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IBPS Clerk Prelims 2018 – Model Mock Paper-3

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1

English Language

Directions (1-10): Read the following passage

carefully and answer the questions given below it.

The week gone by induced further pessimism in the

market, as the benchmark indices saw deep cuts amid

concerns over financial health and liquidity crisis in

the NBFC sector, rising oil prices and a fast

weakening rupee. The BSE Sensex dropped 417.95

points, or 1.20 per cent, for the week to settle at

34,315 on Friday, while the Nifty50 tanked 168.95

points, or 1.61 per cent, to end at 10,303. Friday‟s

selloff wiped off Rs 1.60 lakh crore of equity

investors‟ wealth.

Even some solid earnings numbers from blue chip

firms like Reliance Industries NSE -4.34 % and

Infosys failed to lift the mood. Sustained capital

outflow has created a gloomy atmosphere, dealing a

body blow to risk-appetite. Every rise in market is

meeting with a wave of profit-booking. Overseas

investors have pulled out roughly over Rs 20,000

crore from the domestic markets so far in October.

Going into a new week, things do not look any better.

Going by analyst observations, here is a list of factors

that will influence market movement next week. A

perceived liquidity crisis in the non-banking financial

companies (NBFCs) has made investors wary despite

a slew of measures from the government and RBI to

address the issue. After the IL&FS crisis, even the

slightest indication of problem in an NBFC has led to

a selloff. “RBI is trying to inject liquidity, but

confidence needs to be restored in the system to

ensure that it continues to function,”

SudipBandyopadhyay, group chairman,

InditradeBandyopadhyay, group chairman, Inditrade

Capital, said in an interview with ET Now. “If the

liquidity crunch is allowed to continue unabated, it

may lead to solvency issues and that will be

disastrous. We will have to see how that gets handled

over the next 10-15 days,” he said. The efficacy of

RBI‟s decision to relax liquidity norms and allow

more banks lending to NBFCs will be assessed in the

coming days.

October series futures and options will expire on

Thursday and rollover of positions will dominate

proceedings through the week. “Friday's data showed

maximum Put open interest was at 10,000 followed

by 10,200, while maximum Call OI was at 11,000

followed by 10,600,” said ChandanTaparia of

MotilalOswal Securities. “There was meaningful Call

writing at 10,400 followed by 10,600, while Put

writing was seen at 10,200 followed by 10,100. The

option band signified a trading band between 10,200

and 10,500 levels. On Friday, Nifty futures closed in

the negative at 10,314 with a loss of 1.24 per cent,”

he said. F&O rollovers may increase volatility in the

market.

The rupee settled 29 paise higher at 73.32 against the

dollar on Friday, amid selling of the US currency by

exporters and foreign fund inflows. The domestic unit

has been on a bumpy track of late owing to unstable

crude oil prices, a stronger dollar, capital outflow and

rising bond yields in the US. The rupee will remain a

key factor to watch in the coming days.

Crude oil prices rose in international markets on

Friday. Brent crude futures rose 49 cents to settle at

$79.78 a barrel amid a surge in demand in China. The

market is now focussing on US sanctions on Iran,

which will come into force on November 4. Crude

has a direct impact on the rupee‟s health and

ultimately it influences the mood of the market, as

higher crude oil prices raises worries of a spike in

current account deficit and fiscal deficit, distorting

country‟s macroeconomic mathematics. As per RBI

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estimates, every $10 a barrel rise in oil price reduces

country‟s GDP growth by around 0.15 per cent.

The earnings season is on in full swing now. ITC,

Asian Paints, Adani Ports, Ambuja Cements, Kotak

Mahindra Bank, YES Bank, Maruti Suzuki,

BhartiAirtel, BhartiInfratel, Wipro, HCL Tech, Bajaj

Auto, Bajaj Finance and Bajaj Finserv are among the

heavyweights that will release their September

quarter numbers during the we during the week. The

earnings numbers have been mixed so far. Any

positive surprise should prove a booster dose for the

market.

The European Central Bank (ECB) will announce its

interest rate decision on Thursday amid chaos around

BREXIT. While no change in monetary policy is

expected as of now, the ECB will have to calculate

the risk that BREXIT poses to eurozone economy.

“BREXIT is the big elephant in the room for the euro

area‟s economy. A lot of people are trying to guess

the nitty-gritty of interest rate increases that are still

about a year out, but are ignoring one of the region‟s

key economic risks,” KarstenJunius, chief economist

at Bank J Safra Sarasin in Zurich, told Bloomberg.

The Bank of Japan‟s core CPI will be out on

Tuesday. The US new home sales report for

September will be out on Wednesday. Besides,

markets will closely watch third quarter GDP growth

numbers of the US on Friday. On the same day, data

on US‟s real consumer spending will also be

released. Italian budget will also be in focus this

week.

On the technical charts, the bears appear on the

driver's seat. “As per the weekly timeframe chart,

Nifty has formed a negative candle with a long upper

shadow, which indicates a sharp negative reversal

from the recent highs. The weekly RSI is also

sending out negative signals,” said NagarajShetti,

Technical Research Analyst at HDFC Securities.

Technical indicators still show more scope of

downside, though in between a short bounce cannot

be ruled out. The support for Sensex/Nifty during the

week is seen at 33,350/10,000 and resistance at

35,100/10,550. Bank Nifty would have a range of

24,150-25,860, said Vaishali Parekh, senior technical

analyst at PrabhudasLilladher.

1) According to the passage what are the points

noted down by NagarajShetti, Technical Research

Analyst at HDFC Securities, as per the weekly

timeframe chart.

i. Nifty has formed a negative candle with a long

upper shadow, which indicates a sharp negative

reversal from the recent highs.

ii. The weekly RSI is also sending out negative

signals,

iii. The European Central Bank (ECB) will announce

its interest rate decision on Thursday amid chaos

around BREXIT.

a) ii and iii

b) Only i

c) i and ii

d) i and iii

e) None of these

2) According to the passage what may happen to

F&O rollovers?

i. F&O rollovers may decrease volatility in the

market.

ii. F&O rollovers may increase bad loans

iii. F&O rollovers may increase volatility in the

market.

a) i and ii

b) Only iii

c) ii and iii

d) i and iii

e) All are true

3) According to the passage what will have to be

calculate by ECB??

i. The nitty-gritty of interest rate increases

ii. The risk that BREXIT poses to euro-zone

economy

iii. Italian budget will also be in focus this week

a) Only i

b) ii and iii

c) Only ii

d) i and ii











3

e) None of these

4) Which of the following is not true in the context

of the passage?

i. Nifty has formed a negative candle with a long

upper shadow, which indicates a sharp negative

reversal from the recent highs..

ii. Brent crude futures rose 49 cents to settle at $79.78

a barrel amid a surge in surplus in China.

iii. BREXIT is the big elephant in the room for the

euro area‟s economy.

a) i and ii

b) ii and iii

c) i and iii

d) Only ii

e) None of these

5) According to the passage what are the factors

found in the list that would influence market

movements in the week after?

a) The weekly RSI is also sending out negative

signals,

b) A perceived liquidity crisis in the non-banking

financial companies (NBFCs) has made investors

wary despite a slew of measures from the government

and RBI to address the issue.

c) The earnings numbers have been mixed so far.

Because there was a lack of willing borrowers

d) Any positive surprise should prove a booster dose

for the market.

e) None of these

6) Which of the following is true in the context of

the passage?

i. The rupee will remain a key factor to watch in the

coming days

ii. The domestic unit has been on a bumpy track of

late owing to unstable crude oil prices, a stronger

dollar, capital outflow and rising bond yields in the

US.

iii. The rupee settled 29 paise higher at 73.32 against

the dollar on Friday, amid selling of the Japan

currency by exporters and foreign fund inflows.

a) ii and iii

b) i and ii

c) Only ii

d) i and iii

e) All are correct

7) Choose the word which is most nearly the same in

meaning as the word “dominate” printed in bold as

used in the passage.

a) endure

b) control

c) liberal

d) repose

e) turn down

8) Choose the word which is most nearly the same in

meaning as the word “Volatility” printed in bold as


a) affluence

b) sincerity

c) a tendency to change

d) a tendency to dominate

e) a tendency to travel

9) Choose the word which is most opposite in

meaning of the word “Bumpy” printed in bold as


a) smooth

b) confusing

c) interesting

d) enchant

e) preclude

10) Choose the word which is most opposite in

meaning of the word “Appetite” printed in bold as


a) propound

b) enshroud

c) adduce

d) aversion

e) approach

Directions (11-15): Each sentence below has one

or two blanks, each blank indicating that

something has been omitted. Below the sentence

are five sets of words. Choose the set of words for

each blank that best fits the meaning of the

sentence as a whole.











4

11) The Indian Colts have been _______ above

their weight in their first FIFA tournament, and

Dheeraj has been the heaviest _______ he has

literally punched away many a ball to safety.

a) clinching, bitter

b) jumping , warning

c) punching, hitter

d) playing, player

e) taking, man

12) Thousands of runners brushed off health

warnings Sunday to compete in the New Delhi half

marathon, even as smog reached _______ levels in

the world's most _______ major city.

a) healthy, beautiful

b) unhealthy, polluted

c) magnificent, welcome

d) highest, populated

e) similar, wonderful

13) Businesses had expressed ________ about the

October 20 deadline, saying there would be

trouble in _______ their sales returns with the

purchase returns filed by their suppliers.

a) Concern, reconciling

b) design, developing

c) communication, telling

d) manager, managing

e) progress, undertaking

14) "The ministry further said that for those

______ who have been recently migrated from

erstwhile tax regime to GST regime, the last date

for _______ ITC for the period July, 2017 to

March, 2018, is December 31, 2018 or the date of

filing of annual return whichever is earlier," the

statement added.

a) bill collectors, accepting

b) tax evaders, collecting

c) pleaders, agreeing

d) tax payers, availing

e) bench markers, availing

15) The Reserve Bank of India (RBI), in a circular

in April, said all system ______will have to ensure

that the entire data relating to payment systems

operated by them are stored in a system only in

India. It gave time till October 15 to comply with

the ______.

a) designers, provider s

b) provider's, mandate.

c) care-takers, manipulated

d) policy holders, remarks

e) protectors, opinion

Direction (16-20): Five sentences denoted by A, B,

C, D and E have been given. Identify the odd

sentence and arrange rest of the four sentences in

such a way that they make a meaningful

paragraph.

16)

A. For example, while in one culture, students may

not be expected to criticise their teachers, or openly

differ with their fellow students, in another culture,

this may not only be the norm, but even expected

(Hofstede, 1986).

B. They need to adapt to a very different teaching,

collegial learning and administrative styles and in a

different culture.

C. This transition could be a difficult one for the

migrant students as well as the receiving institutions

and is likely to influence the performance of students,

teaching faculty, and administrators in the host

country.

D. When students enroll into an institution in another

country, they are confronted by a new culture, a new

educational system, and different learning and

teaching styles, while their learning styles have been

those imbibed by them in their schooling and early

college days.

E. As the price of soya has shot up, she says, some of

her peers have switched to other feed, and she is

thinking of following suit.

a) EABD

b) DEAC

c) ADEB

d) DBAC

e) CBED

17.











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A. A much more recently discovered problem is the

Great Pacific Garbage Patch, a huge concentration of

plastics,chemical sludge and other debris which has

been collected into a large area of the Pacific Ocean

by the North Pacific Gyre.

B. Though their effects remain somewhat less well

understood owing to a lack of experimental data, they

have been detected in various ecological habitats far

removed from industrial activity such as the Arctic,

demonstrating diffusion and bio accumulation after

only a relatively brief period of widespread use.

C. This is a less well known pollution problem than

the others, but nonetheless has multiple and serious

consequences such as increasing wildlife mortality,

the spread of invasive species and human ingestion of

toxic chemicals

D. Mr. Trump sees himself leading a fight against

“globalism”, by which he means any order that binds

American sovereignty, or fails to put American

workers first.

E. Most recently the term persistent organic

pollutant(POP) has come to describe a group of

chemicals such as PBDEs and PFCs among others.

a) EBAC

b) DEAC

c) ADEB

d) DBAC

e) CBED

18.

A. As of now railway has already implemented the

scheme in 15 of its zones with the Northeast Frontier

Railway and West Central Railway being the

remaining two zones.

B. Waiting in long queues to buy tickets at railway

stations will now be a thing of the past as the

railways' UTS mobile app for buying unreserved

tickets online will be available nationwide from

November 1, a senior official said Tuesday.

C. Several companies like Visa, Mastercard,

American Express, Amazon and PayPal have said

that they needed more time to comply with the RBI

orders in this regard which came into effect on

October 15.

D. The scheme is also open for those who want to

buy tickets for travelling long distance.

E. While the scheme was started four years ago, it

failed to catch on among passengers except in

Mumbai, where it was first launched because a large

number of people travel in locals

a) EBAC

b) BEAD

c) ADEB

d) DBAC

e) CBED

19.

A. A dedicated free shuttle service has been arranged

between the existing terminal and the IIDT and this

shuttle service will be available at the arrivals ramp.

It takes close to 05 minutes to travel from the existing

terminal to the new terminal.

B. Passengers of Air India International flights AI

127, AI 952, AI 978, AI 988, AI 966 & AI 051 and

travelling to domestic destinations are advised to

report at the new Terminal as per their scheduled

departure times.

C. The terminal is located adjacent to the Haj

Terminal and can be accessed from both Shamshabad

and Srisailam sides of the airport's main approach

road via Rotary 1 (Cargo rotary).

D. GMR Hyderabad International Airport Limited

(GHIAL) has announced that all international flights

will operate from the new terminal with effect from

10:30 am on October 23

E.In a much-anticipated report, the

Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change (IPCC)

said the world will need to take dramatic and drastic

steps to avoid the catastrophic effects of climate

change.

a) EABD

b) DCAB

c) ADEB

d) DBEC

e) CBED











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20)

A. When China punched back, announcing tariffs on

up to $60 bn of American imports, it included a 25%

tariff on soya beans to hurt farm states that had voted

for Mr. Trump, such as Iowa.

B. Mr. Trump has growled his willingness to go up to

25% on all of those goods and start in on the

remaining $267 bn if he does not get his way.

C. Mr. Trump spent a dizzying spring and summer

announcing punitive tariffs, expanding their scope

and amping up their severity.

D. There are now tariffs of between 10% and 25% on

$250 bn of imports.

E. Chicago and Cincinnati were the first two

American cities to enact laws ensuring cleaner air in

1881

a) EABD

b) CDBA

c) ADEB

d) DBEC

e) CBED

Directions (21-30): There is a sentence given below

which is divided into four or five parts. There is

an error in any part(s) of the sentence. From the

given options, find out the part which contain(s)

error.

21.The company reserve its right to abide

by(A)/any order of the court in regard to (B)

/declaration to the legal heir / heiress (C) /and

ownership of the vehicle and the nominee will not

have (D) /any right to dispute such order of the

court(E)

a) Only B and C

b) Only A and C

c) Only D

d) Only B and E

e) Only C and D

22) Soil contamination occurs (A) / when

chemicals is released (B)/ by spill or underground

storage tank (C)/ leakage which releases heavy (D)

/contaminants up the soil (E)

a) Only A and C

b) Only D

c) Only B and E

d) Only B and C

e) Only C and D

23) Within months of announcing generous hikes

(A) / in the minimum support price (MSP) for

several crops (B) / in the kharif summer season,

the NDA government (C) / to Wednesday

approved an increase (D) / in the MSP offered for

rabi crops (E)

a) Only A and C

b) Only D

c) Only B and E

d) Only B and C

e) Only C and D

24) The Union Cabinet in September approved

amendments (A) to the National Institute of

Design (NID) Act of 2014 for setting up of (B) /

four new institutes with Amaravathi, Bhopal,

Jorhat and Kurukshetra (C) /as the proposal is a

calibrated move (D)/ to produced highly skilled

manpower in design. (E)

a) Only A and C

b) Only D

c) Only B and E

d) Only B and C

e) Only C and E

25) The rates were reduced by a minimum Rs 2.50

per liter (A) / across the country on October 5,(B)

/when the government cuts excise duty on (C) /

petrol and diesel by Rs 1.50 a liter and asked oil

(D) /PSUs to subsidize the fuels with another Re. 1

a liter(E)

a) Only A and C

b) Only D

c) Only C and E

d) Only B and C

e) Only C and D

26) In law, bona fides denotes the mental and

moral states of honesty, and conviction

(A)/regarding either the truth, of the falsity (B) /

of a proposition, or of a body to opinion;











7

(C)/likewise regarding either the rectitude (D)/ or

the depravity of a line of conduct.(E)

a) Only A and C

b) Only D

c) Only B and E

d) Only B and C

e) Only C and D

27) A robust mechanism that actually (A)/ helps

farmers to get the declared (B) / MSP for a crop is

being pursued (C) /from a price deficiency

payment scheme (D)/ and a private procurement

plan. (E)

a) Only A and C

b) Only D

c) Only B and E

d) Only B and C

e) Only B and D

28) West Texas Intermediate for November

delivery (A) /traded 11 cents lower at USD 69.64 a

barrel on (B) /the New York Mercantile Exchange,

while Brent ( C) /for December settlement was at

USD 79.89 the barrel on the (D) /London-based

ICE Futures Europe exchange. (E)

a) Only A and C

b) Only D

c) Only B and E

d) Only B and C

e) Only C and D

29) The Central Board of Indirect Taxes and

Customs (CBIC) (A)/, under the Finance Ministry,

said (B) / trade and industry had expressed

apprehension (C) / relating to October 20 due date

for (D) / claiming ITC before GST for July 2017-

March 2018. (E)

a) Only A and E

b) Only D

c) Only E

d) Only B and C

e) Only C and D

30) In United States courts in-camera review

describes (A) /a process where a judge privately

look at (B) / confidential, sensitive, or private

information (C) / to determine what, if any,

information (D) /may be use by a party or made

public. (E)

a) Only A and C

b) Only B

c) Only D

d) Only B and C

e) Only C and D

Reasoning Ability

Directions (31-35): Study the following

information carefully and answer the questions

given below.

Twelve friends are sitting in parallel rows containing

six persons each, in such a way that there is an equal

distance between the adjacent persons. In row 1- A,

B, C, D, E, and F are seated and all of them are

facing South. In row 2 - P, Q, R, S, T, and U are

seated and all of them are facing North.

T sits third from the extreme end. C sits third to the

left of D.The one who faces A sits second to the right

of Q. R sits third to the left of U, who is not an

immediate neighbour of S. F is not an immediate

neighbour of C. Only two persons sit between A and

B.Neither C nor D sits at extreme end. B sits neither

at extreme ends nor faces Q.

31) Who among the following persons sit at

extreme left end?

a) S, F

b) P, A

c) S, A

d) P, F

e) None of these

32) Who among the following person faces the one

who sits immediate left of F?

a) P

b) Q

c) R

d) S

e) None of these











8

33) Who among the following persons are the

immediate neighbours of B?

a) D,E

b) C, D

c) A, F

d) F, D

e) None of these

34) Which of the following statements is / are

true?

i) Two persons sit F and B

ii) P sits third to the right of T

iii) F is an immediate neighbour of B

a) only I

b) Only II

c) only I and II

d) Only I and III

e) All I, II and III

35) If S is related to B, E is related to R in the

same way who among the following a is related to?

a) P

b) Q

c) R

d) S

e) None of these



given below.

P, Q, R, S, T, U, and V were born on different years,

viz. 1995, 1992, 1979, 1989, 1984, 1987, and 1981,

but not necessarily in the same order. Their ages are

calculated based on 2015 on the same month and

same date.

U is the youngest person in the group. R‟s age is the

prime number. More than three persons are born

between R and Q. S‟s age is not 26. Only two persons

are born between P and U. T‟s age is not an even

number.

36) Who among the following Person is the

Eldest?

a) S

b) T

c) P

d) Q

e) None of these

37) How many persons are younger than P?

a) None

b) One

c) Two

d) Three

e) None of these

38) What is the age of S?

a) 26

b) 28

c) 31

d) 34

e) None of these

39) Which of the following year V was born?

a) 1984

b) 1989

c) 1992

d) 1979

e) None of these

40) If U is related to 26, V is related to 31, in the

same way T is related to?

a) 36

b) 34

c) 31

d) 26

e) None of these



given below.

S # T means S is the brother of T

S $T means S is the Sister of T

S @ T means S is the Father of T

S % T means S is the Mother of T

S * T means S is the Wife of T

41) In A * B @ C # D % E, How is B related to E?

a) Father

b) Mother

c) Grandfather

d) Grandmother

e) None of these

42) In P @ Q $ R * S @ T, How is Q related to S?











9

a) Brother

b) Sister

c) Brother in law

d) Sister in law

e) None of these



given below.

Dhinesh started his journey from point A and walked

12km towards East to reach point B. Then he turned

to his right and walked 4km to reach point C. Then he

turned to his left and walked 10km to reach point D.

Again he turned to his left and walked 7km to reach

point E.

43) What is the direction of point E with respect to

point C?

a) Northeast

b) Southwest

c) North

d) South

e) None of these

44) What is the shortest distance between B and

D?

a) 10

b) 11

c) √116

d) √125

e) None of these

45) If it is possible to make it only one meaningful

word from the Second, fifth, Seventh and ninth letter

of the word SPECTACULAR, then the last letter of

the word is your answer. If no such word can be

formed Z is your answer and if more than one word

can be formed then Y is your answer.

a) Z

b) Y

c) L

d) T

e) P



given below.

Ten persons are live in ten floor building such that

the bottom most floor is numbered one and the floor

above one is numbered two and so on until the

topmost floor is numbered as ten.

M lives third position from the top. Only four persons

live between K and H. I lives an adjacent to O. K

lives just below of P but not on the bottom most

floor. Only one person lives between M and O. More

than three persons live between I and L. J does not

live an odd number floor. Only three persons lives

between O and P.

46) How many persons live between J and O?

a) None

b) One

c) Two

d) Three

e) None of these

47) Who among the following person lives on the

topmost floor?

a) N

b) K

c) P

d) J

e) None of these

48) “O” lives on which of the following floor?

a) First

b) Second

c) Third

d) Sixth

e) None of these

49) Who among the following are lives adjacent to

K?

a) I,M

b) O,P

c) P,M

d) I,O

e) None of these

50) If J is related to H, O is related to M, in the

same way I is related to?

a) K

b) M

c) G











10

d) H

e) None of these



given below:

A word and number arrangement machine when

given an input line of words and numbers rearranges

them following a particular rule. The following is an

illustration of input and rearrangement.

Input: Rarely prospects 46 22 secular political 23 29

engaged 17 allow 34

Step I: Engaged rarely prospects 46 22 secular

political 23 29 allow 34 17

Step II: Engaged political rarely prospects 46 secular

23 29 allow 34 17 22

Step III: Engaged political secular rarely prospects 46

29 allow 34 17 22 23

Step IV: Engaged political secular prospects rarely 46

allow 34 17 22 23 29

Step V: Engaged political secular prospects allow

rarely 46 17 22 23 29 34

Step VI:Engaged political secular prospects allow

rarely 17 22 23 29 34 46

Step VI is the last step of the above arrangement.

As per rules followed in the given steps, find

appropriate step for given Input.

Input:72 Forego 51 shy thwart 43 48 belief aftermath

65 56 later

51) Which of the following element is fourth to the

left of third from the right end in step IV?

a) Thwart

b) 72

c) Shy

d) 65

e) None of these

52) How many elements are there between

„Forego‟ and „48‟ in step II?

a) Five

b) Four

c) Two

d) Three

e) More than Five

53) Which of the following element is third to the

left of 72 in step V?

a) 65

b) Forego

c) 43

d) Later

e) None of these

54) Which of the following will be step IV?

a) Belief aftermath Forego later 72 thwart shy 65 43

48 51 56

b) Belief aftermath 72 shy thwart 65 43 Forego later

48 51 56

c) Belief aftermath 43 48 Forego later 72 shy thwart

65 51 56

d) Belief aftermath Forego later 72 shy thwart 65 43

48 51 56

e) None of these

55) Which of the following element is third to the

right of 56 in step III?

a) 48

b) Later

c) 72

d) Shy

e) More than three



given below. (All are the three digits number)

56) If all the digits in each of the numbers are

arranged in descending order within the number,

which of the following will be the lowest number

in the new arrangement of numbers?

a) 849

b) 796

c) 635

d) 457

e) None of the above

57) If in each number the first and the second

digits are interchanged then which will be the

highest number?

a) 849











11

b) 528

c) 635

d) 796


58) What is the difference between the second

highest and the second lowest?

a) 268

b) 278

c) 288

d) 298


59) How many numbers are exactly divided by 3?

a) None

b) 1

c) 2

d) 3


60) The position of how many alphabets will remain

unchanged from its position if each of the alphabets

in the word “REVERBERATION” is arranged in

alphabetical order from left to right?

a) None

b) One

c) Two

d) Three

e) None of these



given below.

Certain numbers of persons are sitting in a circular

table facing outside. Only few people names are

known.O sits opposite to K.N sits fourth to the left of

K.Only two persons sit between J and K.Only one

person sits between N and P.More than one person

sits between K and P.Numbers of persons sit between

J and P is the same as the numbers of persons sits

between K and O. I is an immediate neighbor of

O.Only three persons sit between I and L.M sits

exactly between I and L.M is not an immediate

neighbour of O.Not More than four persons sit

between M and L.

61) How many seats between K and M (counted

from the right of J)?

a) 4

b) 5

c) 6

d) 7

e) None of these

62) What is the position of P with respect to I?

a) Second to the right

b) Third to the left

c) Second to the left

d) Fourth to the right

e) None of these

63) Which one of the following statements is

correct?

a) P sits second to the right of O

b) Only one person sits between L and P.

c) L sits an immediate left of J

d) J sits an immediate left of L

e) None of these

64) What is the total number of seats in the circle?

a) 15

b) 16

c) 14

d) 18

e) 20

65) How many persons sit between M and

N?(counted from the left of N)

a) None

b) One

c) Two

d) Three

e) More than three

Quantitative Aptitude

Directions (Q. 66 - 70): Find the wrong term in the

following number series?

66) 16830, 1530, 10710, 2140, 6426, 3213

a) 1530

b) 10710

c) 6426











12

d) 3213

e) 2140

67) 35560, 17781, 5929, 1487.5, 304.5

a) 17781

b) 1487.5

c) 5929

d) 304.5

e) 35560

68) 1142, 1170, 1235, 1360, 1578, 1922

a) 1360

b) 1170

c) 1235

d) 1578

e) 1922

69) 35, 147, 262, 385, 537, 769

a) 537

b) 385

c) 769

d) 147

e) 262

70) 81, 1000, 121, 1727, 169, 2744

a) 81

b) 121

c) 1727

d) 169

e) 2744

Directions (71-75): Study the following information to give the answer of the following questions.

The line graph shows the profit earned by a

company over the year

71) What is the profit percent of the company in

year 2002, if the income of the company was Rs.

160 lakhs?

a) 80 %

b) 60 %

c) 100 %

d) 40 %

e) None of these

72) What is the approximate percent increase in

the profit of the company in the year 2004 while

comparing with the previous year?

a) 56 %

b) 52 %

c) 59 %

d) 67 %

e) 44 %











13

73) What is the approximate average (in lakhs)

profit made by the company over the year?

a) 45

b) 51

c) 46

d) 57

e) None of these

74) What is the ratio between the profit earned by

company in 2005 and 2003?

a) 3 : 2

b) 5 : 3

c) 2 : 3

d) 3 : 5

e) None of these

75) The expenditure of the company in 2006 was

40 lakhs. What is the ratio of income to the

expenditure of the company in that year?

a) 8 : 13

b) 19 : 8

c) 5 : 7

d) 13 : 9

e) None of these

76) A, B and C invested capitals in the ratio 6 : 4 :

9. At the end of year they received the profits in

the ratio 4 : 2 : 3. Find the ratio of time for which

they contribute the capitals?

a) 4 : 2 : 3

b) 4 : 3 : 2

c) 5 : 2 : 3

d) 4 : 7 : 3

e) None of these

77) A man sold an article at loss of 15%. If it was

sold at Rs. 102 more, there would have been a gain

of 2 %. Find the cost price of the article?

a) Rs. 650

b) Rs. 700

c) Rs. 600

d) Rs. 800

e) None of these

78) Divide Rs. 960 among A, B and C such that A

gets 2/3 of what B gets and B gets 1/5 of what C

gets. Find the share of B?

a) Rs. 144

b) Rs. 196

c) Rs. 248

d) Rs. 112

e) None of these

79) A merchant purchase some banana. He

purchased 4 bananas for Rs 5. He sold 5 banana

for Rs 8. Find the profit percent in the whole

transaction.

a) 30

b) 26

c) 32

d) 28

e) None of these

80) A man spends 40 percent of his income. His

income increased by 25 percent and his

expenditure also increased by 16 percent. Find the

percentage increase in his saving?

a) 26

b) 19

c) 21

d) 31

e) None of these

81) Two trains 160 and 120 m long, while going in

the same direction the faster train takes one

minute and 10 second to pass the other

completely. If they are moving in opposite

direction, they pass each other completely in 7

second. Find the speed of the trains?

a) 24 m/s and 18 m/s

b) 22 m/s and 18 m/s

c) 20 m/s and 18 m/s

d) 22 m/s and 26 m/s

e) None of these

82) Sudhir can row a 42 km distance downstream

in 3 hours and return the same distance in 7

hours. If the stream flows at the rate of 4 km/hr.

Find the speed of sudhir in still water?

a) 4 km/hr

b) 10 km/hr

c) 6 km/hr

d) 8 km/hr











14

e) None of these

83) The income of Sachin and Rahul is in the ratio

11 : 6 and their expenditure is in the ratio of 5 : 2.

If each saves Rs. 2000, then find their incomes?

a) Rs. 8250 and Rs. 4500

b) Rs. 8150 and Rs. 3750

c) Rs. 8300 and Rs. 3500

d) Rs. 8200 and Rs. 3950

e) None of these

84) How many different ways can the letter of the

word AEROPLANE be arranged so that all the

Consonants should not be together?

a) 87120

b) 86520

c) 52840

d) 86140

e) None of these

85) A woman get Rs 800 at the end of first year

and Rs 856 at the end of second year on a certain

amount of deposited at compound interest. Find

the rate of interest?

a) 6

b) 5

c) 7

d) 8

e) 11

Directions (Q. 86 - 90) Find out the approximate

value of the following questions.

86) 39.925% of 4335 + 59.784 % of 510 = ? + 432

a) 388

b) 191

c) 357

d) 219

e) 421

87) 59.88 * 14.56 + 517 + 12.812 * 17 = ?

a) 1638

b) 1428

c) 1952

d) 1548

e) 1708

88) 43126.92 ÷ 21953.55 + 522.834 + 12% of 1600

= ?

a) 527

b) 817

c) 747

d) 717

e) 857

89) (814.85 – 79.21 – (9.01)2 ÷ 3.13) % of 1198.98 =

? – 13.94

a) 8522

b) 8400

c) 8152

d) 2142

e) 7850

90) 22.22% of 54 + 62.50% of 783.96 + 120.88 *

11.02 = ?

a) 1750

b) 923

c) 1837

d) 1700

e) 2200

91) 2?

* √226 - 930.22 = 246.88/7.99 + 930.05

a) 4

b) 9

c) 7

d) 10

e) 0

92) ? % of (139.89 * 8.01 – 679.96) = 329.92

a) 66

b) 75

c) 35

d) 25

e) None of these

93) 26.98 * 5.22 * (144.92 / 29.21) – (11.91 * 4.04) +

126.83 – 28.84 = ?

a) 725

b) 800

c) 765

d) 705

e) 783

94) 36.81 – ? = 1626.11 + 47.25 – 26.93 * 32.01 -

46.79 * 4.12

a) 584

b) - 516











15

c) 226

d) -584

e) 336

95) 25.12% of 974.89 + 34.99% of 674.95 = ? –

869.09

a) 1189

b) 1349

c) 1250

d) 1330

e) 1198

Directions (Q. 96 - 100): In each of these questions

two equations (I) and (II) are given. You have to

solve both the equations and give answer as,

a) If x > y

b) If x ≥ y

c) If x < y

d) If x ≤ y

e) If x = y or no relation can be established between x

and y

96)

I) X2 – 15x + 56 = 0

II) 2y2– 17y + 36 = 0

97)

I) X2 – 169 = 0

II) Y - √169 = 0

98)

I) 2x2 – 19x + 44 = 0

II) 3y2 + 20y + 25 = 0

99)

I) 2x2 -21x + 55 = 0

II) 6y2 –y – 7 = 0

100)

I) 8x2 – 49x + 45 = 0

II) 7y2 – 23y + 18 = 0

Answers:

1) Answer: c)

It is mentioned in the last para : As per the weekly

time frame chart, Nifty has formed a negative candle

with a long upper shadow, which indicates a sharp

negative reversal from the recent highs. The weekly

RSI is also sending out negative signals,” said

NagarajShetti, Technical Research Analyst at HDFC

Securities.

2) Answer: b)

It is clearly mentioned in the 4th para: On Friday,

Nifty futures closed in the negative at 10,314 with a

loss of 1.24 per cent,” he said. F&O rollovers may

increase volatility in the market.

3) Answer: c)

It is mentioned in para 7- While no change in

monetary policy is expected as of now, the ECB will

have to calculate the risk that BREXIT poses to euro-

zone economy

4) Answer: d)

It is clearly mentioned in para 5- Crude oil prices rose

in international markets on Friday.

Brent crude futures rose 49 cents to settle at $79.78 a

barrel amid a surge in demand in China.

5) Answer: b)

It is clearly mentioned in the para 3: Going by

analyst observations, here is a list of factors that will

influence market movement next week. A perceived

liquidity crisis in the non-banking financial

companies (NBFCs) has made investors wary despite

a slew of measures from the government and RBI to

address the issue.

6) Answer: b)

It is clearly mentioned in para 4:

The rupee settled 29 paise higher at 73.32 against the

dollar on Friday, amid selling of the US currency by

exporters and foreign fund inflows. The domestic unit

has been on a bumpy track of late owing to unstable

crude oil prices, a stronger dollar, capital outflow and

rising bond yields in the US. The rupee will remain a

key factor to watch in the coming days.

7) Answer: b)

The meaning of dominate is to rule or overpower.

8) Answer: c)

The meaning of volatility is unpredictability /

instability.

9) Answer: a)

The meaning of „Bumpy‟ is to be irregular / rough /

uneven











16

10) Answer: d)

The meaning of appetite is - any of the instinctive

desires necessary to keep up organic

11) Answer: c)

Meaning of “punching” is blowing / hitting /

knocking and it is suitable for i blanks and the

meaning of “hitter” is the person who strikes /

thumps / beats so it is appropriate for ii blank

12) Answer: b)

The meaning of “unhealthy” is “harmful / detrimental

/ injurious and it is suitable for i blanks and the

meaning of “polluted” is “dirty / contaminated /

infected so it is appropriate for ii blank

13) Answer: a)

The meaning of “concern” is anxiety / alarm /

apprehension / and it is suitable for i blanks and the

meaning of “reconciling” is “reunion /merging /

unification so it is appropriate for ii blank

14) Answer: d)

The meaning of “tax payers” is persons who pay tax

and it is suitable for i blanks and the meaning of

“availing” is “aiming /benefiting / taking advantage

so it is appropriate for ii blank

15) Answer: b)

The meaning of “provider's” is persons who

contribute / give / supply and it is suitable for i blank

and the meaning of “mandate” is “command /concern

/ authorization so it is appropriate for ii blank

16) Answer: d)

D. When students enroll into an institution in another

country, they are confronted by a new culture, a new

educational system, and different learning and

teaching styles, while their learning styles have been

those imbibed by them in their schooling and early

college days.

B. They need to adapt to a very different teaching,

collegial learning and administrative styles and in a

different culture.

A. For example, while in one culture, students may

not be expected to criticise their teachers, or openly

differ with their fellow students, in another culture,

this may not only be the norm, but even expected

(Hofstede, 1986).

C. This transition could be a difficult one for the

migrant students as well as the receiving institutions

and is likely to influence the performance of students,

teaching faculty, and administrators in the host

country.

17) Answer: a)

E. Most recently the term persistent organic

pollutant(POP) has come to describe a group of

chemicals such as PBDEs and PFCs among others.

B. Though their effects remain somewhat less well

understood owing to a lack of experimental data, they

have been detected in various ecological habitats far

removed from industrial activity such as the Arctic,

demonstrating diffusion and bio accumulation after

only a relatively brief period of widespread use.

A. A much more recently discovered problem is

the Great Pacific Garbage Patch, a huge

concentration of plastics, chemical sludge and

other debris which has been collected into a large

area of the Pacific Ocean by the North Pacific Gyre.

C. This is a less well known pollution problem than

the others, but nonetheless has multiple and serious

consequences such as increasing wildlife mortality,

the spread of invasive species and human ingestion of

toxic chemicals

18) Answer: b)

B. Waiting in long queues to buy tickets at railway

stations will now be a thing of the past as the

railways' UTS mobile app for buying unreserved

tickets online will be available nationwide from

November 1, a senior official said Tuesday.

E. While the scheme was started four years ago, it

failed to catch on among passengers except in

Mumbai, where it was first launched because a large

number of people travel in locals.

A. As of now railway has already implemented the

scheme in 15 of its zones with the Northeast Frontier

Railway and West Central Railway being the

remaining two zones.











17

D. The scheme is also open for those who want to

buy tickets for travelling long distance.

19. Answer: b)

D. GMR Hyderabad International Airport Limited

(GHIAL) has announced that all international flights

will operate from the new terminal with effect from

10:30 am on October 23.

C. The terminal is located adjacent to the Haj

Terminal and can be accessed from both Shamshabad

and Sri sailam sides of the airport's main approach

road via Rotary 1 (Cargo rotary).

A. A dedicated free shuttle service has been arranged

between the existing terminal and the IIDT and this

shuttle service will be available at the Arrivals ramp.

It takes close to 05 minutes to travel from the existing

terminal to the new terminal.

B. Passengers of Air India International flights AI

127, AI 952, AI 978, AI 988, AI 966 & AI 051 and

travelling to domestic destinations are advised to

report at the new Terminal as per their scheduled

departure times.

20) Answer: b)

C. Mr. Trump spent a dizzying spring and summer

announcing punitive tariffs, expanding their scope

and amping up their severity.

D. There are now tariffs of between 10% and 25% on

$250 bn of imports.

B. Mr. Trump has growled his willingness to go up to

25% on all of those goods and start in on the

remaining $267 bn if he does not get his way.

A. When China punched back, announcing tariffs on

up to $60 bn of American imports, it included a 25%

tariff on soya beans to hurt farm states that had voted

for Mr Trump, such as Iowa.

21) Answer: b)

Error in part A: replace “reserve” with “reserves” as

the subject (The Company) is singular.

Error in part C: replace “to” with “about” as the

correct preposition is “about” which gives correct

meaning of the sentence.

22) Answer: c)

Error in part B: replace “is” with “are” as the subject

(chemicals) is plural.

Error in part E: replace “up” with “into” as the

correct preposition is “into” which gives correct

meaning

23) Answer: b)

Error in part D: replace “to” with “on” as to denote

days on should be used

24) Answer: e)

Error in part C: replace “with” with “in” for correct

meaning

Error in part E: replace “produced” with “produce”

for correct infinitive is „to produce”.

25) Answer: c)

Error in part C: replace “cuts” with “cut” as the

sentence is in the past tense.

Error in part E: replace “with” with “by” as the

correct preposition is “by”

26) Answer: d)

Error in part B: replace “of” with “or” as the

conjunction is „either … or‟ „

Error in part C: replace “to” with “of” for correct

meaning. (First of)

27) Answer: e)

Error in part B: remove „to‟ as the correct usage is

„helps… get‟

Error in part D: replace “from” with “through” as the

correct meaningful preposition is “through”

28) Answer: b)

Error in part D: replace “the” with “a” which is

correct usage. (First the)

29) Answer: c)

Error in part E: replace “before” with “under” as ITC

under GST is correct

30) Answer: b)

Error in part B: replace “look” with “looks ” as the

subject „a judge‟ –third person singular –in the

present tense

Directions (31-35):











18

T sits third from the extreme end.

C sits third to the left of D.

Neither C nor D sits at extreme end.

The one who faces A sits second to the right

of Q.

Only two persons sit between A and B.

B sits neither at extreme ends nor faces Q.

R sits third to the left of U, who is not an

immediate neighbour of S. F is not an

immediate neighbour of C. So the final

arrangement is

31) Answer: c)

32) Answer: c)

33) Answer: a)

34) Answer: b)

35) Answer: b)











19

Directions (36-40):

U is the youngest person in the group. R‟s age is the prime number.

Only two persons sit between P and U. More than three persons are born between R and Q. From this

statement we cannot fix the position of Q in case 2, So this case is eliminated.











20

S‟s age is not 26.

T‟s age is not an even number. So the final arrangement is

36) Answer: d)

37) Answer: d)

38) Answer: d)

39) Answer: b)

40) Answer: a)

Directions (41-42)

41) Answer: c)











21

42) Answer: d)

Directions (43-44):

43) Answer: b)

44. Answer: c)

45) P, T, C, L

We cannot able to form a single meaningful word

with using these four letters. So Z is the answer.

Directions (46-50)











22

M lives third position from the top. Only one

person lives between M and O.

Only three persons live between O and P. K

lives just below of P but not on the

bottommost floor.Case 1b is eliminated

because we cannot fix the position of K in this

case. And the remaining cases becomes,











23

Only four persons live between K and H.

From this statement the position of H is not

fixed in case 2, so this case is eliminated.

I lives adjacent to O. More than three persons

live between I and L. J does not live an odd

number floor. Only one Person live between

N and G.











24

46) Answer: d)

47) Answer: c)

48) Answer: d)

49) Answer: c)

50) Answer: a)

Directions (51-55):

Letters are arranged in alphabetical order of the last

letter of the given word from left end to right end and

numbers are arranged in the increasing order from

right end to left end. Each step it taking one word and

one number for execution.

Input:72 Forego 51 shy thwart 43 48 belief aftermath

65 56 later

Step I: belief 72 Forego 51 shy thwart 48 aftermath

65 56 later 43

Step II: belief aftermath 72 Forego 51 shy thwart 65

56 later 43 48

Step III: belief aftermath Forego 72 shy thwart 65 56

later 43 48 51

Step IV: belief aftermath Forego later 72 shy thwart

65 43 48 51 56

Step V: belief aftermath Forego later thwart 72 shy

43 48 51 56 65

Step VI:belief aftermath Forego later thwart shy 43

48 51 56 65 72

Step VI is the last step of the above arrangement.

51) Answer: c)

52) Answer: e)

53) Answer: b)

54) Answer: d)

55) Answer: a)

Directions (56-59):

56) Answer: c)

849 528 796 457 635

984 852 976 754 653

57) Answer: d)

849 528 796 457 635

489258 976547365

58) Answer: a)

849 528 796 457 635

796 – 528 = 268

59) Answer: c)

849 528 796 457 635

60) Answer: d)











25

Directions (61-65)

O sits opposite to K.

N sits fourth to the left of K.

Only one person sits between N and P.

More than one person sits between K and P.

Only two persons sit between J and K.











26

Numbers of persons sit between J and P (when counted from left of J) is the same as the numbers of

persons sits between K and O.

O sits opposite to K. From this statement number of person sits between O and K are equal on both sides.

So in case 2a there are two persons sit between J and P when counted from left of J. If we place two person

between K and O from left of K, then the condition is not satisfied, So case 2a is eliminated.

Now the case 2b becomes,

I is an immediate neighbour of O.

Only three persons sit between I and L.

M sits exactly between I and L.

M is not an immediate neighbour of O.

Not more than four persons sit between M and L. We have two possible cases.











27

In case 2b-ii, M is not an immediate neighbour of O,

This case is not satisfied the above condition, so this case is eliminated.

And Case 2b-i is the final arrangement

61) Answer: b)

62) Answer: d)

63) Answer: d)

64) Answer: d)

65) Answer: d)

Directions (1-5):

66) Answer: e)

The correct series is,

16830, 1530, 10710, 2142, 6426, 3213

The pattern is, ÷ 11, *7, † 5, *3, † 2, (Prime no‟s)

The wrong term is, 2140

67) Answer: c)


35560, 17781, 5930, 1487.5, 304.5

The pattern is, ÷ 2 +1, ÷ 3 +3, ÷ 4 +5, ÷ 5 +7,


68) Answer: a)


1142, 1170, 1235, 1361, 1578, 1922

The difference is, 33 +1, 4

3 +1, 5

3 +1, 6

3 +1, 7

3 +1


69) Answer: b)


35, 147, 262, 386, 537, 769

112 115 124 151 232

3 9 27 81

The difference of difference is, *3


70) Answer: c)


81, 1000, 121, 1728, 169, 2744

The pattern is, 92, 10

3, 11

2, 12

3, 13

2, 14

3,


Directions (6-10):

71) Answer: b)

Income = Expenditure + Profit

Profit percent of the company in year 2002

= > (60 * 100) / 100 = 60 %

72) Answer: a)

Increase % = (25 * 100) / 45 = 55.55 = 56 %

73) Answer: b)

Average = (45 + 60 + 45 + 70 + 30 + 55) / 6

= 50.833











28

74) Answer: c)

Required ratio = 30 : 45 = 2 : 3

75) Answer: b)

Income = 40 + 55 = 95

Required ratio = 95 : 40 = 19 : 8

76) Answer: b)

TA : TB : TC = (4/6) : (2/4) : (3/9)

TA : TB : TC = 4 : 3 : 2

77) Answer: c)

Let the CP of the article be 100,

S.P = 85

To gain profit of 2 percent S.P = 187

According to the question,

(102/17) * 100 = Rs. 600

78) Answer: a)

Let B get the amount = x

A = 2x/3

C = 5x


(2x/3) + x + 5x = 960

X = 144

Thus the amount of B = Rs. 144

79) Answer: d)

Cost of one banana = 5/4

Selling price of one banana = 8/5

Profit % = ((8/5 – 5/4) * 100)/ (5/4) = 28 %

80) Answer: d)

Let the income of the man is 1000

His expenditure =400

Thus his saving

= > 1000 – 400 = 600

His increased income= 1250

Expenditure= 464

New saving = 1250 – 464 = 786

Percentage increase in saving

= > (186/600) * 100 = 31 %

81) Answer: b)

Let the speed of train be x and y m/s


Difference between the speeds of the train

= > 280/70 = 4 m/s = (x – y)

Sum of the speed of both the train

= > 280/7 = 40 m/s = (x + y)

Thus

X = 22 m/s

Y = 18 m/s

82) Answer: b)

Let the speed of sudhir in still water is x km/h and

speed of stream is y km/h


42/(x + 4) = 3------- (I)

42/(x - 4) = 7------- (II)


42/(x + 4) + 42/(x – 4) = 10

42x/(x2 – 16) = 5

42x = 5x2 – 80

5x2 – 42x – 80 = 0

By solving the equation, we get,

X = 10

Speed of still water = 10 km/hr

83) Answer: a)

Let the income of Sachin and Rahul is 11x and 6x

respectively,

Income – Savings = Expenditure


(11x – 2000)/(6x – 2000) = 5/2

22x – 4000 = 30x – 10000

8x = 6000

X = 750

Thus, the income of Sachin and Rahul is Rs. 8250

and Rs. 4500

84) Answer: a)

Number of ways so that all consonant should not be

together

(9!/2!*2!) – (5!*5!)/(2!* 2!)

= 90720 – 3600

= 87120

85) Answer: c)

Interest of 800

= > (856 - 800) = 56

Rate or interest

= > (56/800) * 100 = 7 %

Directions (86-90):











29

86) Answer: b)

39.925% of4335 + 59.784% of 510 = ? + 432

1734 + 306 – 1849 = ?

191 = ?

87) Answer: a)

59.88 * 14.56 + 517 + 12.812 * 17 = ?

900 + 517 + 221 = ?

1638 = ?

88) Answer: d)

43126.92/21953.55 + 522.834 + 12% of 1600 = ?

2 + 523 + 192 = ?

717 = ?

89) Answer: a)

(814.85 – 79.21 – (9.01)2/3.13)% of 1198.98 = ? –

13.94

(736 – 81/ 3)% of 1200 = ? – 14

709% of 1200 + 14 = ?

8508 + 14 = ?

8522 = ?

90) Answer: c)

22.22% of 54 + 62.50% of 783.96 + 120.88 * 11.02 =

?

12 + 494 + 1331 =?

1837 = ?

91) Answer: c)

2? * √226 - 930.22 = 246.88/7.99 + 930.05

2? * 15 – 930 = 31 + 930

1891/15 = 2?

126 = 2?

? = 7

92) Answer: b)

?% of (139.89 * 8.01 – 679.96) = 329.92

?% of 440 = 330

? = 75

93) Answer: a)

26.98 * 5.22 * (144.92 / 29.21) – (11.91 * 4.04) +

126.83 – 28.84 = ?

27 * 5 * 5 – 48 + 127 – 29 = ?

675 + 127 – 48 – 29 = ?

725 = ?

94) Answer: d)

36.81 – ? = 1626.11 + 47.25 – 26.93 * 32.01 - 46.79

* 4.12

37 - ? = 1673 – 864 – 188

? = -584

95) Answer: b)

25.12% of 974.89 + 34.99% of 674.95 = ? – 869.09

244 + 236 = ? – 869

? = 1349

Directions (96-100):

96) Answer: a)

I) X2 – 15x + 56 = 0

X2 – 8x – 7x + 56 = 0

X(x - 8) – 7(x - 8) = 0

(x - 8) (x - 7) = 0

X = 8, 7

II) 2y2

– 17y + 36 = 0

2y2

– 8y – 9y + 36 = 0

2y(y - 4) – 9(y - 4) = 0

(2y -9)(y - 4) = 0

Y = 4, 9/2

97) Answer: d)

I) X2 – 169 = 0

X = 13, -13

II) Y - √169 = 0

Y = 13

98) Answer: a)

I) 2x2 – 19x + 44 = 0

2x2

– 8x – 11x + 44 = 0

2x(x - 4) – 11(x - 4) = 0

(2x – 11)(x - 4) = 0

X = 4, 11/2

II) 3y2 + 20y + 25 = 0

3y2 + 15y + 5y + 25 = 0

3y(y + 5) + 5(y + 5) = 0

(y + 5)(3y + 5) = 0

Y = -5, -5/3

99) Answer: a)

I) 2x2-21x + 55 = 0

2x2 – 10x – 11x + 55 = 0

2x(x - 5) – 11(x - 5) = 0

(x - 5) (2x - 11) = 0

X = 5, 11/2











30

II) 6y2 –y – 7 = 0

6y2 – 7y + 6y – 7 = 0

y(6y - 7) + 1(6y - 7) = 0

(y + 1)(6y -7) = 0

Y = -1, 7/6

100) Answer: e)

I) 8x2 – 49x + 45 = 0

8x2

- 40x – 9x + 45 = 0

8x (x - 5) – 9 (x - 5) = 0

(x - 5) (8x - 9) = 0

X = 5, 9/8

II) 7y2 – 23y + 18 = 0

7y2

– 14y – 9y + 18 = 0

7y (y - 2) – 9(y - 2) = 0

(y - 2)(7y - 9) = 0

Y = 2, 9/7








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