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Fundamentals of Sport &

Exercise Nutrition

CORRESPONDENCE EDUCATION PROGRAM #151.

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After that date no credit will be awarded for this program.


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Fundamentals of Sport and Exercise Nutrition

Course Objectives

After completing the Fundamentals of Sport and Exercise Nutrition

course, the participant will:

1. Understand the definition of Sport Nutrition and how it applies to

athletic performance.

2. Learn the history of Sport Nutrition from the early 1900’s to present

day, and how the science and discoveries along the way have impacted how athletes are encouraged to eat and supplement in the

modern day.

3. Understand that sport nutrition is equally as important as the training

program in achieving long-term goals, performance, and recovery for novice athletes up to professional athletes.

4. Gain an appreciation of the job opportunities for a Sport Nutritionist and the process for obtaining a certification.

5. Know the difference between a Sport Dietitian and a Sport Nutritionists.

6. Understand the concept of Scope of Practice and how it protects both the consumer and the practitioner.

7. Understand energy in the body as it relates to adenosine triphosphate and how the creatine phosphate system, anaerobic metabolism, and

oxidative phosphorylation work to create it, and when each of these energy systems is needed.

8. Understand where creatine is made in the body, what food sources it is contained in, and the increase in performance that supplementing with

creatine can have.

9. Understand the concept of metabolism and the basic concept of

calories in versus calories out in weight maintenance, weight loss, and weight gain.


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10. Be able to differentiate between basal metabolic rate and resting

metabolic rate, and understand the thermic effect of food on metabolism.

11. Learn the guidelines to follow to reduce body fat in an athlete, including the correct time to attempt fat loss, and the effects it can

have on performance.

12. Learn the appropriate percentages of carbohydrates, fat and protein

that an athlete needs to have for maximal performance and recovery, and how meals should be spaced throughout the day.

13. Understand the effects of starvation diets.

14. Understand the make-up of a carbohydrate, sources of carbohydrates,

how it is stored in the muscle as glycogen, and the amount of carbohydrates obtained from fruits, vegetables, grains, beans, milk,

nuts, and sugar.

15. Learn the appropriate carbohydrate consumption for varied levels of

fitness, carbohydrate products that have been developed specifically for athletes, and the amount of carbohydrates that should be consumed

before, during and after exercise.

16. Understand the importance of carbohydrate loading for athletes

involved in prolonged endurance events, the protocol to follow, and symptoms the athlete may suffer during the process.

17. Learn the research history of protein supplementation, as well as an understanding of the 20 amino acids, which make up proteins in the

body, including which are essential, and which are non-essential.

18. Understand the importance of protein in other body structures besides

skeletal muscle.

19. Understand the concept of anabolic versus catabolic and what the

appropriate consumption of protein is for various types of individuals and athletes.

20. Be able to adjust protein requirements based on a weight loss diet, know how to increase protein requirements for a vegetarian, and

understand how to decrease total caloric consumption if protein supplementation is used after a workout.

21. Understand recommendations for fat in the general population and athletic populations.


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22. Learn the chemical make-up of a fat molecule, and what differentiates

a saturated, monounsaturated, and polyunsaturated fat, and the foods where they can be found.

23. Learn how fat is digested, stored, and utilized for energy.

24. Learn how the percentage of fat used changes based on being at rest

and varying different levels of physical activity.

25. Understand the impact of excessive intake of saturated fat and the

formation of LDL cholesterol, and how it can impact health.

26. Understand what a vitamin is, the difference between fat soluble and

water soluble vitamins, and the function of the B-complex vitamins, vitamin D, vitamin E, and folate.

27. Know the Dietary Reference Intakes for the 13 essential vitamins and the tolerable upper intake level.

28. Understand that many athletes do not meet recommended intakes because of dietary restriction, and that they need higher amounts of

antioxidants due to oxidative stress from physical activity.

29. Learn the difference between vitamins and minerals, the role of

calcium and vitamin D in bone health, the role of iron in oxygen transport, and the role of zinc in immune health.

30. Know the recommended daily intake of the 21 minerals required in the human body, which minerals are likely to be deficient in athletic and

non-athletic populations, and sources of minerals in food.

31. Understand the importance of fluid and electrolyte balance in the body

and how it is affected by sweating

32. Learn how to make an individualized plan for fluid and electrolyte

replacement for athletes before, during and after exercise.

33. Learn the signs of dehydration, the effect on performance of

dehydration, and the complications that can occur from hyperthermia.

34. Understand the different methods of determining body weight, fat free

mass, and body mass index, and understand how increased body fat can impact health.


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Fundamentals of Sport and Exercise Nutrition

CEC/CEU Test

This is a multiple choice test. Circle the best answer for each question.

1. What is the purpose of applying nutrition principles for sport nutrition?

A. Improving training

B. Recovering from training C. Increasing body fat

D. Improving performance

2. When were the first studies on sport nutrition regarding carbohydrates and fat done?

A. 1930’s B. 1940’s

C. 1950’s D. 1960’s

3. When were the first studies on glycogen storage, use and resynthesize

begun?

A. 1930’s

B. 1940’s C. 1950’s

D. 1960’s

4. Which college in the 1960’s was the first to create an electrolyte beverage, later known as Gatorade?

A. Ohio State B. University of Florida

C. Stanford University D. Harvard


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5. In what year was the Krebs cycle discovered for fatty acid metabolism?

A. 1913 B. 1919

C. 1927 D. 1937

6. Approximately how many grams of carbohydrate per kilogram of body

weight daily will benefit marathon runners and other long distance endurance athletes?

A. 2 grams B. 4 grams

C. 8 grams D. 15 grams

7. In what year were dietary supplements deregulated in the United States

with the Dietary Supplement Health and Education Act?

A. 1972

B. 1986 C. 1994

D. 2001

8. When did low-carb diets first become popular after the Dr. Atkins published the book Diet Revolution?

A. 1972 B. 1980

C. 1985 D. 1997

9. Which dietary supplement has a narrow safe dose range and has resulted

in athlete death?

A. Biotin

B. Creatine C. Isoleucine

D. Ephedra


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10. What is the estimated percentage of college and professional athletes

who use dietary supplements?

A. 10-15%

B. 27-38% C. 42-65%

D. 75-90%

11. What time of day is ideal for doing resting metabolic rate tests?

A. Middle of the night

B. Morning C. Afternoon

D. Evening

12. What is the job title of someone who is a registered dietician who is also board certified in sport dietetics?

A. Exercise Dietician B. Specialty Dietician

C. Sport Dietician D. Sport Nutritionist

13. Approximately how many colleges in the United States offer

undergraduate or graduate degrees associated with sport nutrition?

A. 5

B. 15 C. 27

D. 43

14. Which of the following is not typically a requirement of certification?

A. Yearly testing

B. Academic course work C. Continuing education

D. Understanding of standards of practice

15. When did the American Dietetic Association first begin offering the Board Certified Specialist in Sports Dietetics (CSSD) certification?

A. 1990 B. 1996

C. 2001 D. 2006


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16. To be eligible to take the CSSD certification, how many hours of experience must the registered dietician have working with athletes and

active individuals?

A. 500 hours

B. 1000 hours C. 1500 hours

D. 2000 hours

17. Which of the following is not a requirement for becoming a registered dietitian?

A. Master’s degree B. Course work in dietetics

C. Completion of an internship D. Passing a national exam

18. Besides counseling healthy athletes, a CSSD can also counsel athletes

with all of the following medical conditions except:

A. Diabetes.

B. Sarcoidosis. C. High blood pressure.

D. High cholesterol.

19. What organization has also recently created a Certified Sports Nutritionist certification?

A. AFAA B. ISSN

C. ACSM D. NASM

20. An athletic coach must have an understanding of all of the following

except:

A. The sport they are coaching.

B. Training for the sport they are coaching. C. Cross-training with other sports to prevent injury.

D. Nutrition


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21. What is the term used for the delineation of professional boundaries?

A. Scope of practice B. Standard of care

C. Certification D. Malpractice insurance

22. Which of the following nutrients does not include calories?

A. Carbohydrates B. Protein

C. Fat D. Vitamins

23. What is the energy source that is common to all cells in the body?

A. Glucose B. Glycogen

C. ATP D. Fatty acids

24. What is the direct source of energy for muscle contraction and

relaxation?

A. Glucose

B. Glycogen C. ATP

D. Fatty acids

25. Which of the following is not one of the three energy systems in the body?

A. Oxidative glycolysis B. Creatine phosphate

C. Anaerobic glycolysis D. Oxidative phosphorylation

26. The creatine phosphate system is the predominant energy system

used for:

A. Short duration, high-intensity activity.

B. Long duration, high-intensity activity. C. Short duration, low-intensity activity.

D. Long duration, low-intensity activity.


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27. Anaerobic metabolism uses carbohydrates in the absence of what to

create ATP?

A. Sugar

B. Fat C. Oxygen

D. Nitrogen

28. Oxidative phosphorylation is the predominant energy system for all of the following except:

A. Distance running. B. Walking

C. Sleeping D. 400-meter run

29. Which of the following is not a source of energy in food?

A. Carbohydrates B. Minerals

C. Fats D. Proteins

30. About how many grams of creatine phosphate can the liver and

kidneys make per day if no creatine is consumed in the diet?

A. None

B. 1 gram C. 2 grams

D. 3 grams

31. By what percentage can supplementing creatine increase creatine phosphate storage in the muscle cells?

A. About 5% B. About 10%

C. About 15% D. About 20%


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32. Which sport do studies show have a direct performance benefit by

supplementing with creatine?

A. Body building

B. Powerlifting C. Marathon running

D. Weight loss

33. Which of the following is not a way that energy is expended in the body?

A. Losing energy B. Metabolism

C. Physical activity D. Digestion

34. Which of the following does not contain calories?

A. Carbohydrates B. Proteins

C. Fats D. Water

35. Which of the following contains 7 kcal/gram?

A. Carbohydrates B. Alcohol

C. Proteins D. Fats

36. By what percentage is food intake typically underestimated?

A. 10 to 20 percent B. 20 to 30 percent

C. 30 to 40 percent D. 40 to 60 percent

37. How many kcal/kg does a female athlete need per day if she is

performing moderate intensity exercise 3-5 days/week?

A. 30 kcal/kg

B. 35 kcal/kg C. 38-40 kcal/kg

D. Greater than 50 kcal/kg


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38. Basal metabolic rate includes the energy expenditure for all of the

following activities except:

A. Breathing

B. Body temperature C. Running

D. Blood circulation

39. How much higher is resting metabolic rate compared to basal metabolic rate?

A. 10% B. 20%

C. 30% D. 40%

40. The thermic effect of food uses what percentage of total caloric intake

to digest, absorb, and transport nutrients to cells?

A. 10%

B. 20% C. 30%

D. 40%

41. If the calories in are greater than the calories out, what will be the outcome?

A. An increase in muscle mass B. A decrease in muscle mass

C. An increase in adipose tissue D. A decrease in adipose tissue

42. When is the best time for an athlete to try and reduce body fat?

A. During the season B. Post season

C. Off-season to early preseason D. Preseason


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43. What percent of the total calories consumed during the day should be

protein for an athlete?

A. 10%

B. 20% C. 30%

D. 50%

44. Carbohydrates contain all of the following except:

A. Carbon.

B. Hydrogen. C. Oxygen.

D. Nitrogen.

45. What is the storage form of carbohydrates found in muscle?

A. Starch

B. Fiber C. Glucose

D. Glycogen

46. Which of the following is a type of carbohydrate that cannot be digested?

A. Fiber B. Starch

C. Glucose D. Sugar

47. What percentage of daily caloric intake should be from carbohydrates

for all athletes?

A. 10-15%

B. 20% C. 30%

D. At least 50%


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48. What percentage of daily caloric intake of carbohydrates is

recommended in highly trained endurance and stop-and-go athletes during months of rigorous training.

A. 20% B. 50%

C. 60% D. 80%

49. How many grams of carbohydrates does the Atkins’ diet allow per day

for the first two weeks?

A. 20 grams

B. 40 grams C. 60 grams

D. 80 grams

50. How many calories per gram do carbohydrates have?

A. 2

B. 4 C. 7

D. 9

51. How many grams of carbohydrates does one serving of fruit typically have?

A. 1 to 5 grams B. 10 to 20 grams

C. 30 to 40 grams D. Greater than 50 grams

52. How many grams of carbohydrates do sport gels provide per packet?

A. 10 grams B. 15 grams

C. 25 grams D. 40 grams


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53. In general, how long before a workout can a meal be comfortably

consumed without causing gastrointestinal distress?

A. 30 minutes

B. 1 hour C. 2 hours

D. 3 to 4 hours

54. What is the suggested carbohydrate intake if eating two hours before exercise?

A. 1 gram per kilogram of body weight B. 2 grams per kilogram of body weight

C. 3 grams per kilogram of body weight D. 4 grams per kilogram of body weight

55. What is the maximum absorption of carbohydrate per minute for an

athlete when replenishing carbohydrates while participating in the sport?

A. 1 gram per minute

B. 3 grams per minute C. 5 grams per minute

D. 6 grams per minute

56. What is the recommended carbohydrate intake during exercise for maximal exercise lasting less than 45 minutes?

A. Less than 30 grams per hour B. Up to 50 grams per hour

C. Up to 60 grams per hour D. None

57. How many grams of carbohydrates per kilogram of body weight should

an athlete consume within 30 minutes after completion of the exercise session?

A. 0.5 grams per kilogram of body weight B. 1 to 1.5 grams per kilogram of body weight

C. 2 to 2.5 grams per kilogram of body weight D. 3 to 3.5 grams per kilogram of body weight


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58. Which of the following statements regarding carbohydrate loading is

incorrect?

A. Start the process seven days before competition.

B. During the first three and a half days, exercise to exhaustion and consume a very high-carbohydrate diet.

C. For the first three and a half days, consume nearly all protein and fat. D. In the three and a half days before the competition, consume at least

8 grams of carbohydrates per kilogram of body weight per day.

59. When was the first written record documenting the effects of a high-protein diet to increased athletic performance?

A. Fifth century BC B. Fourth century BC

C. 1700’s D. 1800’s

60. How many amino acids are there that make up protein?

A. 5 B. 10

C. 15 D. 20

61. How many of the amino acids cannot be made within the body, and

are thus termed essential?

A. 3

B. 6 C. 9

D. 11

62. What is the stimulus in the body for the genes in the muscle cell to make protein?

A. Starvation B. Aerobic training

C. Consuming large quantities of amino acids D. Resistance training


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63. All of the following are made of protein except:

A. Hormones. B. Neurotransmitters.

C. Enzymes. D. Collagen

64. All of the following are required to increase skeletal muscle except:

A. Resistance exercise. B. Adequate caloric intake.

C. Adequate protein intake. D. Adequate fiber intake.

65. Which of the following has the highest protein content per serving?

A. Light tuna in water B. Protein bar

C. Casein protein powder D. Whey protein

66. What is the recommended daily intake of protein for a sedentary or

slightly active individual?

A. 0.3 grams per kilogram of body weight

B. 0.8 grams per kilogram of body weight C. 1 gram per pound of body weight

D. 2 grams per pound of body weight

67. How much protein per kilogram of body weight do ultra-endurance athletes require during times of rigorous training.

A. 0.8 grams B. 1.0 grams

C. 1.5 grams D. Up to 2.0 grams

68. What is the recommended percentage of protein in total caloric intake

per day for a strength-training athlete?

A. 5-10%

B. 10-15% C. 15-20%

D. 30-40%


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69. What is the greatest concern with high protein intake over the

recommended amounts?

A. Heart failure

B. Gluconeogenesis C. Nitrogenous waste

D. Hydrogen waste

70. Which athletes are at the greatest risk for a protein intake that is too low?

A. Endurance athletes B. Athletes with eating disorders

C. Bodybuilders D. Power lifters

71. What should be the daily protein intake for someone who is restricting

calories to offset potential muscle loss?

A. 0.8 g/kg

B. 1.0 g/kg C. 1.5 g/kg

D. 2.5 g/kg

72. How much protein is required within an hour after a workout to help with muscle growth and recovery?

A. 8 to 10 grams B. 15 to 20 grams

C. 20 to 25 grams D. 30 to 40 grams

73. How much should vegans add to protein recommendations to

compensate for the lack of animal protein in their diet?

A. 10%

B. 20% C. 30%

D. 40%


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74. What is the most frequently found fat in the body and in food?

A. Monounsaturated fat B. Polyunsaturated fat

C. Saturated fat D. Triglycerides

75. How many double bonds does a monounsaturated fat contain?

A. None B. 1

C. 2 D. 3

76. Which of the following does not consist of primarily monounsaturated

fat?

A. Avocados

B. Olive oil C. Soybean oil

D. Almonds

77. Where in the cell are the fatty acids metabolized for energy?

A. Nucleus

B. RNA C. Mitochondria

D. Cellular receptors

78. What effect does endurance training have on the mitochondria in the muscle cell?

A. Decrease in size B. Decrease in number

C. Alteration in shape D. Increase in size and number

79. What percent of the energy needed to stay alive during the day at rest

comes from fat metabolism?

A. 15-20%

B. 25-40% C. 50-60%

D. 75-80%


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80. At rest, how many calories will an average 145-pound person burn in

one hour?

A. 20 kcal per hour

B. 30 kcal per hour C. 70 kcal per hour

D. 90 kcal per hour

81. What is the predominant fuel source used during low-intensity exercise?

A. Glucose B. Glycogen

C. Fat D. Creatine

82. When exercise becomes moderate intensity, what percentage of the

energy comes from fat metabolism?

A. 25%

B. 50% C. 60%

D. 80%

83. In what particular type of training do women use slightly more fat and slightly less carbohydrates then men?

A. Strength training B. Endurance training

C. Bodybuilding D. Power lifting

84. What is the most important factor in losing body fat?

A. Training at low intensities to stay in the fat burning zone. B. Low-carbohydrate diets

C. The total amount of calories used. D. Low-fat diets


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85. Which type of food raises resting metabolic rate the most while they

are being digested?

A. Proteins

B. Carbohydrates C. Fats

D. Minerals

86. What is the daily recommended intake of fat for the general population?

A. 5 to 10 percent of total caloric intake B. 10 to 20 percent of total caloric intake

C. 20 to 35 percent of total caloric intake D. 50 to 60 percent of total caloric intake

87. What is the guideline for daily fat intake for athletes?

A. 1 gram per kilogram of body weight per day B. 2 grams per kilogram of body weight per day

C. 3 grams per kilogram of body weight per day D. 4 grams per kilogram of body weight per day

88. What type of nutrients are vitamins?

A. Carbohydrates B. Macronutrients

C. Micronutrients D. Organophosphates

89. Which of the following is not a fat-soluble vitamin?

A. Vitamin A B. Vitamin D

C. Vitamin E D. Vitamin B

90. Which fat-soluble vitamins have the greatest risk of toxicity when

taken in doses that exceed fat storage capacity?

A. Vitamin B and D

B. Vitamin A and D C. Vitamin A and E

D. Vitamin A and K


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91. Which vitamin is involved in energy reactions?

A. Vitamin A B. Vitamin B complex

C. Vitamin C D. Vitamin D

92. Which of the following is not part of the B-complex vitamins?

A. Thiamin B. Riboflavin

C. Niacin D. Biotin

93. Which vitamin is one of the most potent antioxidants?

A. Vitamin A B. Vitamin B

C. Vitamin D D. Vitamin E

94. Which type of athlete is at a greater risk for oxidative stress?

A. Bodybuilders B. Power lifters

C. Endurance athletes D. The average non-athlete who works out 2 to 3 times per week.

95. Which of the following foods is not rich in antioxidants?

A. Fish B. Fruit

C. Vegetables D. Whole grains

96. Which vitamin do smokers need more of then non-smokers?

A. Vitamin A B. Vitamin B

C. Vitamin C D. Vitamin D


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97. What is the tolerable upper intake level for Vitamin C?

A. 500 mg B. 1000 mg

C. 1500 mg D. 2000 mg

98. How many vitamins have been found to be essential?

A. 13 B. 17

C. 23 D. 28

99. What is a mineral?

A. An organic compound B. An inorganic compound

C. A carbon containing compound D. A nitrogen containing compound

100. Which of the following is not a macro mineral?

A. Calcium B. Sodium

C. Zinc D. Potassium

101. Which of the following minerals is not an electrolyte?

A. Sodium B. Potassium

C. Chloride D. Calcium

102. How many minerals are known to be essential to humans?

A. 13 B. 17

C. 21 D. 29


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103. Which of the following statements regarding minerals is incorrect?

A. They are generally not well absorbed and compete with each other for absorption.

B. They are generally found in large amounts in food. C. They are not easily excreted.

D. There is generally a small margin of safety between the recommended and toxic amount.

104. Which two minerals make up 80 to 90 percent of bone?

A. Calcium and Chloride B. Calcium and Sodium

C. Calcium and Iron D. Calcium and Phosphorus

105. What is the role of Vitamin D in bone?

A. It helps regulate calcium absorption and excretion. B. It forms part of the structure of bone.

C. It allow Calcium to bind together D. It is responsible for bone growth.

106. At what age does calcium start to be slowly lost from bone?

A. 25 B. 35

C. 55 D. 65

107. What hormone in females affects bone mass?

A. Progesterone B. Cortisol

C. Estrogen D. Epinephrine

108. What is the name of the cells in bone that dissolve bone?

A. Osteoclasts B. Osteoblasts

C. Cortical D. Trabecular


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109. Which tissues in the body cannot function without adequate blood

calcium levels?

A. Pancreas and Stomach

B. Nerves and Muscles C. Kidneys and Liver

D. Pancreas and Liver

110. What percentage of bone mineral density is achieved during childhood and adolescence?

A. 25% B. 50%

C. 75% D. 90%

111. What protein is responsible for the transport of oxygen?

A. Insulin B. Parathyroid hormone

C. Hemoglobin D. Bilirubin

112. What mineral does hemoglobin contain which allows it to carry

oxygen?

A. Sodium

B. Chloride C. Iron

D. Zinc

113. Which of the following minerals has a role in immune function?

A. Calcium

B. Zinc C. Selenium

D. Manganese

114. Which of the following is not one of the three minerals that is most often lacking in athletes’ diets?

A. Calcium B. Iron

C. Zinc D. Boron


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115. Which of the following is not a way in which the body can lose water?

A. Breathing B. Circulation

C. Sweating D. Excretion

116. Which of the following is a substantial challenge to the body’s water

homeostasis?

A. Eating

B. Drinking C. Exercise

D. Sleeping

117. What percent of the body’s water is intracellular?

A. One quarter

B. One third C. One half

D. Two thirds

118. What is one of the most effective ways that the body responds to the increased body temperature created by exercise?

A. Sweating B. Increasing intracellular water

C. Increasing extracellular water D. Increased respiration

119. All of the following impede the evaporation of sweat except:

A. High humidity B. Uniforms and padding

C. Sauna suit D. Breathable material

120. Which mineral is lost in large amounts while sweating?

A. Potassium B. Calcium

C. Sodium D. Iron


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121. What can cause a large amount of potassium to be lost?

A. Diuretics B. Sweating

C. Endurance sports D. Contact sports

122. Which part of the body responds to dehydration and increases the

sensation of thirst?

A. Parathyroid gland

B. Thyroid C. Hypothalamus

D. Adrenals

123. Which of the following is not a guideline for fluid balance before exercise?

A. Start fully hydrated B. Start overhydrated

C. Avoid gastrointestinal upset D. Consume carbohydrates if necessary

124. Which of the following is not a guideline for maintaining fluid balance

during exercise?

A. Replace fluid loss

B. Consume fat if needed C. Replace sodium if necessary

D. Avoid gastrointestinal upset

125. What is the sodium content of Gatorade G2?

A. 55 mg

B. 125 mg C. 160 mg

D. 225 mg

126. When using pre- and post-exercise weight to determine fluid loss, how much does one liter of water weight?

A. 1.3 pounds B. 2.2 pounds

C. 3.5 pounds D. 4 pounds


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127. What is the term for low blood sodium levels?

A. Hyponatremia

B. Hypernatremia C. Hypokalemia

D. Hyperkalemia

128. Which of the following is not a post-exercise goal for fluid balance?

A. Replace lost body water

B. Replace electrolytes C. Consume fat

D. Consume carbohydrates

129. What is the body temperature in someone suffering from heatstroke?

A. 100

B. 102 C. 103

D. 104 or greater

130. Which of the following athletes does not have be weight certified before competition?

A. Wrestlers B. Boxers

C. Wide receivers D. Jockeys

131. What is one of the best uses of scale weight for athletes?

A. It can be used to determine muscle weight. B. It can be used to determine body fat.

C. It can be used to compare weight before and after exercise to determine fluid losses.

D. It can be used to determine sodium losses before and after a workout.

132. What tool is used most often to screen the general population for health problems that are weight-related?

A. Body mass index B. Body fat percentage

C. Percentage of lean mass D. Total weight


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133. Which location of fat leads to the greatest risk of medical problems?

A. Intramuscular fat

B. Abdominal fat C. Subcutaneous fat

D. Hip fat

134. What is the waist circumference upper limit for a man that determines increased disease risk?

A. 30 inches B. 35 inches

C. 40 inches D. 45 inches

135. Which of the following is not a form of fat in the body?

A. Intramuscular fat B. Essential fat

C. Visceral fat D. Subcutaneous fat

136. Which form of body composition measurement methods requires a

license to perform?

A. DEXA scan

B. Underwater weighing C. Bod Pod

D. Skinfolds

137. Which type of body composition testing is done by measuring air displacement?

A. Kinanthropometry B. Skinfolds

C. Underwater weighing D. Bod Pod


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138. All of the following will be impacted for an athlete who has too high of

a body weight, even if it is due to a high percentage of skeletal muscle.

A. Flexibility

B. Agility C. Strength

D. Speed

139. What is the average body fat range for a professional cyclist?

A. 11-17%

B. 8.5-12% C. 7-10%

D. 18.5-28.5%

140. Approximately how much taller were professional hockey players in the 1980’s and 1990’s compared to the 1920’s and 1930’s.

A. There is no height difference. B. 1 inch

C. 2 inches D. 4 inches

141. Which type of somatotype is thin and slight?

A. Ectomorph B. Mesomorph

C. Macromorph D. Endomorph

142. Which of the following types of athletes would not have a primary

focus of strength only?

A. Soccer player

B. Power lifters C. Shot putters

D. Discus throwers

143. Which of the following types of athletes would not benefit from a high power to weight ratio?

A. High jumpers B. Long jumpers

C. Distance runners D. Wide receivers


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144. How many additional calories must an adult consume above baseline to support the formation of new muscle mass?

A. 150 to 200 kcal per day B. 350 to 500 kcal per day

C. 500 to 750 kcal per day D. More than a 1000 kcal per day

145. Which of the following statements regarding normal eating is

incorrect?

A. There is no standard definition.

B. It is balanced and flexible. C. It is eating when hungry and stopping when full.

D. There is never overeating or under eating.

146. Athletes with disordered eating patterns will exhibit all of the following except:

A. They become obsessed with their diet. B. They are constantly counting calories.

C. They have a positive body image. D. They feel guilty if they exceed their self-imposed limit.

147. Which of the following is not consistent with the diagnosis of Anorexia

Nervosa?

A. There is a refusal to maintain normal body weight for age and height.

B. There is an intense fear of gaining weight. C. Self-induced vomiting after eating.

D. Amenorrhea

148. What is the typical age of onset of Anorexia nervosa?

A. 5 to 7

B. 7 to 10 C. 10 to 13

D. 13 to 25


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149. Which of the following sports is not considered high risk for the

development of disordered eating?

A. Bodybuilding

B. Quarterbacks C. Jockeys

D. Wrestlers

150. Which of the following is not a personality trait associated with the development of an eating disorder?

A. Perfectionism B. Obsessive-compulsive behavior

C. Good body image D. The need to attain a goal at any cost.

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