jana bérešová a kol. pre stranku/oaj...jana bérešová a kol. olympiÁda v anglickom jazyku...

Jana Bérešová a kol.

OLYMPIÁDA V ANGLICKOM JAZYKU

ZBIERKA ZADANÍ PRE TESTOVANIE

JAZYKOVÝCH VEDOMOSTÍ A KOMUNIKATÍVNYCH ZRUČNOSTÍ

2005

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Názov: Olympiáda v anglickom jazyku – Zbierka zadaní pre testovanie jazykových

vedomostí a komunikatívnych zručností Zostavovateľ: Doc. PhDr. Jana Bérešová, PhD. Autori: Doc. PhDr. Jana Bérešová, PhD.

Mgr. Viera Chovancová Mgr. Marta Hosszúová Mgr. Elena Krajčiová Mgr. Marta Macková Mgr. Edita Mareková Mgr. Jozef Medvecký PhDr. Eva Žitná

Jazyková korektúra: Lynda Steyne, B. S., M. A.

Grafická úprava: Mgr. Blanka Lehotská, PhD. Náklad: 100 ks Vydal: Iuventa Rok vydania: 2005 Tlač: Vydavateľstvo STU, Bratislava ISBN: 80-8072-040-1 Vydané s finančnou podporou Ministerstva školstva SR. Nepredajné.

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OBSAH Predslov .................................................................................................................................... 4

Kategórie a obsahová náplň ..................................................................................................... 5

Kritériá hodnotenia ústneho prejavu ........................................................................................ 8

Kategória 1A .......................................................................................................................... 10

Kategória 1B .......................................................................................................................... 18

Kategória 1C .......................................................................................................................... 25

Kategória 2A .......................................................................................................................... 34

Kategória 2B .......................................................................................................................... 42

Kategória 2C .......................................................................................................................... 50

Kategória 2D .......................................................................................................................... 59

Kategória 2E ........................................................................................................................... 67

Prepisy nahrávok .................................................................................................................... 75

Kľúč správnych odpovedí ...................................................................................................... 83

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Vážené kolegyne, vážení kolegovia, milé žiačky a žiaci!

Olympiáda v anglickom jazyku vstúpila v školskom roku 2004/2005 do XV. ročníka

svojej pôsobnosti. Je nevyhnutné spomenúť, že mnohí autori úloh sa sami počas svojich

stredoškolských štúdií zúčastňovali olympiády, i keď v inom šate. Svoju angličtinu si

preverovali v recitácii poézie a prózy v anglickom jazyku.

Po revolúcii sa olympiáda objavila v zmenenej podobe. Začali sa testovať jazykové

vedomosti a komunikatívne zručnosti a súčasťou bola i obhajoba vlastných projektov pred

odbornou porotou. Nový model testovania komunikatívnych zručností a jazykových

vedomostí pomáhali učiteľom anglického jazyka sprístupňovať lektori Britskej rady, najmä

Simon Gill, Serena Yeo, Michael Houton, James Southerland-Smith, Gavin Floater a lektor

SAIA John Wheeler.

Pod ich vplyvom sa olympiáda v školskom roku 1996/1997 zmenila na testovanie

jazykovej a komunikatívnej kompetencie čo najobjektívnejším spôsobom. Test až dodnes

pozostáva z dvoch častí: písomnej a ústnej. Písomná časť je zameraná na testovanie

počúvania s porozumením, čítania s porozumením, praktického používania gramatiky a

slovnej zásoby. Ústna časť sa skladá z dvoch samostatných zadaní: situačnej úlohy –

interakcie a ústnej produkcie na základe vizuálneho podnetu (opis obrázkov, porovnávanie

obrázkov, prerozprávanie príbehu a podobne). Testovanie je v súlade s požiadavkami

kladenými na testovanie jazykovej a komunikatívnej kompetencie žiakov odporúčanými

Radou Európy. V rámci štyroch komunikatívnych zručností sa netestuje iba jedna – písomný

prejav (písanie). Nie je možné zabezpečiť opravu žiackych slohových prác v takom časovom

horizonte, aby sa žiaci dozvedeli výsledky ešte v deň olympiády. Na zabezpečenie

objektívnejšieho pohľadu na schopnosť používať jazyk produktívne a interaktívne v

komunikácii sa uplatňujú až dve úlohy stanovené pre ústny prejav (hovorenie).

Výsledky žiakov dokazujú, že anglický jazyk sa stal pre mnohých nevyhnutnou

súčasťou ich života a že sú pripravení tento jazyk používať vo svojom budúcom živote i

povolaní.

Cieľom tejto publikácie je sprístupniť všetkým žiakom ukážky testov. Do vyšších kôl

Olympiády v anglickom jazyku sa prebojujú v každej kategórii iba najlepší žiaci, a preto sme

chceli umožniť všetkým, aby sa sami otestovali a vyhodnotili si vlastné schopnosti a úroveň

ovládania anglického jazyka.

Jana Bérešová

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KATEGÓRIE A OBSAHOVÁ NÁPL�

Úlohou olympiády v anglickom jazyku nie je testovať jazykové vedomosti a

komunikatívne zručnosti žiakov na základe učebných osnov, ale je to súťaž pre talentovaných

žiakov, ktorých vedomosti sú nad rámec učebných osnov. Pri testovaní sa má preukázať, že

žiak sa sám alebo v spolupráci so svojím pedagógom iniciatívne pripravuje na osvojenie si

anglického jazyka na čo najvyššej úrovni.

Kategórie

1A žiaci 5., 6. a 7. ročníka ZŠ, a tí, ktorých pobyt v anglicky hovoriacej krajine alebo v inej

krajine, v ktorej vyučovacím jazykom je anglický jazyk, netrval dlhšie ako dva mesiace

1B žiaci 8. a 9. ročníka ZŠ, a tí, ktorých pobyt v anglicky hovoriacej krajine alebo v inej

krajine, v ktorej vyučovacím jazykom je anglický jazyk, netrval dlhšie ako dva mesiace

1C anglofónni: žiaci ZŠ a príslušných ročníkov osemročných gymnázií (prima – kvarta):

- ak jeden z rodičov je rodený používateľ anglického jazyka,

- ak sa žiak zúčastnil pobytu v anglicky hovoriacej krajine alebo v inej krajine, v ktorej

vyučovacím jazykom bol anglický jazyk, a pobyt trval dlhšie ako dva mesiace (bez

obmedzenia)

- žiaci anglických bilingválnych sekcií 8-ročného gymnázia (prima – kvarta)

2A žiaci 1. a 2. ročníka G (+ vyššie triedy osemročného G), OA, HA, ZSŠ hotel. a

obchodného zamerania s maturitou s najmenej 3-hodinovou dotáciou AJ a tí, ktorých

pobyt v anglicky hovoriacej krajine alebo v inej krajine, v ktorej vyučovacím jazykom je

anglický jazyk, netrval dlhšie ako dva mesiace

2B žiaci 3. a 4. ročníka G (+ vyššie triedy osemročného G), OA, HA, ZSŠ hotel. a

obchodného zamerania s maturitou s najmenej 3-hodinovou dotáciou AJ a tí, ktorých

pobyt v anglicky hovoriacej krajine alebo v inej krajine, v ktorej vyučovacím jazykom je

anglický jazyk, netrval dlhšie ako dva mesiace

2C žiaci všetkých typov SŠ bez vekového určenia – anglofónni:

- ak jeden z rodičov je rodený používateľ anglického jazyka,

- ak sa žiak zúčastnil pobytu v anglicky hovoriacej krajine alebo v inej krajine, v ktorej

vyučovacím jazykom bol anglický jazyk, a pobyt trval dlhšie ako dva mesiace (bez

obmedzenia)

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2D žiaci SOŠ a SOU bez vekového určenia (okrem ZSŠ obchod. a hotel. zamerania s

maturitou) a tí, ktorých pobyt v anglicky hovoriacej krajine alebo v inej krajine, v ktorej

vyučovacím jazykom je anglický jazyk, netrval dlhšie ako dva mesiace

2E žiaci osemročných gymnázií: prima – kvarta, a tí, ktorých pobyt v anglicky hovoriacej

krajine alebo v inej krajine, v ktorej vyučovacím jazykom je anglický jazyk, netrval

dlhšie ako dva mesiace

Obsahová nápl� sú�aže

Písomná časť

1. Po�úvanie s porozumením (Listening comprehension)

Cieľom tejto časti je preveriť globálne porozumenie neznámeho textu, porozumenie

špecifických informácií a hlavných myšlienok. Najčastejšími technikami testovania sú

techniky, ktoré sa objavujú v úlohách so zatvorenou odpoveďou (multiple choice),

dichotomická úloha (true/false), zoradenie informácii (ordering) a podobne. Pri uplatňovaní

úloh s otvorenou odpoveďou sa najčastejšie používa doplňovanie (gap-filling). Čas plnenia

úlohy sa určí podľa dĺžky textu, najviac však 10 minút. Testy zodpovedajú náročnosťou danej

úrovni a najvyšší možný počet pre získané skóre je 5 bodov.

2. �ítanie s porozumením (Reading comprehension)

Cieľom tejto časti je preveriť globálne porozumenie neznámeho textu, porozumenie

špecifických informácií hlavných myšlienok. Najčastejšími technikami testovania sú

techniky, ktoré sa objavujú v úlohách so zatvorenou odpoveďou (multiple choice),

dichotomická úloha (true/false), zoradenie informácii (ordering) a podobne. Pri uplatňovaní

úloh s otvorenou odpoveďou sa najčastejšie používa doplňovanie (gap-filling). Čas plnenia

úlohy sa určí podľa dĺžky textu, najviac však 10 minút. Testy zodpovedajú náročnosťou danej

úrovni a najvyšší možný počet pre získané skóre je 10 bodov.

3. Praktické používanie gramatiky (Grammar)

Táto časť pozostáva zvyčajne z dvoch až troch zadaní, aby bolo možné posúdiť

ovládanie gramatických javov a štruktúr na príslušnej úrovni. Úlohy môžu byť zatvorené,

napr. priraďovanie (matching), alebo otvorené, napr. doplňovanie (gap-gilling) správnych

tvarov slovies a slovesných časov, podstatných a prídavných mien, predložiek, spojok a

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spájacích výrazov, frázových slovies, tvorenie slov (word formation), tvorenie viet (sentence

formation) a podobne. V tejto časti je možné získať až 15 bodov.

4. Slovná zásoba (Vocabulary)

Testovanie slovnej zásoby je zamerané najmä na preverenie ovládania synonymických

radov, opozít, homoným, zložených slov, viacvýznamových slov a podobne. V tejto časti sa

objavujú dve až tri zadania, aby sa dôkladne preverila znalosť a šírka slovnej zásoby.

Maximálne skóre tejto časti je 10 bodov a testuje sa spolu s gramatikou podľa náročnosti testu

15–20 minút.

5. Progresívny test (Progressive test)

Táto časť je súčasťou testu pre kategórie 1C a 2C, kde sa preveruje slovná zásoba na

základe istých konotácií. Za každé tri (1C) a päť slov (2C) žiak získa pol boda.

Ústna časť

Ústna časť je zameraná na preverenie spôsobilosti žiaka komunikovať v anglickom

jazyku na neznámu tému, aby preukázal svoju zručnosť schopnosťou myslieť a vyjadrovať sa

v anglickom jazyku.

1. Ústna produkcia na základe vizuálneho podnetu.

2. Interakcia na neznámu tému: simulačná úloha, hranie rolí.

Žiak v tejto časti testu môže získať v maximálny počet bodov 15 bodov za jednu úlohu.

Jeho výkon je hodnotený kritériami hodnotenia ústneho prejavu, vypracované pre olympiádu:

• Splnenie úlohy (Task achievement) – 3 body

• Plynulosť a interakcia (Fluency) – 4 body

• Gramatika (Grammar) – 4 body

• Slovná zásoba (Vocabulary) – 4 body

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KRITÉRIÁ HODNOTENIA ÚSTNEHO PREJAVU

TESTING SPEAKING SKILLS

Marking criteria

TASK ACHIEVEMENT

3 Giving and seeking personal views and opinions in informal and formal situations,

confidence in dealing with unpredictable elements in conversations, expressing ideas

clearly and effectively with a high degree of fluency and appropriacy

2 Giving and justifying opinions when discussing matters of personal and topical interests,

effective interaction in discussion, adaptation of language to deal with some unprepared

situations

1 Active participation i discussion, but when discussion concerns complex and unfamiliar

area, there are problems to follow the discussion and implement tasks

0 Inadequate answer bearing little or no relation to the task, no logical structure

FLUENCY

4 Fluent mastery of the language, very few long pauses, general meaning clear, very few

interruptions necessary

3 Clear and effective communication, a few unnatural pauses, few interruptions usually

necessary but intention is clear

2 Competent communication making themselves understood with little or no difficulty,

using the language to meet most of needs for information and explanation, some

interruptions necessary, longer pauses to search for word or meaning

1 Basic communication, short conversations, seeking and conveying information in simple

terms, unnaturally long pauses

0 Communication full of pauses, very halting delivery

LANGUAGE IN USE (Grammar)

4 Accurate mastery of grammar, minor mistakes, precision in well-structure language

3 A high degree of accuracy, a few grammatical errors but most sentences correct,

2 Generally good usage of grammar, a few grammatical errors but only 1 or 2 causing

confusion

1 Quite a few mistakes in grammar, some errors cause confusion

0 Basic grammar errors causing misunderstanding or serious confusion

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LANGUAGE IN USE (Vocabulary: pronunciation, intonation)

4 Accurate mastery of vocabulary, not much searching for words, consistently accurate

pronunciation, possibility to vary intonation

3 Appropriate use of vocabulary, sometimes searching for words, speaking confidently

with good pronunciation and intonation

2 Generally good usage of vocabulary, searches for words, good pronunciation and

intonation

1 Quite a few mistakes in vocabulary which sometimes interfere with communication,

limited expressions, a few pronunciation errors

0 Limited expressions, several serious pronunciation errors

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KATEGÓRIA 1A

Gramatika

Tri uvedené úlohy testujú doplňovanie správnych tvarov slovies, výber neurčitých zámen a

používanie spojok a spájacích výrazov. Najväčší problém mali žiaci s druhou vetou, kde prvé

dve vynechané slovesá boli v činnom rode a tretie sloveso teach bolo testované v trpnom rode

– they are taught.

Slovná zásoba

Prvá úloha testuje schopnosť žiaka priradiť správny výraz do vety na základe jeho

parafrázovania. Táto úloha nespôsobila žiakom žiadne problémy. Nasledujúca úloha –

tvorenie zložených slov potvrdilo, že žiaci majú vážne nedostatky pri používaní zložených

slov a je potrebné sa tvorbe zložených slov venovať.

�ítanie s porozumením

Úloha sa skladá z troch zadaní: doplňovanie do textu, dichotomickej úlohy a úlohy s

viacnásobnou voľbou odpovede. Najväčšie problémy mali žiaci s položkami: 2, 4, 7 a 9. Žiaci

si pri doplňovaní neuvedomujú, že najskôr je potrebné prečítať si celý text, až potom na

základe globálneho pochopenia sa dopĺňajú chýbajúce informácie.

Po�úvanie s porozumením

Úloha sa skladá z dvoch zadaní: dichotomickej úlohy a z úlohy s viacnásobnou voľbou

odpovede, kde je potrebné vybrať najvhodnejší názov pre príbeh. Zvolený text zodpovedal

danej vekovej kategórii, pretože ho okrem jedného žiaka zvládli ostatní na plný počet bodov.

�asti testu Úspešnos� Gramatika 11,250 Slovná zásoba 7,280 Čítanie s porozumením 8,625 Počúvanie s porozumením 4,879

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GRAMMAR

I. Put the verbs in brackets into their correct forms to complete the following

statements.

1. German shepherd dogs are sometimes (a) …………………………. (train) to

(b) ………………………. (guide) blind people.

2. Mr Needle (a) ………………. (teach) a class in sewing. He (b) ………………………….

(instruct) students on kinds of cloths and they are (c) ………………… (teach) to cut out

and sew clothing.

3. Animals are often ……………. (guide) by their instinct as to what is the right thing to do

in difficult situation.

4. English traditions (a) …………………………. (provide) an extra light meal

(b) …………………………. (serve) in the late afternoon.

/ 8 pts

II. Underline the words that best completes the sentences.

5. The room was empty. There was anybody / nobody she could talk to.

6. And would you like some / any oranges?

7. I couldn’t find some / any flour.

/ 3 pts

III. Choose one of the words below to fit into each gap. One doesn’t fit!

AND BUT IF SO BECAUSE

8. I asked Hilary to come …………………………. she refused.

9. Hilda will go …………………………. you ask her.

10. I went to the window …………………………. looked out.

11. Dad is going for a walk …………………………. he needs the exercise.

/ 4 pts

Total: 15 pts

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VOCABULARY

I. Each of the following sentences (1–7) has an underlined phrase in italics that can be

replaced by one of the words (A–G) on the right. Match the sentences with the words.

Write the LETTER of each answer in the space provided.

Example: The boxer hit him with his closed fist. ....H...... A. SADLY

1. That little boy is unable to speak. ................ B. DIFFICULT

2. Charles is in need of food. ................ C. AGONY

3. All at once there was a crash. ................ D. DUMB / MUTE

4. The burglar entered without any noise. ................ E. STARVING

5. The woman is in great pain. ................ F. SUDDENLY

6. Jim left home in sadness. ................ G. SILENTLY

7. That test was not very easy. ................ H. PUNCHED

/ 7 pts

II. Make six (6) COMPOUND WORDS using the words below. One word is not used!

You can use words more than once.

SCARE GULL SAW YARD SHIP TRAY SEA

PASS ASH CROW WEED SEE

Example: sky + lark = skylark

…………………………………………….

…………………………………………….

…………………………………………….

…………………………………………….

…………………………………………….

……………………………………………. / 3 pts

Total: 10 pts

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READING COMPREHENSION

I. Read the text carefully and do the two (2) tasks below.

A BROWN WOLF (adapted from Jack London)

John Smith and his wife, Mary by name, lived high up in the mountains. Once, while

Smith was hunting in the woods, he saw a dog. There were no villages nearby so he decided

to take the dog home.

The dog was terribly hungry and tired. He (1) ............. that he didn’t let Smith or his wife

touch him but he followed them to their house. Smith gave him some meat and left him in the

house.

Night passed. In the morning, Smith (2) ............. the dog as it had run away. But in a day

or two Smith (3) ............. the dog in the woods and brought him back home. But the dog ran

away again, and it did so again and again.

At last the day came when the dog stayed in the house, but a long time passed before

Smith and his wife (4) ............. him. They called him Wolf.

One day, a man came to their place. As soon as the dog saw him he jumped towards the

man. Smith noticed that the man had recognized the dog at once.

“His name is not Wolf”, he said, “It’s Brown. This dog belonged to me. That’s why he

knows me.”

“Oh,” cried Mary, “if that’s true, leave him here. We like the dog and he likes us.”

The man looked at the dog. “He (5) ............. me since he was born,” he said. “Do you

think he wants to stay with you?”

“Yes, of course,” said Smith, “I’m sure of it.”

“Well,” said the man, “I’ll leave. If he wants to stay, let him stay. But if he wants to go

with me, let him go.” Smith and his wife agreed.

The man walked away and Wolf ran after him and tried to stop him but the man did not

stop and the dog ran back to Smith and Mary. He wanted to be with them and with the man at

the same time. Mary (6) ............. her husband in triumph. But the dog stood for a while and

suddenly ran after the man. He ran faster and faster and never looked back.

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II. Some words and phrases have been left out of the text above. Use one of the

expressions below (A–F) to complete the text. Put the LETTER of your answers into the

gaps (1–6).

A. COULD TOUCH D. HAS KNOWN

B. LOOKED AT E. WAS SO WILD

C. COULD NOT FIND F. FOUND

/ 6 pts

III. Now choose the best answers. Circle them.

7. Did the dog ever allow the Smiths to touch him? YES NO

8. Did the dog stay with the Smiths in the end? YES NO

9. The man was the dog’s former ..... .

A. friend B. master C. trainer

10. The dog liked ..... .

A. the man B. the Smiths C. both the man and the Smiths

/ 4 pts

Total: 10 pts

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L ISTENING COMPREHENSION

You will hear someone telling an old story from Wales. Listen carefully and choose the

best answer for each question below. Circle your answers. You will hear the text twice.

1. Llewellyn was a hunter who killed a dog. TRUE FALSE

2. Gelert was Llewellyn’s dog. TRUE FALSE

3. The baby was attacked by the hound. TRUE FALSE

4. Llewellyn’s son was found in the dark. TRUE FALSE

5. Which is the best title for the story?

A. A Dog and a Wolf

B. A Bad Dog

C. A True Friend

Total: 5 pts

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ROLE-PLAY

Student:

Your parents are planning a summer holiday by the sea in August. Last year you spent a

week’s holiday on your father’s friend’s farm and you loved it! This year, you’ve been invited

again, but this time for the entire month of August. You would much rather spend the month

on the farm with Uncle Jack and his family than a week by the sea. Talk to your parent about

it and persuade them to let you go.

��--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

Native Speaker (teacher):

You found the best deal on a great family holiday by the sea for the first week in August. The

deal included accommodations and food, plus passes to local attractions like a water park,

miniature golf and boating excursions. You just can’t wait. These family holidays are always

a lot of fun and you and your spouse really enjoy spending those fun times with your children.

You’re also looking forward to doing some deep-sea fishing with your kids and some dancing

with your spouse at the brilliant dance clubs.

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PICTURE STORY

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KATEGÓRIA 1B

Gramatika

Táto časť testu pozostáva z dvoch zadaní: z doplňovania správnych tvarov slovies a

transformácie viet. Najväčšie problémy robili žiakom položky: 5, 7, 12 a 15. V piatej položke

im robil problém predprítomný čas – have introduced, v siedmej položke to bol trpný rod v

prítomnom čase – are packed, v dvanástej položke používanie väzby prídavné meno + enough

+ for sb + neurčitok s to – warm enough for me to go … a v pätnástej položke transformácia

vety s tretím stupňom prídavného mena cheap.

Slovná zásoba

Táto časť testu pozostáva z troch úloh: z doplňovania správnych slov na základe kolokácie,

tvorenia slov (2 prídavných mien a 1 podstatného mena) a tvorby slov pomocou predpôn.

Najväčšie problémy mali žiaci s položkami: 3, 7, 11, 13, 14. Položka tri testovala spojenie fall

in love, položka sedem pay a visit, položka 11 tvorenie podstatného mena length od

prídavného mena long, položka 13 ovládanie záporovej predpony il- (illogical) a položka 14

ovládanie záporovej predpony im- (immoral).


Test sa skladá z dvoch úloh: dichotomickej úlohy a z doplňovania slov. Úlohy boli pre danú

vekovú kategóriu dosť ľahké, pretože im nespôsobili žiadne problémy.


Táto dichotomická úloha preverovala globálne porozumenie. Žiakom robili rôzne položky

problémy, najviac položky 1 a 5.


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GRAMMAR

I. Complete the text with the correct verb forms.

It is now possible (1) ........................................................... (enjoy) the fact that many

airline companies (2) ........................................................... (forbid) smoking completely. This

is no longer only the case with European destinations, but also most destinations in the USA,

the Far East and Australia. Great, isn’t it? No, this is going too far! If we are able

(3) ........................................................... (send) people to the moon, it must be possible

(4) ........................................................... (improve) methods of ventilation on planes!

And to make it more impossible, many airports (5) ...........................................................

(introduced) no smoking signs everywhere this yearr, so now you can’t even have a fag while

waiting for your flight. Some airports, on the other hand, (6) .....................................................

(set up) a small smoking area where hundreds of people (7) ......................................................

(pack) together. Of course the ventilation is horrible there too, so much so that you hardly

need (8) ......................................................... (smoke) yourself, since the room

(9) ......................................................... (already, fill) with smoke. Oh, and the rest of the

airport? It (10) ........................................................... (remain) almost empty.

/ 10 pts

II. Finish the second sentence in such a way that it means exactly the same as the first

sentence printed above it.

Ex: I haven’t enjoyed myself so much for years.

It’s been years, since I enjoyed myself so much.

11. He started to play the guitar five years ago.

He has.....................................................................................................................................

12. I won’t swim in the sea because it is too cold.

The sea is not..........................................................................................................................

13. The storm blew a lot of trees down last night.

A lot of trees ..........................................................................................................................

14. You must water the plants at least once a week.

The plants ...............................................................................................................................

15. Haven’t you got any cheaper televisions?

Are these ................................................................................................................................

/ 5 pts

Total: 15 pts

20

VOCABULARY

I. Use one of the verbs below to complete each expression. Each is used only once.

PAY LEAD RUN SET FALL BREAK KEEP EARN HOLD

Example: to hold one’s breath

1. to ………………… a business

2. to …………………. a habit

3. to ………………… a living

4. to ………………… in love

5. to ………………… a busy life

6. to ………………… a secret

7. to …………………. a visit

8. to …………………. the table

/ 4 pts

II. Complete the sentences below using the correct form of the WORD given at the end

of each.

Example: My sister never stops talking! She is very talkative. TALK

9. This small car is ........................................................ for long journeys. SUIT

10. Two of these tablets should be taken ........................................................ . DAY

11. What is the exact ........................................................ of your garden? LONG

/ 3 pts

III. Make the opposites of the words below using using prefixes.

Example: polite – impolite

12. information – ………………………….

13. logical – ………………………….

14. moral – …………………………... / 3 pts

Total: 10 pts

21


I. Read the text carefully. Decide if the following statements are true (T) or false (F).

Circle your answer.

1. This article is an advertisement. T F

2. The aim of the writer is to show how students live. T F

3. Colin is different from Sarah because he is not a second year student. T F

4. The students’ main problem is deciding what to wear. T F

5. Sarah spends more money on transport than Colin. T F

6. Jack thinks he spends too much money on books. T F

/ 6 pts

What is life like for today’s student? As the university and college terms began, I talked to a few students about their lives.

Sarah James is a second year biology student. “Money is a big problem,” said Sarah. “I can eat quite cheaply at the university, but I spend quite a lot on transport. I also spend quite a lot in clothes, as I like to wear things that are in fashion.”

Colin Peters, who is studying engineering, disagrees. “I don’t spend anything on clothes,” he said, “unless you count climbing boots. I’m very keen on climbing, and you do need special equipment, some of which is very expensive. Luckily, my parents gave me money for my birthday in November. Not much of my money goes on transport, because I have a bicycle.”

Diana Bell is a first year fashion student, “I make all my own clothes. This should save me money, but in fact, the materials are very expensive. I don’t know how I would manage if I didn’t sell some of the dresses and hats I make to the other students. Everything is expensive,” she said. “That includes the rent, food, transport and heating for the flat in winter.”

Jack is a science student in his final year. “What do I spend my money on? Well, not on clothes, and not a lot on going out in the evening. My rent is expensive, and I suppose I spend quite a lot on books.”

II. Read the text below and complete it using the words given. Two (2) are not used.

FIND SOUNDS OPERATES RUN LEARN TAKE

The School of English, which is (7) ........................................... by Mrs Violet Spring, is

offering new summer courses this year, which (8) ........................................... very good

indeed. Mrs. Spring has organized a group visit to a television studio. I’m sure everyone will

(9) ........................................... that really exciting. She is also hoping that some students will

be able to (10) ........................................... flying lessons at the airport.

/ 4 pts

Total: 10 pts

22


Listen to a person talk about their camping holiday. Decide whether the statements are

true (T) or false (F). Circle your answer.

1. Camping is the speaker’s ideal holiday. T F

2. They stayed in a tent. T F

3. They couldn’t use the gas burner. T F

4. The wind dropped after 24 hours. T F

5. The speaker would not like another kind of holiday. T F

Total: 5 pts

23

ROLE-PLAY

Student:

You and your family live in a 4-room flat. Your parents have one room, you and your sibling

share another and the third bedroom is occupied by your aging grandmother. You have always

shared a bedroom with your sibling who is 3 years younger than you. He/she is messy, noisy

and does not respect your borders at all. He/she uses your stuff and even wears your clothes

sometimes. You’ve had enough! You need your own space. Talk to your parent and tell them

everything that’s bothering you about the situation. Persuade them to let you have your own

room.

��--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

Native Speaker (teacher):

You and your family live in a 4-room flat. You and your spouse have one room, your two

children share another and the third bedroom is occupied by your aging mother. You know

there are some conflicts between your children but there is just no way to rearrange the flat in

such as way as to keep them from each other. You are so glad, though, that the older of the

two is so mature about the situation and seems to be handling it fine. That child has asked to

speak to you. You start: Did you want to speak to me about something, son/daughter?

24

PICTURE STORY

25

KATEGÓRIA 1C

Gramatika

Táto časť testu pozostáva z dvoch úloh: doplňovania správnych tvarov slovies a transformácie

viet. Najťažšími položkami pre testovaných žiakov boli: 3, 13, 14, a 15. Položka 3

preverovala ovládanie predminulého priebehové času – had been working, položka 13 väzbu

príčastia prítomného so slovesom remember – I remember seeing that…, položka 14 –

používanie to have to v budúcom čase a položka 15 používanie trpného rodu.

Slovná zásoba

Pozostáva z 10 položiek úlohy s viacnásobnou voľbou odpovede s jednou správnou

odpoveďou a troma distraktormi. Najväčšie problémy mali žiaci s položkami 7, 8, 10. Žiaci

mali problémy s konkrétnymi slovami: stiff (tuhý), draw (remíza) a wheel a bicycle (viesť

bicykel).


Test pozostáva z dvoch úloh: doplňovania vhodných častí vety (podrobné čítanie) a

dichotomickej úlohy – preverenie globálneho porozumenia. Najväčšie problémy mali žiaci s

10. položkou.


Žiaci mali doplniť 5 informácií na základe počutého. Úlohu zvládli priemerne, najväčší

problém mali s položkou 1.

Progresívny test

Úloha je zameraná na preverenie ovládania slovných spojení, ktoré sa používajú pri

pripravovaní jedál. Na ukážku uvádzame, ako si s touto úlohou možno poradiť: whisk the egg

whites until stiff, add some flour, cool down the mixture, atď.


26

GRAMMAR

I. Complete the e-mail below by putting the verbs in brackets into their correct forms.

How are things? Since I saw you last, I (1) ...................................................... (be) very

ill. By the time I arrived home after (2) ...................................................... (see) you on

Monday, I had an awful headache. I thought that perhaps my eyes were tired as I

(3) ...................................................... (work) so hard, so I took some aspirin and went to bed.

However, when I woke up the next morning the headache was worse than ever, and my throat

was sore. I tried (4) ...................................................... (get up) but my arms and legs felt stiff.

I saw the doctor and she (5) ...................................................... (tell) me I had a

temperature. She said I probably had the flu. She advised me to take some medicine and

(6) ..................................................... (stay) in bed. The medicine tasted horrible and it

(7) ...................................................... (not make) me feel better. I felt sick and I didn’t want to

eat anything at all, although I was very hungry.

I have almost recovered now, and I (8) ......................................... (go) to school again

tomorrow. I still have a slight cold and a cough, but my chest doesn’t hurt when I

(9) ......................................................... (breathe). Can we meet on Saturday? I

(10) ...................................................... (look) forward to seeing you.

/ 10 pts

II. Complete the second sentence (11–15) so that it has the same meaning as the first

sentence. Use between 2 and 5 words.

11. We have to have the school gym painted.

The school gym ......................................................................................................................

12. You can eat this food directly from the packet.

This food ..................................................................................................... from the packet.

13. Oh, yes. I’m certain I saw that football match.

I remember .................................................................................................... football match.

14. They will have to cancel the performance.

The performance ....................................................................................................................

15. In Spain, it is compulsory to stay at school until you are 16.

In Spain, you aren’t ...................................................................................... until you’re 16.

/ 5 pts

Total: 15 pts

27

VOCABULARY

Complete sentences (1–10) using the most suitable words (A, B, C or D). Write the

LETTER into gap of each sentence.

1. The horse hurt one of its ........... in the race.

A. claws B. heels C. hooves D. paws

2. A leopard has spots and a tiger has ............ .

A. bands B. streaks C. stripes D. strips

3. She was well ........... in a thick fur coat.

A. folded B. packed C. rolled D. wrapped

4. His jeans were so tight that they ........... when he sat down.

A. broke B. cracked C. snapped D. split

5. This was one of the crimes he did not ............ .

A. achieve B. commit C. make D. perform

6. Coming from the kitchen was the wonderful ........... of cooking.

A. scent B. odour C. smell D. perfume

7. Put the whites of five eggs into a basin and beat them until ............ .

A. rigid B. hard C. solid D. stiff

8. Whenever there’s a flu ........... doctors are kept very busy.

A. breakout B. outbreak C. outcome D. outlook

9. The football match resulted in a ............ .

A. draw B. equaliser C. loss D. zero

10. I met Pete ........... his bicycle along the pavement.

A. pulling B. rolling C. turning D. wheeling

Total: 10 pts

28

PROGRESSIVE TEST

Make a list of expressions you can use when talking about PREPARING MEALS. You

can use each verb only once.

5 point for each correct answer

Total: ______________________

29


I. Read the following article. Six phrases have been removed from it and are listed below

the article.

The weather affects all of us in some way. Some of us, however, are especially sensitive to

changes in the weather. For several years, psychiatrists have been studying groups of people

who become depressed when the seasons change. These people suffer from a condition called

Seasonal Affective Disorder (SAD). Some people have a very mild form, (1) ..................... .

Other people have a severe form, and they are not able to function well when the seasons

change.

Millions of people have SAD in some form. It affects about four times more women

than men, usually adults (2) ..................... . However, even school children can be affected by

this symptom. There are more cases of SAD among people who live in countries with colder

climates.

The most common form of SAD occurs in winter, when the days get shorter. The

reason is that there is not as much bright sunlight in the winter. Changes in seasons and

weather cause chemical reactions in the brain (3) ...................... . The way we feel, how we

sleep, and how well we deal with stress can all be affected by changes in the weather. For

example, in the winter, some people complain of (4) ..................... in socializing. Others tend

to overeat and gain weight.

Difficulty with concentration and work are also typical symptoms of winter seasonal

disorder. People with mild winter (5) ..................... . A long walk in the middle of the day

usually helps and so do bright lights in the home and office. Special fluorescent lights that

provide artificial sunlight can be purchased and are also helpful. When spring comes, most

SAD sufferers feel fine again.

Although it is less common, some people (6) ..................... . It is thought that intense

heat and humidity cause the problems. Symptoms include nervousness, agitation,

sleeplessness, loss of apetite and weight, and a lack of energy. There are not many ways to

treat summer depression except to stay where there’s air-conditioning.

Fill in gaps 1–6 in the article with the LETTER of the statement (A–H) which best fits

the text. There are two extra which are not used.

A. that can affect our behaviour and moods

B. suffer from summer seasonal disorder

30

C. which does not disrupt their lives too much

D. occurs in the summer when the days are longer

E. probably do not need medical treatment

F. between the age of twenty and forty

G. being tired all the time and having less interest

H. the symptoms and effects of SAD

/ 6 pts

II. Read the article again and decide if the following statements are true (T) or false(F).

Circle your answer.

7. The symptoms of SAD are the same for every person. T F

8. More women than men suffer from SAD. T F

9. All people with SAD symptoms must have a special medical treatment. T F

10. Chidren are affected by SAD more severely than adults. T F

/ 4 pts

Total: 10 pts

31


Listen to the story about a cat. Complete the sentences below with the information you

hear. There are two words for each sentence.

1. The cat hasn’t climbed down for more than ...............................................

...............................................

2. Mr Verdi’s company specializes in ...............................................

................................................ .

3. Local residents use a system of ............................................... and

............................................... to feed the cat.

4. The cat’s winter home was made from a ...............................................

............................................... .

5. A ............................................... ............................................... was sent up to protect the cat

in the winter.

Total: 5 pts

32

ROLE-PLAY

Student:

Your parents are planning a holiday abroad this summer. They are keen on sightseeing and

enjoy going to museums, galleries and old manor homes.You’d prefer an outdoor adventure

holiday in your own country. Talk to your parent and try to persuade them that you all should

try something different.

��--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

Native Speaker (Teacher):

You’re really looking forward to the exciting summer sightseeing holiday around Europe that

you’re planning for your whole family. It’s relaxing but also educational. You love going to

museums, galleries and old manor homes – it’s just like reliving history! You get to stay in

hotels and no one has to cook or do dishes because you eat out all the time. And you can

arrange everything without leaving your home by using the Internet! Your child has asked to

speak to you about it all.

33

PICTURE STORY

Use all the pictures below to make up your own story. You can put the pictures into any

order you want but all of them must be used in your story.

34

KATEGÓRIA 2A

Gramatika

Táto časť testu pozostáva z troch úloh: doplňovania správneho tvaru slovesa, doplňovania

správneho tvaru slovesa to be, a používania modálnych slovies. Najväčšie problémy mali

žiaci s položkami 2, 4 a 12. Položka 2 preverovala používanie priebehových foriem minulého

alebo predminulého času v zápornom tvare – had not been working/was not working, položka

4 dokonavé zastavoval som – had been stopping a 15 možnosti doplnenia dvoch tvarov – will

be allowed to/can.

Slovná zásoba

Dve úlohy: úloha s viacnásobnou voľbou odpovede a doplňovanie preverujú vládanie slovnej

zásoby. Najviac problémov mali žiaci s položkami: 3, 4, 5 a 7. Prvé tri položky preverovali tri

slová, ktoré žiaci pravdepodobne nepoznali. Je prekvapením, že žiaci mali problém vytvoriť

slovo reputation.


Test pozostáva z dvoch samostatných textov. Prvý text preveruje porozumenie spracovania

mäsa na piatich položkách úlohy s viacnásobnou voľbou odpovede. Druhý text je zameraný

na obdobia pred naším letopočtom a žiaci riešia čiastkové úlohy zamerané na jednotlivé

obdobia.


Text je zameraný na služby zdravotníckeho systému. Porozumenie textu sa preveruje na

základe úlohy s viacnásobnou voľbou odpovede. Žiaci mali najväčší problém s položkami 1,

4 a 5. Iba jeden žiak správne zodpovedal na všetky položky.


35

GRAMMAR

I. Put the verbs in brackets into the correct tense form to complete the story.

I (1) ........................................ (drive) for twenty minutes when the accident happened. My

heater (2) ........................................ (not work), and the snow kept freezing on my window, so

I (3) ........................................ (cannot) see well. I (4) ........................................ (stop) to clean

my window every few minutes when suddenly my engine died. I had just started the car again

when my tires (5) ........................................ (start) to spin on the ice.

/ 5 pts

II. Fill in the gaps using an appropriate form of the verb “TO BE”.

6. Do me a favour and fetch my newspaper. Please, ........................................ an angel.

7. They are all ............................... very greedy today, but normally they ................................ .

8. There seem ........................................ fewer teaspoons in the drawer than there should be.

9. He was ........................................ very childish at the party.

10. ........................................ silly and impatient, please!

/ 5 pts

III. Fill in the gaps with appropriate forms of modals below.

MUST / MUSTN’T CAN / CAN’T BE ALLOWED TO / NOT BE

ALLOWED TO

Mr Jones is on a strict diet. “(11) ........................................ eat toast and butter for breakfast?”

he asked his doctor.

“I am afraid not, Mr. Jones. You (12) ........................................ only have half a grapefruit and

a glass of water. You certainly (13) ........................................ eat any kind of fat and you

(14) ................................ eat biscuits or sweets. But don’t worry, you (15) ................................

eat what you like after two months of this diet.

/ 5 pts

Total: 15 pts

36

VOCABULARY

I. Choose the best definition (A, B, C or D) for each of the following words (1–5). Circle

the LETTER of your answer.

1. COUP

A. a small cage where chickens are kept B. something composed of

heterogeneous elements

C. a predication about the future D. a sudden change of government

2. LOATHE

A. to laugh at with contempt B. to express sympathy with person in pain

C. to dislike somebody very much D. to ridicule

3. CONSIGN

A. to send somebody B. to compose from

C. to put together D. to get rid of something

4. LUMINOUS

A. very large B. bright in the dark

C. clear, obvious D. violent, outrageous

5. RECUPERATE

A. to recover B. to come back

C. to repeat regularly D. to regulate frequency

/ 5 pts

II. Complete the words in each sentence. The first letter is given and the word should

have as many letters as the number of gaps given.

6. When you are pleased that some people have done something for you, you are

G ___ ___ ___ ___ ___ ___ ___ to them.

7. The opinion that other people have of you is your R ___ ___ ___ ___ ___ ___ ___ ___ ___ .

8. What is the line of hair above a person’s eye called? An E ___ ___ ___ ___ ___ ___ .

9. A place where actors stand in the theatre is called the S ___ ___ ___ ___ .

10. A hammer, a screwdriver and a saw are all examples of T ___ ___ ___ ___ .

/ 5 pts

Total: 10 pts

37


There are TWO (2) texts – Parts A and B – for the reading part of this test. Read them

carefully and do the TWO (2) tasks on the following page.

Part A: Hot boning is an energy saving technique for the meat processing industry. It has

received considerable attention in recent years when increased pressure for energy

conservation has accentuated the need for more efficient methods of processing the bovine

carcass. Cooling of an entire carcass requires a considerable amount of refrigerated space,

since bone and trimmable fat are cooled along with the muscle. It is also necessary to space

the carcasses adequately in the refrigerated room for better air movement and prevention of

microbial contamination, thus adding to the volume requirements for carcass chillers.

Conventional handling of meat involves holding the beef sides in the cooler for 24 to 36

hours before boning. Chilling in the traditional fashion is also associated with a loss of carcass

weight ranging from 2 % to 4 % due to evaporation of moisture from the meat tissue.

Early excision, or hot boning, of muscle pre-rigor followed by vacuum packaging has

several potential advantages. By removing only the edible muscle and fat pre-rigor,

refrigeration space and costs are minimized, boning labour is decreased and storage yields

increased. Because hot boning often results in toughening of meat, a more recent approach,

hot boning following electrical stimulation, has been used to reduce the necessary time of

rigor mortis. Some researchers have found this method beneficial in maintaining tender meat,

while others have found that the meat also becomes tough after electrical stimulation.

Part B: The Stone Age was a period of history which began in approximately 2 million

BC and lasted until 3000 BC. Its name was derived from the stone tools and weapons that

modern scientists found. This period was divided into the Palaeolithic, Mesolithic and

Neolithic Ages.

During the first period, (from 2 million BC to 8000 BC) the first hatchet and use of fire for

heating were developed. As a result of the Ice Age, which occurred about 1 million years into

the Palaeolithic Age, people were forced to seek shelters in caves, wear clothing and develop

new tools.

During the Mesolithic Age (8000 to 6000 BC) people made crude pottery and the first fish

hooks, took dogs hunting and developed a bow and arrow, which was used until the 14th

century AD.

The Neolithic age (6000 to 3000 BC) saw humankind domesticating sheep, goats, pigs

and cattle. They were also less nomadic than in previous eras, establishing permanent

settlements and creating governments.

38

Part A – Choose the best answer for questions 1–5. Circle the letter of your answer.

1. Which of the following was not mentioned as a drawback of the conventional method of

boning?

A. storage space requirements B. energy waste C. loss of carcass weight D. toughness of meat

2. Hot boning is becoming very popular because...

A. it causes meat to be very tender B. it helps to conserve energy and is less expensive than conventional method C. meat tastes better when the bone is adequately seared along with the meat D. it reduces the weight of the carcass

3. Carcass chiller basically means...

A. a refrigerator for the animal body B. a method of boning meat C. electrical stimulation of beef D. early excision

4. Early excision basically means...

A. vacuum packaging B. hot boning C. carcass chilling D. electrical stimulation

5. The toughening of meat during hot boning has been prevented by...

A. following hot boning with electrical stimulation B. tenderizing the meat C. using electrical stimulation before hot boning D. removing only the edible muscle and fat pre-rigor / 5 pts

Part B – Choose the best answer for questions 6-10. Circle the letter of your answer.

6. Which of the following developments is not related to the conditions of the Ice Age?

A. farming B. clothing C. living indoors D. using fire

7. Which of the following was developed earliest?

A. the fish hook B. the hatchet C. the bow and arrow D. pottery

8. Which period lasted longest?

A. the Paleolithic B. the Ice Age C. the Mesolithic D. the Neolithic

9. Which of the following periods saw people develop a more communal form of living?

A. the Paleolithic B. the Ice Age C. the Mesolithic D. the Neolithic

10. The author states that the Stone Age was so named because...

A. it was very durable B. the tools and weapons were made of stone

B. there was little vegetation D. the people lived in stone caves

/ 5 pts

Total: 10 pts

39


You will hear two people talking about healthcare. Listen carefully and choose the best

answer for questions 1–5. Circle the LETTER of the answer you have chosen.

1. Private health care systems offer...

A. better and faster health care in case of an emergency

B. more expensive medications

C. faster care in case of smaller operations

D. the same health care but not all the time

2. Everyone should take advantage of private health care because...

A. it is better

B. doctors work better in a private system

C. NHS does not offer complete health care

D. ...this advice is not given in the text

3. If you are involved in private system you...

A. do not have to wait for minor operations

B. are always preferred when a more complicated operation is needed

C. do not have any special advantages

D. you always receive the best medical care

4. Doctors may sometimes...

A. improperly use NHS facilities

B. tell patients that the NHS system is better

C. send patients to NHS hospitals instead of private ones

D. refuse NHS patients in the private sector even in the case of an emergency

5. NHS doctors...

A. can never be better

B. may often be better than those in the private system

C. are better only if patients pay extra money

D. are of the same quality as those in the private system

Total: 5 pts

40

ROLE-PLAY

Student:

You are in an English-speaking country on holiday and you think you’ve got the flu. You’ve

been feeling bad for a couple days but since your flight home is next week, you’d really just

like to get something to make you feel better so you can enjoy the rest of your holiday and

start back to school fresh. You go to see a doctor. Describe, in detail, the symptoms of your

illness and any other health difficulties it is creating. Do not forget to mention the several

allergies which you also suffer from.

��--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------


You are a doctor in an English-speaking country. You have had a lot of patients recently who

have what appears to be the flu, but you have to be VERY careful as there is currently a

serious outbreak of a tropical disease in your area. All doctors must question all patients very

carefully. The recommended treatment is 2 rounds of antibiotics (over the next 3 weeks),

bathing in cod liver oil 3 times a day and eating one cup of tropical snails every morning.

Mandatory hospitalization for 2 weeks is a MUST. You do not want to alarm any patient but

the spread of this disease MUST BE stopped.

41

PICTURE STORY

Make up a story using all the pictures in the order in which they appear.

1. 2.

3. 4. 5.

42

KATEGÓRIA 2B

Gramatika

Na dvoch úlohách (transformácia viet a doplňovanie správnych tvarov slovies) sa preveruje

ovládanie gramatiky 3. a 4. ročníkov gymnázií a obchodných akadémií. Náročnosť úloh sa

prejavuje najmä v položkách 2, 8, 9 a 10. Testovanie v súvetiach spôsobuje, že ak žiak

nesprávne určí jednu vetu súvetia, gramaticky to ovplyvňuje sloveso druhej vety súvetia.

Slovná zásoba

Tri samostatné úlohy: úloha s viacnásobnou voľbu odpovede (3 položky), doplňovanie slov

do známych prísloví a porekadiel (3 položky) a tvorba slov (4 položky) preverujú ovládanie

slovnej zásoby vo vyššie uvedených ročníkoch. Najväčšie problémy robili žiakom položky: 1,

4, 7, 8, 9. Žiaci nepoznali príslovie One swallow doesn’t make a summer. Väčšina žiakov

mala problémy s tvorbou slov inaccuracies, cancellation a troublesome.


Čítanie s porozumením sa preveruje na dvoch úlohách: priraďovaní informácií a doplňovaní

slova na základe definície. Žiaci mali problémy s položkami 4 a 5. Nie všetci vedeli, že to

make somebody feel unimportant or inferior vyjadruje sloveso belittle, a že definícia referring

to uncontrolled or violent behaviour je prídavné meno unruly.


Text je zameraný na špecifický problém – na človeka, ktorý má vysoký elektrický náboj.

Doplňovanie informácií na základe vypočutia si textu nespôsobilo testovaným žiakom

problémy.


43

GRAMMAR

I. Rewrite each sentence using the words in CAPITALS on the right and keeping the

meaning of the original sentences.

1. I think a change would do you good. FROM

……………………………………………………………………………………………

2. Our MP demanded a police investigation. SHOULD

………………………………………………………………………………………………

3. Nobody there had heard of Miss Richardson. WHO

……………………………………………………………………………………………

4. My passport needs renewing. GET

……………………………………………………………………………………………

5. Is there any news of the missing jewels? ABOUT

……………………………………………………………………………………………

6. I suppose you are Peter’s brother. MUST

……………………………………………………………………………………………

/ 6 pts

II. Put the verbs in brackets into the appropriate passive tense in each of the following

sentences.

7. You’ll hardly recognise our flat. It ................................... (redecorate) since your last visit.

8. The theatre company ................................... (give) a grant of � 6,000 and a further � 2,000

................................... (now seek) from elsewhere.

9. As soon as your order ................................... (receive), it ................................... (process).

10. Eleven strikers, who ................................... (imprison) for disturbing the peace,

................................... (release) yesterday.

11. The ancient language of Aramaic ................................... (speak) in only three villages in

Syria and ................................... (overtake, gradually) by Arabic nowadays.

/ 9 pts

Total: 15 pts

44

VOCABULARY

I. Choose the best word (A, B, C or D) to complete each sentence. Put the LETTER of

the answer in the gap.

1. It’s time you ......................... about organizing your revision programme.

A. got B. set C. took D. put

2. I can’t quite .......................... out what the sign says.

A. make B. read C. get D. carry

3. The policeman ......................... me off with a warning as it was Christmas.

A. sent B. gave C. let D. set

/ 3 pts

II. Complete these proverbs by putting the correct words into the gaps. The first letter of

each word is given.

4. One S ............................................................ doesn’t make a summer.

5. Never judge a book by its C ............................................................. .

6. Don’t count your chickens before they’re H ............................................................. .

/ 3 pts

III. Put the words in BOLD on the right into their correct forms to complete the

sentences.

7. I’m afraid your report is full of ...................................... . ACCURATE

8. British Rail apologise for the ..................................... of the 7.30 to Bristol. CANCEL

9. Little David has been a bit ..................................... today and I had to send him to the heads

office. TROUBLE

10. I didn’t believe him. His story was very ..................................... . CONVINCE

/ 4 pts

Total: 10 pts

45


Read the six descriptions of people types who have personal traits and attitudes that

make them unsuitable for marriage and/or long-lasting relationship. Read the texts

carefully and then complete the two tasks given.

(A) Neglected appearance can be a sure sign of problems in a relationship. She lets her hair

get filthy before she considers dunking it in water. She stuffs herself full of comfort foods

and doesn’t care about piling on the weight. He doesn’t care about his clothes and sports a

“beer belly”. He rarely shaves on workdays.

(B) This is the one who is always trying to belittle the other half – particularly if there’s an

audience. He/she’s always saying “Take no notice of your mum/dad” to the kids. He/she

makes lots of references to the partner’s past failures, usually accompanied by giggles.

They patronize their victims with ironic references to work or achievements the victim is

proud of.

(C) He constantly groans about the neighbours, meals, the untidy state of the home and the

kids’ unruly behaviour. She whines about the noisy neighbours, the housework she has to

do, making his meals and him not doing enough to help her control the kids’ unruly

behaviour. She hates all his friends and doesn’t mind telling him that she does. He says

he’d have been better off marrying anyone he is sure will get her very annoyed and upset.

(D) Arguments about money break up more marriages than infidelity does. The female of this

type resents any cash her partner spends even if it’s a gift purchased for her. The male of

this category has a depressing effect on all the family since he constantly complains about

the bills he has to pay. She never lets her man have a drink with the lads. He’ll never

consider eating out – even at cheap places. He won’t take a holiday even if he’s got the

cash.

(E) Wives belonging here hate their homes to look lived-in. They say their husbands are

untidy. Husbands belonging here lecture their wives on everything. She always throws out

yesterday’s newspaper. She’s forever plumping up the cushions. She covers the settee

unless visitors are due. He never likes any of her clothes unless he’s chosen them. When

he’s drying the dishes and she’s washing, he rejects them with a comment: “It’s not

clean.”

46

(F) There’s always drama where one partner wants to take the leading role. And always one

partner dictates what the mood in the house should be. Often the other half just can’t take

the strain. Passions and jealousy are the favourite emotions of both. They aren’t put off by

an audience of friends or relatives.

I. Each type described in paragraphs A–F fits a different category. Match the category

titles (1–6) below with the descriptions (A–F) in the reading. Write the letter of the

description in each corresponding gap.

1. THE PERFECTIONIST paragraph ...........

2. THE CONFIDENCE KILLER paragraph ...........

3. THE ACTOR/ACTRESS paragraph ...........

4. THE SLOB paragraph ...........

5. THE SKINFLINT paragraph ...........

6. THE MOANER paragraph ...........

/ 6 pts

II. Find the words in the reading that mean the following:

7. the act of being unfaithful to your partner (a noun) .................................................................

8. quiet repeated laugh (a noun) ...................................................................................................

9. to make somebody feel unimportant or inferior (a verb) .........................................................

10. referring to uncontrolled or violent behaviour (an adjective) ................................................

/ 4 pts

Total: 10 pts

47


You will hear a doctor talking about one man’s unique problem.

Listen carefully and fill in the gaps with the missing information. The number of missing

words corresponds to the number of gaps.

1. Martin’s problem is caused by a kind of electrical charge called ............................................

electricity.

2. You may experience a similar shock when you rub a ............................................ on the

sleeve of your pullover.

3./4. Quite often people like Martin also suffer from ............................................

............................................ .

5. These people may also have problems with their family and therefore are under serious

............................................ strain.

6./7. One of the things that can help is taking ............................................

............................................ .

8. People with these problems should wear shoes with ............................................ soles.

9./10. An ioniser resembles a/an ............................................ ............................................ .

Total: 5 pts

48

ROLE-PLAY

Student:

You want to buy something for lunch but you haven’t got any money on you. You have a

really good friend who has helped you out with small loans in the past, so you ask them for a

loan. You speak first.

�---------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------


You have a friend who is usually broke. It’s really annoying that they ask you to help them

out with small loans all the time! (Although, they do usually pay it back over time.) You’ve

decided to stop giving them any money, no matter what they need it for. They have to learn to

respect your borders!

49

PICTURE STORY

Look at the two photographs below. Describe, compare and contrast them. You need to

mention the following:

• the people and settings

• similarities and differences between the two groups and the way they operate

• how the two groups might feel about each other

50

KATEGÓRIA 2C

Gramatika

Gramatika sa testuje na dvoch typoch úloh: doplňovaní správnych slovesných časov a tvarov

slovies a transformácii viet, ktorá preveruje ovládanie zložitejších gramatických štruktúr.

Problémy sa objavili v položkách 11, 13, 14 a 15. V položke 11 mali žiaci problémy s

inverziou, položky 13, 14 a 15 testovali trpné konštrukcie.

Slovná zásoba

Na texte o slovenských kúpeľoch sa testuje tvorenie slov v súvislom kontexte. Test je

autentický. Najviac problémov mali žiaci s položku 5, kde správnu odpoveď tvoria dve

možnosti – hairdressers/hairdressing.


Test pozostáva z jednej úlohy úlohy so zatvorenou odpoveďou (s viacnásobnou voľbou

odpovede), ktorá preveruje porozumenie na autentickom texte. Počas testovania sa nevyskytli

vážnejšie problémy s jednotlivými položkami. Text je odborného charakteru, čo môže v

mnohých prípadoch spôsobovať isté problémy.


Počúvanie s porozumením sa testuje sa na autentickom interview s podnikateľom Tomasom

Spurnym. Na získanie 5 bodov bolo potrebné doplniť 10 špecifických informácií získaných z

jedného počutia.

Progresívny test

Tento test preveruje ovládanie názvov vtákov v anglickom jazyku.


51

GRAMMAR

I. Fill in the gaps in the sentences with the correct verb forms or tenses.

The Thermal Spa in Rajecké Teplice is situated in green, densely wooded hills only a few kilometres away from Žilina, so when the Bratislava-Žilina motorway (1) ................................ (finish), it will be even more easily accessible.

WATER WORLD (2) ................................ (divide) into the thermal spring which is about the temperature of a hot bath and another pool which is like an ordinary swimming pool. The hot thermal bath has low, beautifully decorated ceilings. It’s like (3) ................................ (be) in a huge private bath and people of all ages, shapes and sizes spend literally hours (4) ................................ (luxuriate) in the 38 °C water. The swimming pool has water jets which wash away the stress of every day life.

I spent a Saturday and Sunday at the Aphrodite Thermal Spa. While relaxing in the pool, I (5) ................................ (strike) by the care and attention that has gone into the design and décor – columns and beautiful wall paintings of ancient Greek scenes, temples and ruins (6) ................................ (slope) down to a blue sea with Aegean islands in the distance. Much creative thought and money (7) ................................ (invest).

After my treatment I relaxed in the conservatory with a dome of brightly cultured and patterned glass. A harp player (8) ................................ (perform) and the music complemented my sense of well-being.

This thermal spa is one of the renovated spas (9) ................................ (cater) to the new upper middle class and high society of Central Europe and the increasing number of western Europeans (10) ................................ (attract) by the prices and improved level of service.

/ 10 pts

II. Finish each of the following sentences (11–15) in such a way that they mean the same

as the sentences immediately above each one.

Immediately after her departure, things improved.

11. No sooner ...............................................................................................................................

Only those applicants attending the interview will be considered for the job.

12. Unless .....................................................................................................................................

The dentist said Sandra needed to have two fillings.

13. The dentist said it ...................................................................................................................

There are rumours that the company is about to reduce its workforce.

14. The company is ......................................................................................................................

It is believed that the criminals are hiding in a mountain cave.

15. The criminals ..........................................................................................................................

/ 5 pts

Total: 15 pts

52

VOCABULARY

Complete the text below. Put the words on the right into their correct forms for each

gap.

Spa Aphrodite is equipped with the most modern (1) ................................ DIAGNOSIS

and therapeutic apparatus. The compound includes (2) ................................ NUMBER

facilities providing therapeutic, relaxation and (3) ................................ BEAUTY

procedures: hydrotherapy, classical massages, (4) ................................ SCOTLAND

or circular shower, oxygen therapy, carbonic bath, manicure,

pedicure, cosmetics and (5) ................................ . HAIR

In (6) ................................ to the spa facilities, guests can enjoy mini-golf, ADD

tennis courts, a well-equipped fitness centre, (7) ................................ SAIL

on the lake and so on. There are also (8) ................................ WONDER

opportunities for mountain biking and trekking in the (9) ................................ WOOD

hills encircling the spa. Žilina is only 13 km away and offers a wide

range of (10) ................................ events. CULTURE

Total: 10 pts

53

PROGRESSIVE TEST

List as many kinds of birds as you can.

Ex: sparrow

5 point for each correct answer

Total: _____________________

54


Read the text carefully and answer questions 1–10.

In addition to providing energy, fats have several other functions in the body. The fat-

soluble vitamins, A, D, E, and K, are dissolved in fats, as their name implies. Good sources of

these vitamins have high oil or fat content, and the vitamins are stored in the body’s fatty

issues. In the diet, fats cause food to remain longer in the stomach, thus increasing the feeling

of fullness for some time after a meal is eaten. Fats add variety, taste, and texture to foods,

which accounts for the popularity of fried foods. Fatty deposits in the body have an insulating

and protective value. The curves of the human female body are due mostly to strategically

located fat deposits.

Whether a certain amount of fat in the diet is essential to human health is not definitely

known. When rats are fed a fat-free diet, their growth eventually ceases, their skin becomes

inflamed and scaly, and their reproductive systems are damaged. Two fatty acids, linoleic and

arachidonic, prevent these abnormalities and hence are called essential fatty acids. They also

are required by a number of other animals, but their roles in human beings are debatable.

Most nutritionists consider linoleic fatty acid an essential nutrient for human.

Now choose the best answer. Circle the LETTER of the answer you have chosen.

1. This passage probably appeared in which of the following?

A. a diet book C. a cookbook

B. a book on basic nutrition D. a popular women’s magazine

2. The word “functions” in line 1 is closest in meaning to

A. forms C. jobs

B. needs D. sources

3. According to the passage, all of the following vitamins are stored in the body’s fatty issue

except

A. A C. B

B. D D. E

4. The phrase “stored in” in line 4 is closed in meaning to

A. manufactured in C. measured by

B. attached to D. accumulated in

5. The author states that fats serve all of the following body functions except to

A. promote a feeling of fullness C. provide energy

B. insulate and protect the body D. control weight gain

55

6. The word “essential” in line 10 is closest in meaning to

A. required for C. detrimental to

B. desired for D. beneficial to

7. According to the author of the passage, which of the following is true for rats when they are

fed a fat free diet?

A. They stop growing. C. They lose body hair.

B. They have more babies. D. They require less care.

8. Linoleic fatty acid is mentioned in the passage as

A. an essential nutrient for humans C. preventing weight gain in rats

B. more useful than arachidonic acid D. a nutrient found in most foods

9. The phrase “these abnormalities” in lines 13–14 refers to

A. a condition caused by fried foods

B. strategically located fat deposits

C. curves on the human female body

D. cessation of growth, bad skin, and damaged reproductive systems

10. That humans should all have some fat in our diets is, according to the author,

A. a commonly held view C. only true for women

B. not yet a proven fact D. proven to be true by experiments on rats

Total: 10 pts

56


You will hear an interview with a top business executive. Listen carefully and fill in gaps

1–5. You will receive half a point for each correct answer. You will hear the interview

ONLY ONCE.

He was lucky enough to live in several countries within a relatively short time, which

helped him to develop an ability to view problems through a local prism and understand how

various societies, cultures, or financial institutions function. Chief Executive Officer, Tomas

Spurny, who over the past year has often been presented as the model of a successful banker...

He got his degrees at (1) ............................................... and (2) ................................................ .

He left Slovakia in (3) ............................................... .

He doesn’t like the lack of (4) ............................................... (5) ...............................................

in the banking world.

People in the banking world soon lose their (6) ............................................... and choose their

(7) ............................................... not by heart but by mind.

His language barrier problems were overcome by studying (8) ...............................................,

maths and taxation.

His preference for (9) ............................................... and (10) ...............................................

can be clearly seen in his choice of favourite subjects.

Total: 5 pts

57

SPEAKING

Read the short extract below. Explain where or in what situation each reason (cause)

might be observed in our world today. Give some suggestions on what people (the

government, the local authorities and individuals) can do to avoid the death of any

language.

“There are several reasons that languages might start disappearing or even die out altogether:

- cultural change

- assimilation into a dominant culture and language

- negative attitudes towards a language

- population movement: speakers become scattered so that the language

community breaks up

- economics: a dominant language is needed to get an education and a decent

job”

58

SPEAKING – PICTURES

Look at the pictures. Compare and contrast them. Say which one you would prefer and why.

59

KATEGÓRIA 2D

Gramatika

Gramatika sa testuje na troch úlohách: dichtomickej, s viacnásobnou voľbou odpovede, a

transformácie viet v priamej reči do nepriamej reči. Najväčšie problémy mali žiaci s

položkami: 5, 8 a so všetkými vetami na preverenie nepriamej reči. Je bežným javom, že žiaci

nevedia, že sloveso make sa viaže s ďalším slovesom bez neurčitkovej častice to (položka 8).

Krátka prídavná otázka aren’t I? je tiež problematická pre slovenských žiakov.

Slovná zásoba

Slovná zásoba sa testuje na dvoch úlohách: tvorbe slov a dopĺňanií slov zo súboru daných

slov. Problémy mali žiaci s položkami 1, 2, 4 a 9. Bolo treba vytvoriť slová literate z literacy,

immoral zo slova moral, exploration zo slova explore a žiaci mali problem doplniť slovo run-

down.


Prvá časť testu preverujú globálne porozumenie na šiestich položkách. Posledné štyri položky

testujú globálne porozumenie na otázkach. Žiaci mali problémy s položkou 8.


Na základe monológu piatich hovoriacich je potrebné vypočuté skúsenosti zaradiť k

jednotlivým hovoriacim. Bola to úloha náročná pre mnohých žiakov, problémy im robili

takmer všetky položky.


60

GRAMMAR

I. Answer the questions in italics by ticking (��) YES or NO. YES NO

1. They set off at two o’clock. Did they arrive at two o’clock? ......... .........

2. Two men broke out of a prison. Did they escape? ......... .........

3. Two men held up the bank. Were they carrying weapons? ......... .........

4. Alice broke up with Peter. Are they going to get married? ......... ......... / 5 pts

II. Choose the correct answer (A, B, C or D) to complete each sentence. Circle the

LETTER of your answer.

5. I’m late, ............. ? A. I’m not? B. don’t I? C. aren’t I? D. do I?

6. He’s ............. his wife. A. more older than B. more old as C. much old as D. much older than

7. She ............. me about it sooner. Now it’s too late. A. must have told B. should have told C. ought to tell D. had to tell

8. His father ............. practise every day. A. made him to B. would make him to C. makes him to D. made him

/ 5 pts

III. Transform the direct speech into reported speech.

9. “I can’t remember a funnier show.” Susan said that ...................................................................................................................... .

10. “You‘ll love the film.” Tom said ............................................................................................................................... .

11. “How did you hear about it?” She wanted to know ............................................................................................................. .

12. “Have you worked before?” They wanted to know ........................................................................................................... .

13. “Don’t forget to sign the form.” Alice reminded Paula ........................................................................................................... .

14. “I won’t be at the next meeting.” Michael told me ................................................................................................................... .

15. “Stop running.” She told the children ............................................................................................................ .

/ 5 pts

Total: 15 pts

61

VOCABULARY

I. Put the words in BOLD on the right into their correct forms to complete the text.

CRITICISM...... (Ex.) of computer games is usually made by people CRITICISE

who are not computer- (1) ................................ themselves. Games are LITERACY

condemned for being (2) ................................ or violent, yet the critics MORAL

have rarely played them themselves. Many games are highly

(3) ................................ and through them we can learn about ancient EDUCATE

civilisations or space (4) ................................ . What is more, in playing EXPLORE

the games, children get basic computer skills. And perhaps, it could be

argued, there is nothing new here. Children, boys (5) ................................, SPECIAL

have always played violent games and would just as happily play with

just a (6) ................................ sword. WOOD

/ 6 pts

II. Complete the sentences with one of the words given below. One word does not fit any

of the sentences.

APPALLING RUN-DOWN DERELICT TOUGH SPRAWLING

7. The ..................................................... city stretched out as far as the eye could see.

8. They lived in a/an .................................................... building, surrounded by other empty

old structures.

9. Conditions at the holiday resort where they were supposed to stay was absolutely

..................................................... – no hot water, dirty rooms and 3 kilometres from the

beach!

10. Their house is a little ..................................................... but they are planning to renovate it

soon.

/ 4 pts

Total: 15 pts

62


Read the following brochure – Great Days Out in Devon and Cornwall – and then do the

two tasks on the next page.

LA RONDE

This unique 16-sided house was built in 1796 for two spinsters, Jane and Mary Parminter. The

fascinating interior decoration includes a shell encrusted gallery, a feather frieze and many

18th century contents and collections brought back by the two women from their European

Grand Tour.

ARLINGTON COURT

The house, built in 1822 and set in 11 hectares of park and garden, contains fascinating

collections for every taste, assembled by the well travelled Rosalie Chichester, who lived here

for 84 years until her death. There are carriage rides, an outstanding carriage collection in the

stable block, beautiful gardens, lakeside and woodland walks in the park were Shetland ponies

and Jacob sheep graze.

LYDFORD GORGE

This famous gorge is 1.5 miles long, with walks along the top of a steep-sided, oak wooded

ravine leading to the spectacular 90ft White Lady Waterfall and down to the enchanting

riverside of the River Lyd as it plunges into a series of whirlpools including the thrilling

Devil’s Cauldron. It is also home to a wide variety of animals, birds and plants. Visitors must

wear stout footwear and take care at all times. There may be delays at the Devil’s Cauldron

during tourist season.

The OVERBECK MUSEUM AND GARDEN

This is a sub-tropical garden with rare and tender plants thriving in a mild climate with

spectacular views over the Salcombe Estuary. In the Edwardian house there are things such as

a polyphon (a 19th century musical jukebox from which you can request a tune), an electrical

“rejuvenating” machine and a display on the maritime history and wildlife of the area. There

is also a secret room for children, with dolls and a ghost hunt.

63

ANTONY

This superb example of an early 18th century house was home to the great Cornish family of

the Carews. Antony contains a wealth of paintings, tapestries, furniture and embroideries.

Overlooking the Lynher River, the grounds landscaped by Sir Repton, include the formal

garden with a national collection of day lilies, fine summer borders, contemporary sculptures

and a knot garden. The Antony Woodland Garden (free admission for National Trust

members on Antony opening days) features outstanding rhododendrons, azaleas, camellias

and magnolias.

TRERICE

A small Elizabethan manor house, Trerice is an architectural gem hidden away from the world

and still somehow caught in the spirit of its age. Behind the Dutch-style gabled facade are

ornate fireplaces, elaborate plaster ceilings and a collection of English furniture of the highest

quality. The summer-flowering garden is unusual in content and layout and there is an orchard

planted with all varieties of fruit trees. A museum traces the history of the lawn mower.

I. Decide if the following statements are true (T) or false (F). Circle your answer.

1. If you are interested in English architecture go to Trerice. T F

2. Walking in Lydford Gorge is dangerous and you need good quality shoes. T F

3. You can ride ponies and meet Mrs Rosalie Chichester at Arlington Court. T F

4. La Ronda belonged to a couple of unmarried ladies who liked travelling. T F

5. Everyone has to pay to get into the Antony Woodland Garden. T F

6. Antony is the best place for an outing with children. T F

/ 6 pts

II. Write the name of the place that best answers the following questions.

7. Which destination is famous for various fruit trees? ...............................................................

8. Where can we find the collection of beautiful needlework? ....................................................

9. Where might we have to wait because of large crowds? .........................................................

10. Which place is remarkable for various kinds of flowers? ......................................................

/ 4 pts

Total: 10 pts

64


You will hear five people talking about memorable experiences they have had. For

questions 1–5 choose from the list (A–F) what happened to each one (Speaker 1–5). Use

each letter only once. There is one extra letter which is not needed.

Somebody who was / has been…

A. given the sack.

B. rescued by the fire brigade.

C. wet through by a downpour.

D. covered in paint.

E. covered in dye.

F. wet through after falling into some water.

Speaker 1 _____________

Speaker 2 _____________

Speaker 3 _____________

Speaker 4 _____________

Speaker 5 _____________

Total: 5 pts

65

ROLE-PLAY

Student:

You were given a sweater for your birthday, but it’s too big and you don’t like the colour.

You have never worn the sweater, so you decide to exchange it for another one. Your friend

told you where they bought it but they threw away the receipt. You are in the store now. Talk

to the shop assistant about what you need.

��--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------


You are a shop assistant. The store you work for requires a receipt for all exchanges and

refunds. While the store prides itself in having extremely polite and courteous employees, it

also encourages them to look over returned merchandise VERY CAREFULLY as some

customers try to return or exchange damaged goods (dirtied or with holes, etc.). The store’s

motto is ‘Remember: the customer is NOT always right.’ You start: May I help you?

66

PICTURE STORY

The pictures below show various occupations. Which job would you prefer and why?

Which job is the most rewarding / demanding and why? Which job deserves the highest

respect / salary? Why?

67

KATEGÓRIA 2E

Gramatika

Gramatika sa testuje sa na dvoch úlohách: úlohe s viacnásobnou voľbou odpovede a

doplňovaní správnych tvarov slovies a slovesných časov. V úlohe so zatvorenou odpoveďou

neboli problémy, v úlohe s otvorenou odpoveďou sa problematickým javilo použitie trpného

rodu v položke 9 – was taken.

Slovná zásoba

Slovná zásoba sa preveruje na dvoch úlohách: úlohe s viacnásobnou voľbou odpovede a úlohe

na tvorenie slov. V zatvorenej úlohe robilo žiakom problém rozlíšiť slová recipe a receipt. V

otvorenej úlohe mali problémy s položkou 8 – departure. Chyby v iných položkách boli

variabilné.


Globálne porozumenie textu sa preveruje na dichotomickej úlohe s určením odseku, v ktorom

sa daná informácia nachádza. Určenie správneho odseku robilo mnohým žiakom problémy.

Bez správneho určenia zodpovedajúceho odseku sa neuznáva správna odpoveď.


Porozumenie krátkeho textu sa preveruje na úlohe so zatvorenou odpoveďou, kde každá

položka obsahuje jednu správnu odpoveď s dvoma distraktormi. Žiaci väčšinou odpovedali

správne, jediný problém mali s položkou 2, kde sa najčastejšie mýlili.


68

GRAMMAR

I. Read the text and choose the correct answer to fill in gaps 1–8. Circle your answer (A, B, C or D). There is an example 0 at the beginning.

One Man in a Boat

Fishing is my (0) ..... sport. I often fish for hours without (1) ..... anything. But this (2) ..... me.

Some fishermen are unlucky. (3) ..... of catching fish, they catch old boots and rubbish. I am

even (4) ..... lucky. I never catch anything – not even old boots. After having spent whole

mornings (5) ..... the river, I always go home with an empty bag. “You must give (6) .....

fishing!” my friends say. “It’s a waste of time!” But they don’t realize (7) ..... important thing.

I’m only interested in (8) ..... in a boat and doing nothing at all!

0. A. favourite B. most favourite C. fun D. most fun 1. A. to catch B. being caught C. having caught D. catching 2. A. hadn’t worried B. didn’t worry C. doesn’t worry D. isn’tt worrying 3. A. Instead B. Because C. In spite D. Despite 4. A. more B. least C. less D. most 5. A. on B. at C. in D. next 6. A. in B. up C. away D. off 7. A. the B. a C. one D. some 8. A. sit B. seat C. seating D. sitting

/ 8 pts

II. Complete the letter by putting the verbs in brackets into their right forms. The first

one has been done for you.

Dear Mum and Dad,

Let me tell you what’s going on. The day I (0) arrived I was very lonely. I’m happy now

though, because the college where I (9) ............................................. (study) has a great

computer course. Wednesday the boy I (10) .......................................... (share) a room with

had a party. It (11) .......................................... (be) great fun. Thursday was good too. The man

who teaches us Biology forgot (12) .......................................... (come) so we had some free

time! Friday (13) ........................................ (not be) so great. I missed a lecture because I was

ill in bed. The photograph I’m sending you (14) ............................................. (take) the day I

arrived, while I (15) ............................................. (wait) for the bus. I have to catch up on my

work, so I must go now! Write soon and send money! ☺

Love, Tom / 7 pts

Total: 15 pts

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VOCABULARY

I. Complete the sentence with one of the choices given (A, B, C or D). Put the letter of

your answer in the gaps.

1. When you are ill, your doctor writes you a .................. for your medicine.

A. recipe B. list C. prescription D. receipt

2. A .................. is something in the wall.

A. socket B. plug C. knob D. flex

3. Breakfast, lunch and dinner are called .................. .

A. dishes B. meals C. foods D. courses

4. When you break some laws, you must pay a .................. .

A. charge B. fee C. deposit D. fine

5. The type of thief who breaks into your house is called a .................. .

A. mugger B. burglar C. robber D. murderer

/ 5 pts

II. Read the text; fill in the gaps (6-10) with the right forms of the words given at the end

of each line.

I arrived at the airport in time to see an (0) airplane take off. There is nothing AIR

(6) .......................... about that, except that I was supposed to be on that plane! USUAL

When I went to the desk to ask when the next available (7) ....................... was, FLY

I heard an awful noise. I turned to see a car crashing through the front windows

with a police car just behind it. As I ran toward the (8) .................. gate a

DEPART

policeman stopped me to see if I was the (9) ...................... robber they were ARMY

chasing. I told him I was not a robber but a businessman who had missed his plane.

He let me go and I was (10) ......................... to catch the last flight to my ABILITY

destination.

/ 5 pts

Total: 10 pts

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Read the text. Decide whether statements 1–10 are true (T) or false (F). Circle T or F

and for each statement give the letter of the paragraph (A-D) in which you found the

evidence for your answer.

THE CUTTY SARK

A One of the most famous sailing ships of the nineteenth century, the Cutty Sark, can still be

seen at Greenwich. She stands on dry land and is visited by thousands of people each year.

She serves as an impressive reminder of the great ships of the past. Before they were re-

placed by steam-ships, sailing vessels like the Cutty Sark were used to carry tea from

China and wool from Australia. The Cutty Sark is one of the fastest sailing ships ever

built. The only other ship to match her was the Thermopylae.

B Both these ships set out on an exciting race to England from Shanghai on June 18th, 1872.

This race, which went on for exactly four months, was the last of its kind. It marked the

end of the great tradition of ships with sails and the beginning of the new era of steam.

The first of the two ships to reach Java after the race had begun was the Thermopylae, but

on the Indian Ocean, the Cutty Sark took the lead. It seemed certain that she would be the

first ship home, but during the race she had a lot of bad luck.

C In August, she was struck by a very heavy storm during which her rudder was torn away.

The Cutty Sark rolled from side to side and it became impossible to steer her. A temporary

rudder was made on board from spare planks and it was fitted with great difficulty. This

greatly reduced the speed of the ship, for there was the danger that if she travelled too

quickly, this rudder would be torn away as well. Because of this, the Cutty Sark lost her

lead. After crossing the equator, the captain called in at a port to have a new rudder fitted,

but by now the Thermopylae was over five hundred miles ahead. Though the new rudder

was fitted at tremendous speed, it was impossible for the Cutty Sark to win.

D She arrived in England a week after the Thermopylae. Even this was remarkable,

considering that she had had so many delays. There is no doubt that if she had not lost her

rudder she would have won the race easily.

rudder = kormidlo

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1. The Cutty Sark still sails the seas. T F paragraph _____

2. Only two ships took part in the race to England. T F paragraph _____

3. In the past the Cutty Sark was used to carry goods. T F paragraph _____

4. The Cutty Sark was expected to win the race. T F paragraph _____

5. It was not possible to steer the Cutty Sark because of the storm. T F paragraph _____

6. The race ended in October of 1872. T F paragraph _____

7. The Cutty Sark had to change its rudder twice during the race. T F paragraph _____

8. The Thermopylae was as good as the Cutty Sark. T F paragraph _____

9. This race marked the beginning of the new era of steam-ships. T F paragraph _____

10. The Cutty Sark was the fastest sailing vessel ever used. T F paragraph _____

Total: 10 pts

72


Listen to Frank Hawkins’s success story. Decide which answer (A, B or C) best

completes each sentence. Circle your answer.

1. Frank was speaking about his experience as...

A. a boy.

B. a young man.

C. the head of a company.

2. He started to work in a small...

A. workshop.

B. factory.

C. store.

3. ............. the war his small business changed into a big factory.

A. Before

B. During

C. By the end of

4. Frank ............. money to start his own business.

A. saved

B. borrowed

C. invested

5. Frank is now the head of .............

A. a factory.

B. a company.

C. a workshop.

Total: 10 pts

73

ROLE-PLAY

Student:

Your parents are planning a summer holiday by the sea in Greece. You’ve always gone with

them on these trips abroad but this time you’d rather spend the entire summer with your

grandparents in the village where they live. You usually spend at least two weeks with your

grandparents and you just love the clean air and being outside. Last year, you also made some

good friends there and you’d really like to spend more time with them. Persuade your parent

to let you stay with your grandparents.

��--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------


You and your spouse are planning a summer holiday by the sea in Greece. You’ve even

arranged for a small yacht this year. You look forward to these family holidays every year and

just can’t imagine summer without them. They’re always such good times for strengthening

relationships. Your child usually spends a couple weeks with your parents in a small village

but you’re concerned that they really can’t check up on your child all the time. Last summer

your child got into some trouble with a bunch of the kids in the village. You really think it’s

wiser for them to spend only one week there this year.

74

PICTURE STORY

Look at the pictures below and make up a story whose title is ‘Good Dog’.

PREPISY NAHRÁVOK

75

PREPISY NAHRÁVOK

KATEGÓRIA 1A

Many years ago, a rich man named Llewellyn lived in the mountains of Wales. He had a

little son, two years old, whom he loved very dearly. Gelert, a large hound, was always near

the boy, ready to protect him at any moment.

One morning, as Llewellyn prepared to go hunting, Gelert could not be found, and

Llewellyn had to go without him. That day the hunt was not good because his favourite hound

was absent. When Llewellyn came back home late in the afternoon, Gelert came running to

meet him. There was blood on his face and head. Llewellyn hurried to the room where the

child was sleeping.

The child could not be seen in the room. The bed, chairs and tables were all overturned.

Here and there he could see blood on the floor. Llewellyn turned to Gelert and said, “You

have killed my child!” So he killed the dog. But a few minutes later he found his son, safe and

unharmed, in his overturned bed. Then he saw the body of a large grey wolf lying in a dark

corner of the room.

Then Llewellyn understood everything. Gelert had killed the wolf before it could attack

the child.

Llewellyn laid a great stone in his yard as a monument to his faithful hound Gelert.

KATEGÓRIA 1B

Graham: That’s Bridget’s ideal holiday to go camping somewhere, wild, wild like Wales,

wild like remote parts of Yorkshire, Lake District, Scotland, Skye, that kind of thing and I

enjoy it, too, if the weather’s ok, but we were very unlucky and it was really rotten. It was so

cold as well, you see, it wasn’t just, erm, I think you can get away with rain and wind, it’s

bearable, but it was freezing cold, too, and we were sitting in the tent absolutely frozen to

death and the wind was so strong that we couldn’t, we dare, daren’t even use the gas burner

for cooking, you see. So we had forty-eight hours when we couldn’t have a hot meal. We, we

had one lull when we managed to get some soup made and into a Thermos that we bought

specially because of the weather, and, then…. As, at the end of forty-eight hours we had a ….

Breakfast which consisted of stew and potatoes and stuff because the wind dropped for a

while and we thought we’d better have something to eat quickly 'cuz we were a bit rotten and

76

low and then the wind started again, so it was a bit nasty. But, on the other hand, Bridget’s

never stayed in a hotel, so if we had the money I, we’d do both. We’d have one holiday at an

off-peak time, I think, somewhere like the Lake District and then the rest of the time, we’d go

off to the Bahamas, an…live in a five – star hotel, because I like living in hotels.

KATEGÓRIA 1C

The whole thing started just over a year ago when the residents and shopkeepers of a square in

central Milan, Italy, noticed a small black and white cat. It appeared to be trapped up one of

the large plane-trees which grow all around the square. “So naturally we tried to rescue her,”

said Angelo Verdi, the owner of a local window-cleaning firm. “I got out my special

equipment – ladders and ropes – and went up the tree to rescue her. She seemed quite pleased

to see me and I could pick her up with no trouble. So I carried her down the ladder and put her

gently down. But then the little devil looked me straight in the eye and ran up the tree again.

And since then she has not been on the ground once.”

No-one understands it. The cat, named Chanel by the local residents, doesn’t seem to be

afraid of people or traffic. She just prefers living in her tree. And she never leaves that tree

either, even though the branches of a nearby trees are close enough for her to climb over.

So, the kindly folk of the area decided that the only thing to do is to give in to her preferences

and to make her comfortable in her chosen home. The first essential was food and drink, and

very soon an ingenious lift was built, consisting of a system of ropes and pulleys. By this

means the cat’s daily rations are sent up by one of the residents (they take it in turns), and

Chanel has learned to drink from the tin (water usually, but milk as a special treat) and to eat

her food from it after the drink delivery is over.

Then with the winter coming on, it was decided that she needed a proper shelter. Once more,

Mr. Verdi got out his ladders and climbed up the tree, this time carrying a large wooden box

which he nailed to the cat’s favourite branch, with the opening to one side. Then he added a

flat piece of wood to the front to make a sort of veranda or balcony. The cat approved and

moved in. The next touch was a piece of a woollen blanket, sent up by the lift. Chanel caught

it in her paw and installed it in her new flat.

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Nobody knows why the cat chose to live up in a tree. One theory was that perhaps she was

afraid of other cats, but even this proved false recently as she has been receiving regular visits

from the local male cats. Now the neighbourhood is holding its breath for future happy events.

Will there be a whole family of tree-dwelling cats in the square before long?

KATEGÓRIA 2A

The National Health Service

Do you know what the National Health Service in Britain is? Do you have a similar

system?

Do you think a private health service is as efficient as a state system health provision?

Do you think nations are spending too much money on technical equipment and medical

research, or do you think this is an important part of medicine today?

You are going to listen to a doctor talking about the National Health Service in contrast to

private medical services.

This brings us to the point, that if I came to you suffering from a disease I would get

all the treatment free, because that’s the part of the National Health Service. Can you

explain how private medicine fits into this system? If I were prepared to pay for it, for

example?

“Well, private medicine doesn’t buy you better treatment, what it does buy you, is

convenience. People object to private medicine, because it can cause queue jumping. In other

words, if there are a hundred people who require an operation and you happen to be the

hundredth, you have to wait in turn, that may be quite a long time, if for example you are

waiting to have your hip replaced, if you are prepared to pay, you may jump the queue and

you may go into the first ten, so you buy yourself convenience. That scene is the bad side of

private medicine. The other bad side of the private medicine is where the consultants often

use national health facilities and don’t pay for them.”

These are all the bad sides of the private medicine. But it’s not all bad. It’s easy to

criticize private medicine, but where are the potential advantages?

“Well, there are some patients who require the privacy of say a single room, a case that

comes to mind may be a politician, who may come to the hospital for a minor operation but

requires to keep working while he is there. This would be extremely difficult in a public ward.

78

A single room for him may be in fact very important and one can think of many other people

involved in business, particularly professional people for whom a private room is not just a

matter of convenience but is a way of him still maintaining to work while being in a hospital.

You could say actually, this was being socially used to the community, but rather than being

taken out of his job for set length of time he is still actually managing to work while still in a

hospital. This of course applies mainly to routine operations rather than anything serious.

“I think it’s important to say that no person who is seriously ill is denied treatment

because of private medicine. All people who are seriously ill will be seen immediately and

there is no advantage of being seen immediately as a private patient or as a National Health

Service patient. I think it’s important to get over the concept that if you go privately, your

treatment is not necessarily going to be better. Indeed, if you go privately, for a minor

operation, the consultant who performs it may not perform many minor operations. You

indeed may be better off, if you have the operation done by his juniors, who’s doing it every

day. ”

That also, incidentally, introduces the idea ‘Is private medicine good for doctors?’

“Financially, that’s true, but leaving that aside, it often gives consultants an opportunity to

treat minor illnesses and do minor surgery which they wouldn’t otherwise have an opportunity

to do, because their junior staffs are doing these procedures as part of their training.

“There are always arguments for and against any system. I would dislike any system

which is closed, a purely NHS system, or a purely private system. I think the two can exist

side by side.”

KATEGÓRIA 2B

Well, basically what causes all these problems is electricity – it’s a kind of electrical charge

which we usually call static electricity. You’ve probably done that experiment where you rub

a comb on the sleeve of your pullover and then it can pick up small pieces of paper. Or maybe

felt a shock when you touched a car door.

Martin’s problem is the same kind of thing, but just much more serious. There are some

people who can produce very large electrical charges from their own bodies – in Martin’s case

up to 100,000 volts. Yes, I did say 100,000! Most people who have this problem also suffer

from food allergies – they have problems after eating certain kinds of food – and may be

79

under severe emotional strain, very worried or having problems with their families. In

Martin’s case, for example, his static increased after his mother died.

As far as dealing with the problem goes, yes, there is quite a lot you can do. One useful

thing you can do is to take frequent showers – three or four times a day – and this definitely

helps. You should also try not to wear clothes made of man-made materials, such as nylon,

and avoid stepping on carpets made of the same materials. And always wear shoes with

leather soles. Also the things around you can make a difference, so make sure you have lots of

plants in the house, as, you see, these keep the air humid, which helps to take away the static.

There are also sprays you can use, and there’s an electrical device called an ioniser, which

looks something like an air conditioner. This actually changes the kind of electricity there is

in air. It is when the air is warm and dry that you will have the most problems, if you are like

Martin.

You won’t get over the problem altogether, but you can get away from the kind of situation

Martin was in, where all kinds of electrical equipment, all of which is very sensitive to static

of course, all this equipment was just going crazy whenever he went near it.

KATEGÓRIA 2C

He was lucky enough to live in several countries within a relatively short time, which

helped him to develop an ability to view problems through a local prism and understand how

various societies, cultures, or financial institutions function. Chief Executive Officer, Tomas

Spurny, who over the past year has often been presented as the model of a successful banker.

I : You graduated from the Stern School of Business at New York University and got your

MBA at one of the most prestigious universities in the US, Columbia University. You

probably could have stayed and continued to have a promising career in the USA. What

brought you back to the heart of Europe?

TS: It was a combination of several factors. In 1995, I had already spent 15 years in the

United States and I knew that there were dramatic changes taking place in Europe. I felt

homesick and explored ways of working for a limited time in Europe. My former company,

McKinsey, offered me work on the launching of the company’s European branch. The

80

company had two mandates for Slovakia; one for the former East Slovak Ironwork and one

for the National Bank of Slovakia. Though I did not personally participate on those mandates.

I had an opportunity to move to Europe within my company.

The second reason lay with my family. My parents were already elderly and I wanted to

spend more time with them. I didn’t doubt that one day I would return to the USA. At the time

I took my assignment, I thought that my European sojourn would be a matter of two years, but

it has lasted much longer.

I : Are there any big differences between being a banker in Slovakia and being a banker in

the United States?

TS: The differences are huge and perhaps this interview is not the right forum to discuss

them in detail. But in general, to be a banker in Central Europe is relatively difficult and

perhaps a more risky job than being a banker anywhere else in the so-called “developed”

world. The greatest difficulty I encounter is the lack of effective law enforcement, which

makes the life of a banker harder. It is not only a Slovak problem. The business that bankers

are involved in, which is buying the risk of clients and telling them the trust of the institution,

multiplies the need for an effective system of law enforcement.

I : What have been the most significant events and factors in the shaping of your career?

TS: I left Europe as a very young person. My personality was shaped by a systematic

effort to take care of myself and erase the uncertainty that arises within a young person who

enters the so-called big world without financial backing. And in that “big” world the person

realises that many ideals that he wanted to pursue are beyond reach and that he no longer

chooses objectives by heart but rather by mind.

I studied accounting, maths and taxation, which helped me to erase the language barrier

that would have confined me to a very small probability of success in other areas. These fields

of study brought me to the banking sector and later to consulting firms, where I hoped to gain

a wider perspective.

My love for maths and logic completely shaped my professional and personal view of the

world. I prefer logical and rational things, sometimes makes life more complicated, as most

things are not black and white.

81

KATEGÓRIA 2D

Speaker 1

And then it happened. The rope – I think you call it the painter, don’t you? – well, it suddenly

came away and I was completely adrift. I remember looking towards the weir and thinking,

“I’ll go over there if I’m not careful.” Careful – that’s a joke for a start! What could I possibly

do? I was helpless. Well, I reached the edge – I was terrified, I can tell you! – but didn’t go

over. I just stayed on the brink, broadside on, in the middle of all the swirling foam. And

that’s when I heard the sound of the klaxons. They didn’t send just one boat, there were three

altogether, which excited all the crowds of children and added to my total and utter

embarrassment. They waded out in their welly-type things and pulled me ashore. I did feel a

fool!

Speaker 2

Of course, I can’t complain. It went off just like a fire extinguisher should and it’s my fault I

hadn’t read the instructions. So the foam was all over my face and clothes. And then the

firemen started with their foam, not knowing I was inside the shop. I’m told I looked like a

clown at the end of a circus act. And because I was really the cause of it all, I was hauled

before the manager and given my marching orders, which was harsh but not completely

unfair. So that’s why I’m looking for another job. But anyway, I’ve learned my lesson. There

sometimes can be smoke without fire.

Speaker 3

Well, I was just walking along the pavement minding my own business, when this fellow

working overhead caught the tin with his foot. And just when I thought I’d managed to dodge

the thunderstorm I was drenched with the stuff! I wasn’t just daubed, I wasn’t just splattered, I

was covered in it from head to foot! And it came right through my suit to my skin. So I was

red three times over: red with rage, red with embarrassment and red – a sort of fashionable

shade – with all this sticky mess.

Speaker 4

I’ve never known such a deluge! It was trickling down my neck and filling my pockets and

boots. It was just as though I’d taken a fully clothed dip in the lake. And that’s when I had my

great idea. I found this big sack just lying on the bank. It was full of holes and I pulled it over

82

head. It was just as good as some of the latest fashions from Paris. Isn’t there such a thing as a

sack dress? It was still coming down like a waterfall but I found a laundrette, went inside and

managed to get my clothes off from underneath the sack. So I sat there like a load of potatoes

and watched my clothes tumbling round and round inside the machine. I could have done with

a bit of tumble drying myself. But at least I was under cover at last.

Speaker 5

It went all over me – I’m not joking. It wasn’t just a case of being caught red handed, I was

fluorescent red from head to toe. I’ve never been so embarrassed in all my life. Do you know,

they had to close the shop and throw half the stock away; the red was everywhere! Of course

the briefcase people will pay for the damage. All I was doing was carrying it, minding my

own business and doing my shopping so there was no reason at all for the security canister to

go off like a fire extinguisher. In fact it was more like a bomb it was all so sudden and quick.

KATEGÓRIA 2E

SUCCESS STORY

Yesterday afternoon Frank Hawkins was telling me about his experiences as a young man.

Frank is now the head of a very large business company, but as a boy he used to work in a

small shop. It was his job to repair bicycles and at that time he used to work fourteen hours a

day. He saved money for years and in 1938 he bought a small workshop of his own.

During the war, Frank used to make spare parts for aeroplanes. At that time he had two

helpers. By the end of the war, the small workshop had become a large factory which

employed seven hundred and twenty eight people.

Frank smiled when he remembered his hard early years and the long road to success. He

was still smiling when the door opened and his wife came in. She wanted him to repair their

son’s bicycle.

83

K�Ú� SPRÁVNYCH ODPOVEDÍ

KATEGÓRIA 1A

GRAMMAR (15 pts) VOCABULARY (10 pts) I. I. 1. (a) trained (b) guide 1. D 2. (a) teaches (b) instructs (c) taught 2. E 3. guided 3. F 4. (a) provide (b) served 4. G II . 5. C 5. nobody 6. A 6. some 7. B 7. any II. (NOTE: in any order – III . half a point for each) 8. but ASHTRAY SEAGULL 9. if SEESAW SCARECROW 10. and SEAWEED SHIPYARD 11. because READING (10 pts) LISTENING (5 pts) I . II. 1. true 1. E 7. yes 2. true 2. C 8. no 3. false 3. F 9. B 4. false 4. A 10. C 5. C 5. D 6. B

KATEGÓRIA 1B

GRAMMAR (15 pts) VOCABULARY (10 pts) I. I. (NOTE: half a point each) 1. to enjoy 1. run 2. have forbidden/forbid 2. break 3. to send 3. earn 4. to improve 4. fall 5. have introduced 5. lead 6. have set up 6. keep 7. are packed 7. pay 8. to smoke 8. set 9. is already filled II . 10. remains 9. suitable II . 10. daily 11. ... played the guitar for 5 years. 11. length 12. ... warm enough for me to go swimming. III . 13. ... were blown down last night. 12. disinformation 14. ... must be watered at least once a week. 13. illogical 15. ... televisions the cheapest? 14. immoral ... the cheapest televisions you have?

84

READING (10 pts) LISTENING (5 pts) I. II . 1. F 1. F 7. run 2. T 2. T 8. sounds 3. T 3. F 9. find 4. F 4. F 10. take 5. F 5. T 6. F

KATEGÓRIA 1C

GRAMMAR (15 pts) I. II. 1. have been 11. has to be painted 2. seeing 12. can be eaten directly 3. had been working 13. seeing that 4. to get up 14. will have to be cancelled 5. told 15. allowed to leave school or permitted 6. (to) stay to leave school 7. didn’t make 8. am going (to go) 9. breathe 10. am looking

VOCABULARY (10 pts) PROGRESSIVE TEST 1. C 6. C Half a point for each correct answer 2. C 7. D (spelling counts!) 3. D 8. B 4. D 9. A 5. B 10. D READING (10 pts) LISTENING (5 pts) I. II. 1. one year (or a year) 1. C 7. F 2. window cleaning (or cleaning 2. F 8. T windows) 3. A 9. F 3. ropes / pulleys (NOTE: no half points! 4. G 10. F Both must be correct.) 5. E 4. wooden box 6. B 5. woolen (or wool) blanket

KATEGÓRIA 2A

GRAMMAR (15 pts) VOCABULARY (10 pts) I. I. 1. had been driving 1. D 2. had not been working/wasn’t working 2. C 3 couldn’t 3. A 4. had been stopping 4. B 5. started 5. A

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II. II. 6. be 6. GRATEFUL 7. being, aren’t 7. REPUTATION 8. to be 8. EYEBROW 9. being 9. STAGE 10. don’t be 10. TOOLS III. 11. Am I allowed to/Can I 12. can 13. can’t/mustn’t/aren’t allowed to 14. mustn’t/can’t/aren’t allowed to 15. will be allowed to/can READING (10 pts) LISTENING (5 pts) Part A Part B 1. C 1. D 6. A 2. D 2. B 7. B 3. A 3. A 8. A 4. A 4. B 9. D 5. B 5. A 10. B

KATEGÓRIA 2B GRAMMAR (15 pts) I. II. 1. I think you would benefit from a change. 7. has been redecorated 2. Our MP demanded that there should be a 8. has been given a grant, is now being police investigation. sought 3. There was nobody there who had heard of 9. has been received/is received, will be Miss Richardson. processed 4. I have to get my passport renewed. 10. had been imprisoned, were released 5. Have you heard anything about the missing 11. is spoken, is gradually being jewels? overtaken 6. You must be Peter’s brother. VOCABULARY (10 pts) READING (10 pts) I. I. 1. B 1. E 2. A 2. B 3. C 3. F II. 4. A 4. (s)wallow 5. D 5. (c)overs 6. C 6. (h)atched II. III. 7. infidelity 7. inaccuracies 8. giggles or giggle 8. cancellation 9. belittle 9. troublesome 10. unruly 10. unconvincing

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LISTENING (5 pts) (Note: ½ pt for correct answer, ½ pt for correct spelling) 1. static 2. comb 3./4. food allergies 5. emotional 6./7. frequent showers 8. leather 9./10. air conditioner

KATEGÓRIA 2C GRAMMAR (15 pts) I. II. 1. is finished 11. had she departed than things 2. is divided improved 3. being 12. applicants attend the course, they 4. luxuriating will not be considered for the job 5. was struck 13. needed to have two teeth pulled 6. sloping or necessary to have two teeth pulled 7. has been invested/ have been investing 14. rumoured to be about to reduce its 8. was performing workforce 9. catering 15. are believed to be hiding in a 10. attracted mountain cave VOCABULARY (10 pts) PROGRESSIVE TEST 1. diagnostic Half a point for each correct answer 2. numerous (spelling counts!) 3. beautifying 4. Scottish 5. hairdressers/hairdressing 6. addition 7. sailing 8. wonderful 9. wooded 10. cultural READING (10 pts) LISTENING (5 pts) 1. B 1. New York University 2. C 2. Columbia University 3. C 3. 1980 4. D 4. law 5. D 5. enforcement 6. A 6. ideals 7. A 7. objectives 8. A 8. accounting 9. D 9./10. logical, rational 10. B

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KATEGÓRIA 2D GRAMMAR (15 pts) I. III. 1. no 9. she couldn’t / could not remember a 2. yes funnier show. 3. yes 10. i’d / would love the film (or we) 4. no 11. how i had heard about it (or we) II. 12. if I had worked before 5. C 13. to sign the form 6. D 14. he wouldn’t / would not be at the next 7. B meeting 8. D 15. to stop running VOCABULARY (10 pts) I. II. 1. literate 7. sprawling 2. immoral 8. derelict 3. educational 9. appalling 4. exploration 10. run-down 5. specially/especially 6. wooden READING (10 pts) LISTENING (5 pts) I. II. 1. B 1. T 7. Trerice 2. A 2. T 8. Antony 3. D 3. F 9. Lydford Gorge 4. C 4. T 10. Antony 5. E 5. F 6. F

KATEGÓRIA 2E GRAMMAR (15 pts) VOCABULARY (10 pts) I. I. 1. D 5. A 1. C 2. C 6. B 2. A 3. A 7. C 3. B 4. C 8. D 4. D II . 5. B 9. am studying II. 10. share 6. unusual 11. was 7. flight 12. to come 8. departure 13. wasn’t 9. armed 14. was taken 10. able 15. was waiting

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READING (10 pts) LISTENING (5 pts) 1. F / A 1. B 2. T / B 2. A 3. T / A 3. C 4. T / B or D 4. A 5. F / C 5. B 6. T / B 7. T / C 8. T / A 9. T / B 10. F/ A Použitá literatúra BÉREŠOVÁ, J. 2005. Test vo výučbe anglického jazyka. Bratislava : Metodicko-

pedagogické centrum, Tomášikova, 2005. 112 s. ISBN 80-8052-220-0 Dostupná tlač, webové stránky a doplnkové materiály.

jana bérešová a kol. pre stranku/oaj...jana bérešová a kol. olympiÁda v anglickom jazyku...

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