gen chem self assessment
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aamc general chemistry self assessmentTRANSCRIPT
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Physical Sciences
Self-Assessment:
General Chemistry Test
MCAT® is a program of the Association of American Medical Colleges
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Copyright Infringement Reminder
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Taking Your Test Offline
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Printing Guide
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Periodic Table Click PAGES FROM radio to and enter
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Commitment Self-Assessment
How committed are you to completing this test and using the results to prepare for the MCAT?
1=Not committed , 2=Somewhat committed, 3=Committed
If answer is 1, --- Completing the test requires a commitment of time and energy. If you do not feel you can
commit the time to complete it, you may be better off waiting to take the test until you can commit the time. The
test must be completed to receive the feedback to guide your study.
If answer 2,--- It’s okay if you are unsure about your confidence to use the results to prepare for the MCAT. The
unknown can be daunting. However, it is important that you feel motivated to complete the test since you need
to answer all the questions to receive feedback. The Official MCAT® Self- Assessment Package will show your
relative strengths and weaknesses to help you determine in what areas you should focus your preparation.
The entire test will take a few hours to complete, but you don’t need to complete it all at once. It doesn’t matter
how long it takes you to finish the test, but you do need to finish to receive feedback!
If answer 3,-- You’ve taken an important step in preparing for the MCAT by committing your time and energy to
completing the Self-Assessments. It is okay if you don’t know all the answers. This time spent on preparation
and practice will help you figure out your relative strengths and weaknesses in the content of the MCAT so that
you can plan your study most effectively.
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Pre-test Confidence Self-Assessment
One of the factors that can influence both your preparation and performance on the actual MCAT exam is your
confidence. This questionnaire will help you assess your confidence on the topics in this section of the exam so
that you can use the information to decide where you should focus your study time. You will be asked to rate
your confidence again after completing the test to help you gauge how your experience with actual MCAT
questions influences your perception of your ability in these content areas so that you can decide if you were
overconfident, under confident or on target and why this may be.
Confidence: Using the 5-point scale below in the table, how confident are you are in your ability to perform
well on this section of the MCAT exam as well as for each content category?
MCAT®
is a program of the Association of American Medical Colleges
Test/Content Categories
A=1-Not
Confident
at all
B=2-
Somewhat
Confident
C=3-
Moderately
Confident
D=4-Very
Confident
E=5-
Extremely
Confident
1. General Chemistry
Overall
2. Acids and Bases
3. Bonding
4. Electrochemistry
5. Electronic Structure
and Periodic Table
6. Kinetics and
Equilibrium
7. Phases and Phase
Equilibria
8. Solution Chemistry
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9. Stoichiometry
10. Thermodynamics and
Thermochemistry
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1 H 1.0
Periodic Table of the Elements
2
He 4.0
3 Li 6.9
4 Be 9.0
5 B
10.8
6 C
12.0
7 N
14.0
8 O
16.0
9 F
19.0
10 Ne 20.2
11 Na 23.0
12 Mg 24.3
13 Al 27.0
14 Si
28.1
15 P
31.0
16 S
32.1
17 Cl 35.5
18 Ar 39.9
19 K
39.1
20 Ca 40.1
21 Sc 45.0
22 Ti
47.9
23 V
50.9
24 Cr 52.0
25 Mn 54.9
26 Fe 55.8
27 Co 58.9
28 Ni 58.7
29 Cu 63.5
30 Zn 65.4
31 Ga 69.7
32 Ge 72.6
33 As 74.9
34 Se 79.0
35 Br 79.9
36 Kr 83.8
37 Rb 85.5
38 Sr 87.6
39 Y
88.9
40 Zr 91.2
41 Nb 92.9
42 Mo 95.9
43 Tc (98)
44 Ru
101.1
45 Rh
102.9
46 Pd
106.4
47 Ag
107.9
48 Cd
112.4
49 In
114.8
50 Sn
118.7
51 Sb
121.8
52 Te
127.6
53 I
126.9
54 Xe
131.3 55 Cs
132.9
56 Ba
137.3
57 La* 138.9
72 Hf
178.5
73 Ta
180.9
74 W
183.9
75 Re
186.2
76 Os
190.2
77 Ir
192.2
78 Pt
195.1
79 Au
197.0
80 Hg
200.6
81 Tl
204.4
82 Pb
207.2
83 Bi
209.0
84 Po
(209)
85 At
(210)
86 Rn (222)
87 Fr
(223)
88 Ra
(226)
89 Ac† (227)
104 Rf
(261)
105 Db (262)
106 Sg
(266)
107 Bh
(264)
108 Hs
(277)
109 Mt (268)
110 Ds
(281)
111 Uuu (272)
112 Uub (285)
114
Uuq (289)
116
Uuh (289)
* 58 Ce
140.1
59 Pr
140.9
60 Nd
144.2
61 Pm (145)
62 Sm 150.4
63 Eu
152.0
64 Gd
157.3
65 Tb
158.9
66 Dy
162.5
67 Ho
164.9
68 Er
167.3
69 Tm 168.9
70 Yb
173.0
71 Lu
175.0
† 90 Th
232.0
91 Pa
(231)
92 U
238.0
93 Np (237)
94 Pu
(244)
95 Am (243)
96 Cm (247)
97 Bk
(247)
98 Cf
(251)
99 Es
(252)
100 Fm (257)
101 Md (258)
102 No
(259)
103 Lr
(260)
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Physical Sciences Self-Assessment: General Chemistry Test
Number of Questions: 104
Approximate Time to Complete: 2-3 hours
Welcome to the Physical Sciences Self-Assessment: General
Chemistry Test. The goal of this test is to analyze your knowledge
in the content of the MCAT. In order to obtain an accurate
assessment of your strengths and weaknesses, you must answer
every question. Because the test is lengthy, you are encouraged to
take breaks as needed.
Good luck!
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Passage I
Ammonia is one of the most important chemicals
produced by the chemical industry. It is prepared by
the exothermic chemical reaction shown in reaction 1.
N2(g) + 3 H2(g) 2 NH3(g)
Reaction I
The conditions for Reaction 1 usually involve a
temperature of 450°C and a pressure of 320 atm.
Also, an iron catalyst is necessary to increase the rate
of the reaction.
Ammonia is separated from unreacted nitrogen
and hydrogen in the gaseous reaction mixture by
liquefying the ammonia. The separation is possible
because ammonia has a higher boiling point than
either nitrogen or hydrogen.
In the laboratory, ammonia is frequently used in
the form of its aqueous solution. Ammonia acts as a
weak base (Kb = 1.8 x 10–5
) in aqueous solutions, as
shown in reaction 2.
NH3 + H2O→ NH4+ + OH
–
Reaction II
The concentration of an aqueous solution of
ammonia can be determined by titrating a specific
volume of the ammonia solution with a standard
solution of a strong acid, such as hydrochloric acid.
As shown in Figure 1, 25.00 mL of an aqueous
solution of ammonia was titrated with a 0.10 M
solution of hydrochloric acid.
Figure 1
1. What is the percent, by mass, of nitrogen in NH3?
A ) 14%
B ) 25%
C ) 82%
D ) 97%
2. According to the Brønstead-Lowry acid-base
theory, which of the following species is the
conjugate acid of ammonia?
A ) H+
B ) H3O+
C ) NH3OH
D ) NH4+
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3. Which of the following acid-base indicators would
be best to use for determination of the equivalence
point for the titration shown in Figure 1?
A ) Thymol blue (pH range of color change is 1.2 to
2.8)
B ) Methyl red (pH range of color change is 4.2 to 6.3)
C ) Cresol red (pH range of color change is 7.2 to 8.8)
D ) Phenolphthalein (pH range of color change is 8.3
to 10.0)
4. Ammonia can act as a Lewis base because
ammonia:
A ) oxidizes water when it is in an aqueous solution.
B ) forms OH–ions in aqueous solutions.
C ) has a lone pair of electrons on the nitrogen atom.
D ) reacts with dilute hydrochloric acid.
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Passage II
Archaebacteria are often found in environments that
have extreme climatic conditions (e.g., in salt lakes or
in very acidic or alkaline hot springs). Most
archaebacteria are chemoautotrophs, bacteria that
obtain energy by a redox reaction. For example,
methanogens produce methane by metabolizing CO2.
The bond energy of C=O in CO2 is 803 kJ/mol, and
the C-H bond energy in CH4 is 414 kJ/mol.
Table 1 gives some of the chemical species that
scientists find in environments where archaebacteria
thrive.
Table 1 Chemicals
Name Formula
Methane CH4
Glycine H2N-CH2-COOH
Potassium hydroxide KOH
Sulfuric acid H2SO4
Carbon dioxide CO2
Methanol CH3OH
Sodium chloride NaCl
Hydrogen sulfide H2S
The methane found in swamp gas is a byproduct of
methanogens, which are also found in a symbiotic
association with a variety of cellulose-digesting
organisms, including cows and termites. Carbon-14
isotopic analysis even suggests that methane found
deep in the earth’s crust might have been produced by
archaebacteria.
5. Which of the following compounds has the same
geometry as methane?
A ) H2S
B ) CO2
C ) XeF4
D ) SiCl4
6. Like oxygen atoms in methanogens, which of the
following elements can act as an electron
acceptor?
A ) S
B ) He
C ) H2
D ) Fe
7. If an archaebacterial species lives in a pool that is
0.01 M HCl(aq), what is the pH of the water?
A ) 12
B ) 6
C ) 2
D ) 0.01
8. What pair of compounds found in Table 1 can
form extensive networks of intermolecular
hydrogen bonds with both participating?
A ) Methane and methanol
B ) Methane and glycine
C ) Glycine and methanol
D ) Methanol and carbon dioxide
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Passage III
Two different gases, Reactants X and Y, were
placed in either side of a reaction vessel that was
divided in half by a removable partition. The same
number of particles were placed in both sides of the
vessel.
The vessel temperature was equilibrated at 300 K,
and the partition was removed. The reactants mixed
and spontaneously reacted to form product molecules,
as shown in Figure 1.
Figure 1
When the experiment was repeated at 200 K, the
same amount of product was produced, but the
reaction proceeded more slowly than when it was run
at 300 K. When the procedure was repeated at 100 K,
no product was detected.
The activated energy, Ea, was determined to be 10
kJ/mole for this reaction.
9. Which of the following equations shows the net
reaction when the temperature was 300 K?
A ) X + Y2 → Y2X
B ) X +2Y → Y2X
C ) 2X + Y → YX2
D ) X2 + Y → YX2
10. Compared to the rate of the reaction between
Reactants X and Y at 300 K, the rate of the
reaction at 400 K would be:
A ) greater.
B ) the same.
C ) less.
D ) unrelated to the temperature.
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11. If the reaction between Reactants X and Y is
exothermic, which of the following diagrams
shows the energy profile of the reaction?
A )
B )
C )
D )
12. If Reactants X and Y are atoms, what is the shape
of the product molecules?
A ) Linear
B ) Bent
C ) Trigonal planar
D ) The shape of the product molecules cannot be
determined without more information.
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Passage IV
Hard water contains cations that form precipitates
with soap or upon boiling. The principal “hardness
ions” are Ca2+
, Mg2+
, and Fe2+
. There are 2 major
drawbacks associated with hard water.
First the X2+
ions reduce the effectiveness of
common soaps, which are sodium salts of organic
acids with long carbon chains. An example is sodium
stearate, C17H35CO2Na (MW = 306). The reaction
between soaps and the hardness ions yields insoluble
precipitates through the following reaction.
X2+
(aq) + 2 C17H35CO2Na (aq) → 2 Na+ (aq) +
X(C17H35CO2)2(s)
Reaction 1
Removal of stearate from the solution eliminates
the effectiveness of the soap.
Second, hard water produces boiler scale. The
hardness ions react with HCO3–, forming insoluble
carbonates that stick to the inner walls of pipes and
hot-water boilers.
X2+
(aq) + 2 HCO3–(aq) H2O(l) + CO2(g) +
XCO3(s)
Reaction 2
Deposits of this type are especially bad in hot water
and are poor conductors of heat.
It is important that the cations responsible for hard
water be removed before the water is heated or used
for washing. Water softening, the removal of the
hardness ions from water, can be accomplished in
several ways. One method is the ion-exchange
process, in which water is passed through a column
containing sodium aluminum silicates (zeolites). The
sodium ions of the zeolite are exchanged for the
hardness ions (Reaction 3), effectively removing them
from the water.
X2+
(aq) + 2 NaAlSi2O6(s) → 2 Na+(aq) +
X(AlSi2O6)2(s)
13. In some areas, residential hot-water heaters
should be cleaned periodically to remove:
A ) dissolved CO2 gas.
B ) insoluble aluminum silicates.
C ) insoluble stearate precipitates.
D ) insoluble carbonate deposits.
14. If reaction 2 is spontaneous and endothermic at
25° C, the:
A ) entropy change of the reaction must be positive.
B ) free energy change of the reaction equals zero.
C ) reaction generates excess heat.
D ) reaction is most likely nonspontaneous at 100°C.
15. Which of the following methods could be used to
regenerate a depleted zeolite ion-exchange
column?
A ) Washing the column with pure water
B ) Passing carbon dioxide gas through the dried
column
C ) Passing a sodium chloride solution through the
column
D ) Passing a calcium chloride solution through the
column
16. A sample of hard water contains 1 × 10–3
M Ca2+
ions and no other hardness ions. How many
grams of sodium stearate must be added to
remove all the CA2+
ions from 10 L of solution?
A ) [306 × 2 × 0.001 × 10] g
B ) [306 × 0.5 × 0.001 × 10] g
C ) [306 × 2 × 1,000 × 10] g
D ) [306 × 2 × 1,000 × 0.10] g
Reaction 3
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Passage V
The periodic table arranges the elements by atomic
number, aligning those with similar chemical
properties in columns. A primitive version of the
periodic table was created by a Russian chemist in
1869, long before the electronic configuration of the
elements was known. Dimitri Mendeleev grouped the
elements by their chemical properties and found that
the properties varied periodically with the atomic
mass. Mendeleev left empty spaces for undiscovered
elements. His genius was confirmed when the
elements that filled these blanks were isolated.
Henry Moseley showed that periodicity is a function
not of atomic mass but of atomic number, as stated by
today’s periodic law. The current periodic table
reflects this law. In 1985, an international committee
numbered the columns in the periodic table from 1 to
18 and abolished the A and B designations for main-
group and transition elements.
17. According to trends in electronegativity, which of
the following pairs of atoms is most likely to
form an ionic bond?
A ) N and O
B ) C and F
C ) Ca and I
D ) Si and Cl
18. Which of the following atoms has the largest
atomic radius?
A ) Sodium
B ) Aluminum
C ) Sulfur
D ) Chlorine
19. Which of the following atoms has the largest first
ionization energy?
A ) Potassium
B ) Zinc
C ) Gallium
D ) Krypton
20. What is the sum of the protons, neutrons, and
electrons in strontium–90?
A ) 90
B ) 126
C ) 128
D ) 218
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These questions are not based on a descriptive
passage and are independent of each other.
21. Which of the following elements has the highest
electron affinity?
A ) Carbon
B ) Fluorine
C ) Oxygen
D ) Magnesium
22. What is the conjugate base of the bisulfate ion
(HSO4–)?
A ) H+
B ) OH–
C ) SO42–
D ) H2SO4
23. Which of the following chemical species is NOT
isoelectronic with a neon atom?
A ) He
B ) F–
C ) Mg2+
D ) Na+
24. Which of the following is NOT characteristic of
ionic bond formation?
A ) It results from the electrostatic forces that exist
between particles of opposite charge.
B ) It occurs between 2 ions of very similar
electronegativity.
C ) It results from the net transfer of 1 or more
electrons from one atom to another.
D ) It results from the interaction of metals from the
left side of the periodic table with nonmetals from
the right side.
25. Which of the following describes the orbital
geometry of an sp3 hybridized atom?
A ) Linear
B ) Trigonal planar
C ) Tetrahedral
D ) Octahedral
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Passage VI
Olestra, a sucrose polyester, is the brand name of an
approved dietary fat replacement. The large-scale
synthesis of Olestra starts with a base-catalyzed
cleavage in methanol of the naturally occurring fats
(triacylglycerols or triglycerides) found in cottonseed
or soybean oils. The reaction liberates glycerine and
converts the fatty acids into methyl esters (Figure 1).
Figure 1 Base-catalyzed cleavage of a triacylglycerol
(R = CH3(CH2)n-; n = 8, 10, 12, etc.)
As glycerine settles out, a plant worker draws it off
and separates the methyl esters from the remaining
mixture by distillation. A reaction between these
esters and sucrose, common table sugar, in the
presence of a basic catalyst and emulsifiers at a high
temperature liberates methanol and produces crude
Olestra. The removal of excess fatty acids and
emulsifiers produces pure Olestra.
Normal edible fats contain three fatty acid units,
whereas Olestra, also a true fat, contains six to eight
fatty acid units bonded to the sugar backbone. Olestra
is not metabolized because the additional fatty acid
units block the approach of digestive enzymes to the
cleavage sites.
Because a calorie (1 cal = 4.185 J) is a very small unit
of energy, food scientists use the Calorie (1 Cal =
4,185 J) with a capital C. A 1-ounce bag of potato
chips contains about 160 Cal. A normal fat contains 9
Cal/g, whereas carbohydrates and proteins provide
about 4 Cal/g. (Note: For water, the heat of fusion is
1.4 kcal/mol, the specific heat is 4.185 J/g•oC or 1
cal/g•oC, and the density is 1.0 g/mL at 15
oC. One kg
equals 2.2 pounds.)
26. According to the passage, which of the following
compounds can the worker use to catalyze the
cleavage of a triglyceride?
A ) HCl(aq)
B ) NaCl(aq)
C ) NaOH(aq)
D ) Na2SO4(aq)
27. How many dietary calories does a 1-g sample of
Olestra contribute to a human consumer?
A ) 0 Cal
B ) 4 Cal
C ) 5 Cal
D ) 9 Cal
28. The boiling point of glycerine in comparison with
that of isopropyl alcohol, (CH3)2CHOH, is:
A ) more than 10oC higher.
B ) less than 10oC higher.
C ) less than 10oC lower.
D ) more than 10oC lower.
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29. What is the energy content in kcal of one peanut,
if the temperature of 1 kg of water in a
calorimeter increases by 50oC upon the
combustion of 10 peanuts?
A ) 0.5 kcal
B ) 1 kcal
C ) 5 kcal
D ) 10 kcal
Passage VII
Ammonia can be prepared by the reversible reaction between H2 and N2 in the presence of a mixture of FeO and
Al2K2O4 (Reaction 1) under a variety of conditions (Table 1).
Reaction 1
Table 1 Equilibrium Concentrations of NH3(g) at Several Temperatures and Pressures
Pressure
(atm)
Equilibrium concentration of NH3(g)
(% by volume)
at 200°C at 400°C at 600°C at 800°C
1 15.3 0.44 0.05 0.01
100 80.6 25.1 4.47 1.15
200 85.8 36.3 8.25 2.24
1,000 98.3 80.0 31.5 —
NH3 can also be prepared by reacting a metal nitride, such as Mg3N2, with H2O, as summarized by the following
unbalanced equation (Reaction 2).
Mg3N2(s) + H2O(l) → Mg(OH)2(s) + NH3(g)
Reaction 2
Ammonia and ammonium salts are used as commercial fertilizers. Ammonium salts are prepared by reacting NH3
with HX (an acid) as shown below (Reaction 3).
NH3(g) + HX(aq) → NH4X(s)
Reaction 3
The approximate electronegativities of several elements are given in Table 2.
Table 2 Electronegativities of Several Elements
Element Elecronegativity
H 2.20
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I 2.66
N 3.04
O 3.44
F 3.98
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30. Is Reaction 1 exothermic under standard
conditions?
A ) Yes, because heat must be added to initiate the
reaction
B ) Yes, because the standard enthalpy change is
negative
C ) No, because the percent yield of NH3 is greatest at
high pressure
D ) No, because the standard enthalpy change is
negative
31. The most likely role of the FeO/Al2K2O4 mixture
used in Reaction 1 is to:
A ) increase the rate of the reaction.
B ) increase the equilibrium constant.
C ) provide energy to facilitate the reaction.
D ) lower the pH of the reaction mixture.
32. What kind of interactions take place between
molecules of the product of Reaction 1?
A ) Ionic only
B ) Hydrogen bonding only
C ) Dipole-dipole only
D ) Both hydrogen bonding and dipole-dipole
33. Which of the following ions involved in Reaction
2 is the strongest base?
A ) N3–
(aq)
B ) OH–(aq)
C ) Mg2+
(aq)
D ) H+(aq)
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Passage VIII
Fertilizers are substances added to the soil to improve
plant growth and productivity. Commonly used
fertilizers contain ionic salts of N, P, and K. Because
of the complexity of soil chemistry, it is often
difficult to predict how soil pH will be affected by the
addition of a fertilizer.
Ionic salts used as fertilizers can generally be
classified chemically as either acidic or basic.
Ammonium dihydrogen phosphate (NH4H2PO4), a
commonly used fertilizer, can alter soil pH according
to Equation 1.
2 NH4H2PO4(s) 2 NH4+(aq) + H2PO4
–(aq) +
HPO42–
(aq) + H+(aq)
Equation 1
Alternatively, the fertilizer ammonium
monohydrogen phosphate [(NH4)2HPO4] can alter soil
pH according to Equation 2.
2 (NH4)2HPO4(s) + H2O(l) 4 NH4+(aq) +
HPO42–
(aq) + H2PO4–(aq) + OH
–(aq)
Equation 2
If a fertilizer alters the original soil pH too drastically,
CaCO3, a standard “liming” material, can be used to
raise soil pH, and CaCl2 can be used to lower soil pH.
Ammonia is sometimes applied directly to the soil to
increase the ammonium ion content by its interaction
with water in the soil. The ammonium ions from all
these sources can further affect soil pH during the
nitrification process. In this process, soil microbes
convert ammonium ions to nitrate ions according to
Equation 3.
NH4+(aq) + 2 O2(g) → NO3
–(aq) + H2O(l) + 2
H+(aq)
Equation 3
The nitrate ions are taken up by plants and converted
first to nitrite ions, NO2–, then to ammonia for amino
acid synthesis in the plant.
34. After adding the fertilizer shown in Equation 2 to
the soil, what will be the most likely effect of
excessively moist soil conditions?
A ) The degree of ionization will be greater, releasing
more OH–.
B ) The degree of ionization will be greater,
consuming more OH–.
C ) The degree of ionization will be reduced, releasing
more OH–.
D ) The degree of ionization will be reduced,
consuming more OH–.
35. Which of the following is the most likely reason
that plants CANNOT utilize nitrogen from the
atmosphere?
A ) N2 is present in very low concentrations in the
atmosphere.
B ) N2 is too polar.
C ) N2 is very unreactive because it is a noble gas.
D ) N2 is very unreactive because of the great strength
of the N≡N triple bond.
36. In Equation 1, HPO42–
is the conjugate:
A ) acid of NH4+.
B ) base of NH4+.
C ) acid of H2PO4–.
D ) base of H2PO4–.
37. In the equilibrium constant expression for
Equation 2, [H2O] is omitted because the salt is:
A ) only weakly basic, and [H2O] is nearly constant.
B ) strongly basic, and [H2O] is nearly zero.
C ) only weakly acidic, and [H2O] is nearly constant.
D ) strongly acidic, and [H2O] is nearly zero.
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Passage IX
The figure below illustrates an experiment
designed to relate the heat generated in a resistor due
to the current passing through the resistor and the
potential difference across it. The resistor is a coil of
electrically insulated copper wire with a resistance of
10 Ω. It is immersed in a 500-g oil bath contained in a
double-walled calorimeter that is thermally isolated
from the external environment. The oil has a specific
heat of 2.93 J/g °C at an initial temperature of 20° C.
The oil bath is stirred continually by a slowly rotating
fan blade on a thermally insulated shaft, and the
temperature is recorded at 100-sec intervals.
The heat capacity of the thermometer is 12.6 J/°C;
and that of the stirrer, inner cup, and resistor
combined is 24.2 J/°C. The walls of the inner and
outer calorimeter cups are highly polished, and the
cover forms an airtight seal with each cup. The space
between the cups is evacuated before the start of the
experiment, as is the space above the oil bath. The
electrical power is supplied by a 12-V storage battery
with negligible internal resistance. A voltmeter, RINT
= 106 Ω, and an ammeter, RINT = 1 Ω, are connected
as shown to measure potential difference and current,
respectively.
38. In the absence of stirring, as current passes
through the resistor and the adjacent oil is heated,
how will that oil’s density and position change?
A ) The heated oil should decrease in density and rise.
B ) The heated oil should decrease in density and sink.
C ) The heated oil should increase in density and rise.
D ) The heated oil should increase in density and sink
39. The connecting wires on the resistor are made of
insulated copper and are highly flexible. In order
for the resistor to remain immersed in the bath,
the oil must have a lower:
A ) density than the insulated copper wire.
B ) thermal conductivity than air.
C ) electrical conductivity than copper.
D ) melting point than water.
40. The space between the cups is evacuated before
the experiment to prevent:
A ) combustion of the oil.
B ) conductive heat loss.
C ) radiative heat loss.
D ) contamination of the oil.
41. As the experiment proceeds, the pressure of the
oil vapor above the bath increases. One reason is
the increasing number of molecules in the vapor.
Which of the following is another reason?
A ) Increasing volume of the vapor
B ) Decreasing molecular kinetic energies
C ) Heat of vaporization released
D ) Increasing temperature of the vapor
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Passage X
Coulometric methods offer a means of monitoring
gases. For example, Figure 1 shows a schematic
diagram of an apparatus that can be used to determine
ultrasmall concentrations of oxygen.
Figure 1 Coulometric determination of oxygen
concentration
The oxygen is bubbled over a silver electrode where it
is reduced according to the reactions represented by
Equations 1 and 2. The electrochemical reaction is
completed at the cadmium electrode. The half
reaction is given by Equation 3.
O2(g) + 2H2O + 4e–
4OH– Ε
o = +0.40 V
Equation 1
Ag+ + e
– Ag(s) Ε
o = +0.80 V
Equation 2
Cd(s) + 2OH–
Cd(OH)2(s) + 2e– Ε
o = +0.81 V
Equation 3
The current produced is measured by recording the
potential drop as it passes through a standard resistor
(R). The oxygen concentration is proportional to the
potential.
The procedure is reported to be accurate over a range
from 1 ppm up to 1% of the gas stream. The accuracy
of the procedure depends on an adequate flow rate.
42. How many ppm is 1%?
A ) 100
B ) 1,000
C ) 10,000
D ) 100,000
43. How is the accuracy of the oxygen determination
affected by the addition of a gas into the stream
that is reduced by a reaction analogous to that of
oxygen?
A ) Increased, because the smaller the amount of
oxygen in the stream, the more effective is
microanalysis
B ) Increased, because the larger the sample reduced,
the less effect a small variation in measurement
will have on results
C ) Decreased, because the partial pressure of oxygen
will be decreased
D ) Decreased, because the method cannot distinguish
oxygen from the added gas
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44. Would methane gas (CH4) be a candidate for
determination by the method described in the
passage?
A ) Yes, because carbon, like oxygen, is a nonmetal
B ) Yes, because carbon, like oxygen, is in the 2nd
period of the periodic table
C ) No, because hydrogen is already at its lowest
oxidation state in methane
D ) No, because carbon is already at its lowest
oxidation state in methane
45. In the schematic diagram shown in Figure 1, the
Cd electrode is:
A ) the anode, because oxygen gas is reduced there.
B ) the anode, because the silver electrode is where
reduction occurs.
C ) the cathode, because the silver electrode is where
reduction occurs.
D ) the cathode, because the silver electrode is where
oxidation occurs.
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These questions are not based on a descriptive
passage and are independent of each other.
46. Which of the following valence electron
configurations corresponds to an atom in an
excited state?
A ) 1s22s
2
B ) 2s22p
1
C ) 3s23d
1
D ) 4s23d
2
47. Which one of the following general
characteristics is shared by all catalysts?
A ) They induce more collisions among reactant
molecules.
B ) They transfer kinetic energy to the reactant
molecules.
C ) They increase the reaction rate but do not change
the Keq of a reversible reaction.
D ) They increase both the reaction rate and the Keq of
a reversible reaction.
48. Gas X has a density of 1.44 g/L and gas Y has a
density of 1.54 g/L. Which gas diffuses faster?
A ) Gas X, because it has a lower molar mass than gas
Y
B ) Gas X, because it has a higher molar mass than gas
Y
C ) Gas Y, because it has a lower molar mass than gas
X
D ) Gas Y, because it has a higher molar mass than
gas X
49. What is the pH of a .001 M NaOH solution?
A ) .001
B ) 3
C ) 7
D ) 11
50. A reaction is designed to produce ammonia from
the gas phase equilibrium of nitrogen and
hydrogen.
N2(g) + 3 H2(g) 2 NH3(g)
Introducing a catalyst into the system will cause
the amount of ammonia at equilibrium:
A ) to increase.
B ) to remain the same.
C ) to decrease.
D ) to change in a manner which depends on the value
of the equilibrium constant.
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Passage XI
The following experiments study the reactivities of
several active metals (Experiment 1) and halogens
(Experiment 2).
Experiment 1
Pea-sized samples of five active metals were placed
in deionized water, and observations were recorded in
Table 1.
Table 1 Observations
Metal
used
Observation upon
adding the metal to
water
Observation of
the resulting
solution
Mg No obvious reaction Neutral
Ca Sank, and slowly gave
off bubbles of a gas
Basic
Li Moved over the surface
slowly fizzing
Basic
Na Moved over the surface
vigorously fizzing,
caught fire
Basic
K Moved over the surface
vigorously fizzing,
exploded loudly
Basic
Experiment 2
A saturated aqueous solution of Cl2 was added to
separate aqueous solutions of NaF, NaCl, NaBr, and
NaI and mixed well. Observations were recorded. In
addition, samples of salt solutions were added to
separate electrolysis cells, and the minimum voltage
required to produce an observable reaction at the
anode was recorded. H2(g) was produced at the
cathode in each cell and, except for the NaF solution,
the solutions became basic. Results are recorded in
Table 2.
Table 2 Results
Solution Chlorine water
Electrolysis cell
voltage and product
NaF No change 2.06 V; O2(g)
NaCl No change 2.19 V; Cl2(g)
NaBr Red-brown 1.90 V; Br2(aq)
NaI Yellow-brown 1.37 V; I2(aq)
51. The process taking place at the cathode was:
A ) oxidation by a loss of electrons.
B ) oxidation by a gain of electrons.
C ) reduction by a loss of electrons.
D ) reduction by a gain of electrons.
52. Which of the following properties is most useful
in explaining the trend in the reactivities in
Experiment 1?
A ) Electronegativity
B ) Ionization potential
C ) Electron affinity
D ) Polarizability
53. Experiment 1 was repeated with 0.40 g of
calcium, and the gas that evolved was collected.
The identity of the gas, and its approximate
volume at 1.0 atm and 27°C were:
(Note: R = 0.0821 L•atm/mol•K)
A ) H2, 250 mL.
B ) H2, 500 mL.
C ) O2, 250 mL.
D ) O2, 500 mL.
54. What is the electron configuration of the metal
ion produced when Ca reacted with water in
Experiment 1?
A ) 1s22s
22p
63s
23p
64s
2
B ) 1s22s
22p
63s
23p
64s
1
C ) 1s22s
22p
63s
23p
6
D ) 1s22s
22p
63s
23p
64s
23d
2
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Passage XII
In 1622, a Spanish ship carrying a cargo of silver
crashed on a coral reef near Cuba and sank. The ship
was laden with hardwood boxes of silver coins. The
boxes came to rest on the ocean floor and began to
decay. At first, aerobic microorganisms thrived but,
as the concentration of oxygen decreased, these
organisms died. Subsequently, sulfur-loving bacteria
began to flourish.
These sulfur bacteria consumed sulfate ions in
seawater and excreted the weak acid H2S, as shown in
Equation 1.
SO42–
(aq) + 2 H+(aq) + 4 H2(g) → H2S(aq) + 4
H2O(l)
Equation 1
The excreted H2S then reacted with silver, which has
a standard reduction potential of +0.80 V. One of the
products was a black precipitate of Ag2S and the other
was hydrogen gas, as shown in Equation 2.
2 Ag(s) + H2S(aq) → Ag2S(s) + H2(g)
Equation 2
The hydrogen from this reaction provided additional
food for the sulfur microorganisms and accelerated
the corrosion of the silver coins. When the silver
coins were completely coated with Ag2S, the
corrosive reaction stopped.
Because the seawater contained small amounts of
CO2 (the solubility of CO2 is 0.145 g/100 g H2O at
25oC and 1.00 atm), bicarbonate ions were formed by
the reaction shown in Equation 3.
H2O(l) + CO2(g) H+(aq) + HCO3
–(aq)
Equation 3
These bicarbonate ions combined with calcium to
form the insoluble CaCO3, which crystallized,
encapsulating the coins, sand, and decaying matter
into rock-like clumps. The explorers who discovered
the treasure found these rock-like structures.
55. What is the maximum number of grams of H2S
that can be produced from 2 mol of sulfate ions
by the reaction of Equation 1?
A ) 68 g
B ) 34 g
C ) 96 g
D ) 192 g
56. The formation of Ag2S is an example of what
kind of reaction?
A ) A combination reaction
B ) A decomposition reaction
C ) A single replacement reaction
D ) A double replacement reaction
57. What species is the reducing agent in Equation 2?
A ) S2–
B ) H2S
C ) H+
D ) Ag
58. To a first approximation, the ionization constant
of H2S is:
A ) near zero.
B ) much less than 1.
C ) about 1.
D ) much more than 1.
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Passage XIII
The interaction between metals and hydrocarbons
is important in both biological and industrial
catalysis. Researchers are probing the fundamental
chemistry of these interactions by measuring the gas-
phase reactivity of transition-metal atoms with
hydrocarbons. In a typical reaction, metal atoms are
introduced into a helium buffer gas at the head of a
73-cm fast-flow tube. Table 1 shows the initial helium
and metal gas-flow conditions.
Table 1 Initial Flow Conditions
Pressure
(torr)
Mole fraction
He
Metal velocity
(cm s–1
)
0.5 0.93 8160
0.8 0.96 9070
1.1 0.98 9420
A large excess of a hydrocarbon gas such as
ethene is then injected into the metal gas stream, and
the rate of the reaction is measured by monitoring the
concentration of unreacted metal versus reaction time
(distance/velocity).
Equation 1 shows a proposed one-step reaction
mechanism for the reaction of a metal (M) with a
hydrocarbon (HC).
M(g) + HC(g) product
Equation 1
If the HC(g) is in a large excess, its concentration
is considered to be constant, and the rate expression
shown in Equation 2 is obtained, in which [M] is the
concentration of metal at time t, and k and k1 are rate
constants.
ln [M/Mo] = –k1[HC]t = –kt
Equation 2
Several rate constants reported for metal reactions
with ethene at 298 K are shown in Table 2 (NR = no
reaction). The researchers suggest that two effects
involving metal orbitals influence the reaction rate. A
full valence s subshell hinders reaction, and valence s
and d orbitals of similar energy form sd hybrid
orbitals, enhancing the reaction.
Table 2 Rate Constants, k (10–12
cm3 s
–1), at Three
Pressures
Pressure (torr)
Pressure (torr)
Metal 0.5 0.8 1.1 Metal 0.5 0.8 1.1
Ti — NR — Ni — 0.5 —
Zr — 59 28 Pd — 15 —
Hf 29 28 28 Pt 387 376 351
V — NR — Cu — NR —
Nb — 314 — Ag — NR —
Ta 9.6 8.4 — Au — NR —
59. The metals shown in Table 2 belong to which
block of elements in the periodic table?
A ) s
B ) p
C ) d
D ) f
60. According to Table 2 and information in the
passage, the reactivity of platinum (5d96s
1)
relative to gold (5d10
6s1) is attributable to the
metal–HC interaction, which involves:
A ) only valence s electrons.
B ) sd hybrid orbitals.
C ) sp hybrid orbitals.
D ) only valence d electrons.
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61. If the reaction tube described in the passage is 2
cm in diameter and an initial helium–metal
mixture displays ideal gas behavior, which of the
following expressions gives the number of moles
of He in the tube at 1.1 torr and 298 K? (Note: R
= 0.082 L atm K–1
mol–1
.)
A ) [(1.1)(π)(1)2(0.98)]/[(1000)(760)(0.082)(298)]
B ) [(1.1)(π)(1)(73)2(0.98)]/[(1000)(760)(0.082)(298)]
C )
[(1.1)(π)(2)2(73)(0.98)(4.0)]/[(1000)(760)(0.082)(2
98)]
D ) [(1.1)(π)(1)2(73)(0.98)]/[(1000)(760)(0.082)(298)]
62. What does a nonlinear plot of ln [M] versus t
indicate about the concentration of the
hydrocarbon (HC) and the reaction mechanism?
A ) The HC is not in excess, and the mechanism is
M + heat M* (fast)
M* + HC product (slow)
B ) The HC is in excess, and the mechanism is
M + heat M* (fast)
M* + HC product (slow)
C ) The HC is not in excess, and the mechanism is
M + heat M* (slow)
M* + HC product (fast)
D ) The HC is in excess, and the mechanism is
M + heat M* (slow)
M* + HC product (fast)
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Passage XIV
A class was studying electrochemistry. The instructor
gave each student an unknown. Some of the data are
shown in Table 1.
Table 1 Student Data
Student Nature of unknown Measurement
1 0.01 M monoprotic acid pH = 4.0
2 0.001 M monoprotic acid pH = 3.0
3 1.0 M cation Εo = 1.10 V
4 White solid (58.5 g/mol) –
5 Solution of Fe2(SO4)3 –
Some students required the Nernst equation, Equation
1.
Εcell = Εocell– (0.0592/n)log10(Q)
Equation 1
In Equation 1, n equals the number of moles of
electrons transferred in the redox reaction, and Q is
the reaction quotient. The expression for Q in terms
of concentrations of reactants and products is written
in the same manner as is the expression for the
equilibrium constant, Keq, for a reaction. The standard
cell potential Εocell (in volts) of a galvanic cell is
obtained when all the components of the cell are in
their standard (thermodynamic) states. Thus, Εcell
equals zero, when Q equals Keq.
All of the students studied the reaction given by
Equation 2 (unbalanced), for which Εocell= 0.32 V.
MnO4–(aq) + H
+(aq) + ClO3
–(aq) → ClO4
–(aq) +
Mn2+
(aq) + H2O(ℓ)
Equation 2 (unbalanced)
Standard reduction potentials for certain electrodes
are given in Table 2.
Table 2 Standard Reduction Potentials
Half-reaction Εo, Volts
Ag+(aq) + e
– → Ag(s) +0.80
Cu2+
(aq) + 2e– → Cu(s) +0.34
2H+(aq) + 2e
– → H2(g) 0.00
Zn2+
(aq) + 2e– → Zn(s) –0.76
Al3+
(aq) + 3e– → Al(s) –1.66
Ca2+
(aq) + 2e– → Ca(s) –2.76
63. If Student 3’s measurement (Table 1) was
obtained from a cell made by connecting the
unknown solution to a standard zinc electrode
(Table 2) by means of a salt bridge, which of the
following ions was Student 3’s unknown?
A ) Ag+
B ) Cu2+
C ) Al3+
D ) Ca2+
64. If Student 4 prepared a solution by dissolving
29.25 g of the assigned unknown in water to a
total volume of 250.0 mL, the molarity of the
solution was:
A ) 0.250 M.
B ) 0.500 M.
C ) 1.00 M.
D ) 2.00 M.
65. The name of Student 5’s unknown is:
A ) iron(II) sulfate.
B ) iron(II) sulfite.
C ) iron(III) sulfate.
D ) iron(III) sulfite.
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66. Which expression gives the reaction quotient for
a spontaneous reaction between standard silver
and aluminum electrodes (Table 2)?
A ) [Al3+
][Ag+]
B ) [Al3+
]/[Ag+]3
C ) [Ag+]
3/[Al
3+]
D ) [Al3+
][Ag(s)]3/[Ag
+]
3[Al(s)]
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Passage XV
At the critical point, the density of liquid CO2 is equal
to the density of gaseous CO2. This occurs at specific
conditions of temperature and pressure. At
temperatures and pressures above the critical point
values, CO2 is deemed supercritical. For a
supercritical fluid, the density and ability to dissolve
other substances are similar to values expected for
liquids. The following figures give phase data for
CO2.
Figure 1 Phase diagram for CO2
Figure 2 Isothermal curves for CO2 near the critical
point. V (× 104) is relative to V = 1.000 at 0
oC and
1.000 atm.
67. In Figure 2, which of the points (A-D) is the
critical point for CO2?
A ) A
B ) B
C ) C
D ) D
68. Which of the following compounds is most
soluble in supercritical CO2?
A ) NaCl
B ) C2H5OC2H5
C ) NH4NO3
D ) KOH
69. Water is a liquid at room temperature, yet CO2 at
room temperature is liquid only at high
pressures. Which of the following best explains
this?
A ) CO2 is polar and has strong intermolecular forces.
B ) CO2 is nonpolar and has strong intermolecular
forces.
C ) CO2 is polar and has weak intermolecular forces.
D ) CO2 is nonpolar and has weak intermolecular
forces.
70. According to Figure 1, what is the critical
temperature and pressure of CO2?
A ) –56.1oC and 6.0 atm
B ) –54.1oC and 119.0 atm
C ) 31.1oC and 75.3 atm
D ) 25.0oC and 1.0 atm
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These questions are not based on a descriptive
passage and are independent of each other.
71. Which of the following substances is NOT a
base?
A ) NH3
B ) SO42–
C ) NH4+
D ) Fe(OH)2
72. Consider the following equilibrium in a closed
system.
N2O4(g) 2 NO2(g) ΔH° = 58.0 kJ
Which of the following will favor the formation
of N2O4
A ) Decreasing the temperature
B ) Decreasing the concentration of NO2
C ) Decreasing the pressure at constant temperature
D ) Increasing the volume
73. Which of the following titration curves best
represents the titration of a strong acid with .10
M NaOH?
A )
B )
C )
D )
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74. Ag+
+ e– → Ag E
o = +0.80 V
Cu+
+ e– → Cu E
o = +0.52 V
Pb2+
+ 2 e– → Pb E
o = –0.13 V
Zn2+
+ 2 e– → Zn E
o = –0.76 V
With which of the above metals can copper form
a galvanic cell in which copper is reduced?
A ) With silver only
B ) With lead only
C ) With lead and zinc
D ) With silver and zinc
75. Which of the following substances is most likely
to be more soluble in 1.0 M HCl than in 1.0 M
NaOH?
A ) AgCl
B ) Pb(OH)2
C ) CaF2
D ) HI
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Passage XVI
A chemist measured some physical properties of an
unknown element (X) and its oxide. The results are
summarized in Table 1.
Table 1 Physical Properties of Element X and Its
Oxide
Element X Oxide of
X
Density (g/cm3) 1.54 3.30
Melting point (oC) 839 2614
Boiling point (oC) 1484 2850
Solubility (g/100 g H2O at
25oC)
not
measured
0.12
The chemist concluded that the oxide was an ionic
compound because of its high melting and boiling
points. When the solubility experiment was
conducted, the element reacted with water at room
temperature and liberated a flammable gas.
Dissolution of the oxide in water produced a pH
greater than 7. The boiling point of the oxide solution
was slightly higher than 100oC.
The emission spectrum of element X displayed a
number of lines in the visible region; the red
emissions were particularly intense. The chemist
compared certain properties of the unknown with
those of oxygen. The data are shown in Table 2.
Table 2 Properties of Element X and Oxygen
Element
X
Oxygen
Electronegativity 1.0 3.5
First ionization energy
(kJ/mol)
590 1300
Second ionization energy
(kJ/mol)
1100 3400
Third ionization energy
(kJ/mol)
4912 5300
76. What is the physical state of the unknown
element X at 1200oC?
A ) Solid
B ) Liquid
C ) Gas
D ) Plasma
77. According to data presented in the passage,
which of the following charge distributions best
describes the oxide of element X?
A ) Element X positive, oxygen positive
B ) Element X positive, oxygen negative
C ) Element X negative, oxygen positive
D ) Element X negative, oxygen negative
78. The gas that evolved when the chemist tried to
dissolve element X was most likely:
A ) water vapor produced from the heat of reaction.
B ) oxygen produced by chemical reaction.
C ) hydrogen produced by chemical reaction.
D ) nitrogen that had been dissolved in the water from
air.
79. According to the ionization energies shown in
Table 2, element X is:
A ) an alkali metal.
B ) an alkaline earth metal.
C ) a transition metal.
D ) a nonmetal.
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Passage XVII
Although normal rainfall has a pH of about 5.6, in
highly industrialized areas, pH values of 3 or lower
have been measured. Acid rain has an average pH of
about 4.4.
Rainwater becomes acidic when it reacts with the
oxides of nitrogen and sulfur, which are produced
during the combustion of fossil fuels. The primary
contributor to acid rain is SO2, which is oxidized in
air to SO3. The SO3 may then combine with airborne
water droplets to form sulfuric acid. Acid rain
dissolves CaCO3, the main component in marble,
according to the following reaction.
H2SO4 + CaCO3 → CaSO4 + H2O + CO2
Below a pH of 4, the rate of dissolution is
proportional to the H+ concentration. Between pH
values of 4 and 6, the dissolution becomes less
dependent on the concentration of H+ and more
dependent on water flow and CO2 pressure. Above a
pH of 6, the dissolution of CaCO3 is independent of
the hydrogen ion concentration.
80. Based on the pKa values given below, which of
the following species is the strongest Brønstead
base?
HCl: pKa = –7.0
HNO3: pKa = –1.3
HCN: pKa = 9.2
A ) H+
B ) Cl–
C ) NO3–
D ) CN–
81. The pH of acid rain found in industrialized areas
would increase if the release to the atmosphere of
which of the following were decreased?
I. SO2
II. CaO
III. N2
IV. NO
A ) I and IV only
B ) II and III only
C ) I, II, and IV only
D ) I, II, III and IV
82. Limestone, marble, chalk, and Iceland spar are all
composed of CaCO3 crystals. Which of the
following could cause the differences in the
properties of the materials?
I. Crystal grain size
II. Conditions of formation
III. Molecular formula
IV. Impurities
A ) I and III only
B ) I, II, and IV only
C ) II, III, and IV only
D ) I, II, III, and IV
83. The solubility of calcium sulfate would be
expected to be low in water because:
A ) SO42–
is polyatomic.
B ) oxygen atoms are highly electromagnetic.
C ) both ions are highly charged.
D ) calcium ions are small compared to neutral
calcium atoms.
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Passage XVIII
Inorganic compounds with ring systems that contain alternating boron (B) and phosphorus (P) atoms can be
synthesized under anhydrous conditions. Figure 1 shows the structures of compounds 1 and 2.
Figure 1 Compounds 1 and 2 (R = isopropyl = iso-C3H7)
Equations 1a and 1b show the synthesis of Compound 1, which contains a four-membered ring, and Equation 2
shows the synthesis of Compound 2, which contains a six-membered ring.
2 R2NBCl2 + 5 LiPH2 → 4 LiCl + 3 PH3 + Intermediate
Equation 1a
Intermediate + HCl → LiCl + Compound 1
Equation 1b
3 R2NBCl2 + 6 LiPH2 → 6 LiCl + 3 PH3 + Compound 2
Equation 2
Table 1 shows structural data for compounds 1 and 2.
Table 1 Structural Data for Compounds 1 and 2
Compound
Average
B-P bond
length
(pm)
Average
B-N bond
length
(pm)
Ring
geometry
Geometry
of
boron
Geometry
of
phosphorus
1 193 138 Planar Trigonal
planar
Trigonal
pyramidal
2 194 139 Puckered Trigonal
planar
Trigonal
pyramidal
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Table 2 shows how bond length varies with bond order for both boron-phosphorus (B-P) and boron-nitrogen (B-
N) bonds. The data come from experimental studies, as well as theoretical calculations on the hypothetical
molecules H2BPH2 and HBPH.
Table 2 Bond Order versus Bond Length
B-P
Bond order
B-P
Bond length
(pm)
B-N
Bond order
B-N
Bond length
(pm)
1.0 190 1.0 142
2.0 181 2.0 130
3.0 165 – –
84. Phosphine (PH3) has which of the following
Lewis structures?
A )
B )
C )
D )
85. What formula is the same for compounds 1 and
2?
A ) Valence-bond
B ) Empirical
C ) Molecular
D ) Structural
86. What is the maximum volume of PH3(g) that a
chemist can obtain from the reaction shown by
Equation 1a, if 0.005 mol LiPH2 reacts with 0.002
mol R2NBCl2 at 0oC and 1 atm?
A ) 0.672 mL
B ) 6.72 mL
C ) 67.2 mL
D ) 67.2 L
87.
The above plot shows how the volume of a 1.0-g
sample of Compound 1 in the gaseous state varies
with temperature at constant pressure. Where on
the graphic would a similar plot of a 1.0-g sample
of Compound 2 appear?
A ) Below the plot for Compound 1
B ) Above the plot for Compound 1
C ) Precisely on top of the plot for Compound 1
D ) Intersecting the plot for Compound 1 at its
midpoint with an opposite slope.
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Passage XIX
The hardness of water is caused by the presence of
calcium and other ions that form insoluble
compounds with ordinary soap. Ground water in
limestone regions may contain a large amount of
calcium as CaCO3. The high degree of solubility of
CaCO3 in acidic solutions (due to conversion to
soluble Ca(HCO3)2) is responsible for water hardness
in these regions.
One way to soften acidic groundwater is by simply
boiling, which results in the removal of calcium ion
by Reaction 1.
Ca2+
+ 2HCO3– CaCO3(s) + H2O + CO2(g)
Reaction 1
The precipitated calcium carbonate is then removed
by filtration.
An alternative method of achieving the same result is
to add calcium hydroxide to the water sample, which
allows removal of calcium carbonate by Reaction 2.
Ca2+
+ 2HCO3– + Ca(OH)2(aq) 2CaCO3(s) +
2H2O
Reaction 2
This method is a more economical means of reducing
the water hardness on a large scale because of the
large fuel cost of boiling.
88. How many grams of CaCO3 would be formed in
Reaction 1 if the CO2 evolved occupies 11.2 L at
STP?
A ) 0.5 g
B ) 11.2 g
C ) 50 g
D ) 100 g
89. Reaction 1 is an effective means of decreasing
the hardness of an acidic water sample because it:
A ) increases the pH and decreases the solubility of
CaCO3.
B ) decreases the pH and decreases the solubility of
CaCO3.
C ) increases the pH and converts HCO3– to water.
D ) decreases the pH and removes Ca2+
from solution.
90. What is the effect of a high level of atmospheric
CO2 on the hardness of water in limestone
regions?
A ) It would lower the pH and increase the solubility
of CaCO3.
B ) It would raise the pH and increase the solubility of
CaCO3.
C ) It would lower the pH and decrease the solubility
of CaCO3.
D ) It would raise the pH and decrease the solubility of
CaCO3.
91. The addition of excess Ca2+
to a solution
containing Ca2+
and CO32–
ions causes CaCO3 to
precipitate because:
A ) Ksp for CaCO3 would increase due to the increase
in [Ca2+
].
B ) Ksp for CaCO3 would decrease due to the increase
in [Ca2+
].
C ) the reactivity quotient Q would be lower than Ksp.
D ) the reactivity quotient Q would be greater than
Ksp.
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Passage XX
Unlike most other substances, water is less dense in its solid phase than in its liquid phase. Also, the density
of the liquid phase of water is greatest at approximately 4° C.
One explanation for the unusual density of water is that ordered clusters of water molecules exist in ice and
in the liquid phase below 4° C. When the ordered structure of ice is broken, water molecules may move closer
together, filling in the gaps that are present in ice. The density of water will therefore increase as the
temperature is raised from 0° C to 4°C. The density of water decreases at temperatures above 4° C. A
representation of the structure is shown in Figure 1.
Figure 1
Water in lakes, streams, and oceans contains a variety of impurities and therefore will rarely freeze at 0° C
or boil at 100° C. This behavior is due to the freezing-point depression (Kf = 1.86° C/m) and boiling-point
elevation (Kb = 0.52° C/m) of water.
The freezing-point depression of seawater may be explained by examining vapor pressure of seawater as
compared to pure, deionized water. Figure 2 shows the vapor pressures plotted against temperature.
Figure 2
In Figure 2, Point B is the freezing point of pure, deionized water; Point A represents the freezing point of
seawater. When seawater freezes slowly, its vapor pressure is the same as that of pure ice at that temperature.
This indicates that the ice that freezes from seawater is free of the impurities in the water. However, the
concentration of the impurities in the ice depends on the rate of freezing.
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Density of seawater: 1.025 g/mL
Heat capacity of water: 75.3 J/mole.K
Heat of fusion of water: 6,020 kJ/mole
Molalities of the 5
ions in the greatest
abundance in seawater:
Na+ (0.470 m)
K+ (0.010 m)
Ca2+
(0.010 m)
Mg2+
(0.054 m)
Cl– (0.598 m)
92. Ice that slowly forms from seawater will have a
sodium ion concentration:
A ) close to zero.
B ) greater than that of seawater.
C ) equal to that of seawater.
D ) less than that of pure water.
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93. Based on the information given in the passage,
which will have a higher boiling point: 1 m
glucose or seawater?
A ) Seawater, because the total molality of seawater is
greater than 1 m glucose
B ) Seawater, because glucose has a larger molecular
weight than the ions in seawater
C ) 1 m glucose, because glucose solutions are not
ionic
D ) 1 m glucose, because the total molality of 1 m
glucose is less than seawater
94. Which of the following graphs best represents a
plot of the vapor pressure of seawater and pure
water near their respective boiling points? (Note:
Point C is the boiling point of pure water; Point D
is the boiling point of seawater.)
A )
B )
C )
D )
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95. Based only on the information in the passage,
which of the following expressions should be
used to best estimate the temperature (°C) at
which ice will form in seawater?
A ) 0 – 1.86(6.020)
B ) 0 – 1.86(1.025)
C ) 0 – 1.86(4.184)
D ) 0 – 1.86(1.142)
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Passage XXI
Metals can occur as free elements or in
compounds as ions with positive oxidation states. The
more active a metal is, the more difficult it is to
reduce it to a free element. Table 1 shows the
standard reduction potentials for several common
metals and hydrogen.
Table 1
Half-reaction E° (V)
Na+(aq) + e
– → Na(s) –2.71
Mg2+
(aq) + 2 e– → Mg(s) –2.37
Zn2+
(aq) + 2 e– → Zn(s) –0.76
Ni2+
(aq) + 2 e– → Ni(s) –0.25
Pb2+
(aq) + 2e– → Pb(s) –0.13
2 H+(aq) + 2 e
– → H2(g) 0.00
Cu2+
(aq) + 2e–
→ Cu(s) +0.34
Ag+(aq) + e
– → Ag(s) +0.80
Au3+
(aq) + 3 e– → Au(s) +1.50
Some metal ions exist in only 1 oxidation state
and are colorless in solution. Transition metals often
form ions of several oxidation states that are colored
in solution.
Transition metals frequently form complexes
consisting of a central metal cation and several anions
and/or charged or uncharged species called ligands.
Ligands form coordinate covalent bonds with the
central cation in complexes. The coordination
complex ion, [Co(NH3)4Cl2]+, consists of Co
3+, 4 NH3
ligands, and 2 Cl– ligands.
96. Based on the oxidation states of the ions in Table
1, how many moles of copper will be oxidized
when 1 mole of gold ions is reduced to the
elemental form in a galvanic cell?
A )
B )
C ) 2
D ) 3
97. Which of the following causes some metal ions to
have color when in solution?
A ) The hydrolysis reaction of the ion with water
B ) The loss of d-electrons during ionization
C ) The transition energies of d-electrons
D ) The shielding of electrons in lower shells by d-
orbital electrons
98. What is the standard cell potential (E°) for the
galvanic cell formed with Zn(s)/Zn2+
(aq) and
Ag(s)/Ag+(aq) half-cells?
A ) –2.36 V
B ) +0.04 V
C ) +1.56 V
D ) +2.36 V
99. Which of the following species would reduce a
1.0 M solution of Pb2+
to Pb(s)?
A ) Mg
B ) Cu
C ) Na+ in a 1.0 M solution
D ) Au3+
in a 1.0 M solution
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These questions are not based on a descriptive passage and are independent of each other.
100. As atomic number increases in a horizontal row of the periodic table, ionization energy generally:
A ) increases, because of increasing effective nuclear charge.
B ) increases, because of increasing atomic radius.
C ) decreases, because of decreasing effective nuclear charge.
D ) decreases, because of increasing atomic radius.
101. Based on the table below, which of the following species is the strongest oxidizing agent?
Half-reaction
Standard
potential
(V)
Na(s) → Na+(aq) + e
– 2.71
MnO4–(aq) + 8 H
+(aq) + 5 e
– → Mn
2+(aq) + 4 H2O(l) 1.51
I2(s) + 2 e– → 2 I
–(aq) 0.54
Ni(s) → Ni2+
(aq) + 2 e– 0.28
A ) Na+
B ) MnO4–
C ) I2
D ) Ni2+
102. An electrochemical cell is designed to produce pure copper from CuSO4. An increase in which of the
following cell conditions will most effectively increase the rate at which pure copper is produced?
A ) The concentration of SO42+
(aq)
B ) The current of electricity
C ) The size of the cathode
D ) The size of the anode
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103. The following data were collected for the reaction A + B → C.
Exp
Concentration
of A
(M)
Concentration
of B
(M)
Initial rate
of reaction
(M/sec)
1 0.100 0.100 3 × 10–5
2 0.100 0.200 3 × 10–5
3 0.200 0.100 12 × 10–5
What is the rate law for the reaction?
A ) Rate = k[A]2
B ) Rate = k[B]2
C ) Rate = k[A][B]
D ) Rate = k[A]2[B]
104. What is the molar concentration of Na+(aq) in a solution that is prepared by mixing 10 mL of a 0.010 M
NaHCO3(aq) solution with 10 mL of a 0.010 M Na2CO3(aq) solution?
A ) 0.010 mole/L
B ) 0.015 mole/L
C ) 0.020 mole/L
D ) 0.030 mole/L
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Post-test Confidence Self-Assessment
Congratulations!
You have completed a test of The Official MCAT® Self-Assessment Package.
Now that you have completed the test, reconsider your confidence rating of your knowledge of the content in
this test. Has your confidence level changed after answering the questions? Why might this be? Both your initial
and revised confidence ranking for each content category will be displayed in the analytic summary.
MCAT®
is a program of the Association of American Medical Colleges
Test/Content Categories
A=1-Not
Confident
at all
B=2-
Somewhat
Confident
C=3-
Moderately
Confident
D=4-Very
Confident
E=5-
Extremely
Confident
1. General Chemistry
Overall
2. Acids and Bases
3. Bonding
4. Electrochemistry
5. Electronic Structure
and Periodic Table
6. Kinetics and
Equilibrium
7. Phases and Phase
Equilibria
8. Solution Chemistry
9. Stoichiometry
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10. Thermodynamics and
Thermochemistry
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Pre-test Confidence Self-
Assessment
1 (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)
2 (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)
3 (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)
4 (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)
5 (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)
6 (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)
7 (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)
8 (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)
9 (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)
10 (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)
General Chemistry Questions
1 (A) (B) (C) (D)
2 (A) (B) (C) (D)
3 (A) (B) (C) (D)
4 (A) (B) (C) (D)
5 (A) (B) (C) (D)
6 (A) (B) (C) (D)
7 (A) (B) (C) (D)
8 (A) (B) (C) (D)
9 (A) (B) (C) (D)
10 (A) (B) (C) (D)
11 (A) (B) (C) (D)
12 (A) (B) (C) (D)
13 (A) (B) (C) (D)
14 (A) (B) (C) (D)
15 (A) (B) (C) (D)
16 (A) (B) (C) (D)
17 (A) (B) (C) (D)
18 (A) (B) (C) (D)
19 (A) (B) (C) (D)
20 (A) (B) (C) (D)
21 (A) (B) (C) (D)
22 (A) (B) (C) (D)
23 (A) (B) (C) (D)
24 (A) (B) (C) (D)
25 (A) (B) (C) (D)
26 (A) (B) (C) (D)
27 (A) (B) (C) (D)
28 (A) (B) (C) (D)
29 (A) (B) (C) (D)
30 (A) (B) (C) (D)
31 (A) (B) (C) (D)
32 (A) (B) (C) (D)
33 (A) (B) (C) (D)
34 (A) (B) (C) (D)
35 (A) (B) (C) (D)
36 (A) (B) (C) (D)
37 (A) (B) (C) (D)
38 (A) (B) (C) (D)
39 (A) (B) (C) (D)
40 (A) (B) (C) (D)
41 (A) (B) (C) (D)
42 (A) (B) (C) (D)
43 (A) (B) (C) (D)
44 (A) (B) (C) (D)
45 (A) (B) (C) (D)
46 (A) (B) (C) (D)
47 (A) (B) (C) (D)
48 (A) (B) (C) (D)
49 (A) (B) (C) (D)
50 (A) (B) (C) (D)
51 (A) (B) (C) (D)
52 (A) (B) (C) (D)
53 (A) (B) (C) (D)
54 (A) (B) (C) (D)
55 (A) (B) (C) (D)
56 (A) (B) (C) (D)
57 (A) (B) (C) (D)
58 (A) (B) (C) (D)
59 (A) (B) (C) (D)
60 (A) (B) (C) (D)
61 (A) (B) (C) (D)
62 (A) (B) (C) (D)
63 (A) (B) (C) (D)
64 (A) (B) (C) (D)
65 (A) (B) (C) (D)
66 (A) (B) (C) (D)
67 (A) (B) (C) (D)
68 (A) (B) (C) (D)
69 (A) (B) (C) (D)
70 (A) (B) (C) (D)
71 (A) (B) (C) (D)
72 (A) (B) (C) (D)
73 (A) (B) (C) (D)
74 (A) (B) (C) (D)
75 (A) (B) (C) (D)
76 (A) (B) (C) (D)
77 (A) (B) (C) (D)
78 (A) (B) (C) (D)
79 (A) (B) (C) (D)
80 (A) (B) (C) (D)
81 (A) (B) (C) (D)
82 (A) (B) (C) (D)
83 (A) (B) (C) (D)
84 (A) (B) (C) (D)
85 (A) (B) (C) (D)
86 (A) (B) (C) (D)
87 (A) (B) (C) (D)
88 (A) (B) (C) (D)
89 (A) (B) (C) (D)
90 (A) (B) (C) (D)
91 (A) (B) (C) (D)
92 (A) (B) (C) (D)
93 (A) (B) (C) (D)
94 (A) (B) (C) (D)
95 (A) (B) (C) (D)
96 (A) (B) (C) (D)
97 (A) (B) (C) (D)
98 (A) (B) (C) (D)
99 (A) (B) (C) (D)
101 (A) (B) (C) (D)
101 (A) (B) (C) (D)
102 (A) (B) (C) (D)
103 (A) (B) (C) (D)
104 (A) (B) (C) (D)
Post-test Confidence Self-
Assessment
1 (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)
2 (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)
3 (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)
4 (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)
5 (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)
6 (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)
7 (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)
8 (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)
9 (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)
10 (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)