insight gen.studies & csat · insight gen.studies & csat central delhi: 60/17, above...

INSIGHT GEN.STUDIES & CSAT

Central Delhi: 60/17, Above Subway, Old Rajinder Nagar, Delhi - 60

North Delhi: B-18, Satija House, Main Road, Dr. Mukherjee Nagar, Delhi - 09

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1. B

Statement 1 is correct: The Ministry of Finance, Government of India had set up a dedicated fund called

Nirbhaya Fund in 2013 for the implementation of initiatives aimed at enhancing the safety and security for

women in the country. It is a non-lapsable corpus fund. The fund was started with a corpus of Rs 1,000 crore.

The Fund is administered by Department of Economic Affairs (DEA) of the Ministry of Finance.

Statement 2 is correct: Ministry of Women and Child Development is the nodal ministry to appraise schemes

under the Nirbhaya Fund. The ministry also reviews and monitors the progress of sanctioned schemes in

conjunction with other Ministries/Departments.

Statement 3 is correct: This fund support the initiatives by the government and NGOs working towards

protecting the dignity and ensuring safety of women in India.

Thus, Option B is correct.

2. C

Statement 1 is incorrect: National Council for Rejuvenation, Protection and Management of River Ganga (also

known as National Ganga Council) is an authority created in October 2016 under the River Ganga (Rejuvenation,

Protection and Management) Authorities Order, 2016 dissolving the National Ganga River Basin Authority. In

this backdrop, National Ganga Council has been established as an authority and National Mission for Clean

Ganga (NMCG) has been also converted into an authority.

Composition of the Council

Prime Minister will be the Ex-officio Chairperson for the council.

The Ex-officio members of the council:

o Union Minister for Water Resources, River Development and Ganga Rejuvenation will be the ex-

officio Vice-Chairperson

o Union Minister for Environment, Forests and Climate Change

o Union Minister for Finance

o Union Minister for Urban Development

o Union Minister for Rural Development

o Union Minister for Power, Union Minister for Science and Technology

o Union Minister for Drinking Water and Sanitation

o Union Minister of State for Tourism

o Union Minister for Shipping

o Vice Chairman of NITI Aayog

o Chief Ministers of Bihar, Jharkhand, Uttarakhand, Uttar Pradesh and West Bengal.

COMPREHENSIVE TEST - 3

(FULL MOCK TEST)




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Statement 2 is correct: The National Ganga Council will be overall responsible for the superintendence,

direction, development and control of River Ganga and the entire River Basin (including financial and

administrative matters) for the protection, prevention, control and abatement of environmental pollution in

River Ganga and its rejuvenation to its natural and pristine condition and to ensure continuous adequate flow of

water in the River Ganga and for matters connected therewith.

The jurisdiction of National Ganga Council shall extend to the states comprising River Ganga Basin, namely,

Himachal Pradesh, Uttar Pradesh, Madhya Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Bihar, Rajasthan, Uttarakhand, West Bengal,

Jharkhand, Haryana and the National Capital Territory of Delhi and such other States, having major tributaries of

the River Ganga.

Statement 3 is correct: It has the representation of Chief Ministers of Bihar, Jharkhand, Uttarakhand, Uttar

Pradesh and West Bengal.

Thus, Option C is correct.

3. A

Accommodative monetary policy occurs when a central bank attempts to expand the overall money supply to

boost the economy when growth is slowing (as measured by GDP).

Cut in the repo rate by the RBI possibly increases the liquidity in the market and thus is a part of

Accommodative Monetary Policy.

Selling of Market Stabilisation Bonds (MSBs) will suck out the liquidity from the market and thus is not a

part of Accommodative Monetary Policy.

Giving DBT for all kinds of subsidies is not an action of Monetary Policy.

Reduction of Capital Adequacy Ratio requirements from 9% to 8% will give extra capital to the banks for

lending and therefore might inject extra liquidity in the market. Thus, this comes under the

‘Accommodative Monetary Policy’.

Thus, Option A is correct.

4. D

Statement 1 is incorrect: Acharya Kripalani, was an Indian politician, noted particularly for holding the

presidency of the Indian National Congress during the transfer of power in 1947.

Statement 2 is incorrect: The members of the interim government were members of the Viceroy’s Executive

Council. The Viceroy continued to be the head of the Council. But, Jawaharlal Nehru was designated as the Vice-

President of the Council. Therefore, Mountbatten was the President of the Executive Council of interim

government formed in 1946. Dr. Rajendra Prasad served as Minister of Food and Agriculture in interim

government formed in 1946.

Thus, Option D is correct.

5. A

Greens Alliance for Conservation of Eastern Ghats (GrACE) is a conservation organization initiated by Council for

Green Revolution (CGR), Environmental Organization, Hyderabad, for the cause of protecting the invaluable

natural resource heritage of Eastern Ghats.





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6. A

Depreciation of rupee occurs generally when there is increased demand of dollars in the foreign exchange

market and thus increasing the value of dollar or decreased demand of rupee in the market and thus resulting

into the weakening of rupee.

Huge inflows of FPI will lead to increased demand of rupee for investing into the securities market. Thus,

it will lead to the appreciation of rupee.

Hike in the interest rate by the US Fed Reserve highlights the recovery in US and this will lead to the

capital outflows from the country. Thus, there is reduced demand of rupee and increased demand of

dollars. This will lead to the depreciation of rupee.

Increase in the international oil price will raise the imports of a country which has to be paid in dollars

and thus increasing the demand of dollars. Therefore, this will lead to the depreciation of rupee.

Buying of US dollars from the market by RBI reduces the supply of dollars and demand being same will

increase the value of dollars. Thus, this will also lead to the depreciation of rupee.


7. B

Statements 1 and 2 are correct: The Rajya Sabha (first constituted in 1952) is a continuing chamber, that is, it is

a permanent body and not subject to dissolution. However, one-third of its members retire every second year.

Their seats are filled up by fresh elections and presidential nominations at the beginning of every third year. The

retiring members are eligible for re-election and re-nomination any number of times.

Statement 3 is incorrect: The Constitution has not fixed the term of office of members of the Rajya Sabha and

left it to the Parliament. Accordingly, the Parliament in the Representation of the People Act (1951) provided

that the term of office of a member of the Rajya Sabha shall be six years.


8. C

About World Heritage Site

A World Heritage Site is a place on earth having a special cultural or physical significance and

outstanding universal value to the humanity.

It may be a building, a city, a complex, a desert, a forest, an island, a lake, a monument, or a

mountain.

A world Heritage site is listed by the United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organization

(UNESCO) which is based in Paris, France.

The International World Heritage Programme administered by the UNESCO World Heritage

Committee establishes the sites to be listed as UNESCO World Heritage Sites.

The World Heritage Committee is responsible for the implementation of the World Heritage Convention.

The Archaeological Survey of India (ASI) is the nodal agency for forwarding any request for World

Heritage status to any Indian site whether cultural or natural.




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List of World Heritage Sites in India

Cultural Site Natural Site Mixed Site

Agra Fort (1983)

Ajanta Caves (1983)

Archaeological Site of Nalanda Mahavihara (Nalanda University) at Nalanda, Bihar (2016)

Buddhist Monuments at Sanchi (1989)

Champaner-Pavagadh Archaeological Park (2004)

Chhatrapati Shivaji Terminus (formerly Victoria Terminus) (2004)

Churches and Convents of Goa (1986)

Elephanta Caves (1987)

Ellora Caves (1983)

Fatehpur Sikri (1986)

Great Living Chola Temples (1987,2004)

Group of Monuments at Hampi (1986)

Group of Monuments at Mahabalipuram (1984)

Group of Monuments at Pattadakal (1987)

Hill Forts of Rajasthan (2013)

Historic City of Ahmadabad (2017)

Humayun's Tomb, Delhi (1993)

Khajuraho Group of Monuments (1986)

Mahabodhi Temple Complex at Bodh Gaya (2002)

Mountain Railways of India (1999,2005,2008)

Qutb Minar and its Monuments, Delhi (1993)

Rani-ki-Vav (the Queen’s Stepwell) at Patan, Gujarat (2014)

Red Fort Complex (2007)

Rock Shelters of Bhimbetka (2003)

Sun Temple, Konârak (1984)

Taj Mahal (1983)

The Architectural Work of Le Corbusier, an Outstanding Contribution to the Modern Movement (2016)

The Jantar Mantar, Jaipur (2010)

Great Himalayan National Park Conservation Area (2014)

Kaziranga National Park (1985)

Keoladeo National Park (1985)

Manas Wildlife Sanctuary (1985)

Nanda Devi and Valley of Flowers National Parks (1988,2005)

Sundarbans National Park (1987)

Western Ghats (2012)

Khangchendzonga National Park (2016)


9. D

Option D is correct.




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10. A

The Atmospheric Environment and Research Division of WMO’s Research Department publishes the WMO-

GAW Annual Greenhouse Gas Bulletins. Each year, these bulletins will report the latest trends and atmospheric

burdens of the most influential, long-lived greenhouse gases; carbon dioxide (CO2), methane (CH4), and nitrous

oxide (N2O), as well as a summary of the contributions of the lesser gases.

The Bulletins represent the consensus of a consortium of networks operated since the mid 1980s. These three

major gases alone contribute about 88% of the increase in radiative forcing of the atmosphere by changes in

long-lived greenhouse gases occurring since the beginning of the industrial age (since 1750).


11. D

AGMARK is a certification mark employed on agricultural products in India, assuring that they conform

to a set of standards. It is issued by Directorate of Marketing and Inspection of the Government of

India.

The AGMARK is legally enforced in India by the Agricultural Produce (Grading and Marking) Act of 1937

(and amended in 1986).

Ecomark is issued by the Bureau of India Standards (BIS) to eco-friendly products conforming to a set of

standards aimed at the least impact on the eco system.

ISI Mark is a certification mark issued by the Bureau of India Standards (BIS) for industrial products in

India. The mark certifies that a product confirms to the Indian Standards, mentioned as IS: XXXX on the

top of the mark.

FPO is a certification mark issued by Ministry of Food Processing and mandatory for all the "processed

fruit products" in India. This mark is applicable on food such as packaged fruit beverages, fruit-jams

crushes and squashes, pickles, dehydrated fruits, products and fruits extracts, following the food safety

and standard act of 2006.


12. D

The Eurasian Economic Union (EEU) is a free trade bloc that includes Armenia, Belarus, Kazakhstan, Krygyzstan,

and Russia. It essentially extends from the borders of China to the borders of the European Union.


13. D

On July 14, 2015, the P5+1 (China, France, Germany, Russia, the United Kingdom, and the United States), the

European Union (EU) and Iran reached a Joint Comprehensive Plan of Action (JCPOA) to ensure that Iran’s

nuclear program will be exclusively peaceful. October 18, 2015 marked Adoption Day of the JCPOA, the date on

which the JCPOA came into effect and participants began taking steps necessary to implement their JCPOA

commitments. January 16, 2016, marks Implementation Day of the JCPOA.

That led to the lifting of UN and national nuclear-related sanctions on Iran, including those on finance, trade and

energy. As part of the deal, tens of billions of dollars of Iran's frozen assets were released.




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The JCPOA allows Iran to pursue a peaceful nuclear program for commercial, medical and industrial purposes in

line with international non-proliferation standards.


14. B

Statement 1 is correct: Agricultural Census is conducted every five years in India. It is the largest countrywide

statistical operation undertaken by Ministry of Agriculture, for collection of data on structure of operational

holdings by different size classes and social groups.

Statement 2 is correct: SECC-2011 is a study of socio economic status of rural and urban households and allows

ranking of households based on predefined parameters. SECC 2011 has three census components which were

conducted by three separate authorities but under the overall coordination of Department of Rural

Development in the Government of India.

Census in Rural Area has been conducted by the Department of Rural Development (DoRD).

Census in Urban areas is under the administrative jurisdiction of the Ministry of Housing and Urban

Poverty Alleviation (MoHUPA).

Caste Census is under the administrative control of Ministry of Home Affairs: Registrar General of India

(RGI) and Census Commissioner of India.

Statement 3 is correct: The Indian Census is the largest single source of a variety of statistical information on

different characteristics of the people of India. With a history of more than 130 years, this reliable, time tested

exercise has been bringing out a veritable wealth of statistics every 10 years, beginning from 1872 when the first

census was conducted in India non-synchronously in different parts. The responsibility of conducting the

decennial Census rests with the Office of the Registrar General and Census Commissioner, India under

Ministry of Home Affairs, Government of India.


15. C

The International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN) has declared the Kashmiri Red Stag (also known as

Hangul) as a Critically Endangered. It is found in dense riverine forests in the high valleys and mountains of

Kashmir Valley and northern Chamba district of Himachal Pradesh.


16. A

PMKSY scheme has amalgamated three ongoing programmes of three different ministries as follows:

Accelerated Irrigation Benefit Programme of the Ministry of Water Resources.

Integrated Watershed Management Programme of the Ministry of Rural Development.

Farm water management component of the National Mission on Sustainable Agriculture of the Ministry

of Agriculture.





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17. D

Non-Debt Receipts comprises of the Revenue Receipts and Non-Debt Creating Capital Receipts.

Disinvestment of Air India is a non-debt creating capital receipt and thus a part of non-debt receipts.

Dividends and Profits from RBI is a Revenue Receipt and thus a part of non-debt receipts.

Fund mobilized from PPF and Small Saving Deposits is a Debt Creating Capital Receipt and thus does not

fall under Non-Debt Receipts.

Money accrued from the sale of Market Stabilisation Bonds (MSBs) is a Debt Creating Capital Receipt

and thus does not fall under Non-Debt Receipts.


18. D

The architecture at Kailasha temple at Ellora was a culmination of at least a millennium long tradition in rock-cut

architecture in India. It is a complete Dravida building with a Nandi shrine - since the temple is dedicated to

Shiva- a gopuram like gateway, surrounding cloisters, subsidiary shrines, staircases and an imposing tower or

vimana raising to thirty metres.

Other 3 architectures are an example of Nagara style architecture.


19. D

Statement 1 is incorrect: State Public Service Commission (SPSC) is created directly by the Constitution, a Joint

Public Service Commission (JSPSC) can be created by an act of Parliament on the request of the state legislatures

concerned. Thus, a JSPSC is a statutory and not a constitutional body.

Statement 2 is incorrect: The chairman and members of the SPSC hold office for a term of six years or until they

attain the age of 62 years, whichever is earlier. However, they can relinquish their offices at any time by

addressing their resignation to the Governor.

The chairman and members of a JSPSC are appointed by the president. They hold office for a term of six years or

until they attain the age of 62 years, whichever is earlier. They can be suspended or removed by the president.

They can also resign from their offices at any time by submitting their resignation letters to the President.

Statement 3 is incorrect: The UPSC presents, annually, to the President a report on its performance. The

President places this report before both the Houses of Parliament. A JSPSC presents its annual performance

report to each of the concerned state governors. Each governor places the report before the state legislature.


20. A

The Global Urban Observatory (GUO) unit is a specialized statistical unit of UN Habitat in charge of global

monitoring of the Habitat agenda and other agenda with an urban linkage. This includes building capacities of

national governments, establishing local, regional and global mechanisms for urban monitoring, and supporting

data collection for urban indicators.





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21. C

Objectives of Rashtriya Gokul Mission

To undertake breed improvement programme for indigenous cattle breeds so as to improve the genetic

makeup and increase the stock.

To enhance milk production and productivity of indigenous bovines.

To upgrade nondescript cattle using elite indigenous breeds like Gir (Gujarat), Sahiwal (Punjab), Rathi

(Rajasthan), Deoni (Maharashtra and Karnataka), Tharparkar (Rajasthan), Red Sindhi (Punjab and

Haryana).

To distribute disease free high genetic merit bulls of indigenous breeds for natural service.


22. B

Statement 1 is correct: National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI), an umbrella organisation for operating

retail payments and settlement systems in India, is an initiative of Reserve Bank of India (RBI) and Indian Banks’

Association (IBA) under the provisions of the Payment and Settlement Systems Act, 2007, for creating a robust

Payment & Settlement Infrastructure in India.

Considering the utility nature of the objects of NPCI, it has been incorporated as a “Not for Profit” Company

under the provisions of Section 25 of Companies Act 1956 (now Section 8 of Companies Act 2013), with an

intention to provide infrastructure to the entire Banking system in India for physical as well as electronic

payment and settlement systems.

Statement 2 is incorrect: The ten core promoter banks are State Bank of India, Punjab National Bank, Canara

Bank, Bank of Baroda, Union Bank of India, Bank of India, ICICI Bank, HDFC Bank, Citibank N. A. and HSBC. In

2016 the shareholding was broad-based to 56 member banks to include more banks representing all sectors.

Statement 3 is correct.


23. B

The Ministry of External Affairs has started Operation Insaniyat to provide assistance to Bangladesh in response

to humanitarian crisis being faced by it due to large influx of Rohingya refugees from Myanmar.

Under this operation, India will provide relief material consisting of items including rice, sugar, salt, pulses,

cooking oil, biscuits and mosquito nets to the affected people. The relief material will be delivered in multiple

consignments.


24. A

In addition to maintaining buffer stocks and for making a provision for meeting the requirement of the Targeted

Public Distribution System (TPDS) and Other Welfare Schemes (OWS), FCI on the instructions from the

Government sells excess stocks out of Central Pool through Open Market Sale Scheme (Domestic) [OMSS (D)] in

the open market from time to time at predetermined prices to achieve the following objectives:-




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To enhance the supply of food grains during the lean season and deficit regions

To moderate the open market prices

To offload the excess stocks

To reduce the carrying cost of food grains.


25. D

The Hague Convention on the Civil Aspects of International Child Abduction is a multilateral treaty

developed by the Hague Conference on Private International Law (HCCP) that provides an expeditious

method to return a child internationally abducted by a parent from one member country to another.

India has not signed the Hague Abduction Convention.

The 1951 Refugee Convention is the key legal document that forms the basis of our work. Ratified by

145 State parties, it defines the term ‘refugee’ and outlines the rights of the displaced, as well as the

legal obligations of States to protect them. India is not party to the 1951 Refugee Convention or its

1967 Protocol and does not have a national refugee protection framework.

The United Nations Convention against Corruption is the only legally binding universal anti-corruption

instrument. The Convention's far-reaching approach and the mandatory character of many of its

provisions make it a unique tool for developing a comprehensive response to a global problem. In May

2011, the Indian Government ratified two UN Conventions - the United Nations Convention against

Corruption (UNCAC) and the United Nations Convention against Transnational Organised Crime

(UNTOC) and its three protocols.

The Convention against Torture and Other Cruel, Inhuman or Degrading Treatment or Punishment

(commonly known as the United Nations Convention against Torture (UNCAT) is an international human

rights treaty, under the review of the United Nations, that aims to prevent torture and other acts of

cruel, inhuman, or degrading treatment or punishment around the world.

India stands behind 161 nations, including Pakistan, as it is yet to ratify the 30-year-old United

Nations’ Convention Against Torture by making a law on it despite signing it way back in 1997. It may

sound bizarre, but India is among the only nine countries worldwide which are yet to ratify this crucial

convention, an essential condition for a signatory state to ratify the international human rights treaty.


26. D


27. B

It is one of the most ancient languages of India.

It is listed in Eighth Schedule of the Indian Constitution.

Early Buddhist literature was written in Pali language, a language spoken in the areas of Magadha and

Kosala.




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The earliest surviving Buddhist Sanskrit poetry in the classical style is that of the Buddhist Ashvaghosha,

a contemporary of Kanishka. He wrote a poem on the life of the Buddha, the Buddhacharita, which has

come down to us with later interpolations.


28. D

Statement 1 is incorrect: The Environment Protection Act, 1986 does not mention the word “Ecologically

Sensitive Areas (ESAs)”. Thus, the criteria specific to ESA is not laid out.

The section 3(2)(v) of the Act, says that Central Government can restrict areas in which any industries,

operations or processes or class of industries, operations or processes shall not be carried out or shall be carried

out subject to certain safeguards.

Besides the section 5(1) of this Act says that central government can prohibit or restrict the location of

industries and carrying on certain operations or processes on the basis of considerations like the biological

diversity of an area, maximum allowable limits of concentration of pollutants for an area, environmentally

compatible land use, and proximity to protected areas.

The above two clauses have been effectively used by the government to declare Ecologically Sensitive Area or

Ecologically Fragile Areas (EFA).

Statement 2 is incorrect: Activities, including commercial mining, setting of saw mills and industries causing

pollution, commercial use of firewood and major hydro-power projects, are prohibited in such areas. It also

prohibits tourism activities like flying over protected areas in an aircraft or hot air balloon, and discharge of

effluents and solid waste in natural water bodies or terrestrial areas.

Felling of trees, drastic change in agriculture systems and commercial use of natural water resources, including

groundwater harvesting and setting up of hotels and resorts, are the activities regulated in the areas.

Activities permitted in the areas include ongoing agriculture and horticulture practices by local communities,

rainwater harvesting, organic farming, adoption of green technology and use of renewable energy sources.

Statement 3 is incorrect: Ecologically Sensitive Areas (ESAs) are areas notified by the Ministry of Environment,

Forests and Climate Change (MoEFCC). Inclusion and Exclusion is under the authority of MOEFCC.


29. D

Statement 1 is incorrect: ‘Agenda 21’ is a non-binding action plan of the United Nations with regard to

Sustainable Development.

Statement 2 is incorrect: It is a product of the Earth Summit (UN Conference on Environment and Development)

held in Rio de Janeiro, Brazil, in 1992. It is an action agenda for the UN, other multilateral organizations, and

individual governments around the world that can be executed at local, national, and global levels.

Statement 3 is incorrect: The "21" in Agenda 21 refers to the 21st Century.





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30. D

Statement 1 is incorrect: It was launched by the Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports. It aims at mainstreaming

sport as tool for individual development, community development, economic development and national

development.

Statement 2 is correct: Khelo India is a merger of following schemes:

Rajiv Gandhi Khel Abhiyan (RGKA)

Urban Sports Infrastructure Scheme (USIS)

National Sports Talent Search Scheme (NSTSS)

Statement 3 is correct: It is a pan Indian sports scholarship scheme.


31. B

The Surat Session of Congress – 1907

Alipore Conspiracy Case – 1908

Kheda Satyagraha – 1918

Rowlatt Act - 1919


32. D

Statement 1 is incorrect: The advocates of the Home Rule Movement believed constitutional method and

were opposed to violence and revolutionary agitation.

Tilak forms the Indian Home Rule League in April 28 1916. Tilak publicly declared: 'I may state once for all that

we are trying in India, as the Irish Home-rulers have been doing in Ireland, for a reform of the system of

administration and not for the overthrow of Government; and I have no hesitation in saying that the acts of

violence which had been committed in the different parts of India are not only repugnant to me, but have, in my

opinion, only unfortunately retarded to a great extent, the pace of our political progress.‘ He further assured the

Government of his loyalty to the Crown and urged all Indians to assist the British Government in its hour of

crisis.

Statement 2 is incorrect: The basic objective of both the League was similar to propagate and popularize the

idea of Home Rule for Indians. The demand of Home Rule or Self Government for Indians was interpreted as:

Legislative Councils to be elected by the people and Executive Councils to be responsible to Legislatures.

The two Home Rule League worked in co-operation and carried out intense propaganda all over the country in

favour of the demand for the grant of Home Rule or self-government to India after the war.


33. C

The Aurora (Northern Lights and Southern Lights) mostly occur in the thermosphere. The thermosphere

is a layer of Earth's atmosphere. The thermosphere is directly above the mesosphere and below the

Exosphere.




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Three new species of bacteria, which are not found on Earth and which are highly resistant to ultra-

violet radiation, have been discovered in the upper stratosphere by Indian scientists.


34. C

FR (Article 21) - The enjoyment of the right to live in a clean and healthy environment today is that it has

attained the status of a fundamental right the violation of which, the Constitution of India will not

permit. The judiciary has managed to increase the ambit of Article 21 of the constitution of India,

through various judicial pronouncements, to include the Right to healthy and clean environment to be a

fundamental right under right to life.

DPSP (Article 48A) – Protection and improvement of environment and safeguarding of forests and wild

life.

FD (Article 51A (g)) - To protect and improve the natural environment including presents, lakes rivers,

and wild life and to have compassion for living creatures.


35. C

Statement 1 is correct: The International Atomic Union (IAU) is affiliated with the International Council of

Scientific Unions (ICSU), a non-governmental organization representing a global membership that includes both

national scientific bodies and international scientific unions.

The IAU serves as the internationally recognized authority for assigning designations to celestial bodies and

surface features on them.

Statement 2 is correct: IAU has named one crater on Pluto’s largest moon, Charon, as ‘Revati’. Revati is a

noteworthy character in the ancient Indian epic Mahabharata.


36. D

The programme of non-cooperation included within its ambit the surrender of titles and honours, boycott of

government affiliated schools and colleges, law courts, foreign cloth, and could be extended to include

resignation from government service and mass civil disobedience including the non-payment of taxes.


37. D

Blue Baby Syndrome - An illness that begins when large amounts of nitrates in water are ingested by an infant

and converted to nitrite by the digestive system. The nitrite then reacts with oxyhemoglobin (the oxygen-

carrying blood protein) to form metheglobin, which cannot carry oxygen. If a large enough amount of

metheglobin is formed in the blood, body tissues may be deprived of oxygen, causing the infant to develop a

blue coloration of their mucous membranes and possibly digestive and respiratory problems. This condition is

also known as methemoglobinemia.





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38. B

The Jhelum rises from a deep spring at Vernag, in western Jammu and Kashmir state, in the Indian-administered

portion of the Kashmir region. The river meanders northwestward from the northern slope of the Pir Panjal

Range through the Vale of Kashmir to Wular Lake at Srinagar, which controls its flow. Emerging from the lake,

the Jhelum flows westward and crosses the Pir Panjal in a gorge some 7,000 feet (2,100 metres) deep with

almost perpendicular sides.

At Muzaffarabad, the administrative centre of Azad Kashmir in the Pakistani-administered sector of Kashmir, the

Jhelum receives the Kishanganga River and then bends southward, forming part of the border between Azad

Kashmir to the east and Khyber Pakhtunkhwa province, Pakistan, to the west.


39. C

Buddha believed that the results of our actions (called Karma), whether good or bad, affect us both in this life

and the next. The Buddha emphasised individual agency and righteous action as the means to escape from the

cycle of rebirth and attain self-realisation and nirvana, literally the extinguishing of the ego and desire – and thus

end the cycle of suffering for those who renounced the world.


40. C

The Sufis remember God either by reciting the zikr (the Divine Names) or evoking His presence through

sama (literally, “audition”) or performance of mystical music. ‘Sama’ was integral to the Chishti sufis,

and exemplified interaction with indigenous devotional traditions.

It was not just in sama that the Chishtis adopted local languages. In Delhi, those associated with the

Chishti silsila conversed in Hindavi, the language of the people.

Other sufis such as Baba Farid composed verses in the local language, which were incorporated in the

Guru Granth Sahib. Yet others composed long poems or masnavis to express ideas of divine love using

human love as an allegory. For example, the prem-akhyan (love story) Padmavat composed by Malik

Muhammad Jayasi revolved around the romance of Padmini and Ratansen, the king of Chittor. Their

trials were symbolic of the soul’s journey to the divine. Such poetic compositions were often recited in

hospices, usually during sama‘.

It contributed to the growth of social stability. However, it did not support the people to protest the

exploitative and cruel rulers of the Delhi Sultanate.


41. C

Option C is correct.

42. B

The Kubuqi, China's seventh largest desert, is turning into a land of green - after years of effort and innovation

using desertification control methods. Located to the north of the ridge of the Ordos plateau, the Kubuqi desert

covers an area of 186 million hectares.




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It had been infamous once for being a seemingly lifeless dust bowl. After 28 years of controlling the

desertification, as well as seeding and planting, now a quarter of the former wasteland has become home to

thriving trees and undergrowth.


43. B

Statement 1 is correct: Collective Responsibility is the bedrock principle of Parliamentary Government. The

ministers are collectively responsible to the Parliament in general and to the Lok Sabha in particular (Article 75).

Statement 2 is incorrect: Double Membership is one such feature of Parliamentary Form of Government. The

ministers are members of both the legislature and the executive. This means that a person cannot be a minister

without being a member of the Parliament.

Statement 3 is incorrect: Head of the state not necessarily has to be elected by the people of the country. Both

Britain and India have Parliamentary form of government. The Head of the State in India (that is, President) is

elected, while the Head of the State in Britain (that is, King or Queen) enjoys a hereditary position.


44. D

Statement 1 is correct: Hindustan Socialist Republican Association (HSRA) was a revolutionary organisation, also

known as Hindustan Socialist Republican Army established in the year 1928 at Feroz Shah Kotla, New Delhi by

Chandrasekhar Azad, Bhagat Singh, Sukhdev and other group members .

The stated objective of the HRA was establishment of a "Federated Republic of the United States of India by an

organised and armed revolution". Armed struggle, terrorism and retaliatory strikes were the favored tactics in

the attempt to defeat the British Empire. This manifesto had very clearly declared their objectives and ideology

with the inspiration from Russian revolution. The HRA was also socialist in its attitude and was inspired by

Bolshevik Russia. The manifesto stated, “..... the railways and other means of transportation and

communication, the mines and other kinds of very great industries... shall be nationalised.... Instead of private

and unorganised business enterprise, the Party prefers co-operative unions.”

Statement 2 is correct: The socialist leanings voiced in the earlier HRA manifesto had gradually moved more

towards Marxism and the HSRA spoke of a revolution involving a struggle by the masses to establish "the

dictatorship of the proletariat" and the banishment of "parasites from the seat of political power.

Statement 3 is correct: The HSRA's manifesto titled ‘Philosophy of the Bomb’ was written by Bhagawati Charan

Vohra.


45. D

The Managing Impacts of Deep-sea Resource Exploitation Project, popularly known as MIDAS Project is a

multi-disciplinary research programme aimed to investigate the environmental impacts of extracting mineral

and energy resources from the deep-sea environment. This included the exploitation of materials such as

polymetallic sulphides, manganese nodules, cobalt-rich ferromanganese crusts, methane hydrates and the

potential mining of rare earth elements.




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It is funded under the European Commission’s Framework 7 initiative from November 2013 for a period of 3

years, and has recently completed its programme of research.

The MIDAS study areas included- The mid-Atlantic Ridge (SMS), the Clarion Clipperton Zone (CCZ) of the central

Pacific (nodules), the Black Sea, and the Norwegian and Svalbard continental margins (gas hydrates).


46. D


47. B

In 1948, SK Dhar - a judge of the Allahabad High Court - was appointed by the government to head a

commission that would look into the need for the reorganization of states on a linguistic basis.

The Wanchoo Committee had submitted its report on establishing of the capital when a dispute arose

between Rayalaseema and Coastal Andhra in 1953, when Andhra had separated from the Madras state.

Following this dispute, the Union government had appointed Justice Kailashnath Wanchoo, the then

Chief Justice of Allahabad High Court, in a bid to find solutions to the various issues that arose during

bifurcation of Andhra from Madras.

After the formation of Andhra Pradesh on the basis of linguistic factor, all hell break loose, the other

regions also started demanding for creation of separate states on the basis of linguistic factor. The

intense pressure forced the Indian Government to form a new commission to visit the whole question of

whether the linguistic basis of separation of states can be considered or not. It led to the formation of

Fazl Ali Commission (also known as State reorganization Commission) in December 1953.


48. D

Statement 1 is incorrect: Hindustani classical music was highly influenced by Persian and Sufism traditions. A

number of musical instruments are associated with Hindustani classical music. The veena, a string instrument,

was traditionally regarded as the most important, but few play it today and it has largely been superseded by its

cousins the sitar and the sarod, both of which owe their origin to Persian influences.

Statement 2 is incorrect: Classical genres of Hindustani classical music are dhrupad, dhamar, khyal, tarana and

sadra.


49. B

With a view to provide legal aid and services to the backward communities and the people in rural areas, the

Tele Law Initiative was launched by the Ministry of Law and Justice in collaboration with the Ministry of

Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY). The legal services would be provided at the Panchayat levels

across the country through the Common Service Centers.





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50. C

The Convention on the Conservation of Migratory Species of Wild or Convention on Migratory Species (CMS) or

the Bonn Convention and CMS COP is known as Global Wildlife conference—aims to conserve terrestrial, marine

and avian migratory species throughout their range.

It is an international treaty, concluded under the aegis of the United Nations Environment Programme,

concerned with the conservation of wildlife and habitats on a global scale.

The CMS is the only global and UN-based intergovernmental organization established exclusively for the

conservation and management of terrestrial, aquatic and avian migratory species throughout their range.


51. B

The Balaghat mines in Madhya Pradesh produce 52 per cent of India‘s copper.

Bellary-Chitradurga-Chikmaglur-Tumkur belt in Karnataka has large reserves of iron ore. The Kudermukh

mines located in the Western Ghats of Karnataka are a 100 per cent export unit. Kudremukh deposits

are known to be one of the largest in the world.


52. B

The Impossible Trinity (also known as the Trilemma) is a trilemma in international economics which states that it

is impossible to have all three of the following at the same time:

A stable foreign exchange rate

Free capital movement (Absence of capital controls)

An independent monetary policy

If a nation were to adopt position a, for example, then it would maintain a fixed exchange rate and allow free

capital flows, the consequence of which would be lossof monetary sovereignty.





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53. B

The position with respect to lapsing of bills on the dissolution of the assembly is mentioned below:

A Bill pending in the assembly lapses (whether originating in the assembly or transmitted to it by the

council).

A Bill passed by the assembly but pending in the council lapses.

A Bill pending in the council but not passed by the assembly does not lapse.

A Bill passed by the assembly (in a unicameral state) or passed by both the houses (in a bicameral state)

but pending assent of the governor or the President does not lapse.

A Bill passed by the assembly (in a unicameral state) or passed by both the Houses (in a bicameral state)

but returned by the President for reconsideration of House (s) does not lapse.


54. B

Statement 1 is incorrect: Moscow Declaration, 2017 calls for eliminating additional deaths from HIV co-infection

by 2030 and achieving synergy in coordinated action against Tuberculosis and non-communicable diseases

(NCDs). India is among signatories to the declaration. A co-infection is when a person suffers from two infections

at same time.

Statement 2 is correct: Bali Declaration is adopted at the ‘World Parliamentary Forum on Sustainable

Development’, in Indonesia. The declaration went on to call on all parties to contribute to the restoration of

stability and security, exercise maximum self-restraint from using violent means. It claimed to respect the

human rights of all people in Rakhine State regardless of their faith and ethnicity, as well as facilitate safe access

for humanitarian assistance.


55. B

Statement 1 is correct: Critical Ecosystem Partnership Fund (CEPF) is a global program that provides funding and

technical assistance to non-governmental organizations and other private sector partners to protect critical

ecosystems. They focus on biodiversity hotspots, the Earth's biologically richest yet most endangered areas.

Statement 2 is incorrect: Global Environment Facility (GEF) is the financial mechanism for Convention on

Biological Diversity.

Statement 3 is incorrect: CEPF is a joint initiative of Conservation International, European Union, Global

Environment Facility, Government of Japan, MacArthur Foundation and World Bank.


56. C

Akbar was deeply interested in the improvement and extension of cultivation. He asked the amil to act like a father to the peasants. He was to advance money by way of loans (taccavi) to the peasants for seeds, implements, animals, etc., in times of need, and to recover them in easy instalments. He was to try and induce the peasants to plough as much land as possible and to sow superior quality crops. The zamindars of the area were also enjoined to cooperate in the task.





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57. B

Statements 1 and 2 are correct: SEZ, or Special Economic Zone, is essentially an industrial cluster meant largely

for exports. An SEZ is governed by a special set of rules aimed at attracting direct investment for export-oriented

production. SEZs, earlier known as Export Processing Zones or Free Trade Zones, are duty free enclaves which

are treated as foreign territory only for trade operations, duties, tariffs and typically marked by the best

infrastructure and least red tape.

Therefore, goods supplied to SEZ from the Domestic Tariff Area (DTA) are treated as deemed exports and goods

brought from SEZ to DTA are treated as imported goods. Thus, the domestic sales from the SEZ are subject to

full custom duties and import policy is in force, when they sell their produce to domestic markets.

Statement 3 is incorrect: Minimum Alternate Tax (MAT) has been levied on developers of Special Economic

Zones (SEZs) and units operating in SEZs with effect from 1st April, 2012 vide Finance Act, 2011.


58. A

The Natyashastra, attributed to the sage Bharata Muni, is the first important work on drama, music and dance.

According to some scholars it was composed during the early centuries of the Christian era. Its performing arts

would include drama, dance, theatre, poetry and music.


59. D

Major Ports of India - Kolkata Port, Paradip Port, New Mangalore Port, Cochin Port, Jawaharlal Nehru Port,

Mumbai Port, Kandla Port, Vishakhapatnam Port, Chennai Port, Tuticorin Port, Ennore Port, Mormugao Port,

Port Blair Port


60. A

E-Shakti Initiative

It is a pilot project of National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development (NABARD) for digitisation of Self Help

Groups (SHGs). It was initiated to address certain concerns like improving the quality of book keeping of SHGs

and to enable banks to take informed credit decisions about the group through a Management Information

System (MIS).


61. B

The Strait of Gibraltar is a narrow strait that connects the Atlantic Ocean to the Mediterranean Sea and

separates Gibraltar and Peninsular Spain in Europe from Morocco and Ceuta (Spain) in Africa.

The Sunda Strait (Indonesian: Selat Sunda) is the strait between the Indonesian islands of Java and

Sumatra. It connects the Java Sea to the Indian Ocean.

The Bosporus Strait connects the Black Sea with the Sea of Marmara.





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62. A

Society was essentially patriarchal and birth of son was desired repeatedly. Women were not

independent in the eye of Rig Vedic law. They had to remain under the protecting care of their male

relations. In a male dominated Rig Vedic Society, women as usual could not expect equality with the

male members.

There was no child marriage in the Rig-Veda society. Girls lived in the house of their parents till they

attained marriageable age. They had freedom to select their husbands. Of course, arranged marriages

were a more usual custom.

Mention of the Sati practice can be dated back to the 3rd century BC while evidence of practice by

widows of kings only appears beginning between the 5th and 9th centuries CE. The practice is considered

to have originated within the warrior aristocracy in India, gradually gaining in popularity from the 10th

century AD and spreading to other groups from the 12th through 18th century CE.

Monogamy was the general rule during the Early Vedic Period. Widow Remarriage was permitted.


63. C

A black dot on a third-century Indian manuscript has been identified by Oxford University as the first

recorded use of the mathematical symbol for zero, 500 years earlier than previously thought.

Scientists from the University of Oxford’s have used carbon dating to trace the figure’s origins to the

famous ancient Indian scroll.

The birch bark scroll is known as the Bakhshali manuscript after the village, which is now in Pakistan,

where it was found buried in 1881.

The Bakhshali scroll was already recognised as the oldest Indian mathematical text.


64. A

Statement 1 is correct: Viability Gap Finance means a grant to support projects that are economically justified

but not financially viable.

The VGF scheme was launched in 2004 to support projects that come under Public Private Partnerships. The

scheme is designed as a Plan Scheme to be administered by the Ministry of Finance and amount in the budget

are made on a year-to- year basis.

Such a grant under VGF is provided as a capital subsidy to attract the private sector players to participate in PPP

projects that are otherwise financially unviable.

Statement 2 is correct: VGF grants will be available only for infrastructure projects where private sector

sponsors are selected through a process of competitive bidding. The VGF grant will be disbursed at the

construction stage itself but only after the private sector developer makes the equity contribution required for

the project.




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Statement 3 is incorrect: The usual grant amount is upto 20% of the total capital cost of the project. Funds for

VGF will be provided from the government’s budgetary allocation. If the sponsoring Ministry/State Government/

statutory entity aims to provide assistance over and above the stipulated amount under VGF, it will be restricted

to a further 20% of the total project cost.


65. A

Option A is correct.

66. C

The term 90-90-90 refers to a target set by UNAIDS programme. This target is:

By 2020, 90% of all people living with HIV will know their HIV status.

By 2020, 90% of all people with diagnosed HIV infection will receive sustained anti-retroviral therapy.

By 2020, 90% of all people receiving antiretroviral therapy will have viral suppression.

Sweden is the first to achieve these targets.


67. D

Statement 1 is incorrect: Any question regarding disqualification arising out of defection is to be decided by' the

presiding officer of the House.

Statement 2 is incorrect: Originally, the Act provided that the decision of the presiding officer is final and cannot

be questioned in any court. However, in Kihoto HoIlohan Case (1993), the Supreme Court declared this

provision as unconstitutional on the ground that it seeks to take away the jurisdiction of the Supreme Court and

the high courts. It held that the presiding officer, while deciding a question under the Tenth Schedule, function

as a tribunal. Hence, his decision like that of any other tribunal, is subject to judicial review on the grounds of

mala fides, perversity, etc.


68. C

Option C is correct.

69. A

Statements 1 and 2 are correct.

Statement 3 is correct: Tax Base refers to the value of goods, services and incomes on which tax is imposed.

When economists speak of the tax base being broadened, they mean a wider range of goods, services, income

etc. has been made subject to a tax, In the case of income tax, and the tax base is taxable income.

The Economic Survey 2017-18 observed that one of the main aims of demonetisation and the Goods and

Services Tax (GST) was to increase the formalisation of the economy and bring more Indians into the income tax

net, which includes only about 5.93 crore individual taxpayers (filers and those whose tax is deducted at source

in 2015-16). It is equivalent to 24.7 per cent of the estimated non- agricultural workforce who pays tax.




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After November 2016, 1.01 crore (10.1 million) filers were added compared to an average of 62 lakh (6.2 million)

in the preceding six years.


70. A

Statement 1 is correct: This scheme was launched by Tourism Ministry in close collaboration with Ministry of

Culture and Archaeological Survey of India (ASI). It envisages at developing monuments, heritage and tourist

sites across India and making them tourist friendly and enhance their tourism potential and cultural importance

in planned and phased manner.

Statement 2 is correct: Under it, Private, Public Sector Companies and Corporate individuals will be invited to

adopt heritage sites and to take up responsibility for making them and promote sustainable tourism through

conservation and development under their CSR activities.

Statement 3 is correct: The project primarily focuses on development and maintenance of world-class tourist

infrastructure and amenities including basic civic amenities and advanced amenities like cleanliness, public

conveniences, secure environment, ease of access, illumination and night viewing facilities for inclusive tourist

experience to increase both domestic and foreign tourists footfall.


71. C

Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI) has launched ‘FoSCoRIS’, a nationwide online platform to

bring transparency in food safety inspection and sampling. The food regulator has asked all states to adopt this

system as it would help eliminate discrepancy and make food safety officers accountable

The web-based ‘FoSCoRIS’ system will help to verify compliance of food safety and hygiene standards by food

businesses as per the government norms. It will bring together all key stakeholders– food businesses, food

safety officers, designated officers, state food safety commissioners on a nation-wide IT platform.

FSSAI is a nodal statutory agency responsible for protecting and promoting public health in India through

regulation and supervision of food safety. It was established under the Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006 and

operates under aegis of Union Ministry of Health & Family Welfare.


72. B

Statement 1 is incorrect: The Akali movement aimed to liberate the Sikh gurdawaras (temples) from the control

of corrupt mahants who enjoyed the support of the government.

Statement 2 is correct: In 1921, the Akalis launched it non-violent, non-cooperation Satyagraha movement

against the mahants.

Statement 3 is incorrect: The Akali movement was a secretarian or a regional movement but not a communal

movement.





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73. C

Statement 1 is correct: Articles 358 and 359 describe the effect of a National Emergency on the Fundamental

Rights. Article 358 deals with the suspension of the Fundamental Rights guaranteed by Article 19, while Article

359 deals with the suspension of other Fundamental Rights (except those guaranteed by Articles 20 and 21).

Statement 2 is incorrect: While a proclamation of National Emergency is in operation, the life of the Lok Sabha

may be extended beyond its normal term (five years) by a law of Parliament for one year at a time (for any

length of time). However, this extension cannot continue beyond a period of six months after the emergency

has ceased to operate. For example, the term of the Fifth Lok Sabha (1971-1977) was extended two times by

one year at a time.

The Rajya Sabha is a permanent body and thus National Emergency does not have impact on the life of Rajya

Sabha.

Statement 3 is correct: While a proclamation of Emergency is in force, the normal fabric ·of the Centre-state

relations undergoes a basic change.

During a National Emergency, the Parliament becomes empowered to make laws on any subject

mentioned in the State List.

During a National Emergency, the executive power of the Centre extends to directing any state

regarding the manner in which its executive power is to be exercised.

While a proclamation of National Emergency is in operation, the President can modify the constitutional

distribution of revenues between the centre and the states. This means that the President can either

reduce or cancel the transfer of finances from Centre to the states.

Statement 4 is correct: The Parliament may extend the normal tenure of a state legislative assembly (five years)

by one year each time (for any length of time) during a National Emergency, subject to a maximum period of six

months after the Emergency has ceased to operate.


74. A

Constitution does not define as to who are the persons who belong to Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes.

However, Articles 341 and 342 empower the President of India to draw up a list of these castes and tribes.

Scheduled castes and Scheduled tribes and those castes or tribes as the President may by public

notification specify.

If such a notification is related to a state, then also President will notify the same. However, it can be

done after consultation with the governor of the state

Any inclusion or exclusion from the presidential notification of any caste, race, or tribe can be done by

Parliament by Law.


75. C

Narmada forms an Estuary and not Delta.




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The Sutlej is joined by the Beas River in Hari-Ke-Patan, Amritsar, Punjāb, India and continues southwest

into Pakistan to unite with the Chenab River, forming the Panjnad River near Bahawalpur. The Panjnad

joins the Indus River at Mithankot. Indus then flows through a gorge near Sukkur, flows through the

fertile plains region of Sindh, and terminates in the Arabian Sea near the port city of Karachi in Pakistan.

The Indus forms a huge delta and not Sutlej.


76. A

Statement 1 is correct: Under the Zamindari system, the zamindar was recognised as the owner who could

mortgage, bequeath and sell the land.

Statement 2 is correct: The State held the zamindar responsible for the payment of land revenue and in default

thereof the land could be confiscated and sold out.

Statement 3 is incorrect: British mainly adopted three types of land tenure systems:

Permanent Settlement/Zamindari System: Roughly 19% of total area under British rule – Bengal, Bihar,

Banaras, NWFP divisions.

Ryotwari System: Covered about 51% of the area under British Rule – Assam, Bombay and Madras

Presidencies.

Mahalwari System: Covered 30% of area under British Rule – major parts of NWFP, central provinces

and Punjab.


77. A

Statement 1 is correct: In 1976, the Untouchability (Offences) Act, 1955 has been comprehensively amended

and renamed as the Protection of Civil Rights Act, 1955 to enlarge the scope and make penal provisions more

stringent. The act defines civil right as any right accruing to a person by reason of the abolition of untouchability

by Article 17 of the Constitution.

The term 'untouchability' has not been defined either in the Constitution or in the Act.

Statement 2 is incorrect: The protection under Article 30 is confined only to minorities (religious or linguistic)

and does not extend to any section of citizens (as under Article 29). However, the term 'minority' has not been

defined anywhere in the Constitution.


78. B

Statements 1 and 2 are correct: NACWC set up as an office of Cabinet Secretariat to fulfil obligations under

Chemical Weapons Convention (CWC). It was established under Chemical Weapons Convention Act, 2000.

It acts as national focal point for effective bond with Organisation for Prohibition of Chemical Weapons (OPCW)

and other State Parties on matters relating to CWC meant for prohibition of development, production,

stockpiling and use of chemical weapons and their destruction.




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Statement 3 is incorrect: It comprises a Chairperson and three Directors. Dr. Inderjit Singh is the Chairperson of

the authority.


79. C

The Home Minister has enunciated an operational strategy ‘SAMADHAN’ to fight Left Wing Extremism.

The elements of this strategy are:

S for Smart Leadership.

A for Aggressive Strategy.

M for Motivation and Training.

A for Actionable Intelligence.

D for Dashboard-based Key Result Areas and Key Performance Indicators.

H for Harnessing Technology.

A for Action Plan for Each Theatre.

N for No access to Financing.


80. C

Distribution of Semi-Evergreen Forests: Western Coast, Assam, Lower slopes of the Eastern Himalayas, Odisha

and Andamans.

Natural Vegetation of Uttar Pradesh – Tropical Moist Deciduous, Tropical Dry Deciduous and Tropical Thorn


81. A

iCreate is an independent centre created with the objective of facilitating entrepreneurship through a blend of

creativity, innovation, engineering, product design and leveraging emerging technologies to deal with major

issues such as food security, water, connectivity, cybersecurity, IT and electronics, energy, bio-medical

equipment and devices etc. iCreate aims to develop an ecosystem in India to generate quality entrepreneurs.

Prime Minister Narendra Modi and his Israeli counterpart Benjamin Netanyahu inaugurated a centre for

entrepreneurship and technology in Ahmedabad earlier this year. Dubbed as the International Centre for

Entrepreneurship and Technology (iCreate), the institution aims to identify, nurture and mentors aspiring

entrepreneurs.


82. D

Cloud seeding is the attempt to modify weather by changing the amount or type of precipitation that falls from

clouds. This is done, by dispersing substances into the air that serve as cloud condensation or ice nuclei. These

substances alter the microphysical processes within the cloud. The intent is to increase rain or snow, and to

suppress hail and fog at the airports.




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The most common chemicals used for cloud seeding include silver iodide, potassium iodide and dry ice (solid

carbon dioxide). Liquid propane, which expands into a gas has also been used.


83. D

In general, temperature decreases with increasing altitudes in the troposphere at an average rate of 6.50 C per

1000 metres (normal lapse rate) but sometimes this normal trend of decrease of temperature with increasing

heights is reversed under special circumstances i.e. temperature increases upward upto a few kilometres from

the earth 's surface. This is called negative lapse rate. Thus, warm air layer lies over cold air layer. This

phenomenon meteorologically is called inversion of temperature.


84. A

Under Indian Consititution, all the Fundamental Rights are available against the ‘State' but only 4 fundamental

Rights are available against both State as well as against Private Individual.

These Fundamental Rights are:

Article 15(2) - Provides that No citizen shall be subject to any kind of discrimination on the basis of his

race, religion, place of birth or caste etc. It is available against every individual it means, if anyone does

any kind of discrimination on the basis on any of the above mentioned ground, then he shall be liable for

punishment.

Article 17 - Talks about abolition of Untouchability. It devises that anyone practicing Untouchability shall

be punished.

Article 23 - Prohibits trafficking of humans and forced labour.

Article 24 - Prohibits employment of children in factories and hazardous place.


85. A

Statement 1 is correct: The International Court of Justice (ICJ) is the principal judicial organ of the United

Nations (UN). It was established in June 1945 by the Charter of the United Nations and began work in April 1946.

The seat of the Court is at the Peace Palace in The Hague (Netherlands). Of the six principal organs of the United

Nations, it is the only one not located in New York (United States of America).

The Court’s role is to settle, in accordance with international law, legal disputes submitted to it by States and to

give advisory opinions on legal questions referred to it by authorized United Nations organs and specialized

agencies.

Statement 2 is incorrect: The Internet Corporation for Assigned Names and Numbers (ICANN) is a non-profit

organization responsible for coordinating the maintenance and procedures of several databases related to the

namespaces of the Internet, ensuring the network's stable and secure operation.





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86. A

Rash Behari Bose was an Indian revolutionary leader against the British Raj and was one of the key

organisers of the Ghadar Mutiny and later the Indian National Army.

The Congress session was held on 26 December, 1907 at Surat, on the banks of the river Tapti. The

Extremists were excited by the rumours that the Moderates wanted to scuttle the four Calcutta

resolutions. The Extremists wanted a guarantee that the four resolutions would be passed. To force the

Moderates to do so they decided to object to the duly elected President for the year, Rash Behari

Ghose.

Bal Gangadhar Tilak has never been the president of INC.


87. A

Ken-Betwa Interlinking Project:

The Ken-Betwa ILR project aims to transfer surplus water from the Ken River to the Betwa basin

through concrete canal to irrigate India’s worst drought-prone Bundelkhand region.

It is India’s first inter-State river interlinking project

The main feature of the project is a 230-km long canal and a series of barrages and dams connecting the

Ken and Betwa rivers The key projects are Makodia and Dhaudhan dams.

On completion, the multipurpose project will benefit Uttar Pradesh and Madhya Pradesh in terms of

meeting irrigation, drinking water and electricity needs of people across 6 districts in the two states.


88. D

Gravity tends to pull the water down the pile and create gradient variation.

The Coriolis force intervenes and causes the water to move to the right in the northern hemisphere and

to the left in the southern hemisphere. These large accumulations of water and the flow around them

are called Gyres. These produce large circular currents in all the ocean basins.

Water having high salinity is heavier and it subsides. As a result, light water with less salinity rushes

towards the area of high salinity and a current is formed. To maintain the balance, an undercurrent of

high saline water moves towards the area of lower salinity. For example, the Mediterranean Sea is more

saline than that of the Atlantic Ocean. This results in the flow of a surface current from the Atlantic

towards the Mediterranean and an undercurrent from the Mediterranean to the Atlantic.

More evaporation reduces the amount of water and lowers its level. In order to maintain the balance,

water from other areas starts flowing in the form of a current. For example, evaporation is more in the

Mediterranean Sea than in the Atlantic Ocean. This lowers the water level in the Mediterranean Sea and

current flows from the Atlantic Ocean.





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89. B

Option B is correct.

90. D

Statement 1 is incorrect: Wetlands International is a global organisation that works to sustain and restore

wetlands and their resources for people and biodiversity. It is an independent, not-for-profit, global

organisation, supported by government and NGO membership from around the world.

Montreux Record under the Convention is a register of wetland sites on the List of Wetlands of International

Importance where changes in ecological character have occurred, are occurring, or are likely to occur as a result

of technological developments, pollution or other human interference. It is maintained as part of the Ramsar

List. Sites may be added to and removed from the Record only with the approval of the Contracting Parties in

which they lie.

Statement 2 is incorrect: Conservation International (CI) is an American nonprofit environmental organization

headquartered in Virginia.

Statement 3 is incorrect: TRAFFIC, the Wildlife Trade Monitoring Network, is non-governmental organization

working globally on the trade of wild animals and plants in the context of both biodiversity and sustainable

development. It was founded in 1976 as a strategic alliance of the World Wide Fund for Nature and the

International Union for the Conservation of Nature.


91. A

Project 28 is the primary project for driving localisation and developing the warship construction industry in

India. The aim with this project is to stipulate unprecedented standards while providing opportunities to Indian

vendors to develop expertise with the technology.

The Project 28 corvettes are 2500-tonne warships that will protect Indian Navy battle groups and coastal

installations from lurking enemy submarines.


92. C

The Calcutta Corporation Act 1899, the Official Secrets Act 1904 during Curzon tenure created great

resentment in India.

To arouse political consciousness, to inculcate nationalism, to expose colonial rule, to 'preach disloyalty'

was no easy task, for the nationalists because there had existed since 1870, Section 124A of the Indian

Penal Code according to which 'whoever attempts to excite feelings of disaffection to the Government

established by law in British India' was to be punished with transportation for life or for any term or with

imprisonment upto three years.


93. D

The bulk of aerosols—about 90% by mass—have natural origins. Volcanoes, for example, eject huge columns of

ash into the air, as well as sulfur dioxide and other gases yielding sulphates.




Ph: 011 - 45090051, 9818333201, 9871216382

The remaining 10% of aerosols are considered anthropogenic or human-made, and they come from a variety of

sources.

Automobiles, incinerators, smelters, and power plants are prolific producers of sulfates, nitrates, black carbon,

and other particles.


94. B

Nor Westers: These are dreaded evening thunderstorms in Bengal and Assam. Their notorious nature can be

understood from the local nomenclature of ‘Kalbaisakhi’, a calamity of the month of Baisakh. These showers are

useful for tea, jute and rice cultivation. In Assam, these storms are known as “Bardoli Chheerha”.


95. D

Wetlands occur where water meets land. They include mangroves, peatlands and marshes, rivers and lakes,

deltas, floodplains and flooded forests, rice-fields, and even coral reefs. Wetlands exist in every country and in

every climatic zone, from the polar regions to the tropics, and from high altitudes to dry regions.


96. A

Statement 3 is incorrect: National Human Rights Commission (NHRC) is a statutory body and not a constitutional

body.


97. A

The great Stupa at Sanchi was built with bricks during the time of Ashoka and later it was covered with

stone and many new additions were made.

The Dhamek Stupa at Saranath was built in Gupta period to replace an earlier structure commissioned

by the great Mauryan king Ashoka in 249 BCE, along with several other monuments, to commemorate

the Buddha's activities in this location. King Ashoka built stupas to enshrine small pieces of calcinated

bone and other relics of the Buddha and his disciples.

Rock-cut caves at Barabar were constructed during Mauryan period.

Mathura School of Sculpture, Rock-cut Temples in Western Deccan developed during Post-Mauryan

Period.


98. A

The total strength of the Constituent Assembly was to be 389. Of these, 296 seats were to be allotted

to British India and 93 seats to the Princely States.

Seats allocated to each British province were to be decided among the three principal communities—

Muslims, Sikhs and general (all except Muslims and Sikhs), in proportion to their population.

The representatives of each community were to be elected by members of that community in the

provincial legislative assembly and voting was to be by the method of proportional representation by

means of single transferable vote.




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The representatives of princely states were to be nominated by the heads of the princely states.

The elections to the Constituent Assembly (for 296 seats allotted to the British Indian Provinces) were

held in July–August 1946. The Indian National Congress won 208 seats, the Muslim League 73 seats, and

the small groups and independents got the remaining 15 seats. However, the 93 seats allotted to the

princely states were not filled as they decided to stay away from the Constituent Assembly.


99. D

Merchandise Imports falls under the Visibles of Current Account.


100. D

The Western Himalayas consists of the most continuous range and the loftiest peaks and compared to eastern

Himalayas. The western Himalayas receive more precipitation from northwest in the winters, and eastern

Himalayas receive more precipitation from southeastern monsoon in the summers. Due to higher temperature

and perception, the Eastern Himalayas are far greener with forests than the Western Himalaya.

Western Himalayas Eastern Himalayas

Extends till west of River Kali (around 80°E

Longitude).

Height of the mountains from the plains in this

part rises in a number of stages. The high

mountain ranges are at a long distance from the

plains

Amount of rainfall here is less and is 1/4th of that

of Eastern Himalayas.

The dominant vegetation in the western

Himalayas is Coniferous forests and alpine

vegetations. The Natural vegetation reflects the

impact of lower rainfall.

The altitude of the Western Himalayas is higher

than the Eastern Himalayas

Snowline is Lower than Eastern Himalayas

Western Himalayas receive more precipitation

from northwest in the winters

Less biodiversity in comparison to eastern

Himalayas

This is considered to be ranging from east of the

Singalila ranges in Sikkim (88°E Longitudes) to

eastern boundaries of Himalayas.

This part rises abruptly from the plains, thus peaks

are not faraway from the plains (Example:

Kanchenjunga)

This region receives 4 times more rainfall than

western Himalayas. Due to high rainfalls, it is

covered with dense forests.

Snowline is Higher than Western Himalayas

Eastern Himalayas receive more precipitation from

south-eastern monsoon in the summers.

Much ahead from western Himalayas in terms of

Biodiversity and is one of the Biodiversity

hotspots.


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