collecting information from the respondents? 5. What are the three basic principles of professional ethics that any research must follow?

Answers to Terminal Questions 1. A number of corporations have developed their own code of ethics regarding the conduct of research. Refer to Section 14.2 for further details. 2. Both the client and the researcher have an ethical obligation towards the other. Refer to section 14.3 for further details.

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3. Since the researcher is the most involved and main person responsible for the study, it is very important that the highest ethical standards be maintained by him.Refer to Section 14.4 for further details. 4. The most important and vulnerable person in the research study is the respondent from whom the data is to be collected. Refer to Section 14.5 for further details. 5. There are three basic tenets that the researcher must not forego. Refer to Section 14.6 for further details.