(fx ) (fx )=sin . x ( ) - anucde · ... distinguish between english bond and flemish bond. ... for...

(DCE 211)

B.Tech. DEGREE EXAMINATION, DECEMBER 2012.

(Examination at the end of Second Year)

Civil Engineering

Paper I — MATHEMATICS – III

Time : Three hours Maximum : 75 marks

Answer Question No. 1 compulsorily. (15 × 1 = 15)

Answer ONE question from each Unit. (4 × 15 = 60)

1. Answer the following :

(a) State Euler’s formula.

(b) What is the smallest period of

k

xnπ2cos ?

(c) If ( ) 2xxf = , then find the Fourier coefficient na .

(d) Find 0a in the Fourier series of ( ) ππ <<−= xxxf ,sin .

(e) Define ‘Practical Harmonic analysis’.

(f) State Fourier integral theorem.

(g) State the modulation theorem of Fourier transform.

(h) Write a formula for Fourier cosine transform of ( )

2

2 ,

x

txu

∂

∂, ππ <<− x .

(i) Evaluate ( )xe3∆ .

(j) Show that 111 −−=∇− E .

(k) Express 523 4 −+ xx in factorial notation.

(l) State Gauss’s formula.

(m) State Lagrange’s interpolation formula for unequal intervals.

(n) Write the expansion of ( )af ′′ by Newton’s forward difference formula.

(o) State trapezoidal rule.

2

UNIT I

2. (a) Find the Fourier series of the following function :

( )

.0

0

2

2

≤≤−−=

≤≤=

xx

xxxf

π

π

(b) Find the half-range cosine series of the function ( ) ( )21−= xxf in the interval 10 << x .

Hence show that

+++= ...5

1

3

1

1

18

222

2π .

Or

(c) Find a Fourier series to represent 2xx − from π−=x to π=x .

(d) Obtain the half-range sine series for xe in 10 << x .

UNIT II

3. (a) The following table gives the variations of periodic current over a period.

t sec : 0 T/6 T/3 T/2 2T/3 5T/6 T

A amp : 1.98 1.30 1.05 1.30 –0.88 –0.25 1.98

Show that there is a direct current part of 0.75 amp in the variable current and obtain

the amplitude of the first harmonic.

(b) Find the Fourier cosine transform of 2xe− and hence evaluate Fourier sine transform of

2xxe− .

Or

(c) Find the Fourier transform of ∞<<−∞−

xex

,2

2

.

(d) Solve the integral equation ( )∫∞

>

≤≤−=

01,0

10,1cos

ααα

θαθθ df

Hence evaluate ∫∞

0

2

2sindt

t

t.

UNIT III

4. (a) Find by Newton-Raphson method, the real root of the equation 1cos3 += xx .

(b) Given 8660.060sin,8192.055sin,7660.050sin,7071.045sin ==== oooo , find o52sin ,

using Newton’s forward formula.

Or

(c) Using Gauss’s backward formula, estimate the number of persons earning wages

between Rs. 60 and Rs. 70 from the following data :

Wages (Rs) : Below 40 40-60 60-80 80-100 100-120

No. of persons : (in thousands) : 250 120 100 70 50

(d) If 27,18,11,6,3 1413121110 ===== yyyyy , find 4y .

3

UNIT IV

5. (a) Given ( ) ( ) ( ) ( ) ( ) ( ) 131049,06,2485,03,01,180 ==−===−= ffffff , find ( )xf .

(b) Using Newton’s divided differences formula, evaluate ( )8f and ( )15f given :

x : 4 5 7 10 11 13

( )xf : 48 100 294 900 1210 2028

Or

(c) Find the first and second derivatives of ( )xf at 1.1=x if

x : 1.0 1.2 1.4 1.6 1.8 2.0

( )xf : 0 0.128 0.544 1.296 2.432 4.000

(d) Evaluate using Simpson’s 1/3 rule ∫∞

0

sin dxx using 11 ordinates.

——————————

4

(DCE 212)



Civil Engineering

Paper II — BUILDING MATERIALS AND CONSTRUCTION




1. (a) What are the qualities of a good building stone?

(b) What is meant by dressing of stones?

(c) What are the harmful ingredients in Brick Earth?

(d) What is the size of a standard brick?

(e) Mention the sources of lime.

(f) Give the c/s details of an exogenous tree.

(g) Define Seasoning of timber.

(h) What are the advantages of Teak Wood?

(i) What is meant by corrosion?

(j) Mention the objectives of varnishing?

(k) Mention few acoustic materials.

(l) Draw the neat sketch of queen closer and a through stone.

(m) What are Terrazo and mosaic?

(n) What is Centering?

(o) Mention two advantages of flat roofs.

UNIT I

2. (a) Explain stone quarrying methods.

(b) Give the classification of limes.

Or

(c) What are the important constituents of good brick earth?

(d) Explain the manufacture of bricks with a flow chart.

UNIT II

3. (a) What is industrial timber? Explain.

(b) Explain the painting of new woodwork.

Or

(c) Explain Distempering.

(d) Corrosion of ferrous metals.

5

UNIT III

4. (a) Distinguish between shallow foundation and deep foundation and explain with neat

sketches.

(b) Write short notes on :

(i) Partition walls

(ii) Cavity walls.

Or

(c) Distinguish between English bond and Flemish bond. Explain with plan and Elevation

for a 1 21 brick wall.

(d) With neat sketches explain different types of Rubble masonry.

UNIT IV

6. (a) What are the causes of dampness in struction and what are the various methods of

preventing dampness?

(b) What are the different types of scaffolding?

Or

(c) Explain cement concrete flooring.

(d) Write short notes on :

(i) Trusses

(ii) Roof covering materials.

——————

6

(DCE 213)

B.Tech. DEGREE EXAMINATION, DECEMBER 2012


Civil Engineering

Paper III — SURVEYING – I


Answer Question No.1 compulsorily (15 × 1 = 15)

Answer ONE question from each Unit (4 × 15 = 60)

1. (a) What is Plane and Geodetic surveying?

(b) What is difference between Plan and Map?

(c) What is representation factor?

(d) What is the correction for temp. for a chain?

(e) What is Time bearing?

(f) What is resertion?

(g) What is datum?

(h) What is contour interval?

(i) For what purpose clinometer is used?

(j) What is the correction for curvature?

(k) What will be the magnetic dip at poles?

(l) What is the permissible angular curve in theodolite transverse?

(m) What is orientation?

(n) What is the principle of surveying?

(o) What is a Transit?

UNIT I

2. Write in detail about classifications and principles surveying with examples.

Or

3. Write in detail about types of errors and their sources.

7

UNIT II

4. What are the chain and tape corrections? Explain with formulae.

Or

5. With a tabular format explain about the repetition and reiteration methods of measuring the

horizontal angle with theodolite.

UNIT III

6. With sketches explain about various methods of plane tabling.

Or

7. The following F.B and B.B were observed in traversing with a compass in a place where local

attractions was suspected. Find the corrected bearings and true bearings of each of the lines

if the manetic declination was 10° W.

Line F.B B.B

AB 38°30' 219°15'

BC 100°45' 278°30'

CD 25°45' 207°15'

DE 325°15' 145°15'

UNIT IV

8. (a) What is correction for curvature and refraction? Explain.

(b) With a sketch explain about Ceylon Ghat Tracer.

Or

9. The following readings were observed consecutively on a ground the instrument being shifted

after 3rd, 6th and 8th readings. Find the RLs of all the staff stations if the B.M of the first

point is 100.000 m.

0.055, 0.350, 0.455, 0.905, 1.545, 1.995, 2.505,

2.905, 0.675, 0.995, 1.655, 1.905, 2.005, 2.500.

——————

8

(DCE 214)



Civil Engineering

Paper IV — STRENGTH OF MATERIALS – I


Answer Question No.1 compulsorily. (15 × 1 = 15)


1. (a) Define Bulk Modulus.

(b) What is Lateral strain?

(c) What is volumetric strain of a rectangular bar?

(d) What is Elastic limit?

(e) What is the value of maximum bending moment for the given beam ?

(f) For the problem number ‘e’, find reactions at supports.

(g) For the problem number ‘e’, draw B.M.D.

(h) For the problem number ‘e’, draw S.F.D.

(i) For the given beam, find reactions at supports.

(j) For problem number I, draw B.M.D.

(k) For problem number I, draw S.F.D.

(l) What is pure bending?

(m) Define Torsional rigidity.

(n) Draw shear strss distribution diagram for a T-section.

(o) Draw shear stress distribution diagram for a hollow circular section.

9

UNIT I

2. A steel rod 18 mm in diameter passes centrally through a steel tube 25 mm in internal

diameter and 30 mm in external diameter. The tube is 750 mm long and is closed by rigid

washers of negligible thickness which are fastened by nuts threaded on the rod. The nuts are

tightened until the compressive load on the tube is 20 kN. Calculate the stresses in the tube

and in the rod. Find the increase in these stresses when one nut is tightened by one quarter

of a turn relative to the other. There are four threads per 100 mm. Take E = 200 kN/mm2.

Or

3. A piece of material is subjected to three mutually perpendicular tensile stresses and the strains

in three directions are in the ratio 3 : 4 : 5. If the value of Poisson’s ratio is 0.2857, find the

ratio of the stresses and their values when the greatest stress is 90N/mm2.

UNIT II

4. A horizontal beam 10 m long carries a u.d.l. of 180 N/m and in addition a concentrated load of

200 N at the left end. The beam is supported at two points 7 metres apart, so chosen that

each support carries half the total load. Draw S.F.D. and B.M.D.

Or

5. A horizontal beam is simply supported at the ends and carries a u.d.l. of 10 kN per metre

between the supports 10 metres apart. Counter clockwise moments of 60 kN-m and 40 kN-M

respectively are applied to the two ends of the beam at the supports. Draw S.F.D. and B.M.D.

UNIT III

6. A beam of I section 500 mm deep and 190 mm wide has flanges 25 mm thick and web 15 mm

thick. It carries a shearing force of 400 kN at a section. Find the maximum intensity of shear

stress in the section assuming moment of inertia to be 6.45 × 108 mm4. Also find the total

shear force carried by the web and sketch the shear stress distribution across the section.

Or

7. An I section has flanges of width b and the overall depth is 2b. The flanges and the web are

of uniform thickness ‘t’. Find the ratio of the maximum shear stress intensity to the mean

shear stress intensity.

UNIT IV

8. A solid shaft of 200 mm diameter has the same cross sectional area as that of a hollow shaft

of the same material with inside diameter of 150 mm. Find the ratio of the power

transmitted by the two shafts at the same speed.

Or

9. (a) A hollow circular shaft 20 mm thick transmits 300 kW at 200 rpm. Find the external

diameter of the shaft if the shear strain due to torsion is not to exceed 0.00086.

Take C = 8 × 104 N/mm2.

10

(b) Show that for a given maximum shear stress, the minimum diameter required for a

solid circular shaft to transmit P kilowatts at N r.p.m. can be expressed as -

d = Constant × 3 N

P .

What value of maximum shear stress has been used if the constant equals 84.71, ‘d’

being in millimetres.

——————

11

(DCE 215)



Civil Engineering

Paper V — FLUID MECHANICS


Answer Question No.1 compulsorily. (15)


1. Answer ALL questions : (6 × 2.5 = 15)

(a) Describe vapour pressure.

(b) What is meant by metacentric height and its use?

(c) Define (i) Stream line (ii) Velocity potential (iii) Laminar flow.

(d) Write the equation for trapezoidal Notch.

(e) Write expression for force exerted on a pipe bend.

(f) Describe boundary layer thickness.

UNIT I

2. (a) Briefly describe any five properties of fluids.

(8)

(b) Briefly explain the various types of monometers. (7)

Or

(c) Derive the expression for total pressure force and depth of centre of pressure for a

vertical plane surface immersed in water. (8)

(d) Determine the total hydrostatic force and the depth of centre of pressure for

rectangular plane surface of 3 m wide and 5 m deep immersed in water in vertical

position. Such that it top edge is 2 m below the free surface of water.

(7)

UNIT II

3. (a) Briefly describe various types of flows. (8)

(b) The fluid velocity components in a 2-D incompressible flow as u = x–4y and

v = –y–4x. Find the expression for velocity potential and stream function. (7)

Or

(c) Derive the Bernoulli’s equation and mention the assumptions involved. (8)

(d) A venturimeter of 20 cm diameter inlet and 12.5 cm diameter throat is connected to an inclined pipe. If water-mercury manometer is connected between inlet and throat sections, showing 29 cm of difference in mercury column. Determine the discharge of water flowing through venturimeter. Assume coefficient of discharge is 0.98. (7)

12

UNIT III

4. (a) Derive the expression for discharge through rectangular Notch. (7)

(b) Briefly explain :

(i) hydraulic coefficients of orifice.

(ii) Discharge expression for large rectangular orifice.

(iii) Mouthpiece.

(iv) Endcontractions. (8)

Or

(c) Describe the boundary layer growth over a flat plate.

(7)

(d) Water is flowing over a rectangular sharp crested weit of 2 m long, the head over the

sill of weir is 0.80 m. The approach channel is 2.6 m wide and the depth of flow in the

channel is 1.7 m. Take coefficient of discharge as 0.62. Determine the discharge

considering the end contractions and velocity of approach. (8)

UNIT IV

5. (a) Listout the various energy losses in pipe flow and draw the profile of HGL and TEL

lines for a compound pipe connected between two tanks. (7)

(b) A 20 cm diameter pipe line of 2,400 m length is connected between two reservoirs

having the difference in water level as 18 m. If 20 cm diameter pipeline of 1,200 m

length is additionally attached to the existing pipeline from mid section to the last in

parallel, determine the increase in discharge.

Take friction factor, ƒ = 0.04. (8)

Or

(c) Derive the expression for loss of head for steady laminar flow through a circular pipe.

(8)

(d) Write short notes on the following :

(i) Characteristics of turbulent flow.

(ii) Prandtl’s mixing length theory.

(iii) Hydrodynamically smooth and rough boundaries. (7)

——————

13

(DCE 216)



Civil Engineering

Paper VI — ENGINEERING GEOLOGY


All questions carry equal marks


Answer any ONE question from each Unit. (4 × 15 = 60)

1. (a) Frorst action is a _______ type of weathering.

(b) In soil profile _______ Harizon consists of the partly altered parent rock material.

(c) _______ mineral exhibit bladed structure.

(d) Hardness of Apatite is _______?

(e) In reverse fault hanging wall always move _______ direction

(f) _______ rocks shows stratification.

(g) In anticlinal folds limbs of the fold dipping _______ centre of the fold.

(h) True dip is always _______ to the strike of the bed.

(i) Richter scale is used to measure magnitude of _______.

(j) Marble has derived from _______ material.

(k) _______ method is gives subsurface profile of the Earth.

(l) _______ type of rocks are more pron to landslides.

(m) _______ district is adversely effected by flouride pollution in A.P.

(n) ______ and ______ geological considerations are very important for the selection of

Damsite.

(o) Overbreak is the term is associated with _______ Engineering structure.

UNIT I

2. Define Geology. What is the importance of Geology in Civil Engineering?

Or

3. What is mineral? Describe physical and chemical properties of given minerals :

(a) Biotite Mica

(b) Kyanite

(c) Calcite.

(d) Quartz

14

UNIT II

4. What is metamorphism? Explain factors of metamorphism and classification of metamorphic

rocks.

Or

5. Describe different Engineering property test for rocks conducted in site.

UNIT III

6. What is fold? Explain the various fold with neat sketches.

Or

7. What is Earthquake? Effects of Earthquakes. Describe important Civil Engineering

considera-tions in seismic areas.

UNIT IV

8. Write an essay on various Geophysical methods and their importance in Civil Engineering.

Or

9. Write short notes on :

(a) Effects of Dams.

(b) What is groundwater pollution? How to control pullution?

——————

15

(DCE 221)



Civil Engineering

Paper I — CONCRETE TECHNOLOGY





(a) What are the Bogue’s compounds?

(b) Mention the retarding agent of cement.

(c) Define ‘initial setting time’ of cement.

(d) What is the chemical composition of cement?

(e) Define gap grading and continuous grading.

(f) Mention two properties of good mortar mix.

(g) List two accelerators and retardars used in concrete.

(h) Mention any two air entraining agents.

(i) What is the function of fine aggregate in concrete?

(j) Why is curing done for newly laid concrete?

(k) What are the different methods of placing concrete?

(l) What is the effect of ‘water-cement ratio’ on the strength of concrete?

(m) Mention the relation between cube compression strength and cylinder compression

strength.

(n) How is permeability of concrete measured?

(o) List the tests conducted on cource aggregate.

UNIT I

2. (a) Discuss about the water requirements for the hydration of cement and describe the

structure of hydrated cement. (10)

(b) Explain the dry process of manufacturing ordinary portland cement. (5)

Or

3. (a) How the aggregates are classified depending on their origin, size and shape? (10)

(b) Write about Alkali-Aggregate reaction. (5)

16

UNIT II

4. (a) What are ‘superplasticisers’? How are they classified? Explain their working in a fresh

concrete mix. (10)

(b) Write about the quality of water to be used in concrete. (5)

Or

5. (a) Define workability of concrete. List different tests to measure workability? Explain in

detail how slump test is performed on fresh concrete. (10)

(b) List the various factors affecting the ‘workability’ of concrete. (5)

UNIT III

6. (a) What are the various tests that are conducted on hardened concrete? List factors

effecting hardened concrete? Explain with neat sketch about flexure test on concrete.

(10)

(b) Write short notes on creep and shrinkage of concrete. (5)

Or

7. (a) Explain the significance of gel/space ratio, porosity and water-cement ratio on concrete.

(5)

(b) What is the effect of maximum size of aggregate on strength? (5)

(c) Write about segregation and bleeding of concrete.

(5)

UNIT IV

8. (a) What are the important causes of inadequate durability in concrete structures? What

precautions do you take to ensure durability?

(10)

(b) Write short notes on Polymer concrete and Fibre reinforced concrete. (5)

Or

9. Design a mix for M30 grade concrete using IS code method : (15)

Maximum size of aggregate = 20 mm

Degree of workability = 50 mm (slump)

Degree of quality control = Good

Type of exposure = mild

Specific gravity of cement = 3.12

Specific gravity of sand = 2.62

Specific gravity of warse aggregate = 2.80

Sand conforms to Zone-II of IS 383

Any missing data may be appropriately assumed.

——————

17

(DCE 222)



Civil Engineering

Paper II — BUILDING DRAWING


Answer ONE question from each Unit.

UNIT I

1. Write short notes on : (20)

(a) Factors in selection of site for a residential building.

(b) Furniture requirements of various rooms.

Or

2. Explain the following for a residential building :

(a) Building bye-laws.

(b) Architectural composition.

UNIT II

3. (a) Draw the conventional signs for :

(i) Kitchen sink, (ii) Bed, (iii) Refrigerator,

(iv) Brickwork, (v) Wood, (vi) Glass. (12)

(b) What are the requirements of a good stair. (8)

Or

4. (a) Draw the plan, elevation and section of a dog-legged stair for a residential building.

(15)

(b) What are the different types of doors and their suitability? (5)

UNIT III

5. The line plan of a residential building is as shown in fig.

Foundation : 300 mm thick c.c. 1 : 2 : 4 and 600 wide.

Basement : Brickwork in c.m. 1 : 6 300 mm wide and 450 mm above ground level.

Superstructure : All walls ar 200 mm thick are of brick in c.m. 1 : 6.

Height of ceiling above floor level is 3000 mm.

Roof : 100 mm thick R.C.C. slab.

Parapet wall 100 mm thick should be to a height of 1050 mm above the roof.

18

Flooring : 20 mm thick c.m 1 : 3 over plain cement concrete layer of 1 : 3 : 6, 100 mm thick.

D : Parallel door – 1000 mm × 2100 mm

D1 : Parallel door – 750 mm × 1800 mm

W : Glazed window – 1200 mm × 1400 mm

V : Ventilators – 900 mm × 500 mm

All the dimensions of rooms one char internal dimensions. Draw (a) Detailed dimensional

plan, (b) Section along AB, (c) Front elevation. (35)

Or

6. Design a school building for a rural area with the following requirements.

The strength of the school is 400 students (50 in each class)

(a) Class rooms – 8 nos.

(b) Headmaster’s room with attached toilet.

(c) Staff room for 10 members – 1 No.

(d) Office room for 8 members – 1 No.

(e) Library.

(f) Toilets blocks – 2 No.

Necessary provisions to be made for corridors.

——————

19

(DCE 223)



Civil Engineering

Paper III — SURVEYING – II





(a) What are EDM instruments?

(b) What do you mean by traversing?

(c) What is a consicutive coordinate?

(d) Why the planimeter is used?

(e) What is a tacheometer?

(f) What is the degree of the curves?

(g) When the reverse curve is used?

(h) Mention any two principles of triangulation.

(i) What is the permissible angular error in pheodolite traversing?

(j) Draw the neat sketch of a stadia diaphram.

(k) What is the difference between compound and reverse curves?

(l) Write the formula for trapezoidal rule.

(m) Write the formula for Simpon’s rule.

(n) What is a well conditioned triangle?

(o) What is reciprocal levelling?

UNIT I

2. Explain with a line diagrams about the uses and working principles of Total Station.

Or

3. In a theodolite traverse the following reading were observed. Compute the missing data

Line AB BC CD DE EA

Length 838 m 329 m 600 m — —

Bearing 210° 130°10' 78°30' 10°20' 278°30'

20

UNIT II

4. The following offsets were taken from a chain line to a hedge. Calculate the area enclosed by

the chainline, hedge and the ends of the offsets by

(a) Simpson’s rule and (b) Trapezoidal rule. All the distances are in metres :

Chainage : 0 20 40 60 80 120 160 200 240 270 300

Offsets : 24 20 16 12 8 10 14 16 20 22 26

Or

5. How do you find the capacity of a reservoir, explain in detail.

UNIT III

6. A Tacheometer with multiplying constant 100 and additive constant 0.3 was set up at a

station 0 and the following results were obtained by keeping the staff verticle. Calculate the

horizontal distance between the O and P and the RL of P.

1st Staff Station Readings Vertical Remarks

Station Station angle

O B.M. 1.875 2.150 2.425 +6° R.L. of

P 1.650 1.800 1.950 –10°30' BM =152.6m

Or

7. (a) Explain, how the setting out works can be carried to Culvert with figures.

(b) Explain how the height of an object can be determined when the two instrument

stations are not in the same verticle plane.

UNIT IV

8. A simple circular curve is to have a radius of 573 m. The tangents intersect at chainage

1060 m and the angle of intersection is 120°. Find

(a) Tangent distance.

(b) Chainage of the starting and ending points of curve.

(c) Length of the Long chord.

(d) Degree of curve.

(e) Apex distance.

Or

9. Write in detail about principles and classification of Triangulation and the uses also.

——————

21

(DCE 224)



Civil Engineering

Paper IV — STRENGTH OF MATERIALS — II




1. (a) What is middle third rule?

(b) The principal stresses at a point in a bar are 300 N/mm2 (tensile) and 175 N/mm2

(compressive). Find the normal stress on a plane inclined at 70° to the axis of the major

principal stress.

(c) For the problem number ‘b’, find maximum shear stress.

(d) For the problem number ‘b’, find tangential stress.

(e) Define maximum normal stress theory.

(f) What are principal stress?

(g) Draw the stress distribution diagram in case of an eccentrically loaded column.

(h) Define maximum strain energy theory.

(i) Define maximum shear stress theory.

(j) Define a long column.

(k) What is the deflection at the free end of a cantilever of length l carrying a u.d.l. of ‘w’

per unit run for a distance ‘a’ from the fixed end.

(l) How to find strain energy in pure bending white important points?

(m) How to find strain energy for shearing stress? Write important points.

(n) What are the effects of eccentric loads on a short column?

(o) What is the diameter of Kernel of a hollow circular section?

UNIT I

2. A simply supported beam of rectangular section is 22 gmm wide and 350 mm deep. It

supports a u.d.l of 7 kN/m over a span of 6 m. Find the magnitude and direction of the

principal stresses, at a point located 0.75 m from the left support and 50 mm above the

neutral axis.

Or

3. A simply supported beam of span 4 m is carrying a concentrated load of 20 kN at mid span.

Find the strain energy stored in the beam due to horizontal shear. The beam is 8.5 cm wide

and 11 cm deep. E = 200 GN/m2 and Poisson’s ratio = 0.32

22

UNIT II

4. The line of thrust in a compression testing specimen 15 mm diameter is parallel to the axis, of the specimen but is displaced from it. Find the distance of the line of thrust from the axis when the maximum stress is 18% greater than the mean stress on a normal section.

Or

5. A boiler drum consists of a cylindrical portion 4.5 m long, 1.75m in diameter and 2.5 cm thick. It is closed by hemi spherical ends. In a hydraulic test to 6.5 MN/m2, how much additional water will be pumped in after initial filling at atmospheric pressure. The circumferential strain at the junction of the cylinder and hemisphere may be assumed as same for both.

E = 200 GN/m2, K (for water) = 2.13 GN/m2

, 3.0m

1= .

UNIT III

6. A bolt is subjected to an axial pull of 10 kN and a transverse shear force of 5 kN. Find the diameter of the bolt required based on the maximum normal stress theory, the maximum shear stress theory and the maximum strain energy theory. Take elastic limit in simple tension equal to 300 N/mm2 and Poisson’s ratio = 0.3. Adopt a factor of safety equal to 3.

Or

7. A column of circular section made of cast iron

200 mm external diameter and 25 mm thick is used a column 4 meters long. Both ends of the

column are fixed. The column carries a load of

175 kN at an eccentricity of 27 mm from the axis of the column. Find the extreme stresses

on the column section. Find the maximum eccentricity in order that there may be no tension

any where on the section. E = 9400 N/mm2.

UNIT IV

8. A simply supported beam of span l carries a triangular load whose intensity various from

zero at one end to ‘w’ at the other end. Find the maximum deflection for the beam.

Or

9. Find the location and magnitude of the maximum deflection for the shown beam. xxI for the

beam section = 4.79 × 108 mm4 and E = 200 kN/mm2.

——————

23

(DCE 225)



Civil Engineering

Paper V — HYDRAULICS & HYDRAULIC MACHINES


Answer Question No.1 compulsorily. (15)

Answer any ONE question from each Unit. (4 × 15 = 60)

1. Answer the following : (6 × 2.5 = 15)

(a) What is meant by hydraulically efficient?

(b) Draw the specific energy curve.

(c) Describe hydraulic jump and its uses.

(d) Write the expression for force exerted by jet of water on curved vane.

(e) Differentiate between pump and turbine.

(f) Define Mach Number and Froude Number.

UNIT I

2. (a) Derive the condition for most economical section of a rectangular channel of an open

channel. (7)

(b) Determine the dimensions of economical section of lined trapezoidal channel to carry a

discharge of 20 cumecs at a velocity of 1.5 m/s. Bed slope is 1 in 3,000. Manning’s n is

0.020. (8)

Or

(c) Derive the expression for critical flow in a rectangular channel. (7)

(d) A 3.6 wide rectangular channel carries water to a depth of 1.8 m. To measure the

discharge the channel width is reduced to 2.4 m and a hump of 0.30 m height is

provided in the bottom. Determine discharge of water, if the water surface in the

contracted section dropped by 0.15 m. Neglect losses. (8)

UNIT II

3. (a) Briefly describe the classification of surface profiles in open channel flow. (7)

(b) A river having 90 m wide and 3 m deep has stable bed and vertical banks with a

surface slope of 1 in 2,500. Estimate the length of backwater curve produced by an affix

of 2 m. Assume manning’s n as 0.035. (8)

Or

(c) Derive the expression for slope of water surface for gradually varied flow. (8)

(d) A Shrice gate discharges water into a horizontal rectangular channel with a velocity of

10 m/s and depth of flow of 1m. Determine the depth of flow after the hydraulic jump

and consequent loss of head.

(7)

24

UNIT III

4. (a) Derive the expression for maximum efficiency of jet of water striking the flat vaner

mounted on the periphery of a wheel.

(8)

(b) A jet of water with a velocity 25 m/s impinging normally on a flat vane moving away

from it at 10 m/s. The cross sectional area of jet 0.02 m2. Determine the force exerted.(7)

Or

(c) Briefly explain the working principle of Francis turbine with the help of a sketch. (8)

(d) An inward flow reaction turbine having an overall efficiency of 80% is required to

deliver 144 kW. The head is 20 m and the peripheral velocity is 3.3 H . The radial

velocity of flow at inlet is 1.2 H . The runner rotates at speed of 130 rpm. Determine

(i) the diameter of runner,

(ii) guide vane angle, (iii) the runner blade angle at inlet and (iv) the discharge through

the turbine. (7)

UNIT IV

5. (a) Describe the working principle of centrifugal pump with the help of a sketch. (8)

(b) A centrifugal pump has an impeller of outer diameter of 60 cm and inner diameter of

20 cm. It has 2 cm width at outlet and 5 cm width at inlet. The blade angles at inlet and

outlet are 20° and 10° respectively. If the impeller rotation at 1800 rpm. Determine

(i) the discharge for radial entry, (ii) the theoritical head developed and (iii) the power

required. (7)

Or

(c) Briefly describe about geometric, kinematic and dynamic similarities. (7)

(d) A 20 m long and 9 m high spillway discharging 120 cumecs of water under a head of 2-

5 m. If a 1 : 10 scale model of this spillway is to be constructued, determine the model

dimensions, head over the spillway model and the discharge. (8)

——————

25

(DCE 226)



Civil Engineering

Paper VI — FUNDAMENTALS OF ELECTRICAL SCIENCE AND MECHANICAL SCIENCE


Answer ALL questions.

PART A

(ELECTRICAL SCIENCE)

1. (a) Any two advantages of alternating current.

(b) What is the frequency of Indian AC power supply?

(c) List out types of a DC generator.

(d) What is the significance of back emf of DC motor?

(e) Write an ‘emf’ equation of transformer.

(f) Define the ‘slip’ in induction motor.

(g) What is meant by sag of a transmission line?

UNIT I

2. (a) Explain with the help of circuit, the principle and working of half-wave rectifier.

(b) Explain the classification of DC generator and also draw their pictorial representation.

Or

3. (a) Explain the advantages and disadvantages of AC supply over DC supply.

(b) Explain the principle of operation of single phase transformer with the help of neat

diagram.

UNIT II

4. (a) Explain the constructional features of 3-phase alternator.

(b) Explain the action of a 3-phase induction motor. Derive the expression for torque

produced in it.

Or

5. (a) With relevant figures explain construction and working of a shaded pole type single

phase induction motor.

(b) Write short notes on effects of wind on sag in overhead conductors and types of towers.

26

PART B

(MECHANICAL SCIENCE)

6. Write briefly on :

(a) Slip of the belt drives.

(b) Soldering process.

(c) Spark Ignition Engine.

(d) Water tube boilers.

(e) Advantages of compressed air.

(f) Steam turbine.

(g) P–V diagram for single stage air compression.

UNIT III

7. (a) Derive the expression for the length of belt in case of open belt drive.

(b) Two pullups, one 350 mm diameter and the other 150 mm diameter are on parallel

shafts 1.75 m apart and are connected by a crossed belt. Find the length of the belt

required and angle of contact between the belt and each pulley.

Or

8. (a) Write about welding operation and mention its applications.

(b) What are the various operation that can be performed on a Milling Machine?

UNIT IV

9. (a) Distinguish between 4-stroke and 2-stroke Engines.

(b) Explain the difference between Impulse and Reaction Turbine.

Or

10. (a) Derive the expression for work required in case of single stage air compressor.

(b) Mention the advantages of Multistage air compression.

——————

27

(DME 227/DCE 227/DEC 227)



Electronics and Communications

Paper VII — ENVIRONMENTAL SCIENCE


Answer question No.1 Compulsory. (15 × 1 = 15)

Answer ONE question from each unit. (4 × 15 = 60)

All questions carry equal marks.

1. (a) What are the Biotic and Abiotic components of the Environment?

(b) What is meant by Eutrophication?

(c) What is the composition of Biogas?

(d) Define the term soil erosion.

(e) Distinguish between the terms Detrivores and decomposers.

(f) What are the hot spots of biodiversity in India?

(g) Distinguish between National Parks and Zoological parks.

(h) Define Water pollution.

(i) What are the reasons for landslides?

(j) Mention few water conservation measures.

(k) What are acid rains?

(l) What is the significance of stratospheric ozone?

(m) Define the term ‘Health’.

(n) What is WHO?

(o) What is AIDS?

28

UNIT I

2. (a) What is the importance of Forests?

(b) What are the benefits and problems of dams?

Or

3. (a) What are the effects of modern agriculture?

(b) Mention the various energy resources. Explain the advantages of non-conventional

sources of energy.

UNIT II

4. (a) Distinguish between Food chain and Food web.

(b) Explain Desert Ecosystem.

Or

5. (a) Define genetic, species and ecosystem diversity. Explain the values of biodiversity.

(b) Explain the various ex-situ and in-situ measures of biodiversity conservation.

UNIT III

6. (a) What are the causes, effects and control measures of Air pollution?

Or

7. (a) Explain resettlement and rehabilitation of people; its problems and concerns.

(b) Write the Salient features of Forest Conservation Act.

UNIT IV

8. Write short notes on

(a) Man’s impact on environment

(b) Sanitation and Public Health.

Or

9. Write about:

(a) Chipko movement

(b) Narmada Bchao Andolan.

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