geography alive 10: topic 2 test answers · 5 the kyoto protocol was an international agreement...

© John Wiley & Sons Australia, Ltd 1

Geography Alive 10: Topic 2 test answers

Student name:…………………………….......….......…..............……Class:……....…... Marks: ............./40

1 Over 200 years ago, Thomas Malthus devised a theory that population growth would outstrip food

production and more people would die of disease and famine. True or false?

1

True

2 Is this quote true or false? ‘Understanding the interconnection between ecological services and

human action is important for creating unsustainable management of our resources’.

1

False. The quote should read ‘Understanding the interconnection between ecological services and

human action is important for creating sustainable management of our resources’.

3 If a country has a very high ecological footprint, then their level of resource use is considered to be

unsustainable. True or false?

1

True

4 The ‘enhanced greenhouse effect’ has come about through the actions of burning fossil fuels.

True or false?

1

True

5 The Kyoto Protocol was an international agreement decided upon in Kyoto, Japan. The aim of this

protocol was to set targets to reduce greenhouse gas emissions to zero levels. True or false?

1

False. The Protocol was designed so that individual countries could set their own targets.

6 Which of the following gases is NOT considered to be a major contributor to global warming?

A Methane

B Carbon dioxide

C Oxygen

D Nitrous oxide

1

Oxygen

7 Refer to the circular graph on the next page to answer the following question.

(Note: On the graph, the further out from the centre a point is, the higher the rating)

The graph represents Australia’s report card based on the Sustainable Society Index.

On which three items does Australia score poorly?

A Clean air, education and sufficient food

B Greenhouse gases, renewable energy, air quality

C Biodiversity, greenhouse gases, organic farming

D Organic farming, greenhouse gases, renewable farming

1

Topic 2 test answers


Australia’s situation based on the Sustainable Society Index

Greenhouse gases, renewable energy, air quality

8 Which greenhouse gas is the by-product of rotting plant matter and animal flatulence?

A Methane

B Carbon dioxide

C Oxygen

D Nitrous oxide

1

Methane

9 Refer to the graphs below and answer the question that follows.

Australia’s primary energy consumption

Compared to 2012-13, the changes in Australia’s energy consumption in 2029-30 will show

1



A an increased use of both fossil and non-renewable energy sources.

B an increased use of oil and coal.

C an increased use of oil and gas, but a lower use of coal.

D an increased use of all energy sources.

an increased use of oil and gas, but a lower use of coal.

10 To reduce greenhouse gas emissions from transport would require a number of different methods.

Which of the following would NOT be effective?

A Switching to more fuel efficient vehicles such as electric and hybrid

B Increasing the use of public transport as a preference to cars

C Increasing driving speeds to reduce travel times

D Promoting cycling and walking to work

1

Increase driving speeds to reduce travel times

11 Study the diagram below.

Interaction of environmental change with human wellbeing

Explain, with the use of an example, the interconnection between human-induced change, marine

environments and human wellbeing.

3

People may pollute the oceans by discarding waste, creating a change with declining water quality.

As a result, there may be a loss of marine creatures and people may be prevented from eating

seafood due to declining numbers or the threat of ingesting poisonous substances. Wellbeing may

be affected in terms of health or loss of income for fishermen.

12 Ecological services can be defined as ‘what nature provides for mankind.’ There are four main

ecological services. Classify the following examples according to the service that they provide.

8



Place a tick () in the appropriate column for each item.

Example Supporting

service

Provisioning

service

Regulating

service

Cultural

service

Foods items (plants, meat)

Wetlands (purify water) Decomposition of dead plant

and animal matter

Beauty and enjoyment people

receive from nature

Water

Soil formation Ability of streams and soils to

hold water and regulate floods

Tropical rainforests providing

moisture for rain

13 Study the ecological debt map on the next page and answer the following questions.

a. Explain what is meant by the term ‘ecological footprint’. (1)

b. What is the purpose of an ecological footprint? (1)

c. Name one country in the northern hemisphere and one country in the southern hemisphere

where the biocapacity exceeds the ecological footprint by 150 per cent. (2)

d. Name two countries in the northern hemisphere where the ecological footprint exceeds the

biocapacity by over 150 per cent. (2)

a. The term ‘ecological footprint’ refers to the measurement of human demand on the Earth’s

natural systems and ecosystems. (1 mark)

b. An ecological footprint gives us a score that is a useful indicator of environmental

sustainability. (1 mark)

c. Examples in the northern hemisphere include Canada, Guyana, Suriname, Mongolia,

Liberia, Central African Republic and Mauritania. (1 mark)

In the southern hemisphere examples include Papua New Guinea, Angola, Zambia,

Malawi, Madagascar and most countries in South America. (1 mark)

d. Examples in the northern hemisphere include Egypt, Libya, England, Spain, Italy,

Belgium, Iraq, Japan and North and South Korea. (2 marks)

(Note: There are no examples in the southern hemisphere.)

Ecological debt map

6



14 With the use of the diagram below, explain the concept of the greenhouse effect. (Use the space

alongside the diagram to write your answer.)

How the greenhouse effect works

3

The sun’s energy passes through the

atmosphere and heats the Earth. This

then heats the atmosphere. The heat is

literally ‘trapped’ by water vapour and

gases so that the atmosphere acts as a

lid helping to retain the heat. This is

similar to the glass/plastic in a

greenhouse, which effectively prevents

heat from escaping.



15 Study the information provided in the graph below.

World electricity generation by fuel, 2005–30

a. Using data, describe the increase in world electricity generation from 2005 to 2030. (2)

b. Compare the sources of energy for the world’s electricity generation for 2015 and 2030.

Use data in your answer. (6)

c. Suggest two reasons as to why nuclear energy will remain only the fourth most important

fuel source. (2)

10

a. World electricity generation has increased from 17 trillion kilowatt hours in 2005 and is

expected to reach 33 trillion kilowatt hours by 2030. (2 marks)

b. In 2015 the largest fuel sources were coal (11 trillion kw), natural gas (6 trillion) and

renewable (5 trillion). In 2030 the same three energy sources will be the most important,

with all increasing with coal increasing the most. Coal 17 trillion, gas 9 trillion and

renewable at 6 trillion kilowatt hours. (6 marks)

c. The nuclear industry, since the Fukushima incident does not have all of its safety issues

under control and is perceived by the public to be a dangerous type of energy. It is a very

expensive form of power plant to construct and has a very short life span as within a few

years the reactors become too radioactive for repairs etc. (2 marks)




1 Changes that take place along a coastline are always short-term in their impacts. True or false? 1

False. Some changes can have long term impacts for example climate change is having a long term

impact on coastlines around the world.

2 The first people expected to be ‘climate refugees’ escaping rising sea levels will come from the

small Pacific Islands. True or false?

1

True

3 Globally, more than 41 per cent of the population lives within 100 kilometres of the coastline.

True or false?

1

True

4 Below is a transect or cross-section of a beach and series of sand dunes.

Transect showing the beach and stable and well-vegetated dunes

The type of vegetation responsible for stabilising the foredune (first dune) is grasses.

True or false?

1

True

5 The Twelve Apostles off the south-west coast of Victoria are coastal landforms known as stacks.

These are remnants of former cliffs. True or false? True

1



6 Which of the following is NOT a landform that we associated with coastal places?

A Estuaries

B Seagrass beds

C Mangrove swamps

D Sand dunes

E None of the above

1

None of the above

7 Mangrove wetlands are very important coastal environments. Which of the following is NOT a

feature of mangrove wetlands?

A Their extensive root system helps trap sediment and build up coastal land.

B They act as a barrier to wave erosion.

C They provide a breeding ground and nursery for birds and fish.

D They provide ideal recreational spaces.

1

They provide ideal recreational spaces

8 Examine the photograph of a coastal arch below.

Tasman’s Arch, Tasmania

1

Wave erosion cuts a wave cut notch into the base of a headland. Over time this enlarges to form a

cave on each side of the headland. Over time the caves erode further cutting through the headland

forming an arch.

Which is the most correct description of the

formation of an arch?

A Wave erosion cuts a hole through the harder rock

of a headland.

B Wave erosion cuts a wave cut notch into the base

of a headland. Over time this enlarges to form a

cave on each side of the headland. Over time the

caves erode further cutting through the headland

forming an arch.

C Over time, the softer rock of a cliff is eroded by

wind and water cutting a hole from the surface

down towards the sea.

D Deposition over time creates a bridge from a

stack to a cliff top effectively creating a lid,

which forms a cave beneath.



9 Locate Mitchies Beach on the topographic extract of Merimbula below.

Topographic map extract of Merimbula, New South Wales

For this sand spit to form Mitchies Beach, the predominant direction of longshore drift would have

to be from the

A north-west.

B north-east.

C south-west.

D south-east.

1

south-west.

10 What are the environmental requirements for the formation of a sandy beach?

A Sand supply, offshore winds, destructive waves, headland

B Sand supply, onshore winds, constructive waves, bay

C Sand supply, longshore drift, bay, destructive waves

D Sand supply, dune system, bay, constructive waves

1

Sand supply, onshore winds, constructive waves, bay

11 Describe four changes to the coastal environment that rising sea levels can bring. 4

Changes to the coastal environment from sea level rising include:

Increase in intensity and frequency of storm surges and coastal flooding

Increased coastal erosion

Flooding on low lying coastal communities

Loss of infrastructure e.g. roads, rails and ports

Loss of coastal wetlands, mangroves and coral reef ecosystems.



12 Longshore drift is an important coastal process responsible for moving sand, as well as creating

and destroying beaches.

Longshore drift

Using the diagram, explain what happens to a pebble as it is moved along the coast in a longshore

drift current.

4

Waves approaching a beach at an angle break

The swash runs up the beach at the same angle pushing the pebble with it.

Backwash drags the pebble straight back down to the water’s edge

The next wave pushed it onto the beach at the same angle as the approaching wave. In this

way the pebble is moved along the beach in a zig-zag motion.

13 Bangladesh is a largely flat country prone to flooding and the changes brought on by rising sea

levels.

Study the diagram on the next page and then in the table below provide one example of a social,

environmental and economic factor that interconnect to cause large-scale flooding across the

country.

Factor How does this factor contribute to flooding?

Social Rising populations and the need to produce food contributes to clearing of

slopes in the Himalayan Mountains increasing soil erosion

A large percent of the population live in low lying regions, making them

vulnerable to floods (1 mark)

Environmental Annual monsoons creates heavy rain and snow falls in the Himalayas

increasing the volume of water in rivers flowing onto the floodplains and

delta

Increased sediment from erosion blocks river channels reducing their

ability to hold flood water (1 mark)

Economic Irrigation systems and dams have blocked the supply of silt to the rivers

downstream that would normally allow the floodplain and delta to build

up higher, protecting the land (1 mark)

3



14 Coasts are very important environments.

a. List four ways in which people use the coastal region. (4)

b. Describe three human activities that have brought changes to coastal environments. (3)

c. Traditionally, has our management of coastal areas been sustainable? Explain. (1)

8

a. People use the coast for: settlement, transport, industry, agriculture, recreation,

conservation, waste disposal, a food source and tourism. (4 marks)

b. Examples of human activities that have brought changes to the coast:

construction of ports, sea walls etc affect the movement of sand along the coast and

alter wave patterns

building on sand dunes effectively blocks the natural sand supply to the beach and if

damaged by storms, requires expensive structures to protect properties, roads etc

clearing of wetlands and mangroves takes away natural shore protection and destroys

habitats for fish and seabirds

dumping of waste into the sea pollutes the water

long-term burning of fossil fuels is creating global warming and rises in sea levels (3

marks)

c. Management of coastal areas has been unsustainable and done with little thought to the

natural environment and the various processes at work along the coast. (1 mark)



15 Below are three different methods used to protect coastlines and human infrastructure from coastal

erosion. Suggest an advantage and disadvantage to each method.

Method Advantage Disadvantage

Beach

nourishment

Keeps a natural look to the beach

Low environmental impact on

beach

Sand would have to be brought in from

another place.

Not a permanent solution and would need

ongoing maintenance

Sea wall

Prevents further erosion of

coastline behind the seawall

Wave attack at the base of the sea wall will

strip sand away from beach

Will need continual replenishing of beach

Visual eyesore

Expensive to construct and maintain

Purchase

property

Would allow the coastal area to be

reverted back to a natural

environment

Very expensive

People may not be in agreement with losing

their property

6




1 Currents in the ocean are similar to winds in the atmosphere as they help transfer heat.

True or false?

1

True

2 Micro-plastics are extremely small pieces of plastic that have gradually been worn down by the

action of wind, waves and sunlight. They usually enter the sea from being washed overboard from

ships. True or false?

1

False. Plastics generally enter the ocean after being washed from land surfaces into rivers and

drains that empty into the sea.

3 Look closely at the timeline for decomposition of marine litter.

Time periods for the decomposition of marine litter

Litter that is made up of natural-based materials tends to have a longer life in the ocean than

materials made up of plastics and aluminium. True or false?

1

False. Items such as nylon fishing line and aluminium cans can take several hundred years to

breakdown compared to natural items such as paper and wood, which may take weeks to several

years to break down.

4 Ghost nets refer to rafts of fishing nets that are used to catch sharks and other marine pests.

True or false?

1

False. Ghost nets are discarded or lost fishing nets that can accumulate in large ‘raft’-like

formations and float around in ocean currents for years.

5 Ghost nets are a form of marine pollution in many places around the world, including northern

Australia. Refer to the map on the next page, which shows the distribution of ghost net hot spots

around northern Australia.

For ghost nets to arrive on the beaches on the west coast of the Gulf of Carpentaria they must have

been swept in from both the north-west monsoon wind and the south-west trade wind. Is this true

or false? True

1



Distribution of ghost net hot spots around northern Australia

6 Plastic is one of the most common types of marine debris. What are the characteristics of plastic

that make it such a problem in the oceans?

A It is light, cheap to produce and disposable.

B It is light, not biodegradable and can be mistaken for food by marine creatures.

C It is very cheap to produce and can be used to make thousands of different products.

D it can easily be moved by wind and water and is biodegradable.

1

It is light, not biodegradable and can be mistaken for food by marine creatures.

7 Examine the map on the next page, showing the top 10 sources of marine plastic waste.

Which two places are responsible for approximately 12 million tonnes of marine litter?

A China and Malaysia

B China and Indonesia

C Vietnam and the Philippines

D Indonesia and Vietnam

China and Indonesia

1



Top 10 sources of marine plastic waste

8 The most effective scale with which to deal with marine pollution is

A at a local scale by reducing land-based sources in every community.

B at a national scale through new government laws that allow fines for people caught dumping

litter in the ocean.

C at a regional scale by having countries in the worst polluted areas working together to clean up

the oceans.

D at a global scale with the United Nations bringing in new regulations on how much plastic can

be dumped in the oceans.

1

at a local scale by reducing land-based sources in every community.

9 One of the problems with dealing with the issue of ghost nets in the Gulf of Carpentaria is the

isolation of the region. Why is this a problem?

A It is too expensive to collect the nets and move to a major city for destroying or recycling.

B It is too far away from the source countries, notably Indonesia.

C There is a need to find local people to collect and recycle the nets.

D There really isn’t a problem because no-one can see them.

1

It is too expensive to collect the nets and move to a major city for destroying or recycling.

10 Which type of environment would be most at risk from damaging oil spills?

A Sheltered coastlines with frequent storms

B Exposed coastlines exposed to strong wind and wave action

C Sheltered mangroves and salt marshes

D Sheltered coastlines with rocky shores

1

Sheltered mangroves and salt marshes



11 The Global Ocean Conveyor Belt is a large-scale ocean current. Read the information on the

world map below and then choose from the options provided to complete the table with the correct

descriptions.

The Global Ocean Conveyor Belt and the five main ocean gyres

Water temperature: Warm Cold

Flow direction: North South East North-west North-east

Place on map Direction of flow Water temperature

A North-west Cold

B East Cold

C North Cold

D South Warm

E North-east Warm

10



12 Marine pollution is any harmful substance that enters the ocean. Largely it is the result of human

activities ranging from raw sewage to chemicals, litter and even abandoned and sunken old ships.

How can pollution be deposited into oceans? Suggest two examples for each of the following

sources.

Marine Land Atmosphere

Oil spills Fertilisers washed off

farmland into rivers Traffic exhaust

Rubbish discarded by

shipping

Litter discarded on land

and washed into the sea

Atmospheric pollution

washed out by rain

(6 marks)

6

13 Different marine creatures can be affected by different types of debris.

TABLE 1 Numbers of wildlife found entangled in marine debris, from 25 years of data

Study the information in table 1 above and then complete the table on the next page, to show the

three main species most affected by the debris items listed.

Type of marine litter Three species most affected

Fishing lines Birds, fish, invertebrates

Fishing hooks Birds, fish, invertebrates

Rope Birds, fish, mammals

Plastic bags Birds, fish, invertebrates

Beverage bottles Invertebrates, fish, mammals

5



14 a. What are the largest sources of oil in the ocean? (2)

b. Suggest two factors that might contribute to one marine oil spill becoming a large-scale

environmental disaster while another may only require minimal cleaning up. (2)

4

a. The largest sources of oil in the ocean come from drilling rigs and effluent, shipping spills

and tanker disasters. Oil can also seep naturally from the sea bed. (2 marks)

b. The factors that could contribute to an oil spill becoming a large-scale disaster include:

weather; windy weather would disperse the oil faster, warmer temperatures would

increase the rate of decomposition

waves; choppy seas would disperse faster than calm water

the size of the spill

time taken for emergency teams to arrive

distance from coastline would affect the scale of coastline affected. (2 marks)

15 a. Which of the two main methods of cleaning up oil spills is the more effective: remediation

(cleaning up) or preventative methods? Explain your answer. (2)

b. Describe three different methods used to clean up a marine oil spill: two methods that are

suitable for cleaning up oil at sea and one method for cleaning up oil that has washed onto

shore. (3)

5

a. Prevention is always better than a cure — preventative methods can prevent accidental oil

spills occurring in the first place. Better designs for ships, increased safety handling and

improved designs on oil rigs would all help. (2 marks)

b. Different methods of cleaning up a marine oil spill:

At sea

spraying chemical dispersants from either boats or planes

boats with booms can skim oil off the water surface

burning oil collected via booms

bioremediation using microorganisms and fertilisers (to encourage algae growth) to

break the oil down into less harmful components (2 marks)

On land

using absorbent material and mats to soak up

manually raking and removing oil from beaches with heavy equipment

natural processes – leaving the oil to break down naturally. (1 mark)




1 The notion of ‘wellbeing’ indicates a state of existence characterised by good health, happiness,

extreme wealth and welfare. Is this statement true or false?

1

False. Extreme wealth is not included in the definition, rather, prosperity is the correct term, i.e.,

having enough money to live comfortably.

2 This cartogram distorts the world to show countries where extreme poverty exists, that is, people

living on less than $US 1.25 per day. From the cartogram, itappears that the African region is the

most affected. True or false?

The proportion of the world’s population (shown as a cartogram) living on less than

$1.25 US per day

1

True

3 Aid is the transfer of assistance or resources from one country to another with the aim of

benefitting the donor country. Is this a true or false definition?

1

False. The aim is to improve conditions in the receiving country.

4 Human rights have their basis in many of the world’s religions including Buddhism, Islam and

Christianity. True or false?

1

True

5 In general, the Human Development Index for most countries in Sub-Saharan Africa has declined

since the 1990s. True or false?

True

1



6 During the mid 20th century, levels of development were classified according to First, Second and

Third World countries. Which of the following are examples of ‘First World’ countries?

A USA, Australia, Japan and the countries of western Europe

B Brazil, Canada, China and the United Kingdom

C India, Egypt, Sudan and Chile

D Australia, China, USA, France and Brazil

1

USA, Australia, Japan and the countries of western Europe

7 The Human Development Index (HDI) was developed to measure wellbeing according to four key

indicators. These are:

A income, television ownership, number of children, type of government.

B life expectancy, infant mortality rate, life expectancy, number of doctors per 1000 population.

C average years of schooling, literacy rates, percentage of population with university degrees, age.

D life expectancy, literacy, education and income.

1

life expectancy, literacy, education and income.

8 The condition in which people do not have sufficient food or water to meet their daily needs is

known as

A the poverty line.

B absolute poverty.

C relative poverty.

D comparative poverty.

1

absolute poverty

9 Examine the pie graph on the next page, which shows undernourishment measured by protein

intake.

In total, Asia as a continent holds ............... million people who are undernourished compared to

the continent of Africa which has ............... million.

A 512 million, 224 million

B 426 million, 220 million

C 281 million, 224 million

D 206 million, 220 million

512 million, 224 million

1



Undernourishment in 2014–16, by region (in millions)

10 Study the world map of political rights.

Political rights around the world, 2015

Which regions of the world generally do not have political freedom?

A All continents with the exception of Australia

B Most of Africa and Asia

C Much of Africa, the Middle East and Asia

D All of the less developed regions

1

Much of Africa, the Middle East and Asia.



11 While it is easy to use indicators to measure a person’s wellbeing in terms of levels of wealth, it is

much harder to measure things such as levels of happiness and security.

a. Explain, with the use of examples, the difference between qualitative and quantitative

indicators to measure wellbeing. (2)

b. Can you measure wellbeing using just quantitative indicators? Explain. (2)

4

a. Quantitative indicators can easily be measured and stated using numbers, for example

income, life expectancy and the number of doctors in a place. Qualitative indicators usually

measure a quality of life not easily measured using numbers. For example people’s sense of

freedom or security. (2 marks).

b. Using quantitative indicators only gives a narrow perspective. A person’s income level, for

example, is irrelevant if they are not happy or do not feel safe or valued. (2 marks)

12 From the options provided, select the type of indicator that each of the examples below could

measure.

Political state Society Economic conditions

Technological advancement Environmental conditions

Example Type of indicator

Access to internet Technological advancement

Income levels Economic conditions

Literacy levels Society

Air quality Environmental conditions

Access to electricity Technological advancement

Percentage of population employed Economic conditions

CO2 emissions Environmental conditions

Fertility levels Society

Number of females in government Political state

Mobile phone or television ownership Technological advancement

Life expectancy Society

Percentage of population receiving financial assistance Economic conditions

Access to fresh water Environmental conditions

Government investment in education Political state

7



13 The North–South divide (Brandt Line) was developed in 1980 and effectively divided the world

into ‘rich’ and ‘poor’. Refer to the world map below and answer the questions that follow.

World map showing various definitions of development

a. Is this line still accurate today? Give reasons for your answer. (2)

b. Would it be possible to draw a new line? Give reasons for your answer. (2)

4

a. The Brandt Line is no longer accurate as many countries once designated as being

undeveloped now have rapidly growing economies and a higher standard of living, for

example, Brazil, Argentina and Mexico. (2 marks)

b. It would be extremely difficult to draw a new line as firstly, the indicator of developed or

undeveloped is too simplistic and fails to take into account a wide range of qualitative

indicators. Secondly, it would not be very accurate – there would be difficulty in

determining which indicators you would use. (2 marks)

14 The Happy Planet Index (HPI) uses a combination of life expectancy, experienced wellbeing and

the ecological footprint of a country to create a six-colour traffic light HPI score.

Refer to the HPI map on the next page.

a. Describe the distribution of countries that have the lowest score. (2)

The majority of countries with the lowest score are mostly clustered in sub-Saharan Africa.

Three are located in Europe; two in the Middle East, and Mongolia and the USA are the

remaining countries. (2 marks)

(Note: question part b. is included on the next page, beneath the map.)

6



The happiest countries in the world according to the Happy Planet Index

b. Indicate whether each of the following statements is true or false. (4)

i. Australia has one of the highest levels of happiness rating. False

ii. The USA has a higher happiness rating than Canada. False

iii. As a continent, Africa has the greatest number of countries with a ‘least happy’ rating.

True

iv. Countries on the South American continent tend to be happier than those on the North

American continent. True

i. Australia’s rating is the second-least happy.

ii. The USA’s happiness rating is ‘least happy’; Canada’s is in the second-least happy rating.

15 Choose the best word from the options provided to complete the sentences below.

Superseded Sustainable Social

Sustainable Worldwide Millennium

United Nations World Health Organization US Government

political social working

developed poor third world

developing disease prosperity

peace planet poverty

The ... Sustainable... Development Goals (SDGs) replace the now outdated ... Millennium...

Development Goals, a ... United Nations... plan to improve ... social... and economic conditions.

The SDGs apply to all countries, not just the ... developing... ones. The three main themes of the

SDGs are to end ... poverty..., protect the ... planet... and ensure ... prosperity... for everyone.

(8 x ½ = 4 marks)

4




1 In general, population density is not evenly distributed across the world. True or false? 1

True

2 There is a strong interconnection between the distribution of places with high population densities

and the distribution of megacities. Is this a true or false observation?

Global population density and the world’s largest cities

1

True

3 Infant mortality refers to the total number of children in a population that die between the ages

of 1–5 years. True or false?

1

False. Infant mortality refers to the death of infants under the age of 12 months.

4 In general, countries with developed economies tend to have low birth and death rates and low life

expectancy. True or false?

1

False. Countries with developed economies have high life expectancies as well as low birth and

death rates.

5 By 2025 it is expected that India’s population will exceed that of China. True or false? 1

True



6 Look closely at the world map of population density.

Global population density and the world’s largest cities

Which of the following statements is the most accurate description of global population density of

over 100 people per square kilometre?

A Clustered mostly on the eastern side of all continents with the exception of Australia

B Randomly located across most of the USA, China, India, Japan and a few other places

C Mostly found in the northern hemisphere between the Tropic of Cancer and the Arctic Circle

D Scattered across all continents with the exception of Australia. Highest concentrations are

located in eastern USA, Europe, western Africa and southern and South-East Asia

1

Scattered across all continents with the exception of Australia. Highest concentrations are located in

eastern USA, Europe, western Africa and southern and South-East Asia

7 Which of the following factors would NOT explain the reason why life expectancy across the world

has been increasing since the mid 1700s?

A Improvements in health care, medicines and hygiene

B Improvements in diet

C Improvements in the range of employment opportunities for both men and women

D Improvements in food production and distribution

1

Improvements in the range of employment opportunities for both men and women



8 A population which is neither expanding nor contracting has a fertility level at replacement rate.

What is the replacement rate?

A 2.0 babies born to every female in her reproductive years

B 2.1 babies born to every female in her reproductive years

C 3.0 babies born to every female in her reproductive years

D 1.0 babies born to every female in her reproductive years

1

2.1 babies born to every female in her reproductive years

9 Population growth rate is the difference between birth and death rates. A growth rate of 3 per cent

means that the population will double within approximately 23 years. Examine the population

change map below and answer the question that follows.

Population change

Which of the following is the most correct statement?

A Regions where populations are going to double in the next 23 years are found in Africa, the

Middle East and southern Asia.

B Generally, across the world, populations are only growing by 0–1 per cent.

C The region where population growth rate is the highest is Africa and the region with declining

populations is western Europe.

D The regions of the world showing declining populations are Europe and North America.

1

The region where population growth rate is the highest is Africa and the region with declining

populations is western Europe.



10 Study the graph below showing the impact of AIDS on life expectancy.

Impact of AIDS on life expectancy

What is the general trend shown for Botswana on this graph?

A Life expectancy dropped from 65.1 to a low of 33.9 in 2010 but has since improved to 54.1 yrs.

B Life expectancy in general has shown a decline across all four countries but there have been

recent improvements.

C Botswana has the lowest life expectancy of 33.9 years in 2010.

D Life expectancy for Botswana is almost the same as for Zimbabwe, with similar increases and

decreases.

1

Life expectancy dropped from 65.1 to a low of 33.9 in 2010 but has since improved to 54.1 yrs.

11 The physical environment can influence population distribution in any one place. With the use of

examples, explain how the following can influence population distribution:

climate

landform.

6

Influence of climate:

Places with mild climates tend to support higher populations than places with extreme

climate such as deserts and polar regions. For example, higher populations can be found

in the countries around the north coast of the Mediterranean Sea but fewer in countries

along the southern coastline where arid conditions are found in Egypt and Libya. Places

with reliable rainfall to support farming also support higher populations for example

Indonesia where in some areas up to three rice crops per year can be grown. (3 marks)

Influence of landform:

Places with flat fertile valleys are generally highly populated as soils tend to be fertile

alluvial soils, fresh water is available and the land is flat and suitable for urban growth.

River Valleys such as the Ganges, Mississippi and Nile and examples. Regions that are

mountainous have poor soil quality, or lack sufficient surface or groundwater are less

populated. For example, the Andes and Himalayas. (3 marks)



12 Life expectancy figures vary across the world. Refer to the map below and answer the questions

that follow.

Global life expectancy

a. Identify the average life expectancy for the following places. (4)

Country Life expectancy

China Over 75

India 65–70

South Africa Less than 60

Brazil 70–75

b. List two reasons why a country may have a low life expectancy. (2)

6

Reasons why a country may have a low life expectancy include:

low level of medical care

poverty

poor diet

poor water quality

low levels of education (2 marks)



13 Examine the graph below and answer the questions that follow.

Changing global fertility rates

a. Which region of the world has shown the greatest decline in fertility rates from 1960–2015?

Use data in your answer. (2)

b. Suggest three reasons why a country’s fertility rate might decline. (3)

5

a. The greatest decline in fertility rate has been seen in Latin America and the Caribbean, with

the rate decreasing by 3.6; from around 5.7 in 1960 to 2.1 in 2015. (2 marks)

b. Reasons for a decline in fertility could include:

improved education, especially for females

government incentives to reduce birth rates

increased number of women in the workforce

improved health care and declining birth rates

increased access to birth control (3 marks)

14 There is considerable variation in wellbeing across India in most quantitative indicators. The map

on the next page shows variation in literacy. Study the map and answer the questions that follow.

5



Literacy rates (percentage) in India, 2011

a. Circle the correct option to complete each of the following statements:

i. The national average effective literacy rate is 74 per cent. A number of states have

literacy rates below this national average. These include

A Rajasthan, Assam and Maharashtra.

B Gujarat, Madhya Pradseh and Orissa.

C Arunchal Pradesh, Andhra Pradesh and Rajasthan.

D Jammu and Kasmir, Haryana and Rajasthan.

ii. The state with the highest literacy rate is

A Tamil Nadu.

B Himachal Pradesh.

C Goa.

D Kerala.

E Maharashtra.



iii. In general, the states with the lowest literacy levels are found

A across the northern regions of the country.

B in the far south of the country.

C in the country’s coastal regions.

D in the country’s west.

b. Suggest another indicator of wellbeing that might show a similar distribution pattern to the

literacy map.

c. What is the interconnection between literacy rates and wellbeing?

a. i. Arunchal Pradesh, Andhra Pradesh and Rajasthan.

ii. Kerala.

iii. across the northern regions of the country.

b. Other indicators that might show a similar distribution map could be:

the percentage of females in school

the infant mortality rate

poverty levels. ( 1 mark)

c. As people become more literate and educated they have better opportunities for employment

and further education, which can help improve their income and living conditions. (This is

especially true for females who, once educated tend to delay marriage and childbirth thus

helping to reduce birth rates.) (1 mark)

15 The graph on the next page shows changes in Australia’s population from 1900 to 2015.

Study the graph and answer the following questions.

a. Indicate whether each of the following statements is true or false. (4)

i. In 1946, total population change was significantly higher than it was in 1950. T/F

ii. In 1946 nearly all Australian population growth was due to natural change but in

1950 more than half the growth was due to migration. T/F

iii. In 2006, natural increase was around 125 000, which was significantly higher than

migrant increase at that time. T/F

iv. The highest level of natural increase occurred in the 1970s. T/F

b. Identify one political and one economic factor to explain a change in population growth.

Use data to support your points. (4)

8



Australia’s changing population growth

a. i. False – Population change was significantly higher in 1950 than it was in 1946 (more than

250 000 in 1950, compared with around 100 000 in 1946).

ii. True

iii. False – Natural increase in 2006 was 125 000 but migrant increased was higher (around

175 000).

iv. True (4 x 1 mark)

b. An economic factor was the Great depression in the 1930s which caused a significant drop

in birth rates. By 1936 Australia’s population growth was only 50 000 – the lowest figure for

the entire time period shown in the graph. (2 marks)

A political factor was the government offering financial assistance to migrants coming to

Australia, which saw the growth rate increase to 260 000 in 1950. World War II was another

political factor which saw growth rates drop to 55 000 in 1940 and then after the war, a post

war baby boom. (2 marks)




1 Study the graph below and answer the question that follows.

Reproductive health indicators, 1990–2015

From 1990 to 2015 the use of contraception on a global scale has increased by 12 per cent.

True or false?

1

True

2 People living in ‘extreme poverty’, by definition means that they have to survive on less than

$US1.30 per day. Is this a true or false definition?

1

True

3 Levels of wellbeing can vary from place to place. Variations can exist at the local, regional and

national scale for any country. True or false?

1

True

4 Look at the map on the next page, which depicts the affordability of houses in Melbourne.

In general, housing affordability in Melbourne decreases with increased distance from the centre of

the city. True or false?

False. The map shows that housing affordability increases with increased distance from the centre

of the city.

1



Affordability of houses in Melbourne, 2013

5 Study the graph below and answer the question that follows on the next page.

Teenage fertility rates

1



The number of births per 1000 girls aged 15–19 in the USA is twice the rate found in Japan.

True or false?

False. The number of births in Japan is a little over 5 per 1000 compared to the USA, where the

rate is 36 per 1000 girls.

6 Rates of maternal mortality (the death of a woman while pregnant or within 42 days of termination

of pregnancy) are high throughout many developing countries. Which of the following would NOT

be a contributing factor?

A Low levels of female education

B Difficulty in accessing information on health and contraception

C High levels of health and nutrition amongst pregnant women

D Acute poverty

1

High levels of health and nutrition amongst pregnant women

7 Safe drinking water and access to basic sanitation is of critical importance to human health,

especially for children. This is because

A millions of people worldwide do not have access to these basic requirements.

B water-related diseases are the most common cause of death amongst the poor in developing

countries.

C contaminated drinking water tastes awful and many people cannot afford to buy bottled water.

D governments do not spend enough money on providing these services.

1

water-related diseases are the most common cause of death amongst the poor in developing

countries.

8 The Australian Government in conjunction with other agencies has initiated the Closing the Gap

program, aimed at reducing inequalities and improving some of the socioeconomic problems

facing Australia’s Aboriginal and Torres Strait Islander population.

The program focuses on six main targets to be achieved.

Which of the following is NOT one of the targets?

A Improve life expectancy

B Improve public transport in isolated communities

C Improve employment opportunities

D Improve education levels

Improve public transport in isolated communities

1



9 Study the map of maternal mortality below.

Global scale distribution of maternal mortality

Two regions of the world where maternal mortality is greater than 300 maternal deaths per 100 000

live births are

A sub-Saharan Africa and South Asia.

B sub-Saharan Africa and South America.

C South-East Asia and Africa.

D Africa and the Caribbean/Central America.

1

sub-Saharan Africa and South Asia.

10 The number of teenage pregnancies in the United States is amongst the highest in the developed

world. One in ten babies is born to a teenage mother. When the distribution of teenage pregnancies

is mapped there is a strong interconnection between places where teenage pregnancies are high

and which other places?

A Places where there are fewer schools

B Places where there is a range of employment opportunities

C Places where poverty is high

D Places where there are high rates of attendance at universities

1

Places where poverty is high



11 The map below shows the distribution of sex ratios in India. That is, the difference between the

number of male and female children in a population. Study the map and then answer the questions

that follow.

Variation in sex ratio within India

7



a. Describe the distribution of states where the ratio is less than 925 girls to every 1000 boys.

(2)

b. Circle the correct option to complete this sentence: (1)

The states with the highest ratio of girls to boys tend to be located

in the west.

in the north-west.

in the south and south-east.

in the central regions.

c. Explain how two social factors could contribute to an uneven sex ratio. (2)

d. Outline one short-term and one long-term potential consequence of such an imbalance in

the sexes. (2)

a. The distribution is clustered in the north and north-west of the country. Exceptions are the

states of Sikkim and Arunachal Pradesh to the north-east, and the Andaman and Nicobar

Islands, in the Bay of Bengal. (2 marks)

b. in the south and south-east (1mark)

c. Two social factors that could contribute to an uneven sex ratio:

The preference for male children over female as the males carry on the family name and are

seen as the ‘bread winners’, whereas females are seen as an economic burden

The illegal practice of female infanticide where ultrasounds are used to determine the sex of

unborn babies and female foetuses are aborted (sex-selective abortion). (2 marks)

d. In the short term, there is more pressure on women to keep having pregnancies until they

have the required male child, thus increasing the risk of maternal mortality.

In the long term they may be a shortage of eligible females to marry as the males

outnumber the females. (This has been the case in China as a result of their One Child

Policy.) (2 marks)

12 Many people around the world live in slums, or bustees or favelas, as they are known in Brazil.

These slums develop over time as people who cannot afford housing create their own shelters on

any available free land.

a. Describe three problems that would exist for people living in illegal favelas in Rio de

Janeiro. (3)

b. In general, where have the people come from who end up in the favelas, and why do they

come? (2)

c. What is the Brazilian Government doing to improve the wellbeing of people living in

favelas? (2)

(Note: There is space at the top of the next page for you to write your answers.)

7



a. Problems that would exist include: (any 3 points for 3 marks)

substandard housing

a lack of infrastructure such as plumbed water, sewerage and electricity

vulnerability to fire, landslides and extreme weather as housing in often on steep

slopes

a lack of public transport and access with often one main road and a series of laneways

and stairs for moving around

high crime rate

social issues associated with unemployment, low incomes and low levels of education.

b. Up to 65 per cent of the population growth is due to people migrating in from rural areas.

They come in search of employment and an opportunity for a better life. (2 marks)

c. The government is actively trying to: (any 2 points for 2 marks)

reduce the crime rate in the favelas with special police groups

replace the favelas with low income housing

construct cable cars as public transport to help move people around.

13 There is large-scale disparity in wellbeing for Indigenous and non-Indigenous people within

Australia. Study the graph below and answer the questions that follow on the next page.

Indicators of Indigenous wellbeing

7



a. Compare the indicators of life expectancy and percentage of people in the workforce for

both groups of people. Complete the table below with figures from the graph. (3)

Indicator Indigenous people Non-Indigenous people

Life expectancy males 70 yrs 80 yrs

Life expectancy females 74 yrs 84 yrs

Percentage aged 15–64 in workforce 48% 70%

(3 marks)

b. What conclusions can you draw for your summary table? (2)

c. These are all quantitative indicators. What qualitative indicators, specific to the Aboriginal

culture, could be used and would they give a different perspective on wellbeing? (2)

b. Conclusions drawn: Indigenous people have issues with health contributing to lower life

expectancy for both males and females and there is a high degree of unemployment

amongst Indigenous populations compared to the non-Indigenous population. (2 marks)

c. Indicators such as degree of happiness, the importance of family and community, the

connection to land and the passing down of traditional knowledge are all important aspects

of Aboriginal wellbeing, but are extremely difficult to measure or assess. They could also

give a quite different viewpoint on wellbeing in an Indigenous community. (2 marks)

14 a. Many Indigenous communities do not have the same living conditions and benefits that

non-Indigenous people experience. Suggest three reasons for this difference. (3)

b. Often, Indigenous people live in remote communities, some distance from large cities. How

would living in remote places disadvantage people and affect wellbeing? Provide three

examples. (3)

a. Differences may be due to discrimination, the dispossession of land and the displacement of

people. (3 marks)

b. People living in remote locations may be disadvantaged in terms of:

access to medical services

access to education and employment opportunities

lack of available and affordable fresh, healthy food (3 marks)

6



15 Study the map below.

Australia’s population by remoteness classification

a. How would this map compare to a rainfall distribution map of Australia? Justify your

answer. (1)

b. How might living in isolated places benefit peoples’ wellbeing? Suggest two points. (2)

3

a. The two maps would be similar, much of inland Australia has low rainfall and is classified

as arid and semi arid. These places do not support large populations. (1 mark)

b. Benefits to wellbeing include:

enjoyment of the rural lifestyle

less stress without traffic, congestion etc. related to large cities

high degree of interconnection within the local community

sense of safety. (2 marks for any 2 points)

geography alive 10: topic 2 test answers · 5 the kyoto protocol was an international agreement...

Documents