general aircraft knowledge

1. The principle of damage tolerant structural design of an aircraft is based on the: Monitoring of critical parameters and the replacement parts if a limit value is exceededReplacement of parts after a given number of cycles or hours of useFact that there is no need to inspect the structureCapability to withstand a certain amount of weakening of the structure without catastrophic failure

2. Engine compartment decking and firewalls are manufactured from: Stainless steel or titanium. Aluminium alloy. Composite materials such as carbon, kevlar and fibre glass. Asbestos blankets

3. For fail safe designed structural components:

1. There is more than one load carrying component. 2. One load carrying component is sufficient, provided it is strong enough. 3. The component is removed at the end of the calculated life time or number of cycles. 4. The design is based on the principle of redundancy of components.

The combination that regroups all of the correct statements is: 2, 3. 1, 3. 1, 4. 2, 4

4. The principle of the safe life design of an aircraft is based on the: Replacement of parts after a given number of cycles or hours of use. Redundancy of the structure or equipment. Capability to withstand a certain amount of weakening of the structure without catastrophic failure. Monitoring of critical parameters and the replacement of parts if a limit value is exceeded

5. The principle of damage tolerance in structural design of an aircraft is based on the: Fact that there is no need to inspect the structure. Replacement of parts after a given number of cycles or hours of use. Capability to withstand a certain amount of weakening of the structure without catastrophic failure. Monitoring of critical parameters and the replacement of parts if a limit value is exceeded.

6. The principle of fail safe design of an aircraft is based on the: Redundancy of the structure or equipment. Monitoring of critical parameters and the replacement of parts if a limit value is exceeded. Capability to withstand a certain amount of weakening of the structure without catastrophic failure. Replacement of parts after a given number of cycles or hours of use

7. Which of these statements about structural design principles are correct or incorrect? I. The damage tolerance principle takes cracking of the structure into account. II. The safe life principle is based on the replacement of parts after a given numberI is incorrect, II is incorrect. I is incorrect, II is correct. I is correct, II is incorrect. I is correct, II is correct

8.A safe-life aircraft structural component: Has parallel load paths. May be used during a declared number of cycles or flight hours. Should have enough strength during the whole lifetime of an aircraft. Is so strong that it never will fail during a declared time period

9. Which of these statements about structural design principles are correct or incorrect?

I. In structural design, fail safe implies redundant load paths. II. A safe life structure is based on a declared number of cycles or time period. I is incorrect, II is incorrectI is incorrect, II is correctI is correct, II is correctI is correct, II is incorrec

10. Which of these statements about structural design principles are correct or incorrect?I. In structural design, fail safe implies the structure will never fail.II. In structural design, safe life implies the structure will never fail during a declared time period or number of cycles.I is correct, II is correctI is correct, II is incorrectI is incorrect, II is correctI is incorrect, II is incorrect11. Which of these statements about structural design principles are correct or incorrect?I. In structural design, fail safe implies parallel structural parts.II. In structural design, safe life implies the structure will never fail during a declared time period or number of cycles.I is incorrect, II is correctI is correct, II is correctI is correct, II is incorrectI is incorrect, II is incorrect


I. In structural design, fail safe implies the structure will never fail. II. A safe life structure is based on a declared time period or number of cycles. I is correct, II is correctI is incorrect, II is correctI is incorrect, II is incorrectI is correct, II is incorrect

13. For safe life designed structural components :

1. There is more than one load carrying component. 2. One load carrying component is sufficient for a given load, provided it is strong enough. 3. The component is removed at the end of the calculated life time or number of cycles. 4. The design is based on the principle of redundancy of components.



I. The damage tolerance principle assumes cracks in the structure will never occur. II. The safe life principle is based on the replacement of parts after a given number of cycles or time period. I is correct, II is incorrectI is correct, II is correctI is incorrect, II is correctI is incorrect, II is incorrect

15. According CS 25 the allowable quantitative average failure probability per flight hour for a catastrophic failure should be on the order of (^ means to the power of): Between 10^ -3 and 10^ -5. (probable) Between 10^ -7 and 10^ -9. (extremely remote) Less than 10^ -9. (extremely improbable) Between 10^ -5 and 10^ -7. (remote)

16. According CS 25 the allowable quantitative average failure probability per flight hour for a hazardous failure should be on the order of (^ means to the power of): Between 10^ -5 and 10^ -7. (remote) Less than 10^ -9. (extremely improbable) Between 10^ -3 and 10^ -5. (probable) Between 10^ -7 and 10^ -9. (extremely remote)

17. According CS 25 the allowable average failure probability per flight hour probability for a major failure should be on the order of (^ means to the power of): Between 10^ -7 and 10^ -9. (extremely remote) Between 10^ -5 and 10^ -7. (remote) Less than 10^ -9. (extremely improbable) Between 10^ -3 and 10^ -5. (probable)

18. According CS 25 the allowable average failure probability per flight hour for a minor failure should be on the order of (^ means to the power of): Between 10^ -7 and 10^ -9. (extremely remote) Between 10^ -5 and 10^ -7. (remote) Between 10^ -3 and 10^ -5. (probable) Less than 10^ -9. (extremely improbable)

19. According CS 25 the worst effect of a catastrophic failure on the flight crew could be: Physical distress or excessive workload, impairs ability to perform tasks. A slight increase in workload. Physical discomfort or a significant increase in workload. Fatalities or incapacitation

20. According to CS 25 the worst effect of a hazardous failure on the flight crew could be:Physical distress or excessive workload, impairs ability to perform tasks. A slight increase in workload. Physical discomfort or a significant increase in workload. Fatalities or incapacitation

21. According CS 25 the worst effect of a major failure on the flight crew could be: Physical distress or excessive workload, impairs ability to perform tasks. A slight increase in workload. Physical discomfort or a significant increase in workload. No effect on flight crew

22. According CS 25 the worst effect of a minor failure on the flight crew could be: No effect on flight crew. A slight increase in workload. Physical distress or excessive workload, impairs ability to perform tasks. Physical discomfort or a significant increase in workload

23. According CS 25 the worst effect of a catastrophic failure on the aeroplane could be: Large reduction in functional capabilities or safety margins. Hull loss. Significant reduction in functional capabilities or safety margins. Slight reduction in functional capabilities or safety margins

24. According CS 25 the worst effect of a hazardous failure on the aeroplane could be: Large reduction in functional capabilities or safety margins. Hull loss. Significant reduction in functional capabilities or safety margins. Slight reduction in functional capabilities or safety margins

25. According CS 25 the worst effect of a major failure on the aeroplane could be: Large reduction in functional capabilities or safety margins. Slight reduction in functional capabilities or safety margins. No effect on operational capabilities or safety. Significant reduction in functional capabilities or safety margins.

26. According CS 25 the worst effect of a minor failure on the aeroplane could be: No effect on operational capabilities or safety. Large reduction in functional capabilities or safety margins. Slight reduction in functional capabilities or safety margins. Significant reduction in functional capabilities or safety margins

27. According CS 25 the worst effect of a catastrophic failure on the occupants of an aeroplane excluding flight crew could be: Serious or fatal injury to a small number of passengers or cabin crew. Physical distress, possibly including injuries. Physical discomfort. Multiple fatalities

28. According CS 25 the worst effect of a hazardous failure on the occupants of an aeroplane excluding flight crew could be: Physical distress, possibly including injuries. Physical discomfort. Multiple fatalities. Serious or fatal injury to a small number of passengers or cabin crew

29. According CS 25 the worst effect of a major failure on the occupants of an aeroplane excluding flight crew could be: Physical distress, possibly including injuries. Inconvenience. Physical discomfort. Serious or fatal injury to a small number of passengers or cabin crew

30. According CS 25 the worst effect of a minor failure on the occupants of an aeroplane excluding flight crew could be: Physical discomfort. Inconvenience. Physical distress, possibly including injuries. Serious or fatal injury to a small number of passengers or cabin crew

31. The principle of on condition maintenance is based on the: Replacement of parts after a given number of cycles or hours of use. Redundancy of the structure or equipment. Capability to withstand a certain amount of weakening of the structure without catastrophic failure. Monitoring of critical parameters and the replacement of parts if a limit value is exceeded.

32. A sandwich type structure is often used in aircraft because of its: Low mass and high stiffness. Low mass and low stiffness. High temperature resistance. Ease of deformation under load

33. The fuselage structure of a pressurised transport aeroplane is an example of a: Truss type structure. Pure monocoque structure. Sandwich structure. Semi-monocoque structure.

34. A structure in which the skin takes all of the load is: A monocoque structure. A semi-monocoque structure. A semi-braced structure. A box structure

35A sandwich structural part: Consists of two thin sheets separated by a light core material. Is unsuitable for fuel tanks. Always uses honeycomb as core material. Is a so-called integral construction

36. A sandwich structural part is: Composed of two thin sheets and a light core material. A so-called integral construction. Composed of resin and fibres. Well suited for absorbing point concentrated loads

37. Which of these statements concerning a sandwich structural part are correct or incorrect?I. The main function of the core material is sound insulation.II. A sandwich structural part is well suited for absorbing concentrated loads.I is incorrect, II is incorrectI is incorrect, II is correctI is correct, II is correctI is correct, II is incorrect

38. A sandwich structural part is unsuitable for absorbing: Shear loads. Torsional loads. Concentrated loads. Bending loads

39. Which of these statements about sandwich structural parts are correct or incorrect?

I. A sandwich structural part consists of fibres and a resin. II. A sandwich structural part is suitable for absorbing concentrated loads. I is correct, II is correctI is incorrect, II is correctI is incorrect, II is incorrectI is correct, II is incorrect


I. A sandwich structural part consists of two thin sheets enclosing a light core material. II. A sandwich structural part is not suitable for absorbing concentrated loads. I is correct, II is correctI is correct, II is incorrectI is incorrect, II is incorrectI is incorrect, II is correct


I. A sandwich structural part consists of fibres and a resin. II. A sandwich structural part is not suitable for absorbing concentrated loads. I is incorrect, II is incorrectI is incorrect, II is correctI is correct, II is correctI is correct, II is incorrect


I. A sandwich structural part consists of two thin sheets enclosing a light core material. II. A sandwich structural part is suitable for absorbing concentrated loads. I is incorrect, II is correctI is correct, II is correctI is correct, II is incorrectI is incorrect, II is incorrect

43. Which of these statements concerning a sandwich structural part are correct or incorrect?

I. The main function of the core material is to stabilise the covering sheets. II. A sandwich structural part is unsuitable for absorbing concentrated loads. I is correct, II is correctI is incorrect, II is correctI is correct, II is incorrectI is incorrect, II is incorrect


I. The main function of the core material is sound insulation. II. A sandwich structural part is unsuitable for absorbing concentrated loads. I is incorrect, II is incorrectI is correct, II is correctI is correct, II is incorrectI is incorrect, II is correct


I. The main function of the core material is to stabilise the covering sheets. II. A sandwich structural part is well suited for absorbing concentrated loads. I is incorrect, II is correctI is correct, II is correctI is correct, II is incorrectI is incorrect, II is incorrect

46. A composite structural component consists of: A matrix and fibres. Two metal sheets bonded together. Two thin metal sheets and a light core material. Aluminium alloy with a covering layer of pure aluminium

47. Which of these statements about composite and metal structures are correct or incorrect?

I. For a structural component with given dimensions composite materials enable a structural component's strength to be tailored to the direction of the load. II. Composite materials enable structures with higher strength/weight ratio than metal structures. I is correct, II is correctI is correct, II is incorrectI is incorrect, II is incorrectI is incorrect, II is correct


I. In a structural component with given dimensions constructed of composite materials, the strength is the same in all directions. II. Composite materials enable structures with lower strength/weight ratio than metal structures. I is incorrect, II is correctI is incorrect, II is incorrectI is correct, II is incorrectI is correct, II is correct


I. For a structural component with given dimensions composite materials enable a structural component's strength to be tailored to the direction of the load. II. Composite materials enable structures with lower strength/weight ratio than metal structures. I is correct, II is correctI is incorrect, II is incorrectI is correct, II is incorrectI is incorrect, II is correct


I. In a structural component with given dimensions constructed of composite materials, the strength is the same in all directions. II. Composite materials enable structures with higher strength/weight ratio than metal structures. I is correct, II is correctI is incorrect, II is incorrectI is incorrect, II is correctI is correct, II is incorrec

51. In flight, a cantilever wing of an aeroplane containing fuel is subjected to vertical loads that produce a bending moment that is: Lowest at the wing root. Equal to half the weight of the aeroplane multiplied by the semi-span. Equal to the zero-fuel weight multiplied by the span. Highest at the wing root

52. When the wing skin is not able to carry loads, the structural elements of the wing, which carry the bending moment, are: The ribs. The spars. The rivets. The webs.

53. The two deformation modes that cause wing flutter are: Shearing and elongation. Bending and elongation. Torsion and bending. Torsion and shearing.

54. Significant torsion effects in a wing during flight can be caused by: Aileron deflection. Wing dihedral. Propwash. Wing tip vortices

55. A cantilever wing is: A wing planform other than rectangular. A low wing configuration. A high wing configuration. A wing attached to the fuselage at the wing root only.

56. A non-cantilever wing is:A high wing configuration. A wing planform other than rectangular. A wing supported by braces or a strut connected to the fuselage. A low wing configuration

57. Which of these statements about the wing structure is correct? A wing main spar consists of a web with stringers. The slats are a part of the torsion box. A semi-monocoque structure consists of the skin and frames. A torsion box is formed by wing spars, ribs and wing skin reinforced by stringers

58. The function of ribs in a wing is to: Give the wing the desired aerodynamic shape. Allow installation of fuel cells in the wing. Withstand the torsional loads. Withstand all the structural loads

59. A wing spar typically consists of: Ribs and stiffeners. Ribs and frames. A web and girders. Frames and webs

60. One function of a rib is: To carry tensile load of the fuselage pressure hull. To stabilise the fuselage skin against buckling. To be the primary structural member to carry wings loads. To maintain the aerodynamic shape of the wing.

61. The bending loads on a cantilever wing due to lift are carried by the:

1. Upper skin surface. 2. Lower skin surface. 3. Wing root fairing. 4. Spar or spars.

The combination that regroups all of the correct statements is: 3, 4. 1, 2, 4. 1, 3, 4. 2, 3

62. Whilst stationary on the ground in a hangar the most important loads on a cantilever wing are: Compression in both the upper and the lower surfaces. Compression in the upper surface, tension in the lower surface. Tension in both the upper and the lower surfaces. Tension in the upper surface, compression in the lower surface

63. In straight and level flight the most important loads on a cantilever wing are: Tension in both the upper and the lower surfaces. Compression in the upper surface, tension in the lower surface. Tension in the upper surface, compression in the lower surface. Compression in both the upper and the lower surfaces

64. Control surface flutter can be avoided by:

1. A high torsional stiffness of the structure. 2. A low torsional stiffness of the structure. 3. Locating a balancing mass in front of the control hinge. 4. Locating a balancing mass behind the control hinge.


65. What is the load in the upper respectively lower girder of a spar of a cantilever wing during straight and level flight? Torsion in the lower- and upper girder. Compression in the upper girder and tension in the lower girder. Tension in lower- and upper girder. Tension in the upper girder and compression in the lower girder

66. One design method to avoid control surface flutter is: Through the correct use of trim tabs. Through the correct use of balance tabs. Ensuring correct mass distribution within the control surface. Providing the wing structure with sufficient flexibility

67. To achieve control flutter damping the balance mass must be located: Directly below the control surface hinge. Directly above the control surface hinge. Behind the control surface hinge. In front of the control surface hinge

68. When a wing bends downwards, aileron flutter might occur if the aileron deflects: Downwards, because the location of the aileron centre of gravity lies in front of the hinge line. Downwards, because the location of the aileron centre of gravity lies behind the hinge line. Upwards, because the location of the aileron centre of gravity lies in front of the hinge line. Upwards, because the location of the aileron centre of gravity lies behind the hinge line.

69. When a wing bends upwards, aileron flutter might occur if the aileron deflects: Upwards, because the location of the aileron centre of gravity lies behind the hinge line. Downwards, because the location of the aileron centre of gravity lies behind the hinge line. Upwards, because the location of the aileron centre of gravity lies in front of the hinge line. Downwards, because the location of the aileron centre of gravity lies in front of the hinge line

70. The purpose of stringers, used in fuselage construction, is to: Assist the skin to absorb longitudinal compressive loads. Carry the loads due to pressurisation and convert them into tensile stress. Provide sound and thermal insolation. Absorb shear stresses.

71. Loads on the cylindrical part of the fuselage during pressurisation are carried by the: Spars. Ribs. Skin. Stringers

72. With regard to an aircraft structure, 'fail safe' is one: That is only used for a limited time. Used for small aircraft only. That is easily manufactured. In which the load is carried by other components if a part of the structure fails

73. What are the three elements of the fuselage structure of a large transport aeroplane? Skin, frames, stringers. Skin, spars, ribs. Skin, ribs, formers. Skin, girders, webs

74. Which of these statements regarding cockpit windows are correct or incorrect?

I. On some aeroplanes the cockpit windows have an additional speed restriction, related to bird impact, when window heating is inoperative. II. Cockpit side windows are always provided with a de-icing system. I is correct, II is incorrect. I is incorrect, II is incorrect. I is incorrect, II is correct. I is correct, II is correct

75. The inner surface of a heated windscreen is of: Glass. Hard perspex. Triplex. Soft polycarbonate

76. An electrically heated windscreen is manufactured from: Triple glass sheets with the grain laid at 60 to each other. A boron aluminide and glass laminate. A glass and polycarbonate laminate. A perspex and polycarbonate laminate with gold heating element

77. semi-monocoque aircraft fuselage structure usually consists of: Skin, frames ,stringers. Frames, fittings, stringers. Ribs, spars, skin. Ribs, front spar, rear spar

78. The pressurisation load on the skin of a fuselage is: Bending. Compression. Torsion. Tension


I. Cockpit windows never have an additional speed restriction, related to bird impact, when window heating is inoperative. II. Cockpit side windows are usually defogged only. I is incorrect, II is correctI is correct, II is incorrectI is incorrect, II is incorrectI is correct, II is correct


I. On some aeroplanes the cockpit windows have an additional speed restriction, related to bird impact, when window heating is inoperative. II. Cockpit side windows are usually defogged only. I is correct, II is incorrectI is correct, II is correctI is incorrect, II is correctI is incorrect, II is incorrect


I. Cockpit windows never have an additional speed restriction, related to bird impact, when window heating is inoperative. II. Cockpit side windows are always provided with a de-icing system. I is correct, II is correctI is correct, II is incorrectI is incorrect, II is incorrectI is incorrect, II is correct

82. Hydraulic fluids should have the following characteristics:

1. Thermal stability. 2. Anti-corrosive. 3. High flash-point. 4. High compressibility. 5. High volatility.

The combination that regroups all of the correct statements is: 1, 2, 3. 1, 4, 5. 1, 2, 5 2, 3, 4

83. In a hydraulic braking system, an accumulator is pre-charged to 1200 psi. If an electrically driven hydraulic pump is started and provides a system pressure of 3000 psi, the pressure gauge, which is connected to the gas section of the accumulator, will read: 3000 psi. 1800 psi. 1200 psi. 4200 psi.

84. Hydraulic fluids: Can be used in the lubrication system. Are highly viscous. Are highly flammable. Are irritating to eyes and skin

85. Hydraulic fluids used in systems of large modern airliners are: Vegetable based fluids. Mineral based fluids. Phosphate ester based fluids. Water based fluids

86. The colour of a fresh synthetic hydraulic fluids is: Purple Red Pink Blue

87. Hydraulic power is a function of: Pump rpm only. Pump size and volume flow. System pressure and volume flow. System pressure and tank capacity

88. Large transport aeroplane hydraulic systems usually operate with a system pressure of approximately: 3000 psi 1000 psi 2000 psi 4000 psi

89. In hydraulic systems of large modern transport category aircraft the fluids used are: Vegetable oil. Synthetic oil. Water and glycol. Mineral oil.

90. The type of hydraulic oil used in most large aeroplanes is: Mineral oil. Mixture of mineral oil and alcohol. Synthetic oil. Vegetable oil.

91. Shuttle valves will automatically: Reduce pump loads. Shut down systems which are overloaded. Guard systems against overpressure. Switch hydraulically operated units to the most appropriate pressure supply

92. The function of a hydraulic selector valve is to: Direct system pressure to either side of the piston of an actuator. Discharge some hydraulic fluid if the system pressure is too high. Automatically activate the hydraulic system. Select the system to which the hydraulic pump should supply pressure

93. The component that converts hydraulic pressure into linear motion is called: An actuator or jack. A hydraulic pump. An accumulator. A pressure regulator

94. The hydraulic device, which functionality is comparable to an electronic diode, is a: Check valve. Distribution valve. Shutoff valve. Flow control valve

95. The hydraulic system that works correctly is shown in: A)B) C)D

96. Purposes of an accumulator in an hydraulic system are:

1. To damp pressure fluctuations; 2. To cool the hydraulic fluid; 3. To serve as a limited alternate source of pressure; 4. To serve as a main pressure source for normal operation.

The combination regrouping all the correct statements is: 1, 3. 2, 4. 1, 4. 2, 3

97. In the diagram (not to scale), the balancing force required on the right hand side is: View Annex 20 N. 100 N. 1 N. 1000 N

98. When powering up a hydraulic system, the level in the reservoir will: Decrease slightly. Increase as ambient temperature decreases. Always remain the same. Initially increase with system pressurisation

99. Assuming a hydraulic accumulator is pre-charged with nitrogen to 1000 psi, if the hydraulic system is then pressurised to its operating pressure of 3000 psi, the indicated pressure on the nitrogen side of the accumulator is: 4000 psi. 3000 psi. 2000 psi. 1000 psi

100. A hydraulic shuttle valve: Allows two units to be operated by one pressure supply. Regulates pump delivery pressure. Enables an alternate supply to operate an actuator. Is a non-return valve

101. To protect against excessive system pressure, a hydraulic system usually incorporates: A high pressure relief valve. An accumulator. Auxiliary hydraulic motors. A standby hydraulic pump.

102. Which of these statements about an aeroplane's hydraulic system is correct?The hydraulic reservoir contains a membrane and is pressurised by nitrogen on one side of this membrane. The filters, the pressure relief valve(s), the by-pass valve(s), and the fire shut-off valve are safety features installed in the system. A hydraulic leak in a return line does not affect the functioning of the hydraulic system. The pumps are always electrically driven because they need to deliver a high pressure of 3000 psi.

103.The viscosity of a hydraulic fluid should be: High to provide good lubrication properties. Low to provide good lubrication properties. High to minimise power consumption and resistance to flow. Low to minimise power consumption and resistance to flow.

104. Filtration in a modern hydraulic system is usually ensured by: A filter in the pressure line only. A filter in the return line only. The use of sealed containers only during replenishment. Filters in both the pressure and return lines

105. Filters in hydraulic systems often incorporate pop out indicators to: Warn of a hydraulic system overheat. Indicate that the filter is clogged and unfiltered oil is passing around the system. Indicate that the filter is due maintenance. Warn of an impending clogging situation

106. Should a hydraulic pump seize during operation: The freewheel unit will disengage the pump from the gearbox. An audio signal will warn the pilot of the failure. The quill drive will shear to offload and protect the gearbox. The inner barrel of the pump will rotate thus offloading and protecting the gearbox

107. A separate pressure regulator is used in a hydraulic system: In conjunction with a variable delivery type pump. In conjunction with a constant delivery type pump. As an interface between the system and the cockpit indicators. To ensure that an equal flow is delivered to critical components such as servo actuators

108. A single acting actuator: Is a one shot actuator used for emergency systems only. Is powered in one direction only by hydraulic power, the return movement being under another force. Cannot be used for variable position operations as it is designed to lock in the extremities of travel. Travels one direction under one application of hydraulic power and in the opposite direction under a second application of hydraulic power

109.Axial piston pumps are often used in hydraulic systems due to: Their ability to produce variable pressure combined with constant high flow rate. Their ability to produce high pressure when required but can be off loaded to reduce power consumption. Their low cost, simplicity and durability. The safety feature of the quill drive shearing due to pump seizure

110. In a hydraulic system, overheat detectors are usually installed: At the actuators. At the pumps. In the accumulators. In the coolers

111. The function of a hydraulic fuse is to: Allow by-passing of the hydraulic pump in the event of excessive pressure. Protect against contamination. Switch to the secondary system in the event of a leak in the primary brake system. Prevent total system loss in the event of a hydraulic leak

112. In a hydraulic system, the reservoir is pressurised in order to: Seal the system Keep the hydraulic fluid at optimum temperature Reduce fluid combustibility Prevent pump cavitation

113. he purpose of an accumulator in a hydraulic system is: To eliminate the fluid flow variations. To bypass the pumps in the hydraulic system. To enable the starting of hydraulic devices. To damp the fluid pressure variations

114. Parameters to monitor a hydraulic system in the cockpit can be: Pressure and hydraulic pump output. Pressure, fluid temperature and quantity. Pressure and rpm of the hydraulic pump. Pressure and fluid viscosity.

115. Assuming an accumulator is pre-charged to 1000 psi and the hydraulic system is pressurised to 1500 psi, the accumulator gauge will read: 500 psi. 1500 psi. 1000 psi. 2500 psi

116. An accumulator in a hydraulic system will: Increase pressure surges within the system. Store fluid under pressure. Reduce fluid temperature only. Reduce fluid temperature and pressure

117. In the typical hydraulic system represented, assuming hydraulic pressure throughout and no internal leakage: View Annex The piston is free to move in response to external forces since pressures are equal. The piston moves to the left due to pressure acting on differential areas. A condition of hydraulic lock exists and no movement of the piston will take place. The piston moves to the right due to equal pressure acting on differential areas

118. The Ram Air Turbine (RAT) provides emergency hydraulic power for: Flap extension only. Undercarriage selection and automatic brake system. Flight controls in the event of loss of engine driven hydraulic power. Nose wheel steering after the aeroplane has landed

119. Hydraulic fluid in the reservoir is slightly pressurised to: Prevent overheating of the pump. Ensure sufficient pump output. Prevent cavitation in the pump. Prevent vapour locking

120. A hydraulic low pressure alert is the first indication of: The hydraulic system accumulator becoming deflated. The reservoir level being at a minimum acceptable level. A leak in the reservoir return line. The pump output pressure being insufficient

121. The reservoir of a hydraulic system can be pressurised: By an auxiliary system. In flight only. By the air conditioning system. By bleed air from the engine

122. A torsion link assembly is installed on the landing gear to: Lock the landing gear. Provide damping of the vertical motion during touch-down. Absorb the spring energy. Avoid rotation of the piston rod relative to the fixed part of the oleo strut

123. In a commercial transport aeroplane the landing gear normal operating system is usually: Mechanically driven. Pneumatically driven. Electrically driven. Hydraulically driven

124. enerally, on modern jet transport aeroplanes, if there is a complete hydraulic system failure, the landing gear can be extended by: Alternate electrical extension. Alternate pneumatic extension. Hydraulic accumulators. Gravity extension

125. The type of brake unit found on most transport aeroplanes is a: Multiple disk brake. Belt brake. Single disk brake. Drum type brake

126. The reason for fitting thermal plugs to aeroplane wheels is that they: Prevent heat transfer from the brake disks to the tyres. Release air from the tyre in the event of overpressure due to over-inflation. Prevent the brakes from overheating. Prevent tyre burst after excessive brake application

127. The reason for fitting thermal plugs to aeroplane wheels is that they: Prevent heat transfer from the brake disks to the tyres. Release air from the tyre in the event of overpressure due to over-inflation. Prevent the brakes from overheating. Prevent tyre burst after excessive brake application

128. During hydroplaning, the friction coefficient between tyre and runway surface is approximately: 0.5 0 0.25 1

129.Landing gear torque links are used to: Take up the lateral stresses to which the gear is subjected. Prevent the extension of the landing gear oleo strut rod. Maintain the compass heading throughout taxiing and take-off. Prevent rotation of the landing gear piston in the oleo strut

130. The function of an accumulator in a hydraulic brake system is: To function as a buffer to assist the hydraulic system during heavy braking. To store the hydraulic energy recovered by the anti-skid system preventing wheel locking. To reduce pressure fluctuations of the auto-brake system. To supply a limited amount of brake energy in the event of loss of all hydraulic systems supplying the brakes.

131. The damping element in a landing gear shock absorber used on large aircraft is: Oxygen. Nitrogen. Oil. Springs.

132. On most large aeroplanes, the main source of braking power is derived from: Pressure to the rudder pedals. The electrical system. Bleed air pressure. The hydraulic system

133. "Nose wheel shimmy" may be described as: Aircraft vibration caused by the nose wheel upon extension of the gear. A possibly damaging vibration of the nose wheel when moving on the ground. The amount of free movement of the nose wheel before steering takes effect. The oscillatory movement of the nose wheel when extended prior to landing

134. Tyre "creep" may be described as the: The increase in inflation pressure due to decrease in ambient temperature. The decrease in inflation pressure due to increase in ambient temperature. Gradual circumferential increase of tyre wear. Circumferential movement of the tyre in relation to the wheel flange

135. The auto-brake system is disconnected during landing: After a preset elapsed time. When selecting the reverse thrust. By pilot action. Below a specific speed.

136. The purpose of the oil and the nitrogen in an oleo-pneumatic strut is: The oil supplies the damping and lubrication function, the nitrogen supplies the heat-dissipation function. The oil supplies the sealing and lubrication function, the nitrogen supplies the damping function. The oil supplies the damping function and the nitrogen supplies the spring function The oil supplies the spring function and the nitrogen supplies the damping function

137. The highest load on the torsion link in a bogie gear is: Whilst turning on the ground with a small radius. When gear is selected down. When braking with an inoperative anti-skid system. On touch down with a strong crosswind

138. The function of a fusible plug is to: Act as a special circuit breaker in the electrical system. Protect the tyre against explosion due to excessive temperature. Protect the brake against brake disk fusion due to excessive temperature. Protect against excessive pressure in the pneumatic system

139. On a modern aeroplane, to avoid the risk of tyre burst from overheating, due for example to prolonged braking during an aborted take-off, there is: The "emergency burst" function of the anti-skid system that adapts braking to the tyre temperature. Water injection triggered at a fixed temperature in order to lower tyre temperature. A pressure relief valve situated in the filler valve. A hollow bolt screwed into the wheel which melts at a given temperature (thermal fuse) and deflates the tyre.

140. An under-inflated tyre will: Experience reduced wear at the shoulders. Have an increased hydroplaning speed. Be more subject to viscous aquaplaning. Experience increased wear at the shoulders

141. The function of a scissor (torsion link) in a landing gear is to: Make the body gears pivot when the nose wheel is turned through more than 20. Prevent any rotation of the oleo strut in the landing gear shock absorber. Create the wheel pitch on bogie gears. Transfer the rudder pedal deflection into nose wheel steering commands

142. Associate the correct legend to each of the numbered diagrams: View Annex 1- cantilever 2- dual wheels 3- half fork 4- fork 1- half fork 2- fork 3- cantilever 4- tandem 1- cantilever 2- fork 3- half fork 4- dual wheels 1- half-fork 2- single trace 3- cantilever 4- dual wheels

143. The pilot may be prevented from retracting the landing gear whilst the aircraft is on the ground: By a pneumatic interlock which disables the hydraulic up selector. By the electrical control system being disabled by the weight on wheels switch. By a guard on the selector switch which cannot be moved until the aircraft is airborne. Because any attempt to select the landing gear up will result in a flashing warning light and a loud horn

144. A red or an amber light on an undercarriage position indicator signifies: The landing gear has been selected down using the emergency extension system. All wheels are up and locked. All wheels are down and locked. At least one wheel is in the travelling or unlocked condition

145. Emergency extension of landing gear systems can be performed:

1. With compressed C0. 2. With compressed nitrogen. 3. With compressed oxygen. 4. By mechanical/manual means. 5. By freefall.

The combination that regroups all of the correct statements 2, 4, 5. 2, 3, 4. 1, 3, 4. 1, 2, 5

146. Emergency extension of landing gear systems can be performed:

1. With compressed C0. 2. With compressed nitrogen. 3. With compressed oxygen. 4. By mechanical/manual means. 5. By freefall.

The combination that regroups all of the correct statements 2, 4, 5. 2, 3, 4. 1, 3, 4. 1, 2, 5

147. Primary flight controls are: Control wheel or stick, rudder pedals and speed brake. Ailerons, elevators and rudder. Control wheel or stick, rudder pedals, flap lever and throttle. Ailerons, elevators, rudder and flaps

148. The expression "primary flight control" applies to the:

1. Stabiliser 2. Rudder 3. Speed brake 4. Aileron

The combination that regroups all of the correct statements is: 1, 2, 3, 4. 2, 4. 2, 3. 1, 4

149. An artificial feel unit is necessary in the pitch channel when: The elevators are fitted with servo-tabs or trim tabs. The elevators are actuated by irreversible servo-control units. The elevators are actuated by reversible servo-control units. There is a trimmable stabilizer

150. An artificial feel system: Is mounted in parallel with a spring tab. Functions in parallel with an irreversible hydraulic actuator. Is necessary in a reversible flight control actuator unit. Functions in series with an irreversible hydraulic actuator

151. An aeroplane equipped with irreversible flight controls: May be equipped with simple spring type feel units on all flight controls. Does not require an artificial feel system. Requires an artificial feel system. Must be equipped with control locks.

152. An aeroplane equipped with fully powered flight controls (irreversible type): Must be equipped with control locks. Does not require the use of an artificial feel system. Remains normally controllable in case of total loss of power to the flight control system. Requires the use of an artificial feel system

153. An aeroplane equipped with irreversible flight controls: Need not be equipped with a separate gust lock system. Must have a mechanical back-up control system. May be equipped with simple spring type feel units on all flight controls. Does not require an artificial feel system

154. An aeroplane equipped with reversible flight controls: Is equipped with simple spring type feel units. Need not be equipped with a separate gust lock system. Does not have mechanical back-up. Does not require an artificial feel system

155. A flight control surface actuator is said to be "reversible" when: The flight control system has an alternate means of control in case of a control jam. There is a need to have an artificial feel system. The pilot does not feel any force when moving that flight control surface in flight. There is feedback to the pilot's controls of the aerodynamic forces acting on the control surface.

156A flight control surface actuator is said to be "irreversible" when: The pilot does not feel any force when moving that control surface in flight. The flight control system has an alternate means of control in case of a control jam. There is a need to lock the flight controls on the ground. There is no feedback to the pilot's controls of the aerodynamic forces acting on the control surface

157. Most transport aeroplanes are provided with protection against control jamming. This means that: In case of seizure, engine control is taken over automatically by an alternate electric circuit. The flight control system has provisions to disconnect the part of the control system that becomes blocked. Seized brakes can be released from the cockpit. The aeroplane is protected against the adverse effects of strong electromagnetic radiation

158. Which of these statements regarding most gust lock systems is correct? On reversible flight controls, there is no need for a gust lock. When the gust lock is ON there is protection to prevent take-off. A gust lock can be used in flight to reduce the effect of turbulence. A gust lock is only fitted on the elevator and the rudder

159. Given an aeroplane with irreversible primary flight controls, how is control maintained if one hydraulic system is lost due to a hydraulic leak? By switching to manual back-up mode. By switching the flight control system to the reversible mode. The remaining systems will take over control. Sufficient reserve hydraulic fluid is available to compensate the effects of the leak

160. The function of the rudder limiter system is: To limit pedal movement in heavy turbulenceTo reduce pilot's workload during engine failureTo restrict rudder deflection during flight at high IASTo restrict the rudder deflection during flight with at mach numbers

161. Which of these statements about a gust lock system are correct or incorrect?

I. There is no need for a gust lock on irreversible flight controls. II. Manual flight controls should have a gust lock. I is correct, II is incorrectI is incorrect, II is correctI is incorrect, II is incorrectI is correct, II is correct


I. Irreversible flight controls should have a gust lock. II. There is no need for a gust lock on manual flight controls. I is correct, II is correctI is incorrect, II is correctI is incorrect, II is incorrectI is correct, II is incorrect


I. There is no need for a gust lock on irreversible flight controls. II. There is no need for a gust lock on manual flight controls. I is incorrect, II is incorrectI is correct, II is incorrectI is correct, II is correctI is incorrect, II is correct


I. Irreversible flight controls should have a gust lock. II. Manual flight controls should have a gust lock. I is incorrect, II is correctI is incorrect, II is incorrectI is correct, II is correctI is correct, II is incorrect


I. There should be suitable design precautions to prevent flight with the gust lock engaged. II. Reversible flight controls should have a gust lock. I is incorrect, II is correctI is correct, II is incorrectI is correct, II is correctI is incorrect, II is incorrec


I. A gust lock can be used in flight to reduce the effects of turbulence. II. There is no need for a gust lock on reversible flight controls. I is incorrect, II is correctI is correct, II is correctI is incorrect, II is incorrectI is correct, II is incorrect


I. There should be suitable design precautions to prevent flight with the gust lock engaged. II. There is no need for a gust lock on reversible flight controls. I is incorrect, II is incorrectI is incorrect, II is correctI is correct, II is correctI is correct, II is incorrect


I. A gust lock can be used in flight to reduce the effects of turbulence. II. Reversible flight controls should have a gust lock. I is incorrect, II is incorrectI is correct, II is incorrectI is correct, II is correctI is incorrect, II is correct

169. Which of these statements about rudder limiting are correct or incorrect?

I. A rudder ratio changer system reduces the rudder deflection for a given rudder pedal deflection as the IAS increases. II. A variable stop system limits both rudder and rudder pedal deflection as the IAS increases. I is correct, II is correctI is incorrect, II is incorrectI is incorrect, II is correctI is correct, II is incorrect


I. A rudder ratio changer system limits both rudder and rudder pedal deflection as the IAS increases. II. A variable stop system reduces the rudder deflection for a given rudder pedal deflection as the IAS increases. I is correct, II is correctI is incorrect, II is correctI is correct, II is incorrectI is incorrect, II is incorrect


I. A rudder ratio changer system reduces the rudder deflection for a given rudder pedal deflection as the IAS increases. II. A variable stop system limits both rudder and rudder pedal deflection as the IAS decreases. I is correct, II is correctI is incorrect, II is incorrectI is incorrect, II is correctI is correct, II is incorrect

172. The expression "secondary flight control" applies to the:

1. Elevator 2. Speed brake 3. Lift-augmentation devices 4. Roll spoiler

The combination that regroups all of the correct statements is: 1, 2, 3, 4. 1, 4. 2, 3. 2, 4.

173. he expression "secondary flight control" applies to the:

1. Stabiliser 2. Rudder 3. Speed brake 4. Aileron

The combination that regroups all of the correct statements is: 1, 3. 2, 3. 1, 2, 3, 4. 2, 4

174. A Krueger flap is normally located at the: Trailing edge close to the wing tip . Trailing edge close to the wing root. Leading edge. Trailing edge

175. Most large conventional aeroplanes are not provided with aileron and rudder trim tabs. Is it still possible to trim these control surfaces? No, because without trim tabs trimming is not possible. Yes, but trimming is only possible when the autopilot is engaged. Yes, trimming is possible by adjusting the neutral point of the artificial feel mechanism by means of a trim switch. Yes, but trimming is only possible when before the flight, the respective auxiliary surfaces are correctly adjusted for cruising conditions by the maintenance department.

176. The reason for a double switch on the elevator trim is: To be able to use two different trim speeds, slow trim rate at high speed and high trim rate at low speed. Because there are two trim motors. To reduce the probability of a trim runaway. To prevent both pilots from performing opposite trim inputs.

177. Rudder trim adjustment in an aeroplane with irreversible flight controls is: Unnecessary because this aeroplane does not need rudder trim. An adjustment of the rudder ratio changer. An adjustment of the rudder trim tab. An adjustment of the zero force rudder position

178. The automatic ground spoiler extension system is normally activated during landing by: Idle thrust selection. Ground spoiler handle. Brake pressure application. Main wheel spin up

179. For most large aeroplanes, spoilers are: Upper wing surface devices and their deflection can be symmetrical or asymmetrical. Upper wing surface devices and their deflection is always asymmetrical. Lower wing surface devices and their deflection is always asymmetrical. Lower wing surface devices and their deflection can be symmetrical or asymmetrical

180. On a large transport aeroplane, the auto-slat system: Ensures that the (part of) slats are always extended when the ground/flight system is in the "ground" position. Extends (part of) the slats automatically when a certain value of angle of attack is exceeded. Assist the ailerons. Provides for automatic slat retraction after take-off.

181. Trimming of aileron and rudder in an irreversible flight control system: Is achieved by adjusting the neutral point of the flight control actuator. Is not possible. Is not necessary. Is achieved by adjusting the "zero force point" of the feel system

182. Which of these statements about trimming in a irreversible flight control system of a conventional aeroplane are correct or incorrect?

I. The zero force position of the control column does not change when using the elevator trim. II. The zero force position of the control wheel changes when using the aileron trim. I is correct, II is incorrectI is incorrect, II is incorrectI is correct, II is correctI is incorrect, II is correct


I. The zero force position of the control column changes when using the elevator trim. II. The zero force position of the control wheel does not change when using the aileron trim. I is incorrect, II is correctI is correct, II is correctI is correct, II is incorrectI is incorrect, II is incorrect


I. The zero force position of the control column does not change when using the elevator trim. II. The zero force position of the control wheel does not change when using the aileron trim. I is incorrect, II is incorrectI is correct, II is incorrectI is correct, II is correctI is incorrect, II is correct


I. The zero force position of the control column changes when using the elevator trim. II. The zero force position of the control wheel changes when using the aileron trim. I is incorrect, II is incorrectI is incorrect, II is correctI is correct, II is correctI is correct, II is incorrect

186. Given a conventional transport aeroplane with irreversible flight controls on the ground with engines running. Which of these statements about rudder trim actuation is correct? The rudder moves, the rudder pedals move in the corresponding direction. The "zero force point" of the artificial feel system changes, the rudder does not move. The rudder moves, the rudder pedals do not move. The rudder trim tab moves and the rudder pedals do not move

187. If the cabin altitude rises (aeroplane in level flight), the differential pressure: Increases Remains constant Decreases May exceed the maximum permitted differential unless immediate preventative action is taken.

188. The purpose of the cabin pressure controller in the automatic mode is to:

1. Control cabin altitude. 2. Control rate of change of cabin altitude. 3. Limit differential pressure. 4. Balancing aircraft altitude with cabin altitude. 5. Cabin ventilation. 6. Keeping a constant differential pressure throughout all the flight phases.

The combination regrouping all the correct statements is : 3, 4, 5. 2, 4, 6. 1, 2, 3. 1, 5, 6

189. During a normal pressurised climb after take-off: Cabin pressure decreases more slowly than atmospheric pressure. The pressurisation system is inoperative until an altitude of 10 000 feet is reached. Absolute cabin pressure increases to compensate for the fall in pressure outside the aeroplane. The cabin differential pressure is maintained constant

190. In a pressurized aircraft whose cabin altitude is 8000 ft, a crack in a cabin window makes it necessary to reduce the differential pressure to 5 psi. The flight level to be maintained in order to keep the same cabin altidue is:View Annex FL 230 FL 340 FL 180 FL 280

191. The purpose of an air conditioning pack inlet flow valve (pack valve) is to: Maintain a constant and sufficient air mass flow to ventilate the cabin. Discharge cabin air to atmosphere if cabin pressure rises above the selected altitude. Regulate cabin pressure to the selected altitude. Regulate cabin pressure at the maximum cabin pressure differential

192. Assuming cabin differential pressure has reached the required value in normal flight conditions, if flight altitude and air conditioning system setting are maintained: The outflow valves will move to the fully open position. The pressurisation system ceases to function until leakage reduces the pressure. The mass air flow through the cabin is constant. The outflow valves will move to the fully closed position

193. Cabin pressure is controlled by: Maintaining a constant outflow. The outflow valve(s).The inflow valve(s). The cabin air re-circulation system

194. During level flight at a constant cabin pressure altitude, the cabin outflow valves are: Fully closed until the cabin climbs to a selected altitude. At the pre-set position for take-off. Fully closed until the cabin descends to a selected altitude. Partially open

195. he cabin pressure is regulated by the: Air cycle machine. Outflow valve. Air conditioning pack. Cabin airflow inlet valve

196. Cabin pressurisation is regulated by the: Engines' rpm. Cabin inlet valve(s). Cabin outflow valve(s). Engines' bleed valves

197. Cabin differential pressure means the pressure difference between: Flight deck and passenger cabin. Cabin pressure and ambient air pressure. Cabin pressure and ambient air pressure at msl. Actual cabin pressure and selected pressure

198. The cabin pressure altitude of a large aeroplane is not normally allowed to exceed: 10000 ft 8000 ft 4000 ft 6000 ft

199. Cabin altitude is the: Difference in height between the cabin floor and ceiling. Altitude at maximum differential pressure. Flight level at which the aeroplane is flying. Cabin pressure expressed as altitude

200. On large pressurised jet transport aeroplanes, the maximum cabin differential pressure is approximately: 13 - 15 psi 3 - 5 psi 7 - 9 psi 22 psi

201. On most large aeroplanes, the cabin pressure is controlled by regulating the: Bleed air valve. Airflow leaving the cabin. Airflow entering the cabin. Rpm of the engine

202. If the maximum certified altitude of an aeroplane is limited by the pressurised cabin, this limitation is due to the maximum: Cabin rate of climb. Positive cabin differential pressure at maximum cabin altitude. Cabin rate of descent. Negative cabin differential pressure at maximum cabin altitude.

203. The cabin differential pressure is: Approximately 3 psi at maximum. Approximately 15 psi at maximum. The pressure differential between the air entering and leaving the cabin. Cabin pressure minus ambient pressure

204A cabin Rate of Descent:Is always the same as the aeroplane's rate of descent. Results in a cabin pressure increase. Results in a cabin pressure decrease. Is not possible at constant aeroplane altitudes

205. The maximum cabin differential pressure of an aeroplane with a maximum certified altitude of 41000 ft is approximately: 13.5 psi 9.0 psi 3.5 psi 15.5 psi

206. he purpose of the pack cooling fans in the air conditioning system is to: Supply the passenger service unit (psu) with fresh air. Cool the apu compartment. Supply the heat exchangers with cooling air during slow flights and ground operation. Supply the heat exchangers with cooling air during cruise flight

207. n flight, the cabin air for large jet transport aeroplanes is usually supplied by: Single radial compressors. Piston compressors. Engine compressors. Ram air intakes

208. In a turbo compressor air conditioning system (bootstrap system), the purpose of the heat exchangers is to: Cool bleed air before entering the complete pneumatic system. Cool the bleed air in front of and behind the compressor of the air cycle machine. Allow a homogeneous temperature by mixing air flows from various air conditioning groups in operation. Allow a steady compressor outlet temperature

209. In an air cycle machine (bootstrap system), the main water separation unit is located: Just after the heat exchangers. After the cooling turbine. Before the heat exchangers. Before the cooling turbine.

210. A turbo compressor air conditioning system (bootstrap system) includes two heat exchangers; the primary exchanger (P) and the secondary exchanger (S). The functions of these heat exchangers are as follows: P: pre-cools the engine bleed air; S: increases the temperature of the air used for air-conditioning of cargo compartment (animals). P: precools the engine bleed air; S: cools air behind the pack's compressor. P: warms up engine bleed air; S: increases the temperature of air originating from the compressor of the pack. P: warms up engine bleed air; S: recirculates the cabin air, reducing its temperature

211. When air is compressed for pressurisation purposes, the percentage oxygen content is: Decreased. Increased. Dependent on the degree of pressurisation. Unaffected

212. The term "bootstrap", when used to identify a cabin air conditioning and pressurisation system, refers to the: Means by which pressurisation is controlled. Cooling air across the inter-cooler heat exchanger. Source of the air supply. Cold air unit (air cycle machine) arrangement

213. In an air cycle machine (bootstrap system), bleed air downstream of the first heat exchanger is: Compressed, passed through the second heat exchanger and then passed across an expansion turbine. Passed across an expansion turbine, then directly passed to the the second heat exchanger. Compressed, then passed across an expansion turbine and finally passed across the second heat exchanger. Passed across an expansion turbine, compressed and then passed through the second heat exchanger

214. In a cabin air conditioning system with an air cycle machine (bootstrap), the mass air flow is routed via the: Secondary heat exchanger outlet to the compressor inlet. Turbine outlet to the primary heat exchanger inlet. Compressor outlet to the primary heat exchanger inlet. Secondary heat exchanger outlet to the turbine inlet

215 Engine bleed air used for air conditioning and pressurisation in turbo-jet aeroplanes is usually taken from the: Turbine section. Fan section. By-pass ducting. Compressor section

216. In an air cycle machine (bootstrap system) the: Turbine drives the compressor, which makes the second heat exchanger more effective. Turbine drives the compressor, which provides pressurisation. Temperature drop across the turbine is the main contributor to the cooling effect of the air cycle machine. Turbine increases the pressure of the air supply to the cabin

217. In a large transport aeroplane the main temperature reduction of the conditioned air is achieved in: A condenser. An evaporator. An expansion turbine. The heat exchangers

218. In a "bootstrap" cooling system, the bleed air is compressed to: Increase the cabin air supply pressure when the inlet pressure is too low. Ensure a sufficient temperature drop in the secondary heat exchanger. Maintain a constant cabin mass air flow. Ensure an adequate air flow across the secondary heat exchanger.

219. An air cycle machine (air conditioning pack) : Decreases bleed air pressure whilst causing the temperature to rise in the heat exchanger. Causes a pressure and temperaure drop in the bleed air. Does not affect the bleed air. Increases outlet pressure whilst causing the temperature to drop in the heat exchanger.

220. Cabin heating in a large jet transport aeroplane is obtained from: A fuel heater system. Hot air bled from the turbines. Hot air bled from the compressors. An electrical heater system

221. The pack cooling fan provides: Cooling air to the primary and secondary heat exchanger during slow flight and ground operation. Cooling air to the primary and secondary heat exchanger during cruise only. Cooling air to the pre-cooler. Air to the recirculation fans

222. Whilst in level cruising flight, an aeroplane with a pressurised cabin experiences a malfunction of the pressure controller. If the cabin vertical speed indicator reads 200 ft/min Rate of Descent:The crew has to intermittently cut off the incoming air flow in order to maintain a zero cabin altitude. The differential pressure will rise to its maximum value, thus causing the safety relief valves to open. A descent must be initiated to prevent the oxygen masks dropping when the cabin altitude reaches 14000ft. The aircraft has to climb to a higher flight level in order to reduce the cabin altitude to its initial value

223. An aeroplane with a pressurised cabin flies at FL 310 and, following a malfunction of the pressure controller, the outflow valve runs to the open position.

Given : CAB V/S : Cabin rate of climb indication; CAB ALT: Cabin pressure altitude; DELTA P: Differential pressure.

This will result in a:

CAB V/S decrease CAB ALT decrease DELTA P increase

CAB V/S increase CAB ALT increase DELTA P increase

CAB V/S decrease CAB ALT increase DELTA P decrease

CAB V/S increase CAB ALT increase DELTA P decreas

224. Automatic temperature control of the system as shown, would be accomplished by: View Annex The cabin sensors only modulating the mix valve. Automatic control of the ram air. The temperature selector only modulating the mix valve. The temperature selector in conjunction with cabin sensors and the temperature regulator, modulating the mix valve.

225. A cabin pressure controller maintains a pre-set cabin altitude by regulating the: Mass air flow into the cabin. Position of the outflow valve(s). Position of the duct relief valve(s). Position of the inward relief valve

226. n a typical bootstrap cooling system the supply air is: Compressed, passed through a secondary heat exchanger, and then across an expansion turbine. Passed across an expansion turbine, then compressed and passed through a secondary heat exchanger. Passed across an expansion turbine, then through a secondary heat exchanger and then across a compressor. Passed across an expansion turbine, then directly to the heat exchanger

227. The pressurisation system of an aeroplane: Has the capability to maintain a cabin pressure higher than ambient pressure. Will maintain a zero cabin differential pressure at all altitudes. Will maintain a sea level cabin altitude at all altitudes. Only pressurises the flight deck area

228. Under normal flight conditions, cabin pressure is controlled by: Inward relief valve(s). Pressurisation duct relief valve(s). Engine rpm. Regulating the discharge of air through the outflow valve(s)

229. Assuming cabin differential pressure has attained the required value in normal flight conditions, if flight altitude is maintained: The outflow valves will move to the fully open position. The pressurisation system ceases to function until leakage reduces the pressure. The pressurisation system must be controlled manually. There will be a constant air mass flow through the cabin

230. Assuming cabin pressure decreases, the cabin rate of climb indicator should indicate: A rate of descent dependent upon the cabin differential pressure. A rate of descent of approximately 300 feet per minutes. A rate of climb. Zero

231. Assuming that during cruise flight with air-conditioning packs ON, all the outflow valves close: The pressure differential would go to the maximum value. the skin of the cabin would be overstressed. the cabin pressure would become equal to the ambient pressure. the air supply would automatically be stopped.

232. The main function of an air cycle machine is to: Decrease the pressure of the bleed air. Pump the conditioned air into the cabin. Remove the water from the bleed air. Cool the bleed air

233. If the pressure in the cabin tends to become lower than the outside ambient air pressure the: Outflow valve open completely. Negative pressure relief valve will open. Negative pressure relief valve will close Air cycle machine will stop

234. Pneumatic mechanical ice protection systems are mainly used for: Propellers. Pitot tubes.Wings. Windscreens

235. On most transport aircraft, flight deck windows are protected against icing by: Vinyl coating. Anti-icing fluid. Electrical heating. Rain repellent systems

236. Generally, for large aeroplanes, electrical heating for ice protection is used on: Pitot tubes. Slat leading edges. Fin leading edges. Elevator leading edges

237. The anti-icing method for the wings of large jet transport aeroplanes most commonly used in flight is: Mechanical (pneumatic boots). Thermal (use of hot air). Chemical (glycol-based liquid). Electrical (electrical resistance).

238. Pneumatic mechanical devices that provide ice protection: Are usually used as de-icing devices. Are usually used on aeroplanes equipped with turbo-fan engines. Can only be used as anti-icing devices. Require large quantities of bleed air

239. Electrically powered ice protection devices on aircraft are: Used as de-icing devices for pitot-tubes, static ports and windshield. Used as anti-icing devices for pitot-tubes, static ports and windshield. Used for large surfaces only. Used primarily because they are very efficient

240. Windshield heating of a transport aeroplane is: Only used when hot-air demisting is insufficient. Used only at low altitudes where there is a risk of ice formation. Not affecting the strength of a cockpit windows. Essential to improve the strength of the cockpit windows

241. The wing ice protection system currently used on most large jet transport aeroplanes is a(n): Pneumatic system with inflatable boots. Hot air system. Electrical de-icing system. Liquid de-icing system

242. The wing anti-ice system has to protect: The whole leading edge and the whole under wing surface. The leading edge or the slats, either partially or completely. The whole leading edge except the slats because they cannot be de-iced when extended. The whole upper wing surface and the flaps

243. In jet aeroplanes the 'thermal anti-ice system' is primarily supplied by: The APU. Ram air, heated via a heat exchanger. Bleed air from the engines. Turbo compressors

244. The wing ice protection system currently used for most large turboprop transport aeroplanes is a(n): Electrical de-icing system. Liquid de-icing system.Pneumatic system with inflatable boots. Hot air system

245. The ice protection for propellers of most turboprop aeroplanes works: Electrically.Pneumatically. With anti-icing fluid. With hot air.

246. The use of a hot air wing anti-icing system: Does not affect aerodynamic performance of the wing and causes no reduction in maximum thrust.

Does not affect aerodynamic performance of the wing and causes a reduction in maximum thrust. Reduces aerodynamic performance of the wing and causes no reduction in maximum thrust. Reduces aerodynamic performance of the wing and causes a reduction in maximum thrust.

247. The sequential pneumatic impulses used in certain leading edge de-icing devices:

1. Prevent ice formation. 2. Can be triggered from the flight deck after icing has become visible. 3. Will inflate each pneumatic boot for a few seconds. 4. Will repeat more than ten times per second.


248. Power for windscreen heating is usually: 28 volts dc. 3 phase ac. Single phase ac. 115 volts dc.

249. Windscreen heating systems usually: Cycle on/off to maintain a windscreen temperature between approximately 18 degrees and 35 degrees c. Are powered from the emergency dc bus. Consist of warm air from the cabin conditioning system blown across the inner surface of the windscreen. Depend upon the pilot monitoring the windscreen temperature probe for control of the heating system.

250. The diagram shown in Annex represents a jet fuel system. The fuel-flow measurement is carried out: View Annex After high pressure pump first stage (item 2). After low pressure valve (item 1). In the fuel control unit (item 3). After high pressure valve (item 4).

251, Which statement is correct?

I. The freezing point for Jet A is at a lower temperature than that for Jet B. II. The flash point for Jet A is at a higher temperature than that for Jet B. I is correct, II is correct. I is incorrect, II is incorrect. I is incorrect, II is correct.I is correct, II is incorrect

252. Which statement is correct?

I. The freezing point for Jet A is at a lower temperature than that for Jet B. II. The flash point for Jet A is at a lower temperature than that for Jet B. I is incorrect, II is incorrect. I is correct, II is correct. I is correct, II is incorrect. I is incorrect, II is correct


I. The freezing point for Jet A is at a higher temperature than that for Jet B. II. The flash point for Jet A is at a higher temperature than that for Jet B. I is incorrect, II is correct. I is incorrect, II is incorrect. I is correct, II is correct. I is correct, II is incorrect


I. The freezing point for Jet A is at a higher temperature than that for Jet B. II. The flash point for Jet A is at a lower temperature than that for Jet B. I is incorrect, II is incorrect. I is incorrect, II is correct. I is correct, II is correct. I is correct, II is incorrect


I. The freezing point for Jet A is at about the same temperature as that for Jet B. II. The flash point for Jet A is at a higher temperature than that for Jet B. I is correct, II is incorrect. I is correct, II is correct. I is incorrect, II is incorrect. I is incorrect, II is correct


I. The freezing point for Jet A is at a lower temperature than that for Jet B. II. The flash point for Jet A is at about the same temperature as that for Jet B. I is incorrect, II is incorrect. I is correct, II is incorrect. I is correct, II is correct. I is incorrect, II is correct

257. The correct order of decreasing freezing points of the three mentioned fuels is: Jet A, Jet A-1, Jet B. Jet B, Jet A, Jet A-1. Jet A-1 Jet A, Jet B. Jet B, Jet A-1, Jet A

258. On most transport aircraft, the low pressure pumps of the fuel system are: Mechanically driven by the engine's accessory gearbox. Removable only after the associated tank has been emptied. Electrically driven centrifugal pumps. Electro-mechanical swash plate pumps, with self-regulated pressure

259. The fuel supply system on a jet engine includes a fuel heating device, upstream of the main fuel filter so as to: Maintain and improve fuel heating power. Prevent, at low fuel temperature, the risk of ice formation from water contained in the fuel. Prevent fuel from freezing in fuel pipes due to low temperatures at high altitude. Ease low pressure pumps work by increasing fuel fluidity

260. On most transport jet aeroplane, the low pressure pumps of the fuel system are supplied with electric power of the following type: 28 v dc 115 v ac 28 v ac 115 v dc

261. The fuel cross-feed system: Is only used to feed an engine from a tank in the opposite wing. Is only used on the ground for fuel transfer from one tank to another. Allows feeding of any engine from any fuel tank. Is only used in flight for fuel transfer from one tank to another.

262. The purpose of baffles in an aeroplane's wing fuel tank is to: Prevent the fuel from flowing in the vent lines. Prevent overpressure in the tank. Prevent mixture of the fuel and hydraulic fluid. Restrict fuel movement in the tank

263. On some large aeroplanes the fuel tanks may be vented through: The return lines of the fuel pumps. Air intakes on the underside of the wing. A pressure regulator in the wing tip. Bleed air from the engines

264. The type of fuel tank used on most large aeroplanes is a(n): Combined bladder/metal drum tank. Bladder tank. Metal drum tank. Integral tank

265. The purpose of baffles fitted in wing fuel tanks is to: Restrict undesirable fuel movement during sideslip. Limit high fuel flow during refuelling operations. Prevent positive pressure build up inside the tank. Close the vent lines in case of turbulence

266. On most large aeroplanes, the type of low pressure fuel pumps is: Centrifugal. Diaphragm. Piston. Gear

267. Fuel tank air pressure is maintained at ambient by: The fuel vent system. The fuel top off unit. The fuel dump system. The fuel tank drains

268. On a jet aeroplane, fuel heaters are: Installed only in the centre tank. Installed in each tank. Located on the engines. Not necessary at all

269. The automatic fuelling shut-off valve: Stops fuelling as soon as the fuel spills into the vent line. Stops fuelling as soon as a certain fuel level is reached inside the tank. Stops fuelling whenever a certain fuel temperature is exceeded. Cuts off the fuel in case of engine fire

270. During re-fuelling the automatic shut-off valves will switch off the fuel supply system when: The surge vent tank is filled. The fuel has reached a predetermined volume or mass. There is fire. Fuelling system has reached a certain pressure

271. The cross-feed fuel system can be used to:

1. Feed any engine from any fuel tank; 2. Dump the unusable fuel; 3. Adjust fuel distribution; 4. To transfer fuel from one tank to another located in the same wing.

The combination regrouping all the correct statements is: 1, 4. 1, 3. 2, 4. 2, 3

272. One of the purposes of the fuel system booster pumps being submerged in fuel is to: To improve the accuracy of the fuel quantity measurement. Shorten the fuel lines, so minimising the pressure losses. Improve their efficiency. Cool the pumps

273. Vapour lock is: The effect of water vapour bubbles in the induction manifold caused by condensation. A blockage in a fuel feed line caused by a fuel vapour bubble. The abnormal mixture enrichment caused by a greater gasoline vaporisation in the carburettor. The exhaust gas obstruction caused by an engine overheating

274. The functions of an LP booster pump in a gas turbine fuel system are to: Avoid vapour locking and prevent cavitation of the HP fuel pump. Avoid vapour locking and increase the pressure during refuelling. Pressurise the fuel dump system and increase the pressure during refuelling. Increase the pressure during refuelling and prevent cavitation of the HP fuel pump

275. The ventilation system in a fuel tank: Prevents vapour locking in the fuel lines. Prevents fuel freezing during flight in icing conditions Prevents low pressure or excessive overpressure in the tank. Can be used to drain the tanks, for daily checks

276. The function of a feed box in the fuel tank is to: Distribute the fuel to the various tanks during refuelling Ventilate the tank during refuelling under high pressure Increase the fuel level at the boost pump location Trap fuel sediments or sludge in the lower part of the tank

277. Fuel pumps submerged in the fuel tanks of a large aeroplane are:

Low pressure variable swash plate pumps. Centrifugal low pressure type pumps. High pressure swash plate pumps. Centrifugal high pressure pumps

278. Integral fuel tanks: Are small fuel tanks fitted on the engine to ensure a positive supply of fuel to the engine driven fuel pump and receive excess fuel from pumps and control units. Are not used on helicopters. Is the name given to a group of fuel tanks where several tanks feed a master tank which in turn supplies the engine. Comprise a portion of the aircraft structure which has been sealed to form a fuel tank

279. Fuel flow information: Is used by the centre of gravity control system. May be displayed on a cockpit gauge. Is measured at the outlet of the booster pump. Is not used on helicopters

280. Fuel pressure is measured: Always at the outlet of the high pressure pump only. At the outlet from the fuel control unit. In the line between the high pressure filter and the high pressure pump. In the line between the booster pump and the engine or at the outlet of the high pressure filter.

281. Electrical bonding of an aircraft is used to:

1. Protect the aircraft against lightning effects; 2. Set the electrostatic potential of the aircraft to a value approximating to 0 volt; 3. Prevent radio interference on radio communication systems; 4. Set the aircraft to a single potential.

The combination that regroups all of the correct statements is: 1, 2, 3 1, 3, 4 1, 2, 4 2, 3, 4

282. The purpose of static wick dischargers is to: Be able to fly higher because of less electrical friction. Dissipate static charge of the aircraft in flight thus avoiding radio interference as a result of static electricity. Dissipate static charge from the aircraft skin after landing. Provide a path to ground for static charges when refuelling.

283. One indication of inadequate bonding of aircraft components may be:A circuit breaker popping out. Interference on the VOR receiver.Static noise on the radio. Heavy corrosion on the fuselage skin mountings

284. Static dischargers:

1. Are used to set all the parts of the airframe to the same electrical potential; 2. Are placed on wing and tail tips to facilitate electrical discharge; 3. Are used to reset the electrostatic potential of the aircraft to a value approximating 0 volts; 4. Are located on wing and tail tips to reduce interference with the on-board radio communication systems to a minimum; 5. Limit the risks of transfer of electrical charges between the aircraft and the electrified clouds.

The combination regrouping all the correct statements is : 3,4,5. 1,3,4. 2,4,5. 1,2,5

285. he purpose of bonding the metallic parts of an aircraft is to:

1. Prevent electrolytic corrosion between mating surfaces of similar metals; 2. Ensure zero voltage difference between aircraft components; 3. Isolate all components electrically; 4. Provide a single earth for electrical devices.

The combination that regroups all of the correct statements is: 1, 4. 2, 3. 1, 3. 2, 4.

286. A "Zener" diode is used for: Rectification. Reverse current protection. Voltage stabilisation. Digital displays

287. The rating of electrical fuses is expressed in: Amperes. Volts. Watts. Ohms

288. A current limiter fuse (thermal) in a DC system is used to: Allow a short term overload before rupturing. Limit the current in the armature. Allow no overload before rupturing. Limit the current in the field circuit

289. Regarding Ohm's law: The current in a circuit is directly proportional to the resistance of the circuit. The current in a circuit is inversely proportional to voltage. The power in the circuit is inversely proportional to the square of the current. The current in a circuit is directly proportional to voltage

290. A capacitor in parallel with breaker points: Induces a very high current across the secondary windings. Induces a very high current across the primary windings. Permits arcing across the breaker points Induces a very high voltage across the secondary windings

291. The resistors R1 and R2 are connected in parallel. The value of the equivalent resistance (Req) so obtained is given by the following formula: Req = r1 x r2 1/req = 1/(r1 + r2) 1/req = 1/r1 + 1/r2 Req = r1 + r2

292. The most widely used AC frequency in aircraft is: 50 hz. 115 hz. 400 hz. 60 hz

293. When the AC voltage across a capacitor is kept constant and the frequency is increased, the current through the capacitor will: Remain the same. Increase. Be zero. Decrease

294. A thermal circuit breaker: Protects the system in the event of a prolonged overcurrent. Protects the system in the event of any overcurrent. Protects the system in the event of a prolonged overheating. Protects the system in the event of any overheating

295. A relay is: A magnetically operated switch. A unit that is used to convert electrical energy to heat energy. Another name for a solenoid valve. A device that is used to increase electrical power

296. A relay is: An electrical energy transfer unit. An electrical security switch. An electromagnetically operated switch. A switch specially designed for ac circuits

297. If a current is passed through a conductor which is positioned perpendicular to a magnetic field: A force will be exerted on the conductor. The current will increase. There will be no effect unless the conductor is moved. The intensity of the magnetic field will decrease

298. When a conductor cuts the field lines of a magnetic field: The current will stop. An Lorentz force is induced in the conductor. There will be no effect on the conductor. The field will collapse

299. Circuit breakers protecting circuits may be: Reset at any time. Used only in DC circuits. Used only in AC circuits. Used in AC and DC circuits

300. Assuming the initiating cause is removed, which of these statements about resetting are correct or incorrect?

I. A fuse is not resettable; II. A circuit breaker is resettable. I is incorrect, II is incorrect. I is incorrect, II is correct. I is correct, II is incorrect. I is correct, II is correct


I. A fuse is resettable. II. A circuit breaker is not resettable. I is correct, II is incorrectI is incorrect, II is correctI is incorrect, II is incorrectI is correct, II is correct


I. A fuse is not resettable. II. A circuit breaker is not resettable. I is incorrect, II is incorrectI is correct, II is incorrectI is correct, II is correctI is incorrect, II is correct


I. A fuse is resettable. II. A circuit breaker is resettable. I is incorrect, II is incorrectI is correct, II is correctI is correct, II is incorrectI is incorrect, II is correct

304. Assuming positive logic, the symbol shown represents:View Annex A NOR gate. An INVERT or NOT gate. A NAND gate. An EXCLUSIVE gate

305. The function of a NOT logic gate within a circuit is to: Ensure the input signal is ac only. Invert the input signal such that the output is always of the opposite state. Ensure the output signal is of the same state as the input signal. Ensure the input signal is dc only

306. Smoke detection in the aircraft cargo compartments is performed by four sensors: C1, C2, C3 and C4 and the alert would be activated when: View Annex The C1 and C2 sensors detect smoke. The C2 and C4 sensors detect smoke. Only one sensor detects smoke. The C1 and C3 sensors detect smoke

307. The advantages of Nickel -Cadmium compared with lead-acid batteries are:

1. Lower risk of thermal runaway; 2. Higher internal resistance, hence higher power; 3. Reduced charging time; 4. Constant output voltage.


308. he capacity of a battery is the: No-load voltage of the battery multiplied by its rated output current. Number of cycles (charging and discharging) that a battery can withstand without deterioration of its cells. Intensity withstood by the battery during charging. Amount of Ampere-hour (Ah) that a fully charged battery can supply.

309. The voltage of a fully charged lead-acid battery cell under no electrical load is: 1.4 volts. 2.2 volts. 1.2 volts. 1.8 volts

310. The capacity of a battery is given in: Amperes/volts. Watts. Ohms. Ampere hours

311. The test to assess the state of charge of a lead-acid battery is to: Compare the "on-load" and "off-load" battery voltages. Check the discharge current of the battery "on-load". Check the level of the electrolyte. Check the battery voltage "off-load"

312. When carrying out a battery condition check using the aircraft's voltmeter: The battery should be isolated. No load should be applied to the battery because it would reduce the voltage. A load should be applied to the battery in order to give a better indication of condition. The load condition is unimportant

313. Connecting two 12 volt 40 ampere-hour capacity batteries in series will result in a total voltage and capacity respectively of: 24 volts, 80 ampere-hours. 12 volts, 80 ampere-hours. 24 volts, 40 ampere-hours. 12 volts, 40 ampere-hours

314. When a battery is almost fully discharged there is a tendency for the: Voltage to change with the same amount as compared to a fully charged battery. Voltage to decrease even under light loads. Current produced to increase due to the reduced voltage. Voltage to increase due to the current available.

315. The connection in parallel of two 12 volt/40 amp hours batteries, will create a unit with the following characteristics: 2

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