· four per cent of the air by volume, while in the dry and cold areas of desert and polar ......
TRANSCRIPT
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1. Consider the following statements:
1. The body waves are the last to report on seismograph.
2. These waves are more destructive than surface
waves
3. P-waves vibrate parallel to the direction of the wave. This exerts pressure on the material in the direction of the propagation.
Which of the above is/are correct?
A. 1only B. 3only
C. 2 and 3 D. 1 and 2
Ans. B
1. There are two types of body waves. They are called P and S-waves. P-waves move faster and are the first to arrive at the surface. These are also called ‘primary waves’. The surface waves are the last to report on seismograph. Hence incorrect
2. Surface waves are more destructive than body waves. Thus incorrect
3. P-waves vibrate parallel to the direction of the wave. This exerts pressure on the material in the direction of the propagation. As a result, it creates density differences in the material leading to stretching and squeezing of the material. Other
three waves vibrate perpendicular to the direction of propagation. So correct.
2. Which of the following is not true regarding the mantle of earth?
1. The mantle extends from Moho’s discontinuity to a depth of 2,900 km
2. The crust and the uppermost part of the mantle are called aesthenosphere.
3. Aesthenosphere is considered to be the main
source of magma that finds its way to the surface during volcanic eruptions.
A. 3only B. 1 only
C. 2 only D. All are true
Ans. C
The Mantle
The portion of the interior beyond the crust is called the mantle. The mantle extends from Moho’s
discontinuity to a depth of 2,900 km. The upper portion of the mantle is called asthenosphere. The word astheno means weak. It is considered to be extending upto 400 km. It is the main source of magma that finds its way to the surface during volcanic eruptions. It has a density higher than the crust’s (3.4 g/cm3). The crust and the
uppermost part of the mantle are called lithosphere. Its thickness ranges from 10-200 km. The lower mantle extends beyond the asthenosphere. It is in solid state.
3. Consider the following about plate boundaries:
1. Subduction zones are the sites where the plates
move away from each other.
2. Transform faults are the planes of separation generally perpendicular to the mid oceanic ridges.
Choose the correct statement(s):
A. 1only B. 2 only
C. both D. none
Ans. B
The sites where the plates move away from each other are called spreading sites.
The location where sinking of a plate occurs is called a subduction zone.
Where the crust is neither produced nor destroyed as the plates slide horizontally past each other. Transform faults are the planes of separation generally perpendicular to the midoceanic ridges. As the eruptions do not take all along the entire crest at the same time, there is a differential
movement of a portion of the plate away from the axis of the earth.
4. With reference to the thermal metamorphism, consider the following statements.
I. In Contact metamorphism the rocks come in contact with hot intruding magma and lava and the rock materials recrystallise under high
temperature.
II. Quite often new materials form out of magma or lava are added to the rocks.
Choose the incorrect statement.
A. I only B. II only
C. Both I and II D. None of the above
Ans. D
Both the statements are correct.
There are two types of thermal metamorphism — contact metamorphism and regional metamorphism. In contact metamorphism the rocks come in contact with hot intruding magma and lava and the rock materials recrystallise under
high temperatures. Quite often new materials form
out of magma or lava are added to the rocks.
5. Choose the correct statement(s):
1. Indirect gravitational stresses activate wave and
tide induced currents and winds.
2. Without gravity and gradients there would be no mobility and hence no erosion, transportation and
deposition are possible
A. I only B. II only
C. Both I and II D. None of the above
Ans. C
Both statements are correct.
A process is a force applied on earth materials affecting the same. An agent is a mobile medium (like running water, moving ice masses, wind, waves and currents etc.) which removes,
transports and deposits earth materials. Running water, groundwater, glaciers, wind, waves and
currents, etc., can be called geomorphic agents.
Gravity besides being a directional force activating
all downslope movements of matter also causes stresses on the earth’s materials. Indirect gravitational stresses activate wave and tide induced currents and winds. Without gravity and gradients there would be no mobility and hence no erosion, transportation and deposition are possible. So, gravitational stresses are as important as the
other geomorphic processes
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6. Consider the following statements:
1. Water vapour, a variable gas in the atmosphere, increases with altitude.
2. It may account more for dry and cold areas of desert and polar region than the warm and wet tropics.
3. It also absorbs parts of the insolation from the sun and preserves the earth’s radiated heat.
Choose the correct statement(s):
A. 3only B. 1 and 3
C. 2 and 3 D. 1, 2 and 3
Ans. A
Water Vapour:
Water vapour is also a variable gas in the
atmosphere, which decreases with altitude. In the warm and wet tropics, it may account for four per cent of the air by volume, while in the dry and cold areas of desert and polar
regions, it may be less than one per cent of the air. Water vapour also decreases from the equator towards the poles. It also absorbs parts of
the insolation from the sun and preserves the earth’s radiated heat. It thus, acts like a blanket allowing the earth neither to become too cold nor too hot. Water vapour also contributes to the stability and instability in the air.
Hence only 3rd statement is correct.
7. Assertion: The lower concentration of dust particles is found in subtropical and temperate regions.
Reason: Due to dry winds in comparison to
equatorial and polar regions.
Choose the correct option:
A. Assertion is correct and reason is correctly
explaining it.
B. Assertion is correct but reason is not correctly explaining it.
C. Assertion is not correct but reason is correct
D. Both are incorrect.
Ans. C
Assertion: The higher concentration of dust particles is found in subtropical and temperate regions. So its incorrect.
Reason : The higher concentration of dust particles is found in subtropical and temperate regions due to dry winds in comparison to equatorial and polar regions. Dust and salt particles act as hygroscopic nuclei around which water vapour condenses to produce clouds.
8. Which of the following is true regarding troposphere?
1. Thickness of the troposphere is greatest at the equator because heat is transported to great
heights by strong convectional currents.
2. All changes in climate and weather take place in this layer.
3. This is the most important layer for all biological activity.
A. 1 and 2 B. 2 and 3
C. 1 and 3 D. All are true
Ans. D
All the statements are true.
The troposphere is the lowermost layer of the atmosphere. Its average height is 13 km and extends roughly to a height of 8 km near the poles
and about 18 km at the equator. Thickness of the
troposphere is greatest at the equator because heat is transported to great heights by strong convectional currents. This layer contains dust particles and water vapour. All changes in climate and weather take place in this layer. The temperature in this layer decreases at the rate of 1 C for every 165m of height. This is the most
important layer for all biological activity. 9. Consider the following for spatial distribution of
Insolation at the Earth’s Surface: 1. Maximum insolation is received over the
Equator. 2. Generally, at the same latitude the insolation is
more over the continent than over the oceans.
3. In winter, the middle and higher latitudes
receive less radiation than in summer. Which of the above is/are correct? A. 1 and 3 B. 2 and 3 C. 1 and 2 D. 1,2 and 3 Ans. B
The insolation received at the surface varies from about 320 Watt/m2 in the tropics to about 70 Watt/m2 in the poles. Maximum insolation is received over the subtropical deserts, where the cloudiness is the least. Equator receives comparatively less insolation than the tropics. Generally, at the same latitude the insolation is
more over the continent than over the oceans. In winter, the middle and higher latitudes receive less radiation than in summer.
10. Choose the incorrect statement(s):
1. A long winter night with clear skies and still air is ideal situation for inversion.
2. Over polar areas, temperature inversion is
normal throughout the year. A. 1 only B. 2 only C. Both D. None Ans. D Both statements are correct. Normally, temperature decreases with increase in
elevation. It is called normal lapse rate. At times, the situations is reversed and the normal lapse rate is inverted. It is called Inversion of temperature. Inversion is usually of short duration but quite common nonetheless. A long winter night with clear skies and still air is ideal situation for
inversion. The heat of the day is radiated off during
the night, and by early morning hours, the earth is cooler than the air above. Over polar areas, temperature inversion is normal throughout the year.
11. Which of the following is/are not true? 1. The continental slope is the shallowest part of
the ocean typically ends at a very steep slope,
called the shelf break. 2. Massive sedimentary deposits received over a
long time by the continental slopes, become the source of fossil fuels.
3. Canyons and trenches are observed in this region.
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A. 2only B. 1 and 3 C. 1 and 2 D. 3only Ans. C
1. The continental shelf is the shallowest part of
the ocean typically ends at a very steep slope, called the shelf break. The continental shelf is the extended margin of each continent occupied by relatively shallow seas and gulfs. It is the shallowest part of the ocean showing an average gradient of 1° or even less. The shelf typically ends at a very steep slope, called the shelf break. Hence
not true 2. The continental shelves are covered with
variable thicknesses of sediments brought down by rivers, glaciers, wind, from the land and distributed by waves and currents. Massive sedimentary deposits received over a long time by the continental shelves, become the source of fossil
fuels. So not true.
3. The continental slope connects the continental shelf and the ocean basins. It begins where the bottom of the continental shelf sharply drops off into a steep slope. The gradient of the slope region varies between 2-5°. The depth of the slope region
varies between 200 and 3,000 m. The slope boundary indicates the end of the continents. Canyons and trenches are observed in this region. So true
12. Consider these statements: 1. The temperature of surface water decreases
from the equator towards the poles because the
amount of insolation decreases poleward. 2. The oceans in the northern hemisphere receive
more heat than the oceans in the southern hemisphere.
3. The enclosed seas in the high latitudes record relatively higher temperature than the open seas; whereas the enclosed seas in the low latitudes
have lower temperature than the open seas. Choose the correct statement(s): A. 1 and 2 B. 2 and 3 C. 1 and 3 D. 1, 2 and 3 Ans. A Factors Affecting Temperature Distribution
1. Latitude : the temperature of surface water decreases from the equator towards the poles because the amount of insolation decreases poleward.
2. Unequal distribution of land and water : the oceans in the northern hemisphere receive
more heat due to their contact with larger extent of
land than the oceans in the southern hemisphere. 3. The enclosed seas in the low latitudes record
relatively higher temperature than the open seas; whereas the enclosed seas in the high latitudes have lower temperature than the open seas.
13. With reference to the prevailing wind over the ocean, consider these:
1. The winds blowing from the land towards the oceans results in the upwelling of cold water from below.
2. It results into the longitudinal variation in the temperature.
Which of the above is/are correct?
A. 1only B. 2only
C. 1 and 2 D. None
Ans. C
both statements are correct.
the winds blowing from the land towards the oceans drive warm surface water away form the coast resulting in the upwelling of cold water from below. It results into the longitudinal variation in the temperature. Contrary to this, the onshore winds pile up warm water near the coast and this raises the temperature.
14. Choose the correct statement(s):
1. Thermocline is the boundary region, from where
there is a rapid increase of temperature.
2. About 90 per cent of the total volume of water is found below the thermocline in the deep ocean.
A. 1only B. 2only
C. 1 and 2 D. None
Ans. B
The temperature-depth profile for the ocean water shows how the temperature decreases with the
increasing depth. The profile shows a boundary region between the surface waters of the ocean and the deeper layers. The boundary usually begins around 100 - 400 m below the sea surface and extends several hundred of metres downward. This boundary region, from where there is a rapid
decrease of temperature, is called the thermocline. About 90 per cent of the total volume of water is found below the thermocline in the deep ocean. In this zone, temperatures approach 0° C.
15. On which of the following factors does the salinity of ocean waters depends?
1. Evaporation and precipitation.
2. fresh water flow
3. freezing and thawing of ice
4. Wind
A. 1 and 2only B. 1, 2 and 3
C. 1only D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans. D
Factors affecting ocean salinity are mentioned below:
(i) The salinity of water in the surface layer of
oceans depend mainly on evaporation and precipitation.
(ii) Surface salinity is greatly influenced in coastal regions by the fresh water flow from rivers, and in polar regions by the processes of freezing and
thawing of ice.
(iii) Wind, also influences salinity of an area by transferring water to other areas.
(iv) The ocean currents contribute to the salinity variations. Salinity, temperature and density of
water are interrelated. Hence, any change in the temperature or density influences the salinity of water in an area.
16. Consider these statements:
1. The horizontal motion of ocean water refers to the ocean currents, waves and tides.
2. When the tide is channeled between islands or into bays and estuaries, they are called tidal currents.
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3. The ‘tide-generating’ force is the difference between two forces; i.e. the gravitational attraction of the moon and sun.
Select the correct statement(s):
A. 2 and 3 B. 3only
C. 2only D. 1, 2 and 3
Ans. C
1. The horizontal and vertical motions are common in ocean water bodies. The horizontal motion refers to the ocean currents and waves. The
vertical motion refers to tides. So this is not correct.
2. The tidal bulges on wide continental shelves, have greater height. When tidal bulges hit the mid-
oceanic islands they become low. The shape of bays and estuaries along a coastline can also magnify the intensity of tides. Funnel-shaped bays greatly change tidal magnitudes. When the tide is
channeled between islands or into bays and estuaries they are called tidal currents. Thus correct
3. The ‘tide-generating’ force is the difference between these two forces; i.e. the gravitational attraction of the moon and the centrifugal force. On the surface of the earth, nearest the
moon, pull or the attractive force of the moon is greater than the centrifugal force, and so there is a net force causing a bulge towards the moon. On the opposite side of the earth, the attractive force is less, as it is farther away from the moon, the centrifugal force is dominant. Not corrects
17. Which of the following is/are correct?
1. Totality of the physical and chemical factors that constitute the general environment is called
ecosystem.
2. A habitat consists of biotic components only.
A. 1only B. 2only
C. 1 and 2 D. None
Ans. D
A habitat in the ecological sense is the totality of the physical and chemical factors that constitute the general environment. A system consisting of biotic and abiotic components is known as
ecosystem.
18. Choose the correct statement(s):
1. Some components in ecosystem are inter related and interact with each other while some does not show this character.
2. Different types of ecosystems exist with varying
ranges of environmental conditions showing
phenomenon known as ecological adaptation.
A. 1only B. 2only
C. 1 and 2 D. None
Ans. B
All these components in ecosystem are inter related and interact with each other. Different types of ecosystems exist with varying ranges of environmental conditions where various plants and animal species have got adapted through evolution. This phenomenon is known as ecological adaptation.
19. Consider the following: 1. Total assemblage of plant and animal species
interacting within specific conditions is defined as
biome.
2. Aquatic ecosystem can be further classified into ‘biomes’.
3. Marine ecosystem includes the oceans, estuaries and coral reefs.
Select the correct statement(s): A. 1 and 2 B. 2 and 3 C. 1 and 3 D. All of the above
Ans. C Ecosystems are of two major types: terrestrial and aquatic. Terrestrial ecosystem can be further
be classified into ‘biomes’. A biome is a plant and animal community that covers a large geographical area. The boundaries of different biomes on land are determined mainly by climate. Therefore, a
biome can be defined as the total assemblage of
plant and animal species interacting within specific conditions. These include rainfall, temperature, humidity and soil conditions. Some of the major biomes of the world are: forest, grassland, desert and tundra biomes. Aquatic ecosystems can be
classed as marine and freshwater ecosystems. Marine ecosystem includes the oceans, estuaries and coral reefs.
20. Which of the following is true with respect to Asia Continent?
1. The most commonly accepted boundaries place Asia to the east of the Suez Canal, the Ural River,
and the Ural Mountains, and south of the Caucasus Mountains and the Caspian and Black Seas.
2. Asia has the second largest nominal GDP of all continents, after Europe, but the largest when
measured in purchasing power parity 3. Asia is Earth's largest and most populous
continent
A. 1 and 2 B. 2 and 3 C. 1 and 3 D. All of the above Ans. D 21. Consider the following statements: 1. From the values of longitude, it is understood
that the southern part of the country lies within the
tropics and the northern part lies in the sub-tropical zone or the warm temperate zone.
2. This location is responsible for large variations in land forms, climate, soil types and natural vegetation in the country.
Which of the above is/are correct?
A. 1only B. 2only
C. Both D. None Ans. B Only 2 is correct. The distance between two longitudes decreases
towards the poles whereas the distance between two latitudes remains the same everywhere.
From the values of latitude, it is understood that
the southern part of the country lies within the tropics and the northern part lies in the sub-tropical zone or the warm temperate zone. This location is responsible for large variations in land forms, climate, soil types and natural vegetation in the country. Now, let us observe
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the longitudinal extent and its implications on the Indian people. From the values of longitude, it is quite discernible that there is a variation of nearly
30 degrees, which causes a time difference of
nearly two hours between the easternmost and the westernmost parts of our country.
22. Which of these mountain passes are correctly matched?
1. Khyber pass - Sibi & Quetta 2. Nathula - India & Bhutan 3. Shipkila – India & Tibet
4. Bolan pass – Afghanistan & Pakistan A. 2 and 3 only B. 1, 2 and 4 C. 1 and 4 only D. All of the above Ans. A The Himalayas, together with other ranges, have
acted as a formidable physical barrier in the past. Except for a few mountain passes such as the
Khyber, the Bolan, the Shipkila, the Nathula, the
Bomdila, etc. it was difficult to cross it. It has contributed towards the evolving of a unique regional identity of the Indian subcontinent.
1. Khyber pass - Afghanistan & Pakistan 2. Nathula - India & Bhutan
3. Shipkila – India & Tibet 4. Bolan pass –Sibi & Quetta (Pakistan) 5. Bomdila – India & Bhutan
23. Consider the following:
1. India standard meridian passes through 5 states
of India
2. Tropic of Cancer passes through 8 states of
India
3. Sri Lanka is separated from India by the Strait
of Mannar.
Choose the incorrect statement(s):
A. 1 and 3 B. 2only
C. 1 and 2 D. 3only
Ans. D
1. India standard meridian passes through UP, MP, Chhattisgarh, Orissa and Andhra Pradesh. (5 states)
2. Tropic of Cancer passes through 8 states of India- Gujrat, Rajasthan, MP, Chhattisgarh, Jharkhand, West Bengal, Tripura and Mizoram.
3. Sri Lanka is separated from India by the Gulf of Mannar and Palk Strait. The difference between a gulf and strait is –
Strait- it’s a narrow water way connecting two larger water bodies.
Gulf- Technical name of a very large Bay, where a
bay is a water body enclosed on 3 sides by land and with a wide mouth that opens into ocean.
24. Consider these statements and select the correct code:
1. Where Karakoram, Ladakh and Zaskar forms part of Kashmir Himalayas, Pir Panjal is a part of Himachal Himalayas.
2. Kashmir Himalayas are famous for Karewas.
3. Jhelum in the valley of Kashmir is still in its youth stage and yet forms meanders
A. 1 and 2 B. 2 and 3
C. 1 and 3 D. 1, 2 and 3
Ans. B
Kashmir or Northwestern Himalayas It comprise a series of ranges such as the
Karakoram, Ladakh, Zaskar and Pir Panjal. Hence
1st is incorrect.
The Kashmir Himalayas are also famous for Karewa formations, which are useful for the cultivation of Zafran, a local variety of saffron. Karewas are the thick deposits of glacial clay and other materials embedded with moraines.
Srinagar, capital city of the state of Jammu and Kashmir is located on the banks of Jhelum river.
Dal Lake in Srinagar presents an interesting physical feature. Jhelum in the valley of Kashmir is still in its youth stage and yet forms meanders – a typical feature associated with the mature stage in the evolution of fluvial land form. In Kashmir Valley, the meanders in Jhelum river are caused by the local base level
provided by the erstwhile larger lake of which the
present Dal Lake is a small part. 25. Match the following: 1. Zoji La a. Zaskar 2. Banihal b. Pir Panjal 3. Photu La c. Ladakh
4. Khardung La d. Great Himalayas A. 1-c 2-b 3-d 4-a B. 1-a 2-c 3-d 4-b C. 1-d 2-b 3-a 4-c D. 1- b 2-c 3-a 4-d Ans. C Some of the important passes of the Kashmir
Himalayas are Zoji La on the Great Himalayas, Banihal on the Pir Panjal, Photu La on the
Zaskar and Khardung La on the Ladakh range 26. Which of the following statements is/are not true? 1. In Himachal and Uttarakhand Himalayas, all the
three ranges of Himalayas are prominent.
2. From the point of view of physiography, the ‘Shiwalik’ and ‘Duar formations’ are the two distinguishing features of this region
3. The famous ‘Valley of flowers’ is also situated in this region.
A. 1only B. 1 and 3 C. 2only D. 1 and 2 Ans. C The Himachal and Uttarakhand Himalayas
This part lies approximately between the Ravi in the west and the Kali (a tributary of Ghaghara) in the east. It is drained by two major river systems of India, i.e. the Indus and the Ganga.
1. All the three ranges of Himalayas are prominent in this section also. These are the Great Himalayan
range, the Lesser Himalayas (which is locally
known as Dhaoladhar in Himachal Pradesh and Nagtibha in Uttarakhand) and the Shiwalik range from the North to the South.
2. The two distinguishing features of this region from the point of view of physiography are the ‘Shiwalik’ and ‘Dun formations’. Duars are not related to this region rather they are the part
of the Darjeeling and Sikkim Himalayas. Hence not true.
3. The famous ‘Valley of flowers’ is also situated in this region. The places of pilgrimage such as the Gangotri, Yamunotri, Kedarnath, Badrinath and
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Hemkund Sahib are also situated in this part. The region is also known to have five famous Prayags.
27. Which of the following North eastern state of India
is also known as “Molassis basin”?
A. Mizoram B. Nagaland C. Assam D. Manipur Ans. A The Eastern Hills and Mountains These are part of the Himalayan mountain system
having their general alignment from the north to the south direction. They are known by different
local names. In the north, they are known as Patkai Bum, Naga hills, the Manipur hills and in the south as Mizo or Lushai hills. These are low hills, inhabited by numerous tribal groups practising Jhum cultivation Most of these ranges are separated from each other by numerous small rivers. The Barak is an important river in Manipur
and Mizoram. The physiography of Manipur is
unique by the presence of a large lake known as ‘Loktak’ lake at the centre, surrounded by mountains from all sides. Mizoram which is also known as the ‘Molassis basin’ which is made up of soft unconsolidated deposits. Most of the
rivers in Nagaland form the tributary of the Brahmaputra.
28. Identify the prominent relief feature: 1. Classic example of the relict mountains 2. Highly denuded 3. Discontinuous ranges 4. On one side it has been covered by the
longitudinal sand ridges and crescent-shaped sand dunes called barchans
A. The Deccan Plateau B. The Central Highlands
C. The Northeastern Plateau D. None of the above Ans. B
The Central Highlands They are bounded to the west by the Aravali range.
The Satpura range is formed by a series of scarped plateaus on the south, generally at an elevation varying between 600-900 m above the mean sea level. This forms the northernmost boundary of the
Deccan plateau. It is a classic example of the relict mountains which are highly denuded and form discontinuous ranges. The extension of the Peninsular plateau can be seen as far as Jaisalmer in the West, where it has been covered by the longitudinal sand ridges and crescent-shaped sand
dunes called barchans. This region has undergone
metamorphic processes in its geological history, which can be corroborated by the presence of metamorphic rocks such as marble, slate, gneiss, etc.
29. Consider the following regarding the Islands of India:
1. The Ritchie’s archipelago and the Labrynth island
are the two principal groups of islets in the Bay of Bengal.
2. Andaman and Nicobar are separated by a water body which is called the Eleven degree channel.
3. It is believed that these islands are an elevated portion of submarine mountains, however, some smaller islands are volcanic in origin.
Which of the above is/are correct?
A. 1 and 2 B. 1, 2 and 3
C. 2only D. 1 and 3
Ans. D
There are two major island groups in India – one in the Bay of Bengal and the other in the Arabian Sea. The Bay of Bengal island groups consist of about 572 islands/islets. These are situated roughly between 6°N-14°N and 92°E -94°E. The
two principal groups of islets include the Ritchie’s archipelago and the Labrynth island. The entire group of island is divided into two broad categories – the Andaman in the north and the Nicobar in the south. They are separated by a water body which is
called the Ten degree channel. It is believed that these islands are an elevated portion of submarine
mountains. However, some smaller islands are volcanic in origin. Barren island, the only active volcano in India is also situated in the Nicobar islands.
30. Consider these:
1. The western coastal plains are narrow in the middle and get broader towards north and south.
2. The rivers flowing through this coastal plain do not form any delta.
3. ‘Kayals’ are the distinguishing features of the Konkan and Malabar coast.
Select the true statement(s):
A. 2 and 3 B. 1 and 3
C. 1 and 2 D. All of the above
Ans. C
On the basis of the location and active
geomorphological processes, it can be broadly divided into two: (i) the western coastal plains; (ii) the eastern coastal plains. The western coastal plains are an example of submerged coastal plain. It is believed that the city of Dwaraka which was once a part of the Indian mainland situated along the west coast is submerged under water. Because
of this submergence it is a narrow belt and provides natural conditions for the development of ports and harbours. Kandla, Mazagaon, JLN port Navha Sheva, Marmagao, Mangalore, Cochin, etc.
are some of the important natural ports located along the west coast. Extending from the Gujarat coast in the north to the Kerala coast in the south,
the western coast may be divided into following divisions – the Kachchh and Kathiawar coast in Gujarat, Konkan coast in Maharashtra, Goan coast and Malabar coast in Karnataka and Kerala respectively.
1. The western coastal plains are narrow in the middle and get broader towards north and south.
2. The rivers flowing through this coastal plain do not form any delta.
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3. The Malabar coast has got certain distinguishing features in the form of ‘Kayals’ (backwaters), which are used for fishing, inland
navigation and also due to its special attraction for
tourists. Every year the famous Nehru Trophy Vallamkali (boat race) is held in Punnamada Kayal in Kerala.
31. Which of the following is/are correct?
1. Trend of people moving away from congested
urban areas to cleaner areas outside the city is better known as Sub-Urbanization.
2. There is no uniformity in the hierarchy of the functions provided by rural and urban settlements
A. 1only B. 2only
C. 1 and 2 D. None
Ans. C
1. Sub-Urbanization is a new trend of people moving away from congested urban areas to
cleaner areas outside the city in search of a better quality of living. Important suburbs develop around
major cities and everyday thousands of people commute from their homes in the sub urbs to their work places in the city.
2. Differentiations between rural and urbanon the basis of functions are more meaningful even though there is no uniformity in the hierarchy of the functions provided by rural and urban settlements. Petrol pumps are considered as a lower order function in the United States while it is
an urban function in India. Even within a country, rating of functions may vary according to the regional economy. Facilities available in the villages of developed countries may be considered rare in villages of developing and less developed
countries.
32. As per the census of India, 1991 urban settlements are defined as
1. places which have notified town area committee
2. have a minimum population of 10000 persons
3. at least 75 per cent of male workers are engaged in non-agricultural pursuits
4. a density of population of at least 4000 persons per square kilometers are urban
A. 1 and 3 B. 2 and 3
C. 2, 3 and 4 D. 1 and 4
Ans. A
The census of India, 1991 defines urban settlements as “All places which have
municipality, corporation, cantonment board
or notified town area committee and have a
minimum population of 5000 persons, at least 75 per cent of male workers are engaged in non-agricultural pursuits and a density of population of
at least 400 persons per square kilometers are urban.
33. Consider the following:
1. In low lying river basins people chose to settle on terraces and levees which are “dry points”
2. Rural settlements are most closely and directly related to land.
3. In tropical countries people build their houses on stilts near marshy lands
Which of the above is/are correct? A. 1 and 2 B. 1 and 3 C. 2 and 3 D. All of the above3
Ans. D
All the settlements are correct. Rural settlements are most closely and directly
related to land. They are dominated by primary activities such as agriculture, animal husbandary, fishing etc. The settlements size is relatively small.
Upland which is not prone to flooding was chosen to prevent damage to houses and loss of life. Thus,
in low lying river basins people chose to settle on terraces and levees which are “dry points”. In tropical countries people build their houses on stilts near marshy lands to protect themselves from flood, insects and animal pests.
34. World Health Organisation (WHO) suggests that, among other things, a ‘healthy city’ must have:
1. A ’Clean’ and ‘Safe’ environment.
2. Meets the ‘Basic Needs’ of ‘All’ its inhabitants. 3. Involves the ‘Community’ in local government. 4. Provides easily accessible ‘Health’ service. Select the correct code: A. 1 and 3 B. 2 and 4
C. 1, 3 and 4 D. 1, 2, 3 and 4 Ans. D World Health Organisation (WHO) suggests that,
among other things, a ‘healthy city’ must have: 1. A ’Clean’ and ‘Safe’ environment. 2. Meets the ‘Basic Needs’ of ‘All’ its inhabitants. 3. Involves the ‘Community’ in local government.
4. Provides easily accessible ‘Health’ service. 35. The United Nations Development Programme
(UNDP) has outlined the priorities as part of its ‘Urban Strategy’. Which of the following is not part
of it? 1. Increasing ‘Shelter’ for the urban poor. 2. Improving women’s access to ‘Basic Services’
and government facilities. 3. Upgrading ‘Energy’ use and alternative
Transport’ systems. 4. Reducing ‘Air Pollution A. 3only B. 1 and 3 C. 4only D. None
Ans. D All of the above are part of UNDP’s Urban
Stratergy. It includes:
•Increasing ‘Shelter’ for the urban poor.
•Provision of basic urban services such as
•‘Education’, ‘Primary Health care’, ‘Clean
•Water and Sanitation’.
•Improving women’s access to ‘Basic •Services’ and government facilities.
•Upgrading ‘Energy’ use and alternative
•‘Transport’ systems.
•Reducing ‘Air Pollution 36. Consider these statements: 1. One of the great advantages of water
transportation is that it is easier to construct routes
for the water transport. 2. The oceans are linked with each other and are
negotiable with ships of various sizes.
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3. Water transport is divided into sea routes and inland waterways.
Which of the above is/are not true?
A. 2only B. 3only
C. 1only D. All are true Ans. C One of the great advantages of water
transportation is that it does not require route construction. The oceans are linked with each other and are negotiable with ships of various sizes. All that is needed is to provide port facilities at the two
ends. It is much cheaper because the friction of water is far less than that of land. The energy cost of water transportation is lower. Water transport is divided into sea routes and inland waterways.
37. Identify this international sea route: 1. The foreign trade over this route is greater than
that of the rest of the world combined.
2. One fourth of the world’s foreign trade moves on
this route 3. It is, therefore, the busiest in the world and
otherwise, called the Big Trunk Route. A. The Mediterranean–Indian Ocean Sea Route B. The Northern Atlantic Sea Route
C. The Cape of Good Hope Sea Route D. The North Pacific Sea Route Ans. B The Northern Atlantic Sea Route This links North-eastern U.S.A. and Northwestern
Europe, the two industrially developed regions of the world. The foreign trade over this route is
greater than that of the rest of the world combined. One fourth of the world’s foreign trade moves on this route. It is, therefore, the busiest in the world and otherwise, called the Big Trunk
Route. Both the coasts have highly advanced ports and harbour facilities.
38. Choose the incorrect statement(s):
1. The Quaternary Sector along with the Tertiary Sector has replaced most of the primary and secondary employment as the basis for economic growth
2. Unlike some of the tertiary functions, quaternary activities can not be outsourced.
3. They are not tied to resources, affected by the environment, or necessarily localised by market
A. 1only B. 2only C. 3only D. None Ans. B Quaternary activities involve some of the following:
the collection, production and dissemination of
information or even the production of information. Quaternary activities centre around research, development and may be seen as an advanced form of services involving specialised knowledge and technical skills.
The Quaternary Sector along with the Tertiary Sector has replaced most of the primary and
secondary employment as the basis for economic growth. Over half of all workers In developed economies are in the ‘Knowledge Sector’ and there has been a very high growth in demand for and consumption of information based services from mutual fund managers to tax consultants,
software developers and statisticians. Personnel working in office buildings, elementary schools and university classrooms, hospitals and doctors’
offices, theatres, accounting and brokerage firms
all belong to this category of services. Like some of the tertiary functions, quaternary activities can also be outsourced.
They are not tied to resources, affected by the environment, or necessarily localised by market.
39. Consider the following:
1. Quinary activities represent another subdivision of the tertiary sector representing special and highly paid skills
2. Often they are referred to as ‘white collar’ professions.
Which of the above is/are correct? A. 1only B. 2only
C. Both D. None
Ans. A Quinary activities are services that focus on the
creation, re-arrangement and interpretation of new and existing ideas; data interpretation and the use and evaluation of new technologies. Often referred
to as ‘gold collar’ professions, they represent another subdivision of the tertiary sector representing special and highly paid skills of senior business executives, government officials, research scientists, financial and legal consultants, etc. Their importance in the structure of advanced economies far outweighs their numbers.
40. Select the incorrect statement(s) w.r.t Foot loose industries:
1. They are not dependent on any specific raw material, weight losing or otherwise.
2. They produce in bulk quantity and also employ a large labour force
3. These are generally not polluting industries.
A. 3only B. 1 and 3 C. 2only D. 1 and 2 Ans. C Foot loose industries can be located in a wide
variety of places. They are not dependent on any specific raw material, weight losing or otherwise.
They largely depend on component parts which can be obtained anywhere. They produce in small quantity and also employ a small labour force. These are generally not polluting industries. The important factor in their location is accessibility by road network
41. Arrange the following Iron and Steel plants of India
from North to South. 1. Bhilai 2. Jamshedpur 3. Bokaro 4. Rourkela A. 3-1-2-4 B. 3-2-4-1 C. 4-2-1-3 D. 2-1-4-3 Ans. B The correct order of these iron and steel plants
from north to south is: Bokaro-Jamshedpur-Rourkela-Bhilai. Kindly refer Atlas for their exact location. 42. Assertion: Tamil Nadu has the largest number of
mills and most of them produce Cloth rather than yarn.
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Reason: The rapid development of this industry in Tamil Nadu is the result of the abundant availability of hydel power for the mills.
A. Assertion and Reason both are correct and
Reason correctly explains Assertion. B. Assertion and Reason both are correct but
Reason does not correctly explains Assertion. C. Assertion is correct and Reason is incorrect D. Assertion is incorrect and Reason is correct. Ans. D Tamil Nadu has the largest number of mills and
most of them produce yarn rather than cloth. Coimbatore has emerged as the most important centre with nearly half the mills located there. Chennai, Madurai, Tirunelveli, Tuticorin, Thanjavur, Ramanathapuram and Salem are the other important centres.
The development of hydro-electricity also favoured
the location of the cotton textile mills away from
the cotton producing areas. The rapid development of this industry in Tamil Nadu is the result of the abundant availability of hydel power for the mills.
43. Consider the following: 1. Manganese is an important raw material for
smelting of iron ore and also used for manufacturing ferro alloys.
2. Manganese deposits are exclusively found in Dharwar system of geological formation.
3. Odisha is the leading producer of Manganese. A. 1 and 3 B. 2 and 3 C. 1 and 2 D. 1, 2 and 3
Ans. A Manganese is an important raw material for
smelting of iron ore and also used for manufacturing ferro alloys. Manganese deposits are
found in almost all geological formations, however, it is mainly associated with Dharwar system. Odisha is the leading producer of Manganese.
Major mines in Odisha are located in the central part of the iron ore belt of India, particularly in Bonai, Kendujhar, Sundergarh, Gangpur, Koraput, Kalahandi and Bolangir. Karnataka is another major producer and here the mines are located in Dharwar, Ballari, Belagavi, North Canara,
Chikkmagaluru, Shivamogga, Chitradurg and Tumkur. Maharashtra is also an important producer of manganese which is mined in Nagpur, Bhandara and Ratnagiri districts. The disadvantage to these mines is that they are located far from steel plants. The manganese belt of Madhya Pradesh extends in
a belt in Balaghat-Chhindwara-Nimar-Mandla and
Jhabua districts. Telangana, Goa, and Jharkhand are other minor producers of manganese.
44. Which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. India has abundant non-ferrous metallic
minerals. 2. Bauxite is found mainly in tertiary deposits. 3. It is associated with laterite rocks occurring
extensively either on the plateau or hill ranges of peninsular India and also in the coastal tracts of the country.
A. 1 and 2 B. 2 and 3 C. 1, 2 and 3 D. 1 and 3 Ans. B
1. India is poorly endowed with non-ferrous metallic minerals except bauxite. Hence statement is incorrect.
2. Bauxite is the ore which is used in
manufacturing of aluminium. Bauxite is found mainly in tertiary deposits.
3. It is associated with laterite rocks occurring extensively either on the plateau or hill ranges of peninsular India and also in the coastal tracts of the country. Odisha happens to be the largest producer of Bauxite. Kalahandi and Sambalpur are
the leading producers. The other two areas which have been increasing their production are Bolangir and Koraput.
45. Which of the following minerals is known as brown diamond?
A. Manganese B. Mica C. Iron D. Lignite
Ans. D
Lignite is a mineral known as brown diamond. Easily combustible with carbon content upto 60-70%.
46. Which of the following is/are not true regarding watershed management?
1. It involves prevention of runoff and storage and recharge of groundwater.
2. Watershed management includes conservation, regeneration and judicious use of all resources – natural and human.
3. Watershed management aims at bringing about balance between natural resources on the one
hand and society on the other. A. 1only B. 2only C. 3only D. None Ans. D
All of the above statements are true. Watershed management basically refers to efficient
management and conservation of surface and
groundwater resources. It involves prevention of runoff and storage and recharge of groundwater through various methods like percolation tanks, recharge wells, etc. However, in broad sense watershed management includes conservation, regeneration and judicious use of all resources –
natural (like land, water, plants and animals) and human with in a watershed. Watershed management aims at bringing about balance between natural resources on the one hand and society on the other. The success of watershed development largely depends upon community
participation.
47. On the basis of percentage of net irrigated area to total by wells and tube wells, arrange the following states from smallest to largest.
1. Maharashtra 2. Tamil Nadu 3. Rajasthan 4. Uttar Pradesh A. 3-1-2-4 B. 2-1-3-4 C. 2-4-1-3 D. 3-2-1-4
Ans. C Percentage of net irrigated area to total by wells
and Tube-wells: State Percentage Gujarat 86.6 Rajasthan 77.2
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Madhya Pradesh 66.5 Maharashtra 65 Uttar Pradesh 58.21
West Bengal 57.6
Tamil Nadu 54.7 For details, refer NCERT- India: People and
Economy. 48. Choose the correctly matched: 1. Culturable Wasteland : left without cultivation
for one or less than one agricultural year 2. Barren and Wastelands : cannot be brought
under cultivation with the available technology. 3. Current Fallow: Any land which is left fallow
(uncultivated) for more than five years is included in this category.
A. 1 and 2 B. 2only C. 2 and 3 D. All of the above Ans. B
The land-use categories as maintained in the Land
Revenue Records are as follows : (i) Forests : It is important to note that area
under actual forest cover is different from area classified as forest. The latter is the area which the Government has identified and demarcated for
forest growth. The land revenue records are consistent with the latter definition. Thus, there may be an increase in this category without any increase in the actual forest cover.
(ii) Land put to Non-agricultural Uses : Land under settlements (rural and urban), infrastructure (roads, canals, etc.), industries, shops, etc. are
included in this category. An expansion in the secondary and tertiary activities would lead to an increase in this category of land-use.
(iii) Barren and Wastelands : The land which
may be classified as a wasteland such as barren hilly terrains, desert lands, ravines, etc. normally cannot be brought under cultivation with the
available technology. (iv) Area under Permanent Pastures and
Grazing Lands : Most of this type land is owned by the village ‘Panchayat’ or the Government. Only a small proportion of this land is privately owned. The land owned by the village panchayat comes
under ‘Common Property Resources’. (v) Area under Miscellaneous Tree Crops and
Groves(Not included is Net sown Area) : The land under orchards and fruit trees are included in this category. Much of this land is privately owned.
(vi) Culturable Waste-Land : Any land which is
left fallow (uncultivated) for more than five years is
included in this category. It can be brought under cultivation after improving it through reclamation practices.
(vii) Current Fallow : This is the land which is left without cultivation for one or less than one agricultural year. Fallowing is a cultural practice adopted for giving the land rest. The land recoups
the lost fertility through natural processes. (viii) Fallow other than Current Fallow : This is
also a cultivable land which is left uncultivated for more than a year but less than five years. If the land is left uncultivated for more than five years, it would be categorised as culturable wasteland.
(ix) Net Area Sown : The physical extent of land on which crops are sown and harvested is known as net sown area.
49. Which of the following is/are not Kharif crops in
Northern states of India? 1. Rapeseeds 2. Tur 3. Bajra 4. Barley A. 1 and 4 B. 2only C. 2 and 3 D. 1only Ans. A Kharif (June-September ) Rice, Cotton, Bajra,
Maize, Tur and Jowar. Rabi (October – March) Wheat, Gram, Rapeseeds
and Mustard, Barley. Zaid (April–June) Vegetables, Fruits, Fodder. 50. Consider the following: 1. Maize is a food as well as fodder crop grown
under semi-arid climatic conditions and over
inferior soils
2. Maize cultivation is not concentrated in any specific region
3. It is sown all over India except eastern and north-eastern regions.
Which of the above is/are correct?
A. 1 and 3 B. 1 and 2 C. 2 and 3 D. All of the above Ans. D Maize is a food as well as fodder crop grown under
semi-arid climatic conditions and over inferior soils. This crop occupies only about 3.6 per cent of total cropped area. Maize cultivation is not concentrated
in any specific region. It is sown all over India except eastern and north-eastern regions. The leading producers of maize are the states of Madhya Pradesh, Andhra Pradesh, Telangana,
Karnataka, Rajasthan and Uttar Pradesh. Yield level of maize is higher than other coarse cereals. It is high in southern states and declines towards
central parts. 51. Consider the following regarding demographic
transition: 1. Population of any region changes from high
births and high deaths to low births and low deaths as society progresses from rural agrarian to urban
industrial society. 2. These changes occur in stages which are
collectively known as the demographic cycle. 3. In the last stage, both fertility and mortality
decline considerably and the population is always stable.
Which of the above is/are correct?
A. 1 and 3 B. 1 and 2 C. 1, 2 and 3 D. 2 and 3 Ans. B Demographic transition theory can be used to
describe and predict the future population of any area. The theory tells us that population of any region changes from high births and high
deaths to low births and low deaths as society progresses from rural agrarian and illiterate to urban industrial and literate society. These changes occur in stages which are collectively known as the demographic cycle.
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The first stage has high fertility and high mortality because people reproduce more to compensate for the deaths due to epidemics and variable food
supply. The population growth is slow and most of
the people are engaged in agriculture where large families are an asset. Life expectancy is low, people are mostly illiterate and have low levels of technology. Two hundred years ago all the countries of the world were in this stage.
Fertility remains high in the beginning of second stage but it declines with time. This is
accompanied by reduced mortality rate. Improvements in sanitation and health conditions lead to decline in mortality. Because of this gap the net addition to population is high. In the last stage, both fertility and mortality decline considerably. The population is either stable or grows slowly. The population becomes urbanised, literate
and has high technical knowhow and deliberately
controls the family size. Hence statement 3 is incorrect.
52. Which one of the following is not a push factor? A. Unemployment B. Epidemics C. Medical facilities D. Water shortage
Ans. D People migrate for a better economic and social
life. There are two sets of factors that influence migration.
The Push factors make the place of origin seem less attractive for reasons like unemployment, poor living conditions, political turmoil,
unpleasant climate, natural disasters, epidemics and socio-economic backwardness. The Pull factors make the place of destination seem more attractive than the place of origin for
reasons like better job opportunities and living conditions, peace and stability, security of life and property and pleasant climate.
53. Choose the incorrect statement(s): 1. A population pyramid is used to show the age-
sex structure of the population only. 2. The left side shows the percentage of males
while the right side shows the percentage of women in each age group.
A. 1only B. 2only C. Both D. None Ans. D Both the statements are correct. The age-sex structure of a population refers to the
number of females and males in different age
groups. A population pyramid is used to show the
age-sex structure of the population. The shape of the population pyramid reflects the characteristics of the population. The left side shows the percentage of males while the right side shows the percentage of women in each age group.
Additional info: Expanding Populations:
The age-sex pyramid of Nigeria as you can see is a triangular shaped pyramid with a wide base and is typical of less developed countries. These have larger populations in lower age groups due to high birth rates.
Constant Population:
Australia’s age-sex pyramid is bell shaped and tapered towards the top. This shows birth and death rates are almost equal leading to a near
constant population.
Declining Populations: The Japan pyramid has a narrow base and a
tapered top showing low birth and death rates. The population growth in developed countries is usually zero or negative.
54. Consider the following: 1. In Western countries, males outnumber females
in rural areas and females outnumber the males in urban areas.
2. Farming in these developed countries is also highly mechanised and remains largely a male occupation.
3. It is also worth noting that in countries like India, female participation in farming activity in
rural area is fairly high.
Which of the above is/are true? A. 2 and 3 B. 1 and 2 C. 1, 2 and 3 D. 1and 3 Ans. C All are true.
The rural and urban differences in sex ratio in Canada and West European countries like Finland are just the opposite of those in African and Asian countries like Zimbabwe and Nepal respectively. In Western countries, males outnumber females in rural areas and females outnumber the males in urban areas. In countries like Nepal, Pakistan and
India the case is reverse. The excess of females in urban areas of U.S.A., Canada and Europe is the result of influx of females from rural areas to avail of the vast job opportunities. Farming in these
developed countries is also highly mechanised and remains largely a male occupation. By contrast the sex ratio in Asian urban areas remains male
dominated due to the predominance of male migration. It is also worth noting that in countries like India, female participation in farming activity in rural area is fairly high. Shortage of housing, high cost of living, paucity of job opportunities and lack of security in cities, discourage women to migrate
from rural to urban areas. 55. Which of the following is/are related to the
capability approach to Human Development? 1. Building human capabilities in the areas of
health, education and access to resources is the key to increasing human development
2. The government is responsible for increasing
levels of human development by maximising expenditure on welfare.
3. This approach is associated with Prof. Dr Mahbub-ul-Haq.
A. 1only B. 1 and 2 C. 2 and 3 D. 2 only Ans. A
Approaches to human development: (a) Income Approach This is one of the oldest approaches to human
development. Human development is seen as being linked to income. The idea is that the level of income reflects the level of freedom an individual
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enjoys. Higher the level of income, the higher is the level of human development.
(b) Welfare Approach
This approach looks at human beings as
beneficiaries or targets of all development activities. The approach argues for higher government expenditure on education, health, social secondary and amenities. People are not participants in development but only passive recipients. The government is responsible for increasing levels of human development by
maximising expenditure on welfare. (c) Basic Needs Approach This approach was initially proposed by the
International Labour Organisation (ILO). Six basic needs i.e.: health, education, food, water supply, sanitation, and housing were identified. The question of human choices is ignored and the
emphasis is on the provision of basic needs of
defined sections. (d) Capability Approach This approach is associated with Prof.
Amartya Sen. Building human capabilities in the areas of health, education and access to
resources is the key to increasing human development.
56. Consider the following: 1. The process of migration from plain areas to
pastures on mountains during summers and again from mountain pastures to plain areas during winters is known as transhumance.
2. In the tundra regions, the nomadic herders move from north to south in summers and vice-versa in winters.
3. Unlike nomadic herding, livestock rearing is
more organised and capital intensive. Which of the above is/are correct? A. 1 and 2 B. 1 and 3
C. 2 and 3 D. All of the above Ans. B Movement in search of pastures is undertaken
either over vast horizontal distances or vertically from one elevation to another in the mountainous regions. The process of migration from plain
areas to pastures on mountains during summers and again from mountain pastures to plain areas during winters is known as transhumance. In mountain regions, such as Himalayas, Gujjars, Bakarwals, Gaddis and Bhotiyas migrate from plains to the mountains in
summers and to the plains from the high altitude
pastures in winters. Similarly, in the tundra regions, the nomadic herders move from south to north in summers and from north to south in winters.
Unlike nomadic herding, commercial livestock rearing is more organised and capital intensive. Commercial livestock ranching is
essentially associated with western cultures and is practised on permanent ranches. These ranches cover large areas and are divided into a number of parcels, which are fenced to regulate the grazing. When the grass of one parcel is grazed, animals are moved to another parcel. The number of
animals in a pasture is kept according to the carrying capacity of the pasture.
57. Identify the farming type:
1. This type of agriculture is largely found in
densely populated regions of monsoon Asia. 2. Land holdings are very small due to the high
density of population. 3. Farmers work with the help of family labour
leading to intensive use of land. 4. Use of machinery is limited and most of the
agricultural operations are done by manual labour.
A. Plantation Agriculture B. Primitive Subsistence Agriculture C. Intensive Subsistence Agriculture D. Extensive Commercial Grain Cultivation Ans. C Intensive Subsistence Agriculture This type of agriculture is largely found in densely
populated regions of monsoon Asia. Basically, there
are two types of intensive subsistence agriculture. (i) Intensive subsistence agriculture dominated by wet paddy cultivation: This type of agriculture is characterised by dominance of the rice crop. Land holdings are very small due to the high density of
population. Farmers work with the help of family labour leading to intensive use of land. Use of machinery is limited and most of the agricultural operations are done by manual labour. Farm yard manure is used to maintain the fertility of the soil. In this type of agriculture, the yield per unit area is high but per labour productivity is low. (ii)
Intensive subsidence agriculture dominated by crops other than paddy: Due to the difference in relief, climate, soil and some of the other geographical factors, it is not practical to grow
paddy in many parts of monsoon Asia. Wheat, soyabean, barley and sorghum are grown in northern China, Manchuria, North Korea and North
Japan. In India wheat is grown in western parts of the Indo-Gangetic plains and millets are grown in dry parts of western and southern India. Most of the characteristics of this type of agriculture are similar to those dominated by wet paddy except that irrigation is often used.
58. Which of the following is/are not correctly matched?
1. Mediterranean agriculture - Viticulture is a speciality
2. Market gardening - The regions where farmers specialise in vegetables only.
3. Truck farming - cultivation of high value crops
such as vegetables, fruits and flowers A. 1 and 2 B. 1only C. 2 and 3 D. All are correct. Ans. C Mediterranean agriculture is highly specialised
commercial agriculture. It is practised in the countries on either side of the Mediterranean sea in
Europe and in north Africa from Tunisia to Atlantic coast, southern California, central Chile, south western parts of South Africa and south and south western parts of Australia. This region is an important supplier of citrus fruits. Viticulture or grape cultivation is a speciality of the
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Mediterranean region. Best quality wines in the world with distinctive flavours are produced from high quality grapes in various countries of this
region.
Market gardening and horticulture specialise in the cultivation of high value crops such as vegetables, fruits and flowers, solely for the urban markets. Farms are small and are located where there are good transportation links with the urban centre where high income group of consumers is located. It is both labour and capital intensive.
The regions where farmers specialise in vegetables only, the farming is know as truck farming. The distance of truck farms from the market is governed by the distance that a truck can cover overnight, hence the name truck farming.
59. To improve upon the inefficiency of the previous methods of agriculture and to boost agricultural
production for self-sufficiency model of Kolkhoz
was introduced in: A. Soviet Union B. Europe C. USA D. Australia Ans. A Collective Farming
The basic principle behind this types of farming is based on social ownership of the means of production and collective labour. Collective farming or the model of Kolkhoz was introduced in erstwhile Soviet Union to improve upon the inefficiency of the previous
methods of agriculture and to boost agricultural production for self-sufficiency. The farmers used to pool in all their resources like land, livestock and
labour. However, they were allowed to retain very
small plots to grow crops in order to meet their daily requirements.
60. Choose the incorrect code: 1. Balance of trade opens up economies for trading
with other economies 2. Trade liberalization records the volume of goods
and services imported as well as exported.
A. 1only B. 2only C. Both D. None Ans. C Balance of trade records the volume of goods and
services imported as well as exported by a country to other countries. If the value of imports is more than the value of a country’s exports, the country
has negative or unfavourable balance of trade. If
the value of exports is more than the value of imports, then the country has a positive or favourable balance of trade. Balance of trade and balance of payments have serious implications for a country’s economy.
The act of opening up economies for trading is known as free trade or trade liberalisation. This is done by bringing down trade barriers like tariffs. Trade liberalisation allows goods and services from everywhere to compete with domestic products and services
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