istqb-tmq

7/22/2019 ISTQB-TMQ

1/59

A) Important Facts you must know:

1) ISTQB offers three types of certifications under the generic name CTAL (Certified Tester Advanced

Level); i.e.

a) Advanced Level Test ManagerShort NameCTAL TM

b) Advanced Level Test AnalystShort NameCTAL TA

c) Advanced Level Technical Test AnalystShort NameCTAL TTA

2) ISTQB Certified Tester Advanced Level Syllabus had been updated in 2007. Following quick start tips

are based upon this latest syllabus.

3) ISTQB Advanced Level exam is intended to check your knowledge of the entire discipline of software

testing covered in the Advanced Level Syllabus as well as the Foundation level syllabus.

4) The ISTQB Certified Tester Advanced Level Syllabus V2007 is freely available for downloadfromAdvanced Level Syllabus

B) K-Levels related to topics in the Advanced Level Test Manager Exam Syllabus:

Every topic in the Advanced Level Syllabus corresponds to certain level of understanding, represented by

the term K1, K2, K3 or K4 like in Foundation Level Syllabus.

1) Level K1 refers to the ability to recall, so that you should be able to remember but not necessarily use

or explain.

2) Level K2 refers to the ability to explain a topic or to classify information or make comparisons.

3) Level K3 refers to the ability to apply a topic in a practical scenario.

4) Level K4 refers to the ability to analyze a situation or a set of information to determine what action to

take.

5) In Test Managers Exam all parts of the advanced level syllabus are examinable at a K1 level as well.

C) K-Levels & associated levels of difficulty:

1)K1, K2, K3 and K4 levels do not reflect on being easy, moderate or hard. The K level identifies the

level of understanding being tested, not the difficulty of the question.

2) It is possible that K2 questions might be more difficult (in the sense of being more challenging to

answer) than a K3 question.
http://istqb.org/downloads/syllabi/advanced-level-syllabus.htmlhttp://istqb.org/downloads/syllabi/advanced-level-syllabus.htmlhttp://istqb.org/downloads/syllabi/advanced-level-syllabus.html

7/22/2019 ISTQB-TMQ

2/59

3) Generally K1 questions will be the most straightforward and if you are aware of the content of the

syllabus, you wont have difficulty in answering any K1 question.

D) Breakup of Questions in the CTAL Test Manager Exam:

1) Three-hours (180 Minutes) exams comprises of 65 multiple-choice questions.

2) The questions can carry different weightage like 1, 2 or 3 points.

3) Passing marks are 65%. There are no negative marking for the wrong answers.

4) The exam is highly structured & is primarily based upon the syllabus and is aimed at checking the

practical knowledge of the aspirant.

5) The questions are aimed at applying the concept described in the syllabus to the actual work place

situations.

6) Before appearing in the CTAL Test Manager Level Exam, it is essential to brush up your knowledge on

Foundation Level Syllabus, since you are likely to get many questions out of the CTFL syllabus you have

already studied & passed the exam.

E) Main Sections of Syllabus applicable to the CTAL Test Managers Level exam:

The following nine sections of the syllabus shall be applicable for Test Managers Exam.

Time you are expected to devote towards each section is indicated alongwith an approximate

%age of the study time required for the entire content as per the syllabus.

1) Introduction to CTAL Test Manager Syllabus (Including revision of ISTQB Foundation Level syllabus)

(Recommended Study Time60 Minutes); 3% of total time

2) CTAL Syllabus Chapter 1: Basic Aspects of software testing;


3) CTAL Syllabus Chapter 2: Testing Processes;


4) CTAL Syllabus Chapter 3: Test Management;


5) CTAL Syllabus Chapter 6: Reviews;


7/22/2019 ISTQB-TMQ

3/59

6) CTAL Syllabus Chapter 7: Incident Management;


7) CTAL Syllabus Chapter 8: Standards & Test Improvement Process;


8) CTAL Syllabus Chapter 9: Test Tool Automation;


9) CTAL Syllabus Chapter 10: People Skills Team Composition;


Above recommendations of study times are approximate, however the exam questions are by & large

structured as per these & are quite close to these proportions as far as possible. More the time you

devote towards the study of these topics, better understanding & confidence to crack the exam you will

develop.

Note:CTAL Syllabus Chapter 4 on "Test Techniques" & Chapter 5 on "Test of Software Characteristics"

are not applicable for the Test Manager Level exam.

F) Tips for better performance in the exam:

1) Read the syllabus carefully & you should be quite familiar with it. Generally the questions come directly

from the syllabus and usually even the wording too is similar to that used in the syllabus.

2) Solve as many example questions as you can so that you become familiar with the wording of

questions as well as types of questions.

3) Although It is a long duration exam, still you will feel that it is difficult to study the entire paper in depth.

Hence to begin with, study the entire paper answering those questions that are straightforward and for

which you know the answer.

After finishing this simple task you will have a smaller task to complete and you will probably have taken

less than a minute for each question that you have already answered, giving you more time to

concentrate on those that you will need more time to answer.

4) If you have prepared well, you can answer 65 questions in less than 100 minutes.

G) How to prepare for the CTAL Test Managers Exam in the shortest possible time & without any

formal training:

Step 1:Deep study of the chapters applicable to the latest CTAL Test Managers Syllabus.

7/22/2019 ISTQB-TMQ

4/59

Step2:Study the Objective Type Questions especially prepared as per the latest CTAL Test Managers

Syllabus.

Begin from the First Set of Sample Question Papers

Step3:Prepare from set of 120 descriptive questions (Set of 12 Parts) explaining the topics in greater

depth.

Begin from the First Set of Descriptive Question Answers

Step4:Prepare from the series of articles especially written to address different topics of the CTAL Test

Managers exam.

Access the Full Menu of Descriptive Articles

H) Abilities you will acquire after clearing the CTAL Test Managers exam:

Certification of CTAL Test Managers implies that you have acquired following abilities:

1) Ability todefine the overall testing goals and strategy for the systems being tested2) Ability toplan, schedule and track the tasks3) Ability todescribe and organize the necessary activities4) Ability toselect, acquire and assign the adequate resources to the tasks5) Ability toselect, organize and lead the testing teams6) Ability toorganize the communication between the members of the testing teams, and between thetesting teams and all the other stakeholders

7) Ability tojustify the decisions and provide adequate reporting information where applicable

Q. 1: What is domain knowledge?

A. Understanding the business problem the system solves

B. Understanding the technology that underlies the system.
http://www.softwaretestinggenius.com/istqb-advanced-level-test-manager-certification-exam-sample-paper-q-1-to-10http://www.softwaretestinggenius.com/istqb-advanced-level-test-manager-certification-exam-sample-paper-q-1-to-10http://www.softwaretestinggenius.com/istqb-advanced-test-manager-exam-preparation-part-1http://www.softwaretestinggenius.com/istqb-advanced-test-manager-exam-preparation-part-1http://www.softwaretestinggenius.com/categoryDetail.php?catId=165http://www.softwaretestinggenius.com/categoryDetail.php?catId=165http://www.softwaretestinggenius.com/categoryDetail.php?catId=165http://www.softwaretestinggenius.com/istqb-advanced-test-manager-exam-preparation-part-1http://www.softwaretestinggenius.com/istqb-advanced-level-test-manager-certification-exam-sample-paper-q-1-to-10

7/22/2019 ISTQB-TMQ

5/59

C. Understanding the essential of software testing

D. Understanding organizational politics

>

Q. 2: Which of the following statements captures the difference between static and dynamic

analysis?

A. In static analysis, the system under test is running; in dynamic analysis it is not

B. In dynamic analysis, the system under test is running; in static analysis it is not

C. Dynamic analysis is effective a building confidence in the system, static analysis is not

D. Static analysis is effective a building confidence in the system, dynamic analysis is not

>

Q. 3: Which of the following gives the Deming improvement cycle, in the correct order?

A. Plan Check Do Act

B. Plan Do Check Act

C. Plan Experiment Evaluate Revise

D. Plan Experiment Revise Evaluate

>

Q. 4: Which of the following entities is best situated to prioritize incidents for action?

A. Tester

B. Developer

C. Business analyst

D. Triage meeting

>

Q. 5: Which of the following statements is true?

A. The ISO/IEC 61508 standard does not address coverage

B. The ISO/IEC 61508 standard implies structural coverage

C. The ISO/ IEC 61508 standard requires 100% structural, requirements, and risk coverage

7/22/2019 ISTQB-TMQ

6/59

D. The ISO/ EEC 61508 standard requires structural coverage but only during unit testing

>

Q. 6: In a review, who is the moderator?

A. The main person responsible for the review

B. Any person who performs an independent evaluation to ascertain compliance

C. The person who identifies and describes anomalies

D. The person who records each defect mentioned

>

Q. 7: How does the Advanced syllabus group test tools?

A. For testers or for developersB. By test tasks

C. By user role

D. By cost

>

Q. 8: In an IEEE 829-compliant test documentation regime, which of the following is an IEEE 829

document that describes variances between the test plan and what actually happened during a

test execution period?

A. Test log

B. Incident report

C. Test summary report

D. Test item transmittal report

>

Q. 9: IEEE 10440-1993 specifies a standard for defect reporting. Which of the following attributes

should be in a defect report as per ISTQB Syllabus?

A. Complete, concise, accurate and objective report.B. Compete and accurate. Does not have to be concise or objective.

C. Complete and objective. Does not have to be accurate.

D. Accurate. Does not have to be complete, concise or objective.

>

Q. 10: Which of the following is NOT associated with tester motivation?

7/22/2019 ISTQB-TMQ

7/59

A. Recognition

B. Management approval

C. Adequate rewards

D. Pairwise testing

Q. 11: What is a project risk?

A. A risk directly related to the test object

B. The possibility of a negative or undesirable outcome

C. The identification, analysis, prioritization, and control of risk

D. A risk related to management and control of the project

>

Q. 12: Which of the following puts the levels of TMM in the proper order?

A. Initial, Definition, Integration, Management and Measurement, Optimization

B. Initial, Integration, Definition, Management and Measurement, Optimization

C. Initial, Integration, Definition, Optimization, Management and Measurement

D. Initial, Definition, Integration, Optimization, Management and Measure; rent

>

Q. 13: What is test planning?

A. The activity of establishing or updating the principles, approach, and major objectives of the

organization regarding testing

B. The activity of establishing or updating the scope, approach, resources and schedule of intended test

activities

C. The activity of establishing or updating objectives, inputs, test actions, expected results, and execution

preconditions

D. The activity of establishing or updating the method used to perform the actual test execution, either

manual or automated

>

Q. 14: What is wide band Delphi?

7/22/2019 ISTQB-TMQ

8/59

A. An expert based test estimation technique that uses the collective wisdom of the team members.

B. Testing based on an analysis of the internal structure of the component or system.

C. A framework to describe the software development life cycle activities from requirements specification

to maintenance.

D. The tracing of requirements through the layers of development documentation to components.

>


A. The Critical Testing Processes model works only for organizations using the V-model software

lifecycles

B. The Critical Testing Processes model works only for organizations using the agile software lifecycles

C. The Critical Testing Processes model works only for organizations using evolutionary software

lifecycles

D. The Critical Testing Processes model works for organizations using any software lifecycles

>

Q. 16: Which of the following is the best description of a clientserver application?

A. The application makes use of a web front end.

B. There is at least one computer that provides information to other computers.

C. There is one computer that provides information to dumb terminals.

D. The application(s) run on a single computer.

>

Q. 17: Which of the following best describes a difference between a sequential development

model and an iterative one?

A. A sequential development model will always take longer than an iterative model, for a similar sized

project.

7/22/2019 ISTQB-TMQ

9/59

B. A sequential development model guarantees that the customer will like the product, while the iterative

model does not.

C. A sequential development model involves the users in testing mostly at the end of development, while

the iterative model concentrates on the user perspective throughout development.

D. A sequential development model requires significant regression testing, while an iterative model does

not.

>

Q. 18: Which of the following are included in test plans?

I. A schedule of events.

II. The set of test cases to be run.

III. The roles and responsibilities of stakeholders.IV. The test data.

V. The test results and incidents raised.

A. I and II

B. II and III

C. II, IV and V

D. I and III

>

Q. 19: Which of the following would be an appropriate entry criterion from system testing into

acceptance testing?

A. 100 per cent functional specification coverage.

B. 100 per cent business requirements coverage.

C. 100 per cent statement coverage.

D. 100 per cent path coverage.

>

Q. 20: Which of the following would give the best measure of progress against product quality?

A. The number of tests run against those planned.

B. The turnaround time for defects.

C. The number of high priority defects outstanding.

D. The time taken to run each test.

7/22/2019 ISTQB-TMQ

10/59

Q. 21: In which order should the following test management documentation be created?

I. Project test plan

II. Test strategy

III. Test policy

IV. Level test plan

A. I, II, III, IV

B. II, I, III, IV

C. III, II, I, IV

D. I, IV, III, II

>

Q. 22: Which of the following is a test policy statement?

A. ToolX within the Eff icient tool set will be required for this project.

B. Projects across the company will make use of the Efficient toolset.

C. Training will be required in ToolX for staff on this project.

D. ToolX will be required for a period of one month.

>

Q. 23: Which of the following could form part of the entry criteria into system testing?

I. 100 per cent decision coverage of all tariff calculations.

II. 100 per cent functional specification coverage of all household types.

III. Outstanding defects at integration testing highlighted.

IV. Test summary report for system testing produced.

V. Business requirements signed off.

A. I, II and III

B. II, III, and IV

C. I and III

D. I, III and IV

>

7/22/2019 ISTQB-TMQ

11/59

Q. 24: Which of the following would form part of the entry criteria into unit testing (which will be

followed by integration testing)?

I. 100 per cent decision coverage of all tariff calculations.

II. Signed-off program specification.

III. Signed-off technical specification.

IV. 100 per cent program specification coverage.

V. Compiled code.

A. I, III and V

B. II and V

C. I, II and III

D. III, IV and V

>

Q. 25: A major bank has recently outsourced all of its software development in an effort to reduce

its fixed costs. The new supplier will be responsible for all new developments as well as

enhancements to existing ones.

The bank has retained its own management team for its projects. There will be an in-house project

manager, development manager and test manager for each project. Some staff may work on more

than one project, depending on the overall size.

An enhancement is being made to allow existing customers to authorise their own loans online,

from 1k to 10k by answering a series of questions.

Which of the following best describes the usefulness of a test policy in this scenario?

A. The test policy will ensure that all members from both sets of teams understand what their roles and

responsibilities are.

B. The test policy will identify the risks of each project, and ensure that all staff knows how to deal with

them.

C. The test policy will ensure that all team members understand what is required by the bank to create

high quality products.

D. The test policy will remind staff of the usefulness of using their own knowledge to conduct testing.

>

Q. 26: The aircrew of a national air defence force has requested changes to the existing aviation

7/22/2019 ISTQB-TMQ

12/59

software that provides on-board information about the combat environment. The air force is

currently engaged in a peace-keeping mission in another country and has come under

unexpected threats.

The development life cycle is the V model. The software house needs to change their test

management process to ensure delivery at the right time and quality.

The software changes are coming in as the aircrew request them, as a result of their engagements

with hostile forces.

The aircrew have requested that the changes are made as quickly as possible. The project

manager has decided to revisit the test management process. The changes will come as small

change requests. The team have worked on the project for over 25 years, with little staff turnover.

The project manager has asked for your advice on test estimation. Which of the following would

you recommend?

A. Conduct a test point analysis on each change request definition.

B. Analyse data from previous projects to find changes similar to each change request, and use this to

estimate the time required.

C. Ask the developers how long the change will take to implement and allocate 50 per cent of this to

testing.

D. Ask the tester who will be doing the testing for a best guess.

>

Q. 27: Which of the following is most likely to be found in a review of a functional specification?

A. Undefined boundary values

B. Unreachable code

C. A failure in the system

D. A memory leak

>

Q. 28: Which of the following has learning as one of its main purposes?

A. Walkthrough

B. Informal review

C. Technical review

D. Inspection

7/22/2019 ISTQB-TMQ

13/59

>

Q. 29: Which of the following always makes use of entry and exit criteria?

A. Walkthrough

B. Informal review

C. Technical review

D. Inspection

>

Q. 30: A new system is being created. A form of iterative development, Agile development, is

being used. The requirements capture process is typical of iterative development projects in that

limited requirements are available. The functionality for the first iteration has been sketched out,

but there is a real need for a quality system to be delivered, in good time.

Which of the following would provide the best reasoning for using walkthroughs on the first set of

requirements?

A. They will ensure that managers understand what will be delivered for each iteration, so they can

provide contingency.

B. Given the interest in quality, the requirements can be reviewed in detail, to ensure that the developers

understand what is required.

C. Lessons can be learnt from the first iteration, which should help to improve on performance for

subsequent iterations.

D. They will enable a wide range of stakeholders to understand what will be built and tested for the first

iteration.

Q. 31: It is unusual to find the full inspection process being followed routinely in iterative

development projects they are usually too costly in time and money.

Which part of the inspection process could we make use of here, to best effect?

A. Train the moderators for the technical reviews so that they can manage the process better.

B. Inspect the requirements for every other iteration to improve overall quality of the system.

C. Collect metrics at the end of each iteration on defects being found by severity and priority, and use this

to plan for the next iteration.

7/22/2019 ISTQB-TMQ

14/59

D. Include the managers in the reviews so that they can appreciate the costs involved better and provide

more contingency for things going wrong.

>

Q. 32: A major supermarket is upgrading its online store in response to recent changes in

consumer spending. It has reduced its premium products range by offering less organic meat

and vegetables and less exotic fruit and vegetables. It has increased its friendly product range

by increasing its locally sourced produce, and its fair-trade range by including more products

from overseas where growers are assured a fair price for their products.

The front-end design is changing to allow customers to select their shopper preferences, which

are:

# environmentally friendly;

# family friendly;

# fair to all.

Customers will then be offered products falling into each of these categories.

The changes to the front end are considered to be simple, when compared with the changes

required to the back end, to provide each customer group with the correct product choices.

The development life cycle is Agile development. One of the developers has begun creating a

high-level design to help clarify the product categories.

He has decided to hold a review of the high-level design.

Which one of the following review types would be suitable for the high-level design, for the

reasoning given?

A. A walkthrough of the design, so that those building the front end can understand how their software will

interact with the back end.

B. A technical review of the design so that each product category can be tightly defined before thefunctionality is built.

C. An inspection of the design to see if it can be easily reused for later iterations.

D. A management review of the design to ensure that it will be fit for purpose.

>

7/22/2019 ISTQB-TMQ

15/59

Q. 33: Which of the following is NOT a challenge with outsourcing?

A. Cultural differences

B. Quality

C. Employee turnover

D. Low cost

>


A. You can use CMMi's continuous representation to concentrate improvement efforts on your own

primary areas of need

B. You can use CMMi's staged representation to concentrate its improvement efforts on your own primary

areas of need

C. You cannot use CMMi's uses a staged representation to measure your organization's level of maturity

D. You cannot use CMMi's uses a continuous representation to improve your organization's level of

maturity

>

Q. 35: Which of the following is a typical characteristic of testing for a safety critical system

project?

A. Traceability of test results to regulations

B. Delivery date met through extensive bug deferral

C. Project insurance used to reduce the need for testing

D. Low complexity of the system

>

Q. 36: Which of the following test progress monitoring metrics derives entirely from incident

tracking?

A. Percentage of test cases prepared

B. Percentage of test cases passed and failed

C. Confidence in the product

D. Failure rate

>

7/22/2019 ISTQB-TMQ

16/59

Q. 37: Which of the following is an activity in the ISTQB fundamental test process?

A. Analysis and design

B. Plan, prepare, perform, and perfect

C. Moment of involvement

D. Bug clustering

>

Q. 38: Which of the following statements captures a key difference between preventive and

reactive test strategies?

A. Test analysts are involved earlier in the lifecycle with preventive strategies

B. Test analysts are involved earlier in the lifecycle with reactive strategies

C. Test analysts invest more time in coverage analysis with reactive strategies

D. Test analysts invest more time in exploratory testing with preventive strategies

>

Q. 39: Assume you are testing a banking application. You plan to use production data for testing.

The production data includes personal information classified as private and confidential by the

laws governing the organization.

Which of the following tasks might be part of test implementation?

A. Identifying security-related quality risks

B. Writing a privacy test plan

C. Anonymizing test data

D. Surveying beta testers

>

Q. 40: A Software Company hired a new test manager to manage their testing department. There

are 20 testers in the department and 3 of them are located in a different city than the rest of theteam. Test team is expected to receive a new build next week for qualification. The project has

high visibility from upper management and it is very important for the test manager to complete

the qualification on-time. Three (3) new servers were ordered previously to setup the test

environment for this new project. There are only 3 days left to begin testing and environment

management (EM) team says they are busy with another project at the moment and setup will not

be done until next week. If the network is not setup, testing will be impacted.

7/22/2019 ISTQB-TMQ

17/59

What is your advice to the new test manager?

A. Have a meeting with EM Manager and Project Manager and explain the situation and the project risk if

servers are not setup in 3 days. Let the project manager make a decision.

B. Wait till EM team is done with their project.

C. Request testers to do the testing on old systems even though they do not have correct pre-requisite

software.

D. Hire two additional testers to complete the project on-time.

Q. 41: Which of the following is a non-functional quality subcharacteristic according to the ISO

9126 standard?

A. AccuracyB. Suitability

C. Security

D. Response time

>

Q. 42: According to the 1STQB Advanced Syllabus, which of the following is a black-box test

design technique?

A. Boundary value analysis

B. Exploratory testing

C. Statement coverage

D. Dynamic analysis

>

Q. 43: Assume that the failure of a particular on-hoard computer software application on an

airplane can cause a catastrophic failure of the airplane itself. Which level of code coverage is

required under DO-178B standard?

A. NoneB. Statement

C. Decision and statement

D. Modified condition / decision, decision, and statement

>

7/22/2019 ISTQB-TMQ

18/59

Q. 44: Which of the following statements are true about risks of introducing test automation

tools?

I. Poorly designed test cases automated "as is" results in execution errors.

II. Reduce defect detection due to limited manual testing by a tester.

III. Too many dependencies to integrate test tools and test tool limitations.

IV. Unrealistic expectations from management.

A. I, III true

B. II, IV true

C. All of them are true

D. None of them are true

>

Q. 45: Which of the following ways of monitoring test progress is usually measured subjectively?

A. Remaining level of quality risk

B. Coverage of the test basis

C. Confidence in product quality

D. Defect discovery and resolution

>

Q. 46: For software that, if it were to fail, could cause an airplane to explode during take-off, flight,

or landing, what is the level of code coverage required during testing?

A. Modified Condition/ Decision, Decision, and Statement

B. Decision and statement

C. Statement coverage

D. None

>


A. Failure mode and effect analysis is always quantitative risk analysis.

B. Failure mode and effect analysis can identify propagated errors easily.

7/22/2019 ISTQB-TMQ

19/59

C. Failure mode and effect analysis is the preferred form of quality risk analysis on schedule-driven

projects.

D. Failure mode and effect analysis can focus testing efforts but the documentation effort tends to be very

large.

>

Q. 48: What is accuracy testing?

A. Testing with respect to user needs, requirements, and business processes conducted to determine

whether a system satisfies the acceptance criteria.

B. Simulated or actual operational testing by potential users, customers, or an iTidependent test team at

the developers' site, but outside the development organization.

C. Testing to determine the capability of the software product to provide the right or agreed results or

effects with the needed degree of precision.

D. Testing to determine the ease by which users with disabilities

>

Q. 49: Which of the following is the most independent approach to testing?

A. Developer self-testing

B. Outsource testing

C. User testing

D. Pair programming

>

Q. 50: What is an incident?

A. Any condition that deviates from expectation

B. A flaw in a component or system

C. Any event occurring that requires investigationD. A human action that produces an incorrect result

Q. 51: System test closure activities occur;

I. After system exit criteria are met.

II. After acceptance testing is over.

7/22/2019 ISTQB-TMQ

20/59

III. After all project activities are finished.

IV. After the execution of all test cases.

A. I, II and IV are true

B. II and IV are true

C. I, II, III are true

D. All of them are true

>

Q. 52: Which of the following is a typical method of testing progress?

A. Percentage of units coded

B. Percentage defect breakdown by severity

C. Percentage of test cases run and passed

D. Percentage defect breakdown by priority

>

Q. 53: Which of the following is a way to build the team knowledge and increase flexibility?

A. Bonuses

B. Cross-training

C. Employee ranking

D. Selective firing

>

Q. 54: Which of the statements are correct?

I. There are two types of process improvement models as per the ISTQB Syllabus; Process

reference model and content reference model.

II. Evaluation of an organization within the framework is called process reference model.

III. Software development and software testing processes can be improved using process

improvement models.

IV. "Define and Redefine" is one of the steps that can be adopted during "process improvement"

process.

A. I, II, III true

B. II, III false

7/22/2019 ISTQB-TMQ

21/59

C. All of them are true

D. All of them are false

>

Q. 55: What is a defect taxonomy?

A. A system of hierarchical categories designed to be a useful aid for reproducibly classifying defects

B. A tool that facilitates the recording and status tracking of defects and changes

C. A document reporting on any flaw in a system that can cause the system to fail to perform its required

function

D. The number of defects found by a test phase divided by the number of defects that were present

during that phase

>

Q. 56: In an organization following an IEEE 829 test documentation standard, which of the

following documents would you expect to receive immediately prior to beginning test execution?

A. Test plan

B. Test item transmittal report

C. Test procedure specification

D. Test summary report

>

Q. 57: Which of the following captures a key difference between STEP, TMMi, TPI and CTP?

A. CTP and STEP provide prescriptive roadmaps while TMMi and TPI provide means to assess

improvement benefits

B. TPI and STEP provide prescriptive roadmaps while TMMi and CTP provide means to assess


C. TPI and TMMi provide prescriptive roadmaps while STEP and CTP provide means to assess


D. TMMi and STEP provide prescriptive roadmaps while TPI and CTP provide means to assess


>

7/22/2019 ISTQB-TMQ

22/59

Q. 58: When selecting/hiring team members to an existing team, team dynamics must be

considered. Which of the following should be considered when selecting staff to a team?

I. Consider mix of technical skills and personality

II. Each person should have a defined role

III. Cross-training within teams

IV. Knowledge of software lifecycle

A. I, II and III true

B. I, II true

C. IV true

D. All of the above

>

Q. 59: Which of the following is part of a test case according to the IEEE 829 standard?

A. Exit criteria

B. Output specifications

C. Feature pass/fail criteria

D. Risks and contingencies

>

Q. 60: According to the ISO 9126 standard, which of the following statements is true about the

security of a system?

A. Security is a functional sub characteristic

B. Security is a non-functional sub characteristic

C. Security is an efficiency sub characteristic

D. Security is not addressed in the ISO 9126 standard

Q. 61: What is TMM?

A. A five level staged framework for test process improvement

B. A continuous framework for test process improvement

C. A framework for effective product developmentD. A measure of the size of the functionality

>

Q. 62: Which of the following statements are true?

I. Test automation tools can be used only for one project.

7/22/2019 ISTQB-TMQ

23/59

II. To avoid human data comparison mistakes, test data comparison tool can be used.

III. A company can utilize multiple test tools to efficiently perform their test activities.

IV. Purchasing suite of test tools from the same vendor guarantees that the tools will work

together.

A. II, III true. I,IV false

B. I, II true. III,IV false

C. II, III, IV true. I false

D. I, II, IV true. III false

>

Q. 63: Which of the following is an IEEE 829 template that contains a section entitled "Features

Not to Be Tested"?

A. Test plan

B. Test item transmittal report

C. Test design specification

D. Test policy

>

Q. 64: Select the correct statements about safety critical systems;

I. Risk management reduces the likelihood and / or impact of a risk.

II. Failure Mode and Effect Analysis (FMEA) technique is used mainly for safety critical systems.

III. All safety critical systems are subject to sector specific regulations only.

IV. Full traceability from requirements to evidence is required in some safety critical systems.

A. I, II, IV true, III false

B. II, III, IV true, I false

C. I, IV true, II, III falseD. All of the above true

>

Q. 65: Which of the following is a cost of quality that accounts for a portion of the testing budget?

7/22/2019 ISTQB-TMQ

24/59

A. External failure

B. Internal failure

C. Probe effect

D. Project risk

>

Q. 66: Which of the following can be a task in the test closure activities?

A. Writing a test summary report

B. Writing an incident report

C. Writing a test plan

D. Writing a test log

>

Q. 67: Which of the following is a test design technique covered in BS 7925/2 that can be

converted into a decision table?

A. Boundary value analysis

B. State transition diagram

C. Cause-effect graph

D. Statement coverage

>

Q. 68: Which of the following lists the steps in the IEEE 1044 lifecycle in proper order?

A. Recognition, Action, Investigation, Disposition

B. Recognition, Investigation, Action, Disposition

C. Discovery, Action, Investigation, Resolution

D. Discovery, Investigation, Action, Resolution

>

Q. 69: Select the correct statement regarding test planning and control

A. Test controlling is a one-time activity that will occur at the beginning of the test effort.

B. Test planning includes identifying test activities and resources required for the test effort.

C. Complex relationships (many to many, one to many) cannot exist among test conditions, test cases

and test procedures.

7/22/2019 ISTQB-TMQ

25/59

D. Risk and Test coverage is not a metric for test planning and control.

>

Q. 70: What is a review?

A. An evaluation of a product or project status to ascertain discrepancies from planned results and to

recommend improvements.

B. An independent evaluation of software products or processes to ascertain compliance to standards,

guidelines, specifications, and/or procedures.

C. Testing of software or specification by manual simulation of its execution.

D. A systematic evaluation of software acquisition, supply, development, operation, or maintenanceprocess, performed by or on behalf of management.Scenario: You work for a company that produces Ground X-ray machines and have just been

assigned to work as the Test Manager on a newly-started project developing PC-based software to

interpret the output from such machines using complex mathematical formulae. The software will

be developed to work with the output from all Ground X-ray machines (including those from other

manufacturers), which output the X-ray data to an agreed international standard (note that this

standard is currently in the process of being updated). The unique setting point of the new

software will be that it provides users with a graphical user interface; while current similar

software packages (both from your company and others) do not have this feature.

It has been decided that the V life cycle model shall be used, using the following developmentphases.

# Analyze and Specify Software Requirements

# Specify Software Design

# Detailed Component Design

# Coding

Q. 71: Given the following test phases:

i. Component Testing

ii. Non-Functional Testing

iii. Component Integration Testing

iv. Hardware - Software Integration Testing

v. System Testing

Vi. Regression Testing

7/22/2019 ISTQB-TMQ

26/59

Assuming that acceptance testing will be included in your project test plan, which of the above

would you also include?

A. ii, iii, iv

B. ii, iv, vi

C. I, iii, v

D. i, v, vi

Explanationin support of the correct Answer:

In the V model there should be a corresponding test level for every development level (although code and

unit test are often combined). Component testing corresponds to Coding, Component Integration Testing

corresponds to Detailed Component Design, System Testing corresponds to Specify Software Design,

and Acceptance Testing corresponds to Analyze and Specify Software Requirements. Non-Functional

Testing is not a phase in itself - it is part of system testing. Regression testing, similarly, is not a phase i n

itself, but used in several phases, while Hardware Software Integration Testing is not appropriate as the

scenario does not require the software to interface to specific hardware (it is PC-based),

>

Q. 72: Which ONE of the following do you believe is the greatest risk to this software?

A. The software will not be compatible with other manufacturer's machines

B. The complex mathematical formulae will not be implemented correctly

C. The software will not be compatible with the new international standard

D. The usability of the graphical user interface is poor


The major new functionality provided in the new system is the GUI, and it appears the company hasn't

developed one before, hence the greatest risk is associated with this area. Compatibility with other

manufacturer's machines is not really relevant as the requirement is to be compatible with the 'standard'

data. Compatibility with the standard' data is not especially high risk (given what we have been told) as it

is relatively easy to test this as it wall be very well specified (in the standard). The complexity of the

mathematical formulae is not high risk as the company has experience in this area, having implemented

similar non-GUI systems before.

>

Q. 73: Which ONE of the following do you believe would add greatest value to the testing on this

project?

A. Employing external usability testing expertise

B. Using inspections on the development outputs

7/22/2019 ISTQB-TMQ

27/59

C. Auditing compliance with the X-ray data standard

D. Requiring 100% decision coverage of all code


As was explained in the previous question, the highest risk area is the GUI, and employing an external

usability testing consultant is an excellent way to directly mitigate this risk. The use of reviews in the V-

model is appropriate, but using inspections is overkill for a project of this criticality. Auditing is appropriate

to check compliance with standards, but auditing compliance with a data standard is difficult compared to

auditing compliance with a process standard and so will not be cost effective. 100% decision coverage of

all code is, again, overkill for a project of this criticality.

>

Q. 74: Which ONE of the following would you support as an approach to be used for acceptance

testing of this software?

A. Contract acceptance testing

B. Alpha testing

C. Beta testing

D. Factory acceptance testing


The software is PC-based, which introduces compatibility/ configuration problems given the enormous

variation in PC builds and configurations. The (relatively low) criticality of the application means that

configuration and compatibility testing will not be cost effective, and gaining access to suitable test tabs is

expensive. Beta testing will also allow users to interact with the software in a relaxed manner and should

more closely represent normal use (compared to alpha testing in a lab at the company). Beta testing will

also introduce the possibility of the software interacting with X-ray machines from different companies,

which may implement the data standard slightly differently. Contract acceptance testing and factory

acceptance testing (which are the same thing) are appropriate for acceptance testing when there is a

single customer.

>

Scenario: Your test team has been created by transferring the testers who previously worked on

prior versions of the X-ray interpretation software, although one of those most familiar with the

complex formulae has gone on maternity leave. It has been agreed that this team member can be

replaced, and testers with the following traits are available for selection.

Q. 75: Which ONE of would you choose to join your test team?

A. With a background in X-ray interpretation formulae

B. Qualified to ISTQB Advanced Test Analyst level

7/22/2019 ISTQB-TMQ

28/59

C. Experience in GUI test automation

D. Experienced in usability testing


This answer follows on from the rationale that the highest risk is the GUI. GUI test automation might be

useful; but we need good usability tests to automate first - hence the usability testing experience. As we

are presumably not re-inventing the wheel and re-coding the formulae, then expertise in this area is

unnecessary.

>

Scenario:A rival company has announced that they are developing a competing software product

and their published date for release is one month ahead of your planned release date, which is

currently b months away. The project manager- has been told to move your release date to just 4

month's time.

Q. 76: Which ONE of the following suggestions would you support to accomplish this reduction:

A. Change to an agile life cycle

B. Increase resources for development and testing

C. Change to a two stage incremental life cycle with the formulae and the user interface as the two stages

D. Reduce the planned testing


This to an agile life cycle will not make the development quicker at this point in time as we know what we

want (the requirements are quite clear). Delivering in two increments is pointless as the formulae without

the GUI (and vice versa) mean we will be delivering useless increments - and overall the development

time will be longer. If we reduce the planned testing we will compromise the quality. We have no reason

to suspect that we were 'gold plating' this development in the first place - so reducing quality will cost

more in the long run, and may slow down time to market if we get more faults that block development

and/or test progress. So the best answer is to add resources and get it down quicker that way.

>

Scenario: You have been provided with a project test document that includes the following

statements:

# Test completion criteria will be rigorously applied

# Unit testing will be performed as part of test-driven development

# User acceptance test cases shall be specified in advance

# User acceptance testing will be performed on a regular basis, every 3 weeks

# A regime of continuous reviews shall be implemented

7/22/2019 ISTQB-TMQ

29/59

Q. 77: Which of the following life cycles do you believe is most likely being used on this project?

A. V

B. Spiral

C. Agile

D. W


The test driven development, continuous reviews and 3 weekly acceptance testing are all major clues that

an agile project is being described. The other two points (test cases specified in advance and rigorous

application of test completion criteria) are both valid for agile as well as more traditional approaches.

>

Q. 78: Which of the following types of test management document do you believe you have been

given?

A. Master Test Plan

B. Phase Test Plan

C. Test Strategy

D. Test Policy


The document cannot be Test Strategy or Test Policy as in the ISTQB syllabus these are both

organizational documents and the scenario explains we are looking at project test documentation. It

cannot be a Phase Test Plan as it talks about different test phases - so it must be parts of the Master Test

Plan.

>

Q. 79: Give the following figures for the testing on a project, and assuming the failure rate for

initial tests remains constant and that all retests pass, what number of tests remain to be run.

Tests planned 1000

Initial tests run 500

Initial tests passed 350

Retests run 80

A. 700

B. 720

7/22/2019 ISTQB-TMQ

30/59

C. 784

D. 570


If 500 tests have been run and 350 passed then 150 failed - hence 0.3 (150/ 500) is the failure rate. Of

the 500 run, the 150 that failed need to be rerun and 80 of these have been run already, hence of the first

500, just 70 (150-80) are left to re-run. Assuming the same failure rate (0.3) then for the second 500 tests

we can expect 150 to fail again so these will need to be re-run, giving 500+150=650 tests. If we acid the

70 remaining from the first 500, we get 720 (70+650).

>

Scenario: The following figures for the testing on a project (with three main functions) show the

number of risks at different levels of risk exposure identified and analyzed and the number

subsequently mitigated bar the testing.

Q. 80: Which ONE of the following statements most closely reflects the above figures?

A. Risk-based testing was not used on the projectB. Risk based testing was used to target the highest risk functions

C. Risk-based testing was used to target the lowest risk functions

D. Risk-based testing was used to target the highest level risks

Explanation in support of the correct Answer:

The table with remaining risks is shown below. As can be seen the testing has taken out all the high level

risks and most of the medium level risks hence the mitigation strategy was to target the highest level risks

(irrespective of function).

Q. 81: Which ONE of the following statements most closely reflects the risk in the project before

and after the mitigation by testing?

7/22/2019 ISTQB-TMQ

31/59

A. Function C is now the lowest risk function

B. Only two high level risks have not been mitigated

C. Function B is now the highest risk function

D. The most risks were mitigated in Function C


The table with remaining risks is shown below. Function A is now the lowest risk function, all high level

risks have been mitigated, and 11 risks were mitigated in Function C compared with 13 in the other two

functions. Hence that leaves Function B as the highest risk function with more medium and low level risks

than the other two functions.

>

Q. 82: Which of the following is the primary test basis for acceptance testing?

A. High-level design specification

B. Low-level design specification

C. Requirements specification

D. Defect reports from earlier releases

>

Q. 83:Which of the following is a general testing principle from the ISTQB Foundation syllabus?

A. Probe effect

B. Defect clustering

C. Boundary value analysis

D. Incident reporting

>

Q. 84:You are working as the system test manager on a large project. Following an incremental

lifecycle model, the development team plans to deliver three bundles of features, labeled Critical,Important, and Enhancing, to the test team on the first working day of March, April, and May,

respectively. Which of the following statements is true?

A. There is no need to write a system test plan for a project that is following an incremental lifecycle

model, as such plans are only written for V-model projects.

7/22/2019 ISTQB-TMQ

32/59

B. The system test plan should include an entry criterion that requires a feature complete build delivered

to system test prior to any test execution.

C. The system test plan should govern which specific features are included in each of the three bundles,

and disallow any changes in that feature selection.

D. The system test plan should specify how the test team will perform regression testing for the Critical

and Important features when the Enhancing bundle of features is delivered.

>

Q. 85:You are working on a project to develop a browser-based information system for a state

legislature. You are the system test manager. The system test team is responsible for functional

and non-functional testing. During the requirements specification period, the test team leads a

quality risk analysis effort for the project. The quality risk analysis identifies over 25 different

defects in the requirements specification, including a situation where the number of concurrentusers of the system was significantly under-estimated. Which of the following is a way in which

this early testing activity directly benefits test execution?

A. By raising the stature of the test team in the eyes of project management.

B. By demonstrating the fallibility of the business analysts who wrote the requirements specification.

C. By providing reasons to cancel the project prior to wasting too much money on it.

D. By preventing bugs that would otherwise arise during test execution.

>

Q. 86:You are working as the test manager on a project to allow customers to make on-line home

mortgage loan applications. The bank has provided a flowchart that shows the decision points for

determining whether someone can receive a loan, and, if so, for how much and at what interest

rate. This document is likely to be the most important input for which of the following test process

activities?

A. To write a test plan

B. To generate exit criteria

C. To design functional test cases

D. To design non-functional test cases

>

Q. 87:Assume you are responsible for system testing of an embedded system that is used to

control a gas station fuel pump. Assume that you have received a functional specification, but no

specification of non-functional characteristics like response time, reliability, or security. Which of

the following statements is tare?

7/22/2019 ISTQB-TMQ

33/59

A. You should attempt to get information that will allow you to develop non-functional tests as well as

functional tests

B. System testing never addresses non-functional characteristics, so this is not a problem

C. Non-functional characteristics are not important for embedded systems like this one

D. You can assume these non-functional characteristics were addressed in integration testing

>

Q. 88: A company is developing a new type of software application and wants very much to be

first to market. The system test execution period is scheduled for twelve weeks.

Four weeks into system test execution, the marketing manager learns that their closest

competitor is within six weeks of releasing a version of this type of application. He convinces theproject management team to release the application as it currently exists, removing four features

which are too buggy for delivery and documenting workarounds or limitations for the other known

bugs. This decision violates the exit criteria defined in the system test plan.

The four withheld features, fixes for the remaining known bugs, plus any additional bug fixes or

enhancements requested by early adopters, are to be delivered in a maintenance release due out

thirteen weeks after initial release.

Which of the following statements about this situation is certainly true?

A. This release decision was ill advised, as the quality problems will definitely cost the company market

share.

B. The test manager should resign in protest to protect her reputation from being associated with such a

poor product.

C. There are no consequences associated with making decisions like this, as quality levels are really

quite arbitrary.

D. The maintenance release will need significant regression testing if the company wants to ensure the

features which are released now are not broken by that release

>

Q. 89:You are working as a test manager at an organization that maintains an existing, profitable

family of applications. Releases to these applications undergo a different number of levels of

testing and a different extent of testing depending on whether the release is considered low,

medium, or high risk. Which of the following is a test management document where you would

7/22/2019 ISTQB-TMQ

34/59

find a discussion of how to determine the risk of a release, the levels of testing required, and the

extent of testing?

A. Test strategy

B. System test plan

C. Component test plan

D. Test design specification

>

Q. 90: Consider the following excerpt from a system test plan:

Tests shall be run in four stages, with all tests within a stage run before the next stage is started.

The stages are formed by dividing the system test set into four non-overlapping subsets as

follows:

1. To identify the tests for stage one, select one test for each very high and high risk items

identified in the quality risk analysis.

2. To identify the tests for stage two, select one test for each major functional area identified in the

system requirements.

3. To identify the tests for stage three, select one test for each other risk item identified in the

quality risk analysis for which test cases were generated.

4. Stage four consists of all remaining tests.

In which section of an IEEE 829-compliant test plan would you expect to find this statement?

A. Approach

B. Risks and contingencies

C. Staffing and training needs

D. Exit criteria

Q. 91:What is a test level?

A. The individual element to be testedB. A group of test activities that are organized and managed together

C. A chronological record of relevant details about the execution of tests

D. A source to determine expected results to compare with the actual result

>

7/22/2019 ISTQB-TMQ

35/59

Q. 92: While planning for a project, you predict that each one thousand (1,400) new or changed

lines of code will contain 50 defects when delivered for system testing, based on historical

averages for your organization. The development manager tells you that she has estimated 50,000

new or changed lines of code for this project.

During system testing, the system test team discovers approximately 4,000 defects before the

system is finally released. The test execution period lasts about 500 longer than estimated.

Given the information above, what can you say is certainly true about this project?

A. More new or changed lines of code were delivered than planned,

B. More defects per 1,000 new or changed tines of code were found.

C. The increase in test execution time was proportional to the increase in defects.

D. The development team experienced staff turnover during the project.

>

Q. 93: Consider the following potentials benefits and risks associated with writing a test plan whip

the requirements specification is being finalized:

1. Arranging support from other project participants

2. Identifying requirements that create test project risks

3. Revising the test plan when requirements are finalized

4. Canceling the project (and the test effort) if sponsors do not approve requirements identifying

requirements that create product (quality) risks

Which are potential benefits and which are risks?

A. Benefits: 2, 3, 5; Risks: f , 4

B. Benefits: 2, 3; Risks: I, 4, 5

C. Benefits: 1, 2, 5; Risks: 3, 4

D. Benefits: 1; Risks: 21 3, 4, 5

>

Q. 94: Consider the following table, which shows major risk categories, test results, and bugs.

Which of the following statements is true?

7/22/2019 ISTQB-TMQ

36/59

A. Significant risks remain in the category of functionality

B. Significant risks remain in the category of usability

C. No risks remain in the category of maintainability

D. No risks remain in the category of portability

>

Q. 95: Consider the following project activities:

I. Write the project plan

II. Write the test plan

III. Assign developers to fix hogs

IV. Report test status

V. Obtain project sponsors

Test estimation addresses which of these activities?

A. II, III, and IV only

B. I, II, and lII only

C. I and I only

D. II and IV only

>

Q. 96: You are writing a system test plan and are describing the test items. Consider the following

project team members:

I. Release engineering manager

ii. Project manager

III. Technical support manager

IV. Marketing manager

V. Business analyst

With whom are you most likely to collaborate when writing this section of the test plan?

A. I and III

B. IV and V

C. I and II

D. II and III

>

Q. 97: Consider the following events that can occur during test execution:

7/22/2019 ISTQB-TMQ

37/59

I. A test passes

II. A test reveals a bug

III. A test release is delivered late to testing

IV. A tester resigns

V. A confirmation test passes


A. I, II, and III reduce quality risk

B. I, II, and V reduce quality risk

C. II, IV, and V reduce quality risk

D. II, Ill, and IV reduce quality risk

>

Q. 98:Which of the following statements captures the difference between project (planning) andproduct (quality) risks?

A. Project risks have a higher likelihood, while product risks have a higher impact

B. Product risks can be eliminated by use of good technology, while project risks always exist

C. Project risks affect all project stakeholders, while product risks affect only testers

D. Product risks affect the success of the product, while project risks affect the success of the project

>

Q. 99: Assume you are developing a product for mass-market sales. Suppose that a risk analysis

identifies potential performance defects as a high-level risk. Which of the

following statements is true?

A. You should wait until system test execution to reduce the performance risks.

B. You should assume that your customers would deal with performance risks.

C. You should identify actions to take throughout the lifecycle to reduce the performance risks.

D. You should assume that the development manager would deal with performance risks.

>

Q. 100: A requirements specification contains the following excerpt:

The system messages shall score at or below the 8th grade reading level on the Flesch-Kincaid

grade level scale.

7/22/2019 ISTQB-TMQ

38/59

Which of the following quality risk items can be derived from this requirements specification

excerpt?

A. Messages returned too slow

B. Messages lost behind active window

C. Messages presented in the wrong language

D. Messages too difficult to understand

Q. 101: Assume that you are the test manager for a large banking application development

project. Earlier in the project, you identified 640 product risks which were deemed significant

enough to deserve some amount of testing.

During test execution, you attend a project management meeting where you are asked to report

test status. The following is true of the identified risks:

# Significant product risks identified during project planning: 640# Significant product risks identified during test execution: 84

# Test coverage of significant risks: 100%

# Risks for which all tests are run and passed: 637

# Risks for which one or more tests fail: 70

# Risks for which one or more tests remain to be run: 47

For some risks, one or more test has failed and one or more test remains to be run. After

presenting these facts, you are asked for your opinion on the residual level of risk.

Which of the following is a reasonable response?

A. It is not possible to determine the residual level of risk until all tests have been run.

B. Most risks are addressed, but some risks remain related to known bugs and untested risk areas.

C. Since over 85% of risks have been tested without any bugs being found, over 85% of the risk has been

removed.

D. Many new risks have been identified during test execution, and that should not happen.

>

Q. 102: Consider the following activities:

I. Group brainstorming

II. Bug taxonomy

III. Standard templates

IV. One-on-one interviews

7/22/2019 ISTQB-TMQ

39/59

V. Past bug analysis

VI. Risk checklist

Which of the following are techniques for gathering the collective judgment and insight of the

stakeholders in risk identification and analysis?

A. I and IV

B. I and II

C. II and V

D. III and VI

>

Q. 103:During the system test phase, a tester is running a predefined test case against an e-

commerce system. She finds that this test case causes the host browser to crash in five out of

five attempts to repeat the problem. As this test case exercises a critical customer use case, shetries but cannot identify a workaround.

Which of the following is an additional step the tester should perform to properly classify this

incident?

A. Ask the project manager what phase the project is in.

B. Try to isolate the incident and find a suspected cause.

C. Determine the repeatability of the failure.

D. Identify the symptom associated with this failure.

>

Q. 104: Consider the following excerpt from the incident description field of an IEEE 829 compliant

bug report for an online e-commerce application that sells CDs and DVDs:

1. I was running test 09-157, which involves purchasing a large number of CDs and DVDs.

2. While specifying a quantity of a CD or DVD to purchase, I entered 99, which is the maximum

allowed quantity in the requirement specification.

3. I expected the system to accept the input. However, the system responded with an errormessage, "No more than 10 items can be purchased."

Which of the following elements is missing from this report?

A. The test being run

B. The actual result

7/22/2019 ISTQB-TMQ

40/59

C. The expected result

D. Check for reproducibility

>

Q. 105:According to the IEEE 1044. 1 standard, what is true about making are organization's

incident management process compliant with IEEE 1044 standard?

A. All classifications and supporting data collection listed in IEEE 1044 must be implemented

B. All mandatory classifications and supporting data collection listed in IEEE 1044 must be implemented

without tailoring

C. All mandatory classifications listed in IEEE 1044 must be implemented without tailoring

D. All mandatory classifications listed in IEEE 1044 must be implemented with appropriate tailoring

>

Q. 106:An organization wants to improve its overall process capabilities, both in terms of

developing better software and doing more effective testing.


A. They can use TPI for development process improvement and TMM for test process improvement.

B. They can use CMMI for development process improvement and TMM for test process improvement.

C. They can use SPICE for development process improvement and ISO 15504 for test process

improvement.

D. They can use CMMI for development process improvement and SPICE for test process improvement.

>

Q. 107:Consider the fourteen levels of increasing maturity in the Test Process Improvement

model, from 0 to 13. Assume an organization is starting at the 0 level, and wants to advance tolevel 1. Which of the following is a key area of testing to improve to achieve this level?

A. Defect management

B. Metrics

C. Low-level testing

D. Test automation

7/22/2019 ISTQB-TMQ

41/59

>

Q. 108:You are assessing the maturity of a test team using both TMM and TP1, While evaluatingthe situation with the test environment, you find that the tests are performed in the same

environment used to develop the software. This environment is defined, maintained, and modified

according to the direction of the development team. In addition, developers debug software in this

environment during test execution whenever a defect is found, and tests execution continues

during debugging.


A. This situation would prevent achievement of Definition maturity under TMM and would prevent

achievement of Level 1 maturity under TPI.

B. This situation would not prevent achievement of Definition maturity under TMM but would prevent


C. This situation would prevent achievement of Definition maturity under TMM but would not prevent


D. This situation would not prevent achievement of Definition maturity under TAW and would not prevent


>

Q. 109:A business analyst who is familiar with the use of the system under test is asked to

participate in test execution.

Which of the essential testing skills i she most likely to bring to the test process

A. Foreign-language knowledge

B. Technical knowledge

C. Testing knowledge

D. Domain knowledge

>

Q. 110:A test manager wants to perform a skips inventory to identify gaps in the test team's skill

levels. Which of the following is a necessary step in that process?

A. Obtain an increase in the training budget for the test team

B. Assess the spills required to perform critical testing tasks.

C. Ask the testers what their training needs are.

D. Remove inexperienced testers from the test team.

7/22/2019 ISTQB-TMQ

42/59

Q. 111:You are managing the functional system testing effort for a simple e-commerceapplication that sells books, CDs, and DVDs on the Internet. You are not responsible for testing

server-side or data centre behaviours, or any non-functional attributes like performance or

usability, though management has encouraged you to report such problems if you see them.

Based on your past experience with this organization and their development practices, you know

that the requirements specification will be vague and high-level and that your opportunities for

early test team involvement will be limited.

Which of the following should be true of your team?

A. You form a team of testers with heavy representation of specialized domain experts such as librarians,

music store employees, and video store managers

B. You form a team of testers with heavy representation of specialized technology experts such as

performance testers, programmers, and network engineers

C. You form a team of experienced testers with general Internet skills, good motivation, and knowledge of

how such systems fail

D. You form a team of testers comprised mostly of low-skip test technicians with two or three test

engineers writing detailed test scripts

>

Q. 112:You are working as a test manager on a project that is facing hard deadlines for deliveryand strict budget limits. On previous projects, quality was seen as much more important than

schedule or budget targets, so these constraints are a new experience for your test team. The

number of berg reports they have filed which were subsequently deferred is demotivating some of

your testers.

How might you best handle the situation?

A. Explain to your team the value of deferred bugs, and the plans for future releases that will f ix them

B. Encourage your team to only report bugs they know will be fixed, to avoid slowing down the project

C. Remove the testers who are openly complaining, as they will ultimately de-motivate others

D. Ignore the situation, since tolerating a certain amount of grumbling is part of being a manager

>

Scenario:

A surgical operating theatre uses a pump that circulates blood around the body during heart

7/22/2019 ISTQB-TMQ

43/59

operations when the heart itself is stopped for surgery. The pump is monitored and controlled by

a computer system.

A software house, SCC specializes in safety critical systems and has created this system.

It uses the V-Model for software development (with 4 levels of testingunit, component

integration, system, acceptance testing). The nature of the failure is that when the surgeon

switches the control over to the artificial pump, the pump occasionally fails to initiate correctly

and subsequently may stop during surgery.

You are the test manager.

Q. 113: Which two of the following criteria would you recommend for entry into system testing?

a. 100% product requirements coverage.

b. 100% decision coverage.c. Signed off system test strategy

d. Signed off technical specification.

A. b and c.

B. a and c.

C. b and d.

D. a and d.


This question looks at entry criteria into system testing (within the V-model).

a. This is an entry criterion into acceptance testing

b. This is an exit criterion out of unit/integration testing, which would form part of the entry criteria into

system testing.c. This can be expected at system testing.

d. This is an entry criterion into integration testing.

>

Q. 114: Which two of the following would be the most appropriate test design techniques for use

at system testing?

a. Statement testing.

b. Decision table testing.

c. Path testing.

d. State transition testing

A. b and d.

B. a and c.

7/22/2019 ISTQB-TMQ

44/59

C. c and d.

D. a and b.


a. This is more appropriate at unit and integration testing

b. This is a specification-based technique, suitable for use at system testing.

c. As for a. It should also be borne in mind that path testing , whilst thorough, is difficult to conduct in the

real world.

d. This is an entry criterion into system testing.

>

A very serious failure has been reported. When the surgeon switches the control over to the

artificial pump, the pump occasionally fails to initiate correctly and subsequently may stop during

surgery.

Q. 115: Despite the time pressure inherent in the situation described in Scenario 1, which of the

following reasons would be the best justification for using inspections in this case?

A. The most formal type of review is always the best choice for such a safety critical system.

B. Inspections allow process improvement which will contribute to future enhancements being

implemented more smoothly.

C. The thoroughness of the inspection process provides the best chance of localizing the defect(s) that

caused the failure.

D. Inspections allow the team to learn more about the system and consequently this approach reduces

the risk of introducing further errors.

Explanationin support of the correct Answer:The intention of this question is to steer the candidate away from the questions and answers most often

encountered in relation to inspections and force them to apply what they know to the scenario. The

scenario and the question direct the candidate to the present situation.

Answer A is that may seem to be obviously true at first sight, but is not a good choice in this case,

especially in face of the scenario (inspections are not in use).

7/22/2019 ISTQB-TMQ

45/59

Answer B points to some future benefit, which would be of some value but would be of little practical

significance in the circumstances described in the scenario.

Answer C is a key benefit of an inspectionto thoroughly review a work-product, which in this case is the

paramount need.

Answer D is again about future benefits and therefore less significant than something relating to the

current time limited and critical situation.

>

Q. 116: Once the defect above has been addressed, which of the following best describes the next

steps?

A. Proceed immediately to user acceptance testing to prevent delays in this crit ical project.

B. Defer user acceptance testing until code changes have been unit tested.

C. Inspect the code before unit testing and then proceed to user acceptance testing.

D. Complete associated unit, system and regression testing before proceeding to acceptance testing.


The answer to this question does not require significant analysis of the scenario and is a straightforward

application of basic testing principles to a safety critical system. Nevertheless the scenario must be taken

into account because the nature of the system precludes the less rigorous approaches suggested.

>

Scenario:

A supplier of fine teas is upgrading its website. It will use the Rapid Application Development

model (RAD). The key improvements required are to improve the usability and performance of the

current website.

The development team will comprise three developers and a tester. You are the tester and you are

experienced in website testing and iterative development models.

The test basis comprises:

# Story boards which show information flow and page linkages through the site;

# HTML pages developed to date;

# A statement of non-functional requirements.

7/22/2019 ISTQB-TMQ

46/59

Q. 117: An incident report template is being created, with the following fields currently added.

# Incident description

# Date on which the incident was raised

# Author of the incident report

# Status of the incident

You have been asked for guidance on which are the key additional fields to include.

Which of the following options would you recommend as the best combination of fields to add?

A. Incident severity, version of the software under test, incident identification.

B. Date to be fixed, incident severity, incident identification.

C. Developer assigned to the fix, version of the software under test, incident identification.

D. Incident severity, version of the software under test, date to be fixed.


This is a question on the knowledge of the key fields in an incident report.

The answer hinges on recognising that incident severity is a key field (eliminating answer C), incident

identification is essential (eliminating answer D), and version of the software under test (when the incident

was found) is much more important than date to be fixed, especially in an environment where versions of

the software may be changing rapidly.

>

Q. 118: Which three of the following would provide the best measures of test progress, in order to

determine a likely go-live date?

a. Number of tests planned versus number of tests executed.

b. Number of high priority defects outstanding.

c. The teams timesheets in order to show how much effort has been devoted to testing.

d. Number of tests passed and number failed.

e. Number of defects found in each developer area.f. The rate at which defects are being found.

A. b, c and d.

B. a, c and e.

C. a, b and f.

D. d, e and f.

7/22/2019 ISTQB-TMQ

47/59


This is a K4 question because it goes beyond selecting ideal good measurements and as ks the

candidate to consider the scenario and the specific requirements in this case.

Options c and e are the most easily spotted distracters; all of the others are plausible. Given that the main

aim is to predict a go live date we need to know how much testing is still outstanding and what is

happening that might affect the rate at which we complete that testing.

Option a tells us how much (planned) testing is still to be done and also enables us to make some

estimate of the rate at which we are getting through planned testing. Option b provides a quick view of the

status of the system and the amount of work outstanding to bring it to readiness for release. Option d is a

useful measure of the product quality in general but is less directly aimed at predicting a release date

than option b. Option e is not relevant for answering the immediate question. Option f is a measure of the

relative stability of the system at this stage and is therefore very relevant to proposing a release date.

>

Q. 119: Which of the following options would be the most significant considerations when

designing the test environment?

a. Anticipated number of concurrent users.

b. Anticipated number of website hits.

c. Common browser/ platform variations.

d. The skill of the developers.

e. Test data readiness.

A. a, b and c.

B. b, c and d.

C. a, d and e.

D. b, c and e.


This question is introduced mainly to provide an example of a test environment question. There is a

connection to the scenario, but it does not require significant analysis.

Option a is required because load testing is required; option b is required because reliability testing is

needed; option c is required because configuration testing is required; option d is irrelevant in producing

good environments; option e is required for testing to commence and setting up test data could be part of

the test environment but test data readiness is not a consideration for designing the environment.

Options a, b and c are therefore clearly signalled by the scenario and candidates should be able to

eliminate d and e as being peripheral or irrelevant to the scenario.

7/22/2019 ISTQB-TMQ

48/59

>

Q. 120: Which of the following methods is likely to provide the most accurate estimate for the

overall test effort?

A. Using Test Point Analysis on the storyboard ideas.

B. Allocate 30% of the development time to testing.

C. Consult with the developers in order to reach consensus on time required.

D. Check with the deadline from release and work back from this.


This question needs an understanding of the scenario and the nature of the application. It tests that the

candidate has considered the scenario in making a choice.

Option A is incorrect because it requires detailed knowledge of Function Points and this is not inferred in

the scenario, also it is only looking at a small part of the system the story boards.

Option B is unlikely to provide an accurate estimate. .

Option D is incorrect because the estimate should be derived in order to determine the release date, and

not the other way around.

Q. 121: Which one of the following represents the best approach to test design?

A. A detailed scripted approach using a variety of black box techniques to maximise functional coverage.

B. A detailed scripted approach using a variety of white box techniques to ensure there is no redundant

code.

C. An Exploratory Testing approach using a variety of functional and non-functional techniques to

maximise the value of the teams experience.

D. An Exploratory Testing approach using a variety of functional and non functional techniques as this will

ensure the website is completed quickly.


This question is tied very clearly to several aspects of the scenario.

In this case option A is interesting but not conclusive, since a detailed scripted approach might not be

feasible.

Option B should be eliminated because white box testing would not be a priority in this case.

7/22/2019 ISTQB-TMQ

49/59

Option D incorporates an inappropriate reason for selecting the approach since there is no reason to

assume that this approach would be quicker than any other.

Option C should be much more attractive because we have plenty of relevant experience available.

>

Q. 122: Which of the following reviews would suitable here?

a. Informal walkthrough of all materials they have to ensure the team has a shared understanding.

b. A management review to evaluate the project risk associated with implementing the storyboard.

c. A formal inspection of the storyboard to ensure that the requirements wont change during the

course of the project.

d. A technical review of the html pages by the development team.

e. A walkthrough with the whole team present in which architectural decisions are made quickly.

A. a, b and d.

B. b, c and d.

C. a, b and e.

D. c, d and e.


This question requires some thought about the nature of review techniques and their potential impact in

this situation.

Option a should be attractive as a standard way to use a walkthrough and clearly relevant.

Option b should also be recognised as appropriate,

Option c gives a spurious reason for inspecting, but there would anyway be little value in formally

inspecting

istqb-tmq

Documents