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(NBAA)

THE NATIONAL BOARD OF ACCOUNTANTS AND AUDITORS TANZANIA

EXAMINERS’ AND PERFORMANCE REPORT

85TH EXAMINATION SESSION – MAY 2017

NBAA, Telephones: (022) 2211890/9 Mhasibu House, Mobile: 0713 320423 Bibi Titi Mohamed Street, Fax: (022) 2151746 P.O. Box 5128, Email: [email protected] Dar es Salaam, Website: www.nbaa.go.tz Tanzania. 28TH JUNE 2017

TABLE OF CONTENTS

PAGE Foreword & Acknowledgement ……………………………………… (i) Executive Summary of 85th Examination session …………………… (vi) CHAPTER 1 Analysis of Candidates’ Performance in the 85th Examination Session 1 CHAPTER II Performance Evaluation Subject-Wise …………………..................... 4 • Accounting Technician Examination Level I ……….................. 4 • Accounting Technician Examination Level II …………………. 18 • Foundation Level ………………………………… 32 • Intermediate Level …………………….................. 49 • Final Level ……………………………………….. 78 CHAPTER III Examiners’ Recommendations to Tutors & Students ………………... 101 CHAPTER IV Institutional Performance Evaluation ………………………………... 109 CHAPTER V Accounting Manpower Created by the Board up to May 2017 126 CHAPTER VI The NBAA Special Awards Programme for Candidates with

Meritorious Examination Achievements ……………........................ 131

i

FOREWORD AND ACKNOWLEDGEMENT ________________

The current examination scheme has been tested for the sixth time in May 2017. The first time was in November 2014. Unlike the phased out examination scheme the current examination scheme is basically designed to test competencies rather than understanding of knowledge. To realise this goal there is a need to streamline the whole process from teaching of the students, setting of examination questions as well as marking of the examinations. Here it means that the trainers, learners, examiners as well as examination markers need to speak the same language. If there is any mismatch between these stakeholders the aim of competence based examination scheme cannot be realised. Lecturers are required to change their teaching orientation to match with competence approach. They are required to guide learners to acquire competencies rather than knowledge. Learners are supposed to change their learning styles from rote learning to active learning that will enable them to learn the required competencies. Those who are setting examination questions should also consider the fact that they are testing understanding of skills and competencies rather than understanding of information. How to orient all these stakeholders to have the same orientation has remained a challenge in implementing the competence based examination scheme. But as we move forward the situation is changing into better through trainings and acquisition of experiences.

The current examination scheme has eight subjects in the Accounting Technician Levels I and II as shown below:

Code Name Accounting Technician Level I T01 Book keeping and Accounts T02 Elements of Business Maths and Statistics T03 Introduction to Information and Communication Technology T.04

Business Communication Skills

Accounting Technician Level II T.05 Principles of Accounting and Auditing T.06 Elements of Cost Accounting and Procurement T.07 Elements of Commercial Knowledge and Taxation T.08 Accounting for Public Sector and Cooperatives

ii

The Professional Examination Scheme has three level structures as follows: (i) Foundation (Knowledge and Skills) Level, having five subjects, (ii) Intermediate (Skills and Analysis in Context )Level, having six subjects, and (iii) Final (Professional Analysis, Application and Evaluation) Level, having four subjects.

In total the Professional Examination Scheme has 15 subjects as shown hereunder:

Foundation (Knowledge and Skills Level) Exam Code

Subject Name

A1 Quantitative Techniques A2 Business and Management A3 Accounting A4 Business Information A5 Business Law

Intermediate (Skills and Analysis in Context Level) Exam Code

Subject Name

B1 Financial Management B2 Financial Accounting B3 Auditing Principles and Practice B4 Public Finance and Taxation I B5 Performance Management B6 Management, Governance and Ethics

Final (Professional Analysis, Application and Evaluation Level) Exam Code

Subject Name

C1 Corporate Reporting C2 Auditing and Assurance Services C3 Business and Corporate Finance C4 Public Finance and Taxation II

iii

ACCOUNTING MANPOWER Since the inception of the Accounting Technician examinations, the Board has been able to produce 14,013 Accounting Technicians. This category of Accounting Technicians covers 3,761 Accounting Technicians Certificate (ATEC) graduates, 2,971 Basic Book-keeping Certificate (BBC) graduates, 5,746 National Book-keeping Certificate (NABOCE) graduates and 1,537 National Accountancy Diploma (NAD) graduates. The Board has also been able to produce 8,007 CPA (T) graduates since it started conducting these examinations in May, 1975. In total, the Board has been able to produce 22,022 accounting personnel (manpower) of different levels and categories serving both in public and private sectors inside and outside Tanzania. EXAMINATION CENTRES During the 85th examination session, examinations were held in 18 examination centres located in Tanzania Mainland and Zanzibar. These centres accommodated 6,614 candidates sitting at different levels of the Board’s examinations. The examination centres were as shown here below: Dar Es Salaam Centres were all located at Mwalimu Nyerere Grounds (Sabasaba). These were:-

1. PTA Karume Hall A 2. PTA Karume Hall B 3. PTA Karume Hall C 4. PTA Sabasaba Hall 5. PTA Karume Annex Hall 6. PTA Marquee Hall I 7. PTA Marquee Hall II 8. PTA Marquee Hall III

Upcountry centres 1. Arusha – Institute of Accountancy Arusha (IAA) 2. Dodoma – College of Business Education (CBE) 3. Iringa – Iringa RVTSC (new centre from May 2017) 4. Kilimanjaro –Young Men Christian Association (YMCA) Moshi 5. Mbeya – Mkapa Conference Centre 6. Morogoro – CCT Women’s Training Centre 7. Mwanza –St. Dominic Pastoral Centre 8. Tabora – Tabora RVTSC 9. Tanga – St. Joseph’s Commercial School (SJCS) 10. Zanzibar - Elimu Mbadala - Rahaleo

iv

OBJECTIVES OF THE REPORT The Report is intended to avail to trainers and candidates, the examinations’ overall general performance, specific areas of weaknesses and suggestions for improvement. It is an important guide to candidates as well as trainers, setters, markers and moderators of the Board’s future examinations. Analysis of the examination performance is presented in Table 3 of this report while a detailed analysis indicating the performance of candidates registered by the recognized Tuition Providers is shown in Tables 10 to 11 of the report. Analysis of performance in each subject is presented in Tables 5.1 to 9.1.8. Comments and observations in the Examiners' and Performance Report are supported by relevant statistical analysis of the candidates' performance in each examination layer. The last chapter of the Report comprises a list of prizes offered by NBAA and other prize donor institutions. These prizes will be awarded to candidates who have excelled in their examinations during the graduation ceremony expected to be held on 30th September 2017.

v

ACKNOWLEDGEMENT On behalf of the Board and on my own behalf, I wish to convey my very sincere appreciation to all persons who willingly supported the Board in this demanding professional task. I am indeed particularly thankful to all Tuition Providers who devoted their energy and time to guide the candidates and preparing them for the examinations. I am also delighted to acknowledge the contribution of Board’s Examiners, Markers, Invigilators, and the Board’s Secretariat, the Education and Publications Committee and the Governing Board for their much appreciated co-operation during the whole process of the NBAA’s 85th examination session. Last but not least, I congratulate all examination candidates who studied hard and sat for the 85thexaminations of the Board. Once again, I would like to reiterate that the Examiners' Report is prepared to help trainers and the Board’s candidates to improve on their future performance by learning from previous experiences. I, therefore, call upon readers of this Report to come up with constructive suggestions on how to improve further the examination process and reports arising therein. Yours sincerely, CPA Pius A. Maneno EXECUTIVE DIRECTOR

vi

EXECUTIVE SUMMARY TO THE 85TH EXAMINATION SESSION – MAY 2017 1.0 PREAMBLE:

The Board conducts its examinations twice in a year during the months of May and November. This session is the 85th examination session in which the examinations were conducted from Tuesday 1st to Friday 5th May 2017. 7,135 candidates who applied for the examinations, out of whom 521 (7.3%) were absent, 6,614 sat for the examinations at different levels. The candidature distribution this session is as shown below:

EXAMINATION LEVELS

CANDIDATES

APPLIED

CANDIDATES ABSENT

% CANDIDATES SAT

%

TECHNICIAN LEVELS ATEC I:

108 5 4.6 103 95.4

ATEC II: 194 9 4.6 185 95.4

PROFESSIONAL LEVELS Foundation 607 50 8.2 557 91.8

Intermediate 3,813 336 8.8 3,477 91.2

Final 2,413 121 5.0 2,292 95.0 TOTALS 7,135 521 7.3 6,614 92.7

vii

2.0 TREND OF THE EXAMINATION CANDIDATURE

2.1 Candidature Exam Sitting Candidature enrolment this session has slightly increased by 115 candidates (1.8%) compared with the May 2016 examination session. There were 6,614 candidates who sat for the May 2017 examinations against 6,499 candidates who sat for the May 2016 examinations.

Table 1 and Chart 1 shows candidature trend (candidates who sat for the examinations) for the eight examination sessions: November 2013 to May 2017.

Table 1

EXAMINATION CANDIDATURE TREND FOR THE PRECEDING EIGHT EXAMINATION SESSIONS NOVEMBER 2013 TO MAY 2017

EXAMINATION

ATEC I

ATEC II

FOUNDATION INTERMEDIATE FINAL TOTAL

A B C D E F 78th Session November, 2013 111 162 59 125 168 83 2,556 1,487 4,751

79h Session May, 2014 83 161 68 85 174 90 2,109 1625 4,395

80th Session November, 2014 159 125 372 3,109 2,021 5,786

85thSession May, 2015 159 119 36537 3,163 2,011 5,817

82nd Session November, 2015 111 134 364 3,114 1,956 5,679

85thSession May, 2016 110 160 445 3,495 2,289 6,499

84th Session November 2016 84 158 405 3,522 2,113 6,282

85th Session May 2017 103 185 557 3,477 2,292 6,614

viii

Graph 1 GRAPHICAL PRESENTATION OF THE BOARD’S OVERALL EXAMINATION CANDIDATURE FOR THE PRECEDING EIGHT (8) EXAMINATION SESSIONS

(NOVEMBER 2013 TO MAY 2017)

0

1,000

2,000

3,000

4,000

5,000

6,000

7,000

NOV-13 MAY-14 NOV-14 MAY-15 NOV-15 MAY-16 NOV-16 MAY-17

4,7514,395

5,786 5,817 5,679

6,499 6,2826,614

No.

of C

andi

date

s

Examination Sessions

Column1

ix

2.2 Candidature Distribution – May 2017

Candidature distribution for the May 2017 examination session shows that majority of the candidates who sat for these examinations were in the Intermediate level examinations. The Chart below shows the candidature distribution

Chart 1

Candidature Distribution – May 2017

Candidature in Intermediate level is highest as most of the candidates who enrol at this level are those who have completed a three years’ bachelor degree programme or its equivalent in accounting and enjoy exemptions to sit for the Intermediate Level examinations. Currently, the Board has recognized 19 accountancy training institutions whose programmes enjoy such exemption. A tertiary institution which offers bachelor degree courses related to accountancy courses has to apply to NBAA for its graduands to be given exemption in the Board’s examinations. Furthermore, majority of the candidates at this level were those who sat for B5-Performance Management subject who were referred in P19 Management Accounting in the previous syllabus. Out of 3,477 candidates who sat for the Intermediate Level examinations 2,258 (64.9) sat for Performance Management subject.

ATEC I , 103, 1%

ATEC II , 185, 3%

FOUNDATION, 557, 8%

INTERMEDIATE, 3,477, 53%

FINAL, 2,292, 35%

ATEC I

ATEC II

FOUNDATION

INTERMEDIATE

FINAL

x

3.0 EXAMINATION PERFORMANCE

3.1 Pass rates for examination levels tested in May 2017

Table 2 (i) below shows pass rates in May 2017 examination session

EXAMINATION LEVEL NUMBER OF PASSES PERCENTAGE ATEC I Passed Part passed

32 47

31.1 45.6

ATEC II Passed Part passed

67 73

36.2 39.5

FOUNDATION Passed Part passed

206 251

37

45.1 INTERMEDIATE Passed Part passed

536 1437

15.4 41.3

FINAL Passed Part passed

389 791

17

34.5 TOTAL PASSES Passed Part passed

1,230 2,599

18.6 39.3

NOTE:

Among the candidates who passed Intermediate and Final Levels there were seventeen (17) candidates with foreign qualifications.

Table 2 (ii) below shows number of candidates with foreign CPA –equivalent qualification who sat and cleared the subjects with local contents

Subject Number of entries

A5 Business Law 00 B4 Public Finance and Taxation I 15 C4 Public Finance and Taxation II 17

These candidates are eligible for the award of letters of success and certificates to enable them register as members.

xi

3.2 Examination Performance by Gender: Table 3: Examination performance by gender in the five examination levels

Passes Partial Passes Failures Total

Male Female Total Male Female Total Male Female Total Male Female Total No. % No. % No. % No. % No. % No. % No. % No. % No. % No. % No. % No. %

ATEC Level I 26 76 8 24 34 100 19 59 13 41 32 100 25 57 19 43 44 100 70 64 40 35 103 100

ATEC Level

II 32 78 9 22 41 100 40 66 21 34 61 100 30 52 28 48 58 100 102 64 58 31.4 185 100

Foundation

Level 155 67 78 33 233 100 99 58 72 42 171 100 20 49 21 51 41 100 274 62 171 30 557 100

Intermediate

Level 223 61 143 39 366 100 708 62 427 38 1135 100 1257 63 737 37 1994 100 2188 63 1307 37.4 3495 100

Final Level 202 67 98 33 300 100 443 63 265 37 708 100 817 64 464 36 1281 100 1462 64 827 36.1 2292 100

TOTAL 638 66 336 34 974 100 1309 62 798 38 2107 100 2149 63 1269 37 3418 100 4096 63 2403 36.3 6614 100

1

CHAPTER I

ANALYSIS OF CANDIDATES’ PERFORMANCE IN THE

85TH EXAMINATION SESSION – MAY 2017 OVERALL CANDIDATES' PERFORMANCE During the 85th examination session, 7,135 candidates were registered for the Board’s examinations held in May, 2017, out of whom 521 (7.2%) candidates were absent from the examinations, 6,614 candidates sat for the examinations. Of the 6,614 candidates who sat for the examinations, 1,230 (18.6%) candidates passed while 2,599 (39.3%) candidates part passed and a total of 2,785 (42.1%) candidates failed the examinations. (See Table 4 on page 3). ACCOUNTING TECHNICIAN CERTIFICATE (ATEC) - LEVEL I The May 2017 examination session was the 6th session since the review of the examinations structure and syllabi of ATEC. 108 candidates registered themselves for the examination. 5 (4.6%) candidates were absent. 103 candidates sat for the examination, out of whom 32 (31.1%) passed hence becoming eligible for a STATEMENT OF SUCCESS at this level. 47 (45.6%) candidates are part passed while a total of 24 (23.3%) candidates failed the examination. (See Table 4 on page3). ACCOUNTING TECHNICIAN CERTIFICATE (ATEC) - LEVEL II This examination was conducted for the 6th time since the review of the examination structure and syllabi of ATEC II. Out of 194 candidates who registered for the examination, 09 (4.6%) candidates were absent leaving a total of 185 candidates who wrote the examination. 67 (36.2%) candidates passed and hence are recommended to be issued with CERTIFICATES OF COMPLETION of the Accounting Technician Certificate Examination. 73 (39.5%) candidates have part passed while a total of 45 (24.3%) candidates failed the examination. (See Table 4 on page3). FOUNDATION LEVEL The Foundation Level examinations consist of five subjects. These subjects were tested for the sixth time this session following the review of the examination structure and syllabi. In this examination, 607 candidates registered themselves for the examination out of whom 50 (8.2%) candidates were absent. Of the 557 candidates who wrote the examination, 206 (37%) candidates passed hence becoming eligible for a STATEMENT OF SUCCESS at this level. 251 (45.1%) candidates have part passed while a total of 100 (18.0%) candidates failed the examination. (See Table 4 on page3).

2

INTERMEDIATE LEVEL The Intermediate Level examinations consist of six subjects. As with the Foundation Level examinations, these subjects were tested for the sixth time this session following the review of the examination structure. In this examination, 3,813 candidates registered themselves out of whom 336 (8.8%) candidates were absent. Of the 3,477 candidates who wrote the examination, 536 (15.4%) candidates passed hence becoming eligible for a STATEMENT OF SUCCESS at this level. 1,437 (41.3%) candidates have part passed while a total of 1,504 (43.3%) candidates failed the examination. (See Table 4 on page3). FINAL LEVEL The Final Level examinations consist of four subjects. These examinations were tested for the sixth time following review of the examination structure. In this examination, 2,413 candidates registered themselves for Final Level examinations, out of whom 121 (5.0%) candidates were absent. Of the 2,292 candidates who wrote the examination, 389 (17.0%) candidates passed, hence becoming eligible for a STATEMENT OF SUCCESS at this Level. 791 (34.5%) candidates have part passed while a total of 1,112 (48.5%) candidates failed the examination. (See Table 4 on page3).

CANDIDATES QUALIFYING FOR THE PROFESSIONAL CERTIFICATE OF COMPLETION In this examination session, 65 candidates qualify for the certificate of completion of the ATEC programme, comprising 21 (32.3%) female candidates and 44 (67.7%) male candidates. The breakdown of the 65 candidates qualifying for the Accounting Technician Certificate:

• 01 (1.5%) have passed subjects that were remained in ATEC I • 58 (89.2%) have passed ATEC II • 06 (9.2%) have passed both ATEC II and remained subjects in ATEC I

On the other hand, 410 candidates qualify for the certificate of completion of the CPA programme, comprising 147 (35.9%) female candidates and 263 (64.1%) male candidates. The breakdown of the 410 candidates qualifying for the CPA (T):

• 59 (14.4%) passed both Intermediate and Final Level examinations • 78 (19.0%) have passed Intermediate Level who had already passed Final Level • 273 (66.6%) passed Final Level examinations this session

3

TABLE 4

GENERAL STATISTICAL ANALYSIS OF EXAMINATION RESULTS 85TH EXAMINATION SESSION – MAY 2017

EXAMINATION ATEC I ATEC II FOUNDATION INTERMEDIATE

FINAL TOTAL

NO. % NO. % NO % NO. % NO % NO. %

ENTRIES 108 100 194 100 607 100 3813 100 2413 100 7135 100

ABSENTEES 5 4.6 9 4.6 50 8.2 336 8.8 121 5.0 521 7.3

CANDIDATES WHO SAT

103 95.4 185 95.4 557 91.8 3477 91.2 2292 95.0 6614 92.6

PART PASSED

47 45.6 73 39.5 251 45.1 1437 41.3 789 34.4 2597 39.3

PASSED 32 31.1 67 36.2 206 36.9 536 15.4 391 17.1 1232 18.6

FAILED 24 23.3 45 24.3 100 18.0 1504 43.3 1112 48.5 2785 42.1

TOTAL 103 100 185 100 557 100 3477 100 2292 100 6614 100

4

CHAPTER II

PERFORMANCE EVALUATION SUBJECT-WISE INTRODUCTION This chapter provides a detailed analysis of performance of candidates in each subject at each level of the Board’s examinations. General evaluation and assessment of candidates’ performance at each level and specific assessment of candidates in each topic examined is analyzed. The Board hopes that this report will provide necessary guidance to trainers and students for the better results in the Board’s future examinations. The May 2017 examination is the sixth examination session under the revised examination scheme and syllabi. The scheme has a two tier system of five different levels: two at the Accounting Technician level and three at the Professional level. A total of 23 examination papers were attempted this session as detailed hereunder: (a) Accounting Technician Level I with four papers; (b) Accounting Technician Level II with four papers; (c) The Foundation Level with five papers; (d) The Intermediate Level with six papers; (e) The Final Level with four papers. ACCOUNTING TECHNICIAN LEVEL I GENERAL PERFORMANCE 103 candidates sat for the ATEC I examinations. The performance indicates that 32 (31.1%) candidates passed and therefore become eligible for the STATEMENT OF SUCCESS for ATEC I 47 (45.6%) candidates have passed some of the subjects in this level while 24 (23.3%) candidates failed the examinations. The general performance subject-wise is as shown in Table 5.1

TABLE 5.1 ATEC I SUBJECT-WISE PERFORMANCE ANALYSIS: MAY 2015 AND MAY 2016

Paper Code

Subject

Performance May 2016 May 2017

Entries Pass % Entries Pass %

T.01 Bookkeeping and Accounts 55 37 67.2 57 42 73.7

T.02 Elements of Business Maths and Statistics 80 31 38.8 90 44 48.9

T.03

Introduction to Information and Communication Technology 90 45 50.0 73 35 47.9

T.04 Business Communication Skills 61 30 49.2 70 49 70.0

5

GENERAL COMMENTS T.01 - BOOK-KEEPING AND ACCOUNTS I: PRINCIPAL LEARNING OUTCOME

Principal learning outcome of this paper is to enable candidates to apply knowledge of Book keeping and Accounts for recording, posting business transactions in the book of accounts and preparation of accounting statement in private and public sector accounts.

II: STRUCTURE OF THE PAPER

The paper comprised of four questions whereby candidates were required to answer all questions. Question one was an objective question which carried 40%.

III: TOPICS EXAMINED AND CANDIDATES’ PERFORMANCE QUESTION 1: VARIOUS TOPICS - MULTIPLE CHOICES Candidates were required to:

(a) Choose the best answer from the four given alternatives (b) State whether the given statements were true or false. (c) Match each phrase from LIST A with the phrase from LIST B

appropriately.

Candidates’ performance in this question was satisfactory. Out of 57 candidates who answered the question, 50 (87.7%) candidates passed while the remaining 07 (12.3%) candidates failed. Out of those who passed 42 (73.7%), 07 (12.3%) and 01 (1.7%) candidates scored pass, credit and distinction marks respectively.

There were no major weaknesses noted in this question.

QUESTION 2: A. PREPARATION OF TRIAL BALANCE B. BOOKS OF ORIGINAL ENTRY AND LEDGER C. PREPARATION OF CASH BOOKS AND PETTY CASH Candidates were required to:

(a) Draw up a trial balance showing the balances as at the given date. (b) Differentiate trade discount from cash discount. (c) Explain advantages of subsidiary books.

Candidates’ performance in this question was not satisfactory. Out of 57 candidates who answered the question only 17 (29.8%) candidates passed while the remaining 40 (70.2%) candidates failed. Out of those who passed 15 (26.3%), 01 (1.7%) and 01 (1.7%) candidates scored pass, credit and distinction marks respectively.

Most candidates failed to adhere to the requirements of the question.

6

QUESTION 3: RECORD AND POST OF ACCOUNTING TRANSACTIONS

Candidates were required to use the provided information to:

(a) Explain characteristics of journal. (b) Give advantages of journal. (c) Write – up a sales returns book of a given company and post them into

ledger.


Some candidates failed to write sales returns books with normal sales day book.

QUESTION 4: PREPARATION OF FINANCIAL STATEMENTS

Candidates were required to use the provided information to:-

(d) Prepare the statement of profit or loss for the given ended year. (e) Prepare the statement of financial position as at the given date.



7

IV: GENERAL OBSERVATIONS (a) Assessment of the paper

The panel of examiners observed that the questions were clear and fair. Also they commented that the questions were set within the prescribed syllabus and could be answered within the allocated time.

(b) Candidates’ overall performance

Candidates’ performance in this examination paper was satisfactory. Out of 57 candidates who answered the examination, 42 (73.7%) candidates passed while the remaining 15 (26.3%) candidates failed. Out of those who passed 35 (61.4%), 06 (10.5%) and 01 (1.8%) candidates scored pass, credit and distinction marks respectively.

The over-all candidates’ performance in the subject is as shown in table 5.1.1

TABLE 5.1.1 T01 – CANDIDATES’ PERFORMANCE ANALYSIS

Classification of Marks 0-49 50-69 70-79 80-100 TOTAL

No. of Candidates (Frequency)

15 35 06 01 57

Percentage

26.3 61.4 10.5 1.8 100

TABLE 5.1.2

T.01.COMPARISON OF PASS RATE WITH MAY 2016 EXAMINATIONS

May 2016 May 2017 % increase No. of candidates passed % No. of candidates

passed %

37 67.3 42 73.7 6.4

8

T.02 - ELEMENTS OF BUSINESS MATHEMATICS AND STATISTICS

I: PRINCIPAL LEARNING OUTCOME The principal learning outcome of this paper is to build basic skills in the collection, processing, presentation and interpretation of simple numerical and statistical knowledge and skills as a tool of learning and understanding related subjects at higher levels.



III: TOPICS EXAMINED AND CANDIDATES’ PERFORMANCE

Candidates were tested on the following topics: QUESTION 1: MULTIPLECHOICE – VARIOUS TOPICS Candidates were required to choose the correct answers from the given

alternatives.


No major weakness was noted.

QUESTION 2: A. ELEMENTARY MATHEMATICS B. EQUATIONS AND INEQUALITIES C. MATHEMATICS OF FINANCE

Candidates were required to:

(a) Calculate the value of investment at the end of the given years. (b) Calculate today’s worth if the given percent of the compounded

interest is assumed. (c) Solve for ‘x’ for the given inequalities. (d) Solve the given simultaneous equation using elimination method. Candidates’ performance in this question was satisfactory. Out of 90 candidates who answered the question, 46 (51.1%) candidates passed while the remaining 44 (48.9%) candidates failed. Out of those who passed 21 (23.3%), 10 (11.1%) and 15 (16.7%) candidates scored pass, credit and distinction marks respectively.

Majority of the candidates failed to calculate present value of investment

from future value. Also, they failed to solve equation of different bases by using logarithmic approach, 32x = 5x + 1.

9

QUESTION 3: A. ELEMENTARY MATHEMATICS B. EQUATIONS AND INEQUALITIES C. PERMUTATION AND CONTRIBUTION

Candidates were required to:- (a) Find the probability of forming the committee in the given manner. (b) Solve the equation in the standard form of a line through the given

points and slope. (c) Convert Tanzanian shillings to Kenyan shillings.

Candidates’ performance in this question was satisfactory. Out of 90 candidates who answered the question, 43 (47.8%) candidates passed while the remaining 47 (52.2%) candidates failed. Out of those who passed 41 (45.6%), 01 (1.1%) and 01 (1.1%) candidates scored pass, credit and distinction marks respectively

Majority of the candidates failed to apply permutation and combination in business situation. Also candidates failed to state the required equation in the standard form.

QUESTION 4: A. MEASURES OF CENTRAL TENDENCY B. BASIC PROBABILITY THEORY

C. INTRODUCTION TO STATISTICS AND DATA COLLECTION

D. MEASURES OF DISPERSION


(a) Calculate the median and standard deviation. (b) Distinguish between probability and non-probability sampling. (c) Find probability for the given pack of cards. (d) Describe in brief, data, variable, population, sample and qualitative

variable.

Candidates’ performance in this question was not satisfactory. Out of 90 candidates who answered the question only 17 (18.9%) candidates passed while the remaining 73 (81.1%) candidates failed. Out of those who passed 12 (13.3%) and 05 (5.6%) candidates scored pass and credit marks respectively. No candidate scored distinction marks in this question.

Most of the candidates failed to calculate standard deviation from a tabular

form data, distinguish between probability and non-probability sampling, find probability for the pack of cards and describing data, variable, population, sample and qualitative variable.

10

IV: GENERAL OBSERVATIONS

(a) Assessment of the paper

The panel of examiners in assessing the questions was of the opinion that the question paper was of good quality and standard for the intended level of candidates as it combines both application and knowledge type of questions. The question paper was fair in terms of marks awarded, time allocated, and length of questions.

Marks distribution was done evenly to each question.


Candidates’ performance in this examination paper was satisfactory. Out of 90 candidates who answered the examination, 44 (48.9%) candidates passed while the remaining 46 (51.1%) candidates failed. Out of those who passed 39 (43.3%), 03 (3.3%) and 02 (2.2%) candidates scored pass, credit and distinction marks respectively

The candidates’ over-all performance in the subject is as shown on table 5.1.3

TABLE 5.1.3

T.02 CANDIDATES’ PERFORMANCE ANALYSIS

Classification of Marks

0-49

50-69

70-79

80-100

TOTAL

No of Candidates (Frequency)

46 39 03 02 90

Percentage

51.1 43.3 3.3 2.2 100

TABLE 5.1.4

T.02. COMPARISON OF PASS RATE WITH MAY 2016 EXAMINATIONS May 2016 May 2017 % increase

No. of candidates passed % No. of candidates

passed

%

31 38.7 44 48.9 10.2

11

T.03 – INTRODUCTION TO INFORMATION AND COMMUNICATION TECHNOLOGY

I: PRINCIPAL LEARNING OUTCOME The principal learning outcome of the paper is to enable candidates apply knowledge and skills in information technology to solve problems in the business environment.



III: TOPICS EXAMINED AND CANDIDATES’ PERFORMANCE QUESTION 1: VARIOUS TOPICS – MULTIPLE CHOICE

Candidates were required to choose the best answer from the four given alternatives.

Candidates’ performance in this question was satisfactory. Out of 73 candidates who answered the question, 40 (54.8%) candidates passed while the remaining 33 (45.2%) candidates failed. Out of those who passed 38 (52.1%) and 02 (2.7%) candidates scored pass and distinction marks respectively. No candidate scored credit marks in this question.


QUESTION 2: A. INTERNET AND E-COMMERCE Candidates were required to:-

(a) Identify and explain four types of messages that users may send with smart phones.

(b) (i) Explain general good practices for sending and receiving e-mail messages. (ii) List key steps that should be completed for attaching a file to an

e-mail messages. (c) Define two mentioned special purpose terminals and explain purpose

they serve as input/output or as business transaction tools.


Majority of the candidates could not mention the types of messages users can send using smart phones, instead, they were mentioning types of social networks media such as WhatsApp, Facebook and Instagram messages. Also they failed to indicate on how to attach a file to an e-mail.

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QUESTION 3: A. INTRODUCTION TO INFORMATION AND COMMUNICATION TECHNOLOGY

B. DATA COMMUNICATION SYSTEMS C. COMMONLY USED APPLICATION PACKAGES

Candidates were required to use the provided information to;

(a) Describe four facilities provided by DBMS. (b) State how ICT is used in banking. (c) Mention advantages and disadvantages of using ICT. (d) Describe any five examples of data communication hardware.

Candidates’ performance in this question was not satisfactory. Out of 73

candidates who answered the question only 18 (24.7%) candidates passed while the remaining 55 (75.3%) candidates failed. Out of those who passed 13 (17.8%), 03 (4.1%) and 02 (2.7%) candidates scored pass, credit and distinction marks respectively.

Majority of the candidates were unable to mention and describe facilities provided by DBMS. Also they could not able to mention examples of data communication hardware.

QUESTION 4: INTERNET AND E-COMMERCE

Candidates were required to use the provided information to:

(a) (i) Explain three examples of security threats that could compromise an organisation’s computer system.

(ii) Explain three ways in which a computer system may be protected from unauthorised access.

(b) (i) Explain three types of E-Commerce and provide appropriate

examples. (ii) Identify the type of E-Commerce which the bookseller uses. (iii) Explain three benefits that the bookseller may be gaining by

selling online. Candidates’ performance in this question was satisfactory. Out of 73

candidates who answered the question, 51 (69.9%) candidates passed while the remaining 22 (30.1%) candidates failed. Out of those who passed 16 (21.9%), 06 (8.2%) and 29 (39.7%) candidates scored pass, credit and distinction marks respectively

Some candidates could not explain and provide examples of security threats.

13


(a) Assessment of the paper

The panel of examiners in assessing the paper were of the opinion that the paper was fair and the questions tested covered a wide range of the syllabus. The mixture of the questions was adequate and the distribution of marks was fair in relation to the time allocated.

(b) Candidates overall performance

Candidates’ performance in this examination paper was satisfactory. Out

of 73 candidates who answered the examination, 35 (47.9%) candidates scored pass marks while the remaining 38 (52.1%) candidates failed. There were neither credit nor distinction marks in this examination paper.


TABLE 5.1.5


Classification of Marks

0-49

50-69

70-79

80-100

TOTAL


38 35 00 00 73

Percentage

52.1 47.9 00 00 100

TABLE 5.1.6 T.03 COMPARISON OF PASS RATE WITH MAY 2015 EXAMINATIONS

MAY 2016 May 2017 % decrease

No. of candidates passed % No. of candidates passed %

45 50.0 35 47.9 2.1

14

T.04 – BUSINESS COMMUNICATION SKILLS

I: PRINCIPAL LEARNING OUTCOME Principal learning outcome of this paper is to enable candidates to master Basic English language skills and be able to use them for communicating effectively in business environment.


This paper consisted of six compulsory questions. III: TOPICS EXAMINED AND CANDIDATES’ PERFORMANCE

Candidates were tested on the following topics: QUESTION 1: A. WRITING SKILLS IN BUSINESS CORRESPONDENCES B. DEMONSTRATE READING SKILLS The question was in two parts and candidates were required to:

(a) Read a passage and answer the questions after it. (b) Use own words and writes a summary of the given passage in not

more than one hundred words. Candidates’ performance in this question was satisfactory. Out of 70 candidates who answered the question, 58 (82.9%) candidates passed while the remaining 12 (17.1%) candidates failed. Out of those who passed 16 (22.9%), 12 (17.1%) and 30 (42.9%) candidates scored pass, credit and distinction marks respectively

S0ome candidates could not to write the summary of the passage using their own words.

QUESTION 2: DEMONSTRATE A MASTERY USE OF ENGLISH LANGUAGE

Candidates were required to use the given information to:-

(a) Rewrite the given ill-constructed sentences. (b) Punctuate the given group of words. (c) Write two examples for the given types of sentences. (d) Re-write the give sentences correctly.

Candidates’ performance in this question was satisfactory. Out of 70

candidates who answered the question, 50 (71.4%) candidates passed while the remaining 20 (28.6%) candidates failed. Out of those who passed 26 (37.1%), 10 (14.3%) and 14 (20%) candidates scored pass, credit and distinction marks respectively

Some candidates were unable to write examples of simple, complex and compound sentences. Also, they were unable to punctuate correctly.

15

QUESTION 3: A. DEMONSTRATE READING SKILLS B. DEMONSTRATE LISTENING SKILLS C. WRITING SKILLS IN BUSINESS CORRESPONDENCES Candidates were required to use the given information to:

(a) Show the difference between: (i) listening and hearing

(ii) skimming and scanning (b) Identify kind of communication barrier that one experience, how to

deal with it and how it differs from any other two barriers. (c) Prepare a speech to address the graduating and continuing students at

the accounting college.


Majority of the candidates showed weakness in writing speech particularly

in writing the overview, organising ideas in a logical manner and getting focused on the issue under discussion. Also, they were unable to identify the kind of barrier based on the case provided and relating it to other barriers of communication.

QUESTION 4: WRITING SKILLS IN BUSINESS CORRESPONDENCES Candidates were required to use the given information to:- (a) Identify the components of the business report. (b) (i) Read the given loan application letter and show any five weaknesses. (ii) List four Cs of a business letter.


candidates who answered the question, 48 (68.6%) candidates passed while the remaining 22 (31.4%) candidates failed. Out of those who passed 28 (40.0%), 10 (14.3%) and 10 (14.3%) candidates scored pass, credit and distinction marks respectively

Some candidates did not give brief descriptions of the concepts they listed. Also, some candidates provided vague responses.

16

QUESTION 5: A. DEMONSTRATE VISUAL AND ORAL COMMUNICATION SKILLS B. VARIOUS TOPICS The candidates were required to use the given information to:-

(a) State whether the given statements were true or false. (b) Explain ways that one prepares for a job interview.

Candidates’ performance in this question was satisfactory. Out of 70 candidates, 44 (62.9%) candidates passed while the remaining 26 (37.1%) candidates failed. Out of those who passed 10 (14.3%), 10 (14.3%) and 24 (34.3%) candidates scored pass, credit and distinction marks respectively.

Some candidates were unable to express themselves.

QUESTION 6: VARIOUS TOPICS – MULTIPLE CHOICE AND

MATCHING ITEMS

Candidates were required to read the case study and:

(a) Choose the most correct answer among the four given alternatives

(b) Match the items in column A with those in list B to produce complete and meaningful sentences.

Candidates’ performance in this question was satisfactory. Out of 70 candidates, 31 (44.3%) candidates passed while the remaining 39 (55.7%) candidates failed. Out of those who passed 20 (28.6%), 9 (12.9%) and 02 (2.8%) candidates scored pass, credit and distinction marks respectively

Most candidates were unable to answer multiple choice questions,

but they answer well matching items.

17


(a) Assessment of the paper The panel of examiners found the paper to be fairly set, clear and well spread within the syllabus. They found the questions to be within reach of well-prepared candidates. The questions were also fair in relation to the time allocated.


Candidates’ performance in this examination paper was satisfactory. Out of 70 candidates who answered the examination, 49 (70.0%) candidates passed while the remaining 21 (30.0%) candidates failed. Out of those who passed 39 (55.7%), 07 (10.0%) and 03 (4.3%) candidates scored pass, credit and distinction marks respectively. The candidates’ over-all performance in the subject is as shown on table 5.1.7

TABLE 5.1.7


Classification of Marks 0-49 50-69 70-79 80-100 TOTAL No. of Candidates (Frequency)

21 39 07 03 70

Percentage 30.0 55.7 10.0 4.3 100

TABLE 5.1.8

T.04 COMPARISON OF PASS RATE WITH MAY 2016 EXAMINATIONS

May 2016 May 2017 % increase

No. of candidates passed % No. of candidates passed % 30 49.2 49 70.0 20.8

18

ACCOUNTING TECHNICIAN EXAMINATION LEVEL II GENERAL PERFORMANCE In this level, 185 candidates sat for the examinations, out of whom 67 (36.2%) passed, 73 (39.4%) candidates passed various subjects in this level while 45 (24.3%) failed the examination. The 73 candidates who passed are eligible for the Board's award of the STATEMENT OF SUCCESS FOR ATEC II. The general performance subject-wise is as shown on table 6.1

TABLE 6.1

ATEC II SUBJECT-WISE PERFORMANCE ANALYSIS: MAY 2016 AND MAY 2017

Paper

Code No. Subject Performance

May 2016 May 2017 Entries Pass % Entries Pass %

T.05 Principles of Accounting and Auditing

126 50 39.7 119 64 53.8

T.06 Principles of Cost Accounting and Procurement

113 48 42.5 158 68 43.0

T.07 Elements of Commercial Knowledge, Management Practices and Taxation

92 53 57.6 102 78 76.5

T.08 Accounting for Public Sector and Cooperatives

116 54 46.6 128 82 64.1

19

T.05 - PRINCIPLES OF ACCOUNTING AND AUDITING

I: PRINCIPAL LEARNING OUTCOME Principal learning outcome of this paper is to test candidates on application of basic concepts and principles of accounting in preparing and interpreting statements and reports on a practical context as per IAS 1 and apply audit knowledge in appraising data and assisting audit staff during audit undertakings.


The paper consisted of four compulsory questions. Question one was an objective question which carried 40%.

III: TOPICS EXAMINED AND CANDIDATES’ PERFORMANCE In this paper, candidates were tested on the following topics: QUESTION 1: VARIOUS TOPICS

Candidates were required to: (a) Choose the most correct answer among the given alternatives. (b) Write whether true or false for each of the given statements. (c) Match the phrases given in List B with that best explain the meaning

of items in List A.

Candidates’ performance in this question was satisfactory. Out of 119 candidates who answered the question 111 (93.3%) candidates passed while the remaining 08 (6.7%) candidates failed. Out of those who passed 69 (58.1%), 17 (14.3%) and 25 (21.0%) candidates scored pass, credit and distinction marks respectively. There was no major weakness observed in this question, however few candidates failed to choose the most correct answer among the given alternatives.

QUESTION 2: ACCOUNTING TREATMENTS FOR INVENTORY (IAS 2) AND PROPERTY, PLANT & EQUIPMENT (IAS I6). Candidates were required:

(a) To explain the following terms in accordance with the relevant International Accounting Standards (IASs):

(i) Inventories (ii) Property, Plant and Equipment

(b) Prepare and present the following Financial Statements in accordance

with IAS 1: (i) A Statement of Profit or Loss and Comprehensive income. (ii) A Statement of Financial Position.

Candidates’ performance in this question was not satisfactory. Out of 119 candidates who answered the question, only 18 (15.1%) candidates passed

20

while the remaining 101 (84.9%) candidates failed. Out of those who passed 11 (9.2%), 06 (5.0%) and 01 (0.8%) candidates scored pass, credit and distinction marks respectively

The major weaknesses noted in this question were that most candidates failed to explain the terms inventories as per IAS 2 and Property, Plant and Equipment as per IAS 16. Also most candidates demonstrated inappropriate adjustments on allowances for trade receivables, depreciation of plant and building, evaluation of building and adjustment of administration expenses.

QUESTION 3: TRIAL BALANCE AND ERRORS

Candidates were required to: (a) Mention and explain errors which can be disclosed by a trial balance. (b) Mention errors which are not disclosed by trial balance

Candidates’ performance in this question was not satisfactory. Out of 119 candidates, 54 (45.4 %) candidates passed and the remaining 65 (54.6%) candidates failed. Out of those who passed 26 (21.8%), 11 (9.2%) and 17 (14.3%) candidates scored pass, credit and distinction marks respectively Candidates performed poorly in this question because they failed to distinguish errors which do and do not affect balancing of the trial balance.

QUESTION 4: AUDITING PLANNING AND AUDIT PROGRAMME Candidates were required to:

(i) State any five uses of an audit program. (ii) List four disadvantages of an audit program

Candidates’ performance in this question was not satisfactory. Out of 119 candidates who answered the question 42 (35.3%) candidates passed while the remaining 77 (64.7%) candidates failed. Out of those who passed 14 (11.8%), 09 (7.6) and 19 (15.9%) candidates scored pass and credit marks respectively Majority of candidates completely failed in this question despite the fact that the question was very clear and straightforward. They failed to state uses and list disadvantages of an audit program.

21


(a) Assessment of the Examination The panel of examiners was of the opinion that the examination was fair, clearly worded and appropriately spread within the syllabus.


Candidates’ performance in this examination paper was satisfactory. Out of 119 candidates who answered the examination, 64 (53.8%) candidates passed while the remaining 55 (46.2%) candidates failed. Out of those who passed 52 (43.7%), 07 (5.9%) and 05 (4.2%) candidates scored pass, and credit marks respectively


TABLE 6.1.2


CLASSIFICATION OF MARKS 0-49

50-69

70-79

80-100

TOTAL

NO. OF CANDIDATES (FREQUENCY)

55 52 07 05 119

PERCENTAGE 46.2 43.7 5.9 4.2 100%

TABLE 6.1.3

T.05 COMPARISON OF PASS RATE WITH MAY 2016 EXAMINATIONS May 2016 May 2017 %

increase No. of candidates passed % No. of candidates passed %

50 39.7 64 53.8 14.1

22

T.06 - PRINCIPLES OF COST ACCOUNTING AND PROCUREMENT I: PRINCIPAL LEARNING OUTCOME

Principal learning outcome for this paper is to test candidates on application of terminologies, methods, techniques and principles of Cost Accounting and Procurement for providing management with information for decision making, planning and controlling business operations.


The paper comprised of four questions. Question one was an objective type which carried 40%.


In this paper, candidates were tested on the following topics: QUESTION 1: VARIOUS TOPICS

Candidates were required to: (a) Choose the most correct answer among the given alternatives. (b) Write short note on given concepts (c) Match statements given in List B with that best explain the meaning

of items in List A

Candidates’ performance in this question was satisfactory. Out of 158 candidates who answered the question 142 (89.9%) candidates passed while the remaining 16 (10.1%) candidates failed. Out of those who passed 107 (67.7%), 29(18.4%) and 06 (3.8%) 4 candidates scored pass, and credit marks respectively. Majority of candidates attempted well this question and offered a good range of issues.

QUESTION 2: ACCOUNTING FOR MATERIALS, LABOUR AND OVERHEADS

AND COST BOOKKEEPING Candidates were required to:

(a) Define labour turnover (b) Give three causes for each of the class (c) Use the given information to calculate:

(i) Sales per productive labour hour (ii) Loss of potential sales due to lost hours. (iii) Cost of direct labour hours for hours lost

Candidates’ performance in this question was not satisfactory. Out of 158 candidates who answered the question, only 04 (2.5%) candidates passed while the remaining 149 (94.3%) candidates failed. Out of those who passed 02 (1.3%) and 02 (1.3%) candidates scored pass, and credit marks.

23

The major weakness noted was that many candidates failed to distinguish labour turnover as a phenomenon and as a turnover ratio. Also they failed to calculate ratios.

QUESTION 3: MARGINAL COSTING AND BREAK EVEN ANALYSIS Candidates were required to: (a) Calculate profit and loss account on marginal costing basis. (b) Calculate the break-even level of output in units and shilling. (c) Use the given information to find out the level of output in units.

Candidates’ performance in this question was very poor. Out of 158 candidates only 12 (7.6%) candidates passed while the remaining 146 (92.4%) candidates failed. Out of those who passed 9 (5.7%), 01 (0.6%) and 02 (1.3) scored pass, credit and distinction marks respectively. Most of the candidates failed to calculate the break-even on both level of outputs and inputs shillings.

QUESTION4: INTRODUCTION TO PROCUREMENT.


(a) Describe basic principles of public procurement. (b) Identify and describe organizational approaches for purchasing in

foreign markets. (c) Identify documents used on receiving supplies from a supplier.

. Candidates’ performance in this question was not satisfactory. Out of 155 candidates who answered this question, only 22 (14.2%) candidates passed while the remaining 133 (85.8%) candidates failed. Out of those who passed 16 (10.3%), 04 (2.6%) and 02 (1.3%) candidates scored pass, credit and distinction marks respectively.

The major weakness noted was lack of basic knowledge and skills on the subject matter.

24


(a) Assessment of the Examination

The panel of examiners found the examination to be fair, clearly worded and within the prescribed syllabus. The examination questions were well mixed, containing computational as well theoretical questions and could have easily been answered by an average prepared candidate within the allocated time of three hours.

(b) Candidates Overall Performance

Candidates’ performance in this question paper was satisfactory. Out of 158 candidates who answered the examination, 68 (43.0%) candidates passed while the remaining 90 (57.0%) candidates failed. Out of those who passed 64 (40.5) and 04 (2.5%) candidates scored pass and credit marks respectively. No candidate scored distinction marks in this examination paper.


TABLE 6.1.4


CLASSIFICATION OF MARKS

0-49

50-69

70-79

80-100

TOTAL

NO. OF CANDIDATES (FREQUENCY) 90 64 04 00 158

PERCENTAGE 57.0 40.5 2.5 00 100

TABLE 6.1.5

T.06. COMPARISON OF PASS RATE WITH MAY 2016 EXAMINATIONS

May 2016 May 2017 %


48 42.5 68 43.0 0.5

25

T.07 - ELEMENTS OF COMMERCIAL KNOWLEDGE, MANAGEMENT PRACTICES AND TAXATION I: PRINCIPAL LEARNING OUTCOME

Principal learning outcome for this paper is to test candidates’ ability to apply knowledge of commerce, commercial law, management and taxation in managing business functions.


The paper comprised of four compulsory questions. Question one was an objective type which carried 40%.


In this paper, candidates were tested on the following topics: QUESTION 1: VARIOUS TOPICS:

Candidates were required to: (a) Choose the most correct answer from the four given alternatives. (b) Write whether is true or false for each of the given statements.

Candidates’ performance in this question was satisfactory. Out of 102 candidates who answered the question, 83 (81.4%) candidates passed while the remaining 19 (18.6%) candidates failed. Out of those who passed 42 (41.2%), 14 (13.7%) and 27 (26.5%) candidates scored pass, credit and distinction marks respectively No specific weakness was observed in this question.

QUESTION 2: MONEY AND BANKING; INTERNATIONAL TRADE;

OFFICE MANAGEMENT Candidates were required to:

(a) Outline general utility functions of commercial banks. (b) Explain why nations resort to implement import controls. (c) Identify four importance of organizing function in management.

Candidates’ performance in this question was satisfactory. Out of 102 candidates, 64 (62.7%) candidates passed while the remaining 38 (37.3%) candidates failed. Out of those who passed 52 (50.9%), 07 (6.9%) and 05 (4.9%) candidates scored pass, and credit marks respectively

The candidates who performed poorly in this question did not comprehend its requirements, however the question was very clear, straightforward and set from within the syllabus.

26

QUESTION 3: BUSINESS CONTRACTS Candidates were required to:

(a) Name groups of persons that are considered to be incompetent to

contract. (b) Write brief notes on the following forms of agency:

(i) Partners (ii) Directors (iii) Brokers (iv) Auctioneers

Candidates’ performance in this question was satisfactory. Out of 102 candidates, 67 (65.7%) candidates passed while the remaining 35 (34.3%) candidates failed. Out of those who passed 25 (24.5%), 12 (11.8) and 30 (29.4%) candidates scored pass, and credit marks respectively.

Most of candidates who failed this question did not comprehend its requirements, however the question was clear.

QUESTION 4: INTRODUCTION TO TAXATION; OFFICE MECHANIZATION


(a) Name basic principles used as basic criteria of evaluating any tax system

(b) Distinguish between excise duty and import duty. (c) Discuss powers of TRA. (d) Briefly explain factors to consider when selecting office machines

Candidates’ performance in this question was satisfactory. Out of 102 candidates, 52 (51.0%) candidates passed, while the remaining 50 (49.0%) candidates failed. Out of those who passed 32 (31.4%), 10 (9.8%) and 10 (9.8%) candidates scored pass, credit and distinction marks respectively.

Majority of the candidates provided answers in list form instead of giving sufficient and detailed explanation, this led to failure to meet the demands of the question.

27

IV: GENERAL OBSERVATIONS (a) Assessment of the Examination

The panel of examiners found the examination to be fair in relation to the level of candidate examined, with mixture of easy and difficult questions and could be answered within the allocated time of three hours by an average prepared candidate.

(b) Candidates’ Overall Performance Candidates’ performance in this examination paper was satisfactory. Out of 102 candidates who answered the examination, 78 (76.5%) candidates passed while the remaining 24 (23.5%) candidates failed. Out of those who passed 53 (52.1%), 16 (15.7%) and 09 (8.8%) candidates scored pass, credit and distinction marks respectively.

The candidates’ over-all performance in the subject is as shown in table 6.1.6

TABLE 6.1.6



50-69

70-79

80-100

TOTAL


24 53 16 9 102

PERCENTAGE 23.5 52.0 15.7 8.8 100

TABLE 6.1.7

T.07 COMPARISON OF PASS RATE WITH MAY 2016 EXAMINATIONS

May 2016 May 2017 % increase No. of candidates passed % No. of candidates passed %

53 56.7 75 76.5 19.8

28

T.08 ACCOUNTING FOR PUBLIC SECTOR AND COOPERATIVES

I: PRINCIPAL LEARNING OUTCOME Principal learning outcome of this paper is to test candidates’ ability to apply public sector and cooperative accounting knowledge and skills to manage government and cooperative funds economically, efficiently and effectively in accordance with the constitution, laws, rules and regulations in one or more specialised fields.

II: STRUCTURE OF THE PAPER The paper comprised of four compulsory questions. Question one was an objective type which carried 40%.

III: TOPICS EXAMINED AND CANDIDATES’ PERFORMANCE In this paper, candidates were tested on the following topics: QUESTION 1: VARIOUS TOPICS

(a) Candidates were required to choose the most correct answer among given alternatives.

(b) Match statements given in group B with that best explain the meaning of items in group A.


No major weakness was noted in this question, however, it was observed

that, trial and error answers appeared to be the case to some candidates on this question.

QUESTION 2: ANNUAL FINANCIAL STATEMENTS AND ACCOUNTS CONTROL LOSSES OF GOVERNMENT MONEY AND

PROPERTY Candidates were required to use the given information to: (a) Prepare District Council’s Statement of Financial Position. (b) Explain actions expected to be taken by an accounting officer upon

receipt of a loss report. (c) List classes of special funds

Candidates’ performance in this question was very poor. Out of 128 candidates who answered the question only 04 (3.1%) candidates scored a pass mark and the remaining 124 (96.9%) failed.

All candidates showed a poor mastery of knowledge on the tested topic.

29

QUESTION 3: TERMINAL BENEFITS AND PENSION CALCULATIONS

(a) Candidates were required to: (i) Identify any four pension funds existing in Tanzania . (ii) Describe the regulatory authority of pension funds (iii)Identify any three functions of the regulatory authority

(b) Candidates were required to use the given information to calculate: (i) Commuted Pension Gratuity (lump sum) (ii) Monthly pension

Candidates’ performance in this question was not satisfactory. Out of 128 candidates who answered the question only 5 (3.9%) scored a pass mark while the remaining 123 (96.1%) candidates failed. No score for credit or distinction marks.

Major weakness observed in this question was that majority of candidates had poor computation skills.

QUESTION 4: COOPERATIVES ACCOUNTING MANAGEMENT

Candidates were required to explain: (i) To whom do SACCOS Boards report (ii) Who are the SACCOS officials required to sign the reports (iii) Types of reports/statements prepared in the SACCOS Board

Candidates’ performance in this question was satisfactory. Out of 128 candidates, 115 (89.9%) candidates passed while the remaining 13 (10.1%) candidates failed. Out of those who passed 60 (46.9%), 45 (35.2%) and 10 (7.8%) scored pass, credit and marks respectively.

Majority of candidates fared well in this question, however it was observed that those who failed were unfamiliar with functions of the Board with regard to the preparation of financial statements.

30


(a) Assessment of the Examination The panel of examiners found the paper to be fairly set, well balanced containing a mixture of computational as well as theoretical questions. It was further found to be within the syllabus and that it could have been done within the time allocated of three hours.

(b) Candidates’ Overall Performance Candidates’ performance in this examination paper was satisfactory. Out of 128 candidates who answered the examination 82 (64.1%) candidates passed while the remaining 46 (35.9%) candidates failed. Out of those who passed 80 (62.5%) and 02 (1.6%) candidates scored pass, and credit marks respectively.


TABLE 6.1.8



50-69

70-79

80-100

TOTAL

NO. OF CANDIDATES (FREQUENCY) 46 80 02 00 128

PERCENTAGE 35.9 62.5 1.6 00 100

TABLE 6.1.9

T.08. COMPARISON OF PASS RATE WITH MAY 2016 EXAMINATIONS

May 2016 May 2017 %


54 46.6 82 64.1 17.5

31

INTRA-LEVELS ANALYSIS OF CANDIDATES’ PERFORMANCE – ATEC I AND ATEC II LEVELS

Under the revised examination scheme and syllabus, the Board does not allow its candidates to attempt both levels. However, it allowed those who were caught in transition from the phased out syllabus to the new syllabus during the transitional period. The analysis below shows performance of the 28 candidates who sat examination papers in the ATEC I and II Levels. Their performance is as indicated hereunder:

S/No. COMBINATION ATEC I & II Number Percent

1 Pass Both 6 21.4 2 Pass ATEC I, Partial Pass ATEC II 5 18 3 Pass ATEC I, Fail ATEC II 3 10.7 4 Partial Pass ATEC I, Pass ATEC II 0 00.0 5 Partial Pass Both 1 03.6 6 Partial Pass ATEC I, Fail ATEC II 2 07.1 7 Fail ATEC I, Pass ATEC II 3 10.7 8 Fail ATEC I, Partial Pass ATEC II 6 21.4 9 Fail Both 2 7.1

Total 28 100.0

32

PROFESSIONAL LEVEL EXAMINATIONS FOUNDATION LEVEL EXAMINATIONS

This is the first level of the Board’s three tier professional examination scheme which leads to the Certified Public Accountant [CPA (T)] award. The Foundation level examinations comprise of five subjects as indicated hereunder:

A1 Quantitative Techniques A2 Business and Management A3 Accounting A4 Business Information A5 Business Law The examinations draw candidates from two main sources, namely: - (a) Those candidates who have successfully completed the Board’s Accounting

Technician Level examinations. (b) Those candidates who have acquired non-accounting first degree (or its equivalent)

qualifications awarded by institutions of higher learning in the country recognized by the Board.

During the May 2017 examination session, 557 candidates sat for Foundation Level examinations. The figure indicated above includes 182 candidates who sat for both Foundation and Intermediate level examinations, whose performance analysis is shown at the end of Intermediate Level Report. GENERAL OBSERVATIONS In this examination 557 candidates sat for the examination out of whom 206 (37.0%) passed and therefore become eligible for the STATEMENT OF SUCCESS for the Foundation Level. 252 (45.2%) have passed some of the subjects while 99 (17.8%) candidates failed the examination. The general performance subject-wise is as shown on Table 7.1

TABLE 7.1 SUBJECT-WISE PERFORMANCE ANALYSIS: MAY 2016 AND MAY 2017

Paper Code No.

Subject



A1 Quantitative Techniques 182 128 70.3 261 91 34.8 A2 Business and Management 160 150 93.8 231 193 83.5 A3 Accounting 303 221 72.9 419 309 74.4 A4 Business Information 321 254 79.1 435 227 52.2 A5 Business Law 180 127 70.6 241 155 64.3

33

QUESTION –WISE PERFORMANCE ANALYSIS A1 – QUANTITATIVE TECHNIQUES I: PRINCIPAL LEARNING OUTCOME

Principal learning outcome of this paper is to examine candidates’ ability to apply knowledge and skills of mathematical and quantitative techniques, concepts and tools in the day to day accounting, business functions and decision making.

II: STRUCTURE OF THE QUESTION PAPER

The paper consisted of three compulsory questions. Question one was an objective question which carried 40%.

III: TOPICS EXAMINED AND CANDIDATES’ PERFORMANCE In this examination session, candidates were tested on the following topics:

QUESTION 1: VARIOUS TOPICS: Candidates were required to:-

(a) Use the given four alternatives to choose the most correct answer, (b) Match the given items in list A with those in list B to produce complete

and meaningful sentences. Candidates’ performance in this question was satisfactory. Out of 261 candidates who answered the question, 125 (47.9%) candidates passed while the remaining 136 (52.1%) candidates failed. Out of those who passed 70 (26.8%), 54 (20.7%) and 01 (0.4%) candidates scored pass, credit and distinction marks respectively Some of the candidates failed to differentiate continuous from discrete variables and also they could not form equation from differential equation given the point.

QUESTION 2: LINEAR PROGRAMMING, TRANSPORT AND ASSIGNMENT MODELS; HYPOTHESIS TESTING AND ESTIMATION.

From the give data candidates were required to:

(a) Form dual problem from the data given, (b) (i) Test for significance.

(ii) Find the 95% confidence interval. (c) (i) Prepare assignment schedule.

(ii) Determine the minimum total distance travelled.

Candidates’ performance in this question was not satisfactory. Out of 261 candidates who answered the question only 32 (12.3%) candidates passed while the remaining 229 (87.7%) candidates failed. Out of those who passed 26 (10.0%), 05 (1.9%) and 01 (0.4%) candidates scored pass, credit and distinction marks respectively

34

The question was clear and straight forward but the unsatisfactory performance emerged because majority of the candidates failed to form the dual problem, test for significance by adopting necessary key steps and they could not even apply Hungarian method to solve the given problem.

QUESTION 3: PROBABILITY AND RANDOM VARIABLE, PROBABILITY

DISTRIBUTION AND ELEMENTS OF DECISION ANALYSIS

The candidates were required to:

(a) Use the given range of digits to determine number of access codes if: (i) Each digit can be used only once and not repeated. (ii) Each digit can be repeated.

(b) (i) Find the expected value of the unknown random variable defined as getting the number of tails when a coin is tossed three times.

(ii) Find the standard deviation of the unknown random variable defined as getting the number of tails when a coin is tossed three times.

(c) (i) Determine different possible arrangements if two of the unknown total numbers of people arranged in a row have to be together.

(ii) Determine different possible arrangements if two of the unknown total number of people arranged in a row not to be together.


Despite the fact that the question was clear and within the scope of the candidates’ level, they did not do it satisfactorily as most of them failed to apply fundamental principles of counting.

QUESTION 4: PROBABILITY AND INVENTORY PLANNING AND

CONTROL

The candidates were required to:

(a) Test the significance difference between two groups based on 5% confidence.

(b) (i) Optimum quantity to minimize inventory cost. (ii) Determine yearly order. (iii) Determine length of inventory orders.

(c) Given data for razor blade factory, they were supposed to find packets with no defects and those with two defects.

Candidates’ performance in this question was not satisfactory. Out of 261 candidates who answered the question only 08 (3.1%) candidates passed

35

while the remaining 253 (96.9%) candidates failed. Out of those who passed 07 (2.7%) and 01 (0.4%) candidates scored pass and credit marks respectively. No candidate scored distinction marks in this question Majority failed to identify the formula for the z-test and apply given data vividly, also they failed to use correct data in the formula for optimal quantity for minimizing inventory costs and so far they could not find the number of defects by applying the poison formula.


(a) Assessment of the Paper The panel of examiners found the paper to be fairly set, well balanced with a good mixture of theoretical and computational questions. Time allocated to the questions was adequate to enable an average candidate to complete the examination.

(b) Candidates’ performance

Candidates’ performance in this examination paper was not satisfactory. Out of 261 candidates who answered the examination only 91 (34.9%) candidates passed while the remaining 170 (65.1%) candidates failed. Out of those who passed 81 (31.0%) and 10 (03.8%) candidates scored pass and credit marks respectively. No candidate scored distinction marks in this question.

The candidates’ overall performance in the subject is as shown on Table 7.1.1

TABLE 7.1.1

A1 CANDIDATES’ PERFORMANCE ANALYSIS

CLASSIFICATION OF MARKS 0-39 40-59 60-79 80-100 TOTAL


170 81 10 00 261

PERCENTAGE 65.1 31.0 3.9 0.0 100

TABLE 7.1.2

A1 COMPARISON OF PASS RATE WITH MAY 2016 EXAMINATIONS

May 2016 May 2017 % decrease No. of candidates passed % No. of candidates passed %

127 70.6 91 34.9 35.7

36

A2 – BUSINESS AND MANAGEMENT I: PRINCIPAL LEARNING OUTCOME

Principal learning outcome of this subject is to test candidates’ ability to apply concepts and principles of business and management in business environment.

II: STRUCTURE OF THE PAPER The paper consisted of three questions which were compulsory. Question one was an objective question which comprised of 40%.


In this examination session, candidates were tested on the following topics: QUESTION 1: VARIOUS TOPICS:

Candidates were required to:-

(a) Use the given four alternatives to choose the most correct answer, (b) Match the given items in list A with those in list B to produce complete

and meaningful sentences. (c) Write true for correct statements and false for incorrect statements as

per the given list of statements. Candidates’ performance in this question was satisfactory. Out of 231 candidates who answered the question, 165 (71.4%) candidates passed while the remaining 66 (28.6%) candidates failed. Out of those who passed 108 (46.8%), 56 (24.2%) and 01 (0.4%) candidates scored pass, credit and distinction marks respectively

The question was clear and fair in such a way that majority of them did well, consequently no major weakness was identified.

QUESTION 2: BUSINESS AND ORGANISATIONAL STRUCTURES

Candidates were required to: (a) (i) Describe the meaning of limited companies

(ii) Explain four differences between public and private limited companies.

(iii) Explain four merits and demerits of a partnership business. (b) (i) Explain any three types of organizational structure.

(ii) Present any five key organizational variables that are essential in configuring organizational structure.

(c) Describe major responsibilities of the board of directors as an administrative body of an organization.


37

The question was clear and fair in such a way that majority of them did well, consequently no major weakness was identified.

QUESTION 3: BASIC MODELS FOR BUSINESS ANALYSIS AND MANAGEMENT, INDIVIDUAL AND ORGANIZATIONAL BEHAVIOR.


(a) (i) Give the meaning of the term marketing mix and to mention four elements of marketing mix.

(ii) Describe the product life cycle with an aid of a diagram. (b) Describe factors that influence cohesiveness in groups within

organization. (c) Highlight four types of financial markets.

Candidates’ performance in this question was satisfactory. Out of 231 candidates who answered the question, 98 (42.4%) candidates passed while the remaining 133 (57.6%) candidates failed. Out of those who passed 59 (25.5%), 36 (15.6%) and 03 (1.3%) candidates scored pass, credit and distinction marks respectively. Some candidates did not understand the requirements of the question.

QUESTION 4: MANAGENENT, INDIVIDUAL AND ORGANIZATIONAL

BEHAVIOR.


(a) Describe the characteristics of individual behaviour. (b) Discuss the key factors affecting group behaviours. (c) Advise an organization on the factors contributing to making a team

effective. (d) Assess the impact of informal organization on business.

Candidates’ performance in this question was satisfactory. Out of 231 candidates who answered the question, 102 (44.2%) candidates passed while the remaining 129 (55.8%) candidates failed. Out of those who passed 43 (18.6%), 50 (21.7%) and 09 (3.9%) candidates scored pass, credit and distinction marks respectively. Many candidates could not clearly advise on factors contributing to making a team effective.

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IV: GENERAL OBSERVATIONS (a) Assessment of the Paper

The panel of examiners found the paper to be well spread within the syllabus which resulted to the candidates’ good performance.


Candidates’ performance in this examination paper was satisfactory. Out of 231 candidates who answered the examination, 193 (83.5%) candidates passed while the remaining 38 (16.5%) candidates failed. Out of those who passed 147 (63.6%) and 46 (19.9%) candidates scored pass and credit marks respectively. No candidate scored distinction marks in this examination paper.

Candidates’ over-all performance in the subject is as shown on Table 7.1.3

TABLE 7.1.3


CLASSIFICATION OF MARKS 0-39 40-59 60-79 80-100 TOTAL


38 147 46 00 231

PERCENTAGE 16.5 63.6 19.9 0.0 100

TABLE 7.1.4


May 2016 May 2017 %

decrease No. of candidates passed % No. of candidates passed % 150 93.8 193 83.5 10.3

39

A3 – ACCOUNTING

I: PRINCIPAL LEARNING OUTCOME Principal learning outcome of this paper is to examine candidates’ ability to apply knowledge and skills in recording financial transactions and preparing financial statements for an entity including not for profit entities in accordance with the IFRSs and IPSASs,


The paper comprised four compulsory questions. Question one was an objective question which carried 40%.


The A3 – Accounting subject this session tested candidates on the following topics:

QUESTION 1: VARIOUS TOPICS: MULTIPLE CHOICE

For each of the statements provided candidates were required to use the given four alternatives to choose the most correct answer: - Candidates’ performance in this question was satisfactory. Out of 419 candidates, 311 (74.2%) candidates passed while the remaining 108 (25.8%) candidates failed. Out of those who passed 171 (40.8%), 132 (31.5%) and 08 (1.9%) candidates scored pass, credit and distinction marks respectively No major weakness was noted in this question.

QUESTION 2: PREPARATION OF ACCOUNTS FROM INCOMPLETE

RECORDS.

From the given information, candidates were required to prepare:

(a) Opening statement of Affairs as at the given date. (b) Statement of Profit or Loss for the year ended. (c) Statement of Financial Position as at the given date.

Candidates’ performance in this examination paper was not satisfactory. Out of 419 candidates who answered the examination only 165 (39.4%) candidates passed while the remaining 254 (60.6%) candidates failed. Out of those who passed 105 (25.1%), 52 (12.3%) and 08 (1.9%) candidates scored pass, credit and distinction marks respectively

Most of the candidates failed to properly classify revenue, expenses, assets and liabilities.

40

QUESTION 3: ADJUSTMENTS TO ACCOUNT BALANCES AND FINANCIAL STATEMENTS

From the given information candidates were required to prepare:

(a) Journal entries necessary to correct the errors found. (b) A statement that adjust the net profit figure to reflect the correct

amount.


Not only some candidates demonstrated weak understanding on the journal entry treatments, they also failed to understand the requirements of the question as some of them provided answers to areas which were not asked.

QUESTION 4: PREPARATION OF FINANCIAL STATEMENTS IN

ACCORDANCE WITH IFRS From the given information candidates were required to prepare:

(a) A statement of Profit or Loss for the year ended. (b) A statement of Financial Position as at the year end. Candidates’ performance in this question was satisfactory. Out of 419 candidates who answered the question, 331 (79.0%) candidates passed while the remaining 88 (21.0%) candidates failed. Out of those who passed 176 (42.0%), 132 (31.5%) and 23 (5.5%) candidates scored pass, credit and distinction marks respectively Despite the fact that most of the candidates did well in this question some could not properly classify items which are required to be presented in the statement of profit and loss and those that are supposed to be presented in the statement of financial position items.

41


(a) Assessment of the Paper The panel of examiners found the paper to be fair with adequate coverage of the syllabus. The panel also observed that candidates could manage to complete the examination within the allocated time.

(b) Candidates’ Performance

Candidates’ performance in this examination paper was satisfactory. Out of 419 candidates, 312 (74.5%) candidates passed while the remaining 107 (25.5%) candidates failed. Out of those who passed 225 (53.7%), 84 (20.1%) and 03 (0.7%) candidates scored pass, credit and distinction marks respectively. The candidates’ overall performance in the subject is as shown in Table 7.1.5

TABLE 7.1.5


CLASSIFICATION OF MARKS 0-39 40-59 60-79 80-100 TOTAL NO. OF CANDIDATES (FREQUENCY) 107 225 84 03 419 PERCENTAGE 25.5 53.7 20.1 0.7 100

TABLE 7.1.6



221 72.9 312 74.5 1.6

42

A4 – BUSINESS INFORMATION I: PRINCIPAL LEARNING OUTCOME

Principal learning outcome of this paper is to examine candidates’ ability to apply knowledge of cost analysis and awareness of information technology to produce accurate and useful information to support management in decision-making and its application in performance management.

II: STRUCTURE OF THE QUESTION PAPER:

The paper comprised four compulsory questions. Question one was an objective question which carried 40%.


In this examination session, candidates were examined on the following topics:

QUESTION 1: VARIOUS TOPICS: MULTIPLE CHOICE

For each of the statements provided candidates were required to use the given four alternatives to choose the most correct answer.

Candidates’ performance in this question was satisfactory. Out of 435 candidates who answered the question, 305 (70.1%) candidates passed while the remaining 130 (29.9%) candidates failed. Out of those who passed 175 (40.2%) and 130 (29.9%) candidates scored pass and credit marks respectively. No candidate scored distinction marks in this question.

No major weakness was noted in this question.

QUESTION 2: COSTING, PERFOMANCE MEASUREMENT AND MANAGEMENT

From the question given, students were required to: (a) Differentiate pairs of cost terminologies:-

(i) Attainable standards versus current standards. (ii) Ideal standards versus basic standards.

(b) Calculate material price and quantity variances as well as labour rate and efficiency variances.

Candidates’ performance in this question was not satisfactory. Out of 435 candidates who answered the question only 16 (3.7%) candidates passed while the remaining 419 (96.3%) candidates failed. Out of those who passed 06 (1.4%), 04 (0.9%) and 06 (1.4%) candidates scored pass, credit and distinction marks respectively. The question was clear and fair but most candidates failed in calculations.

43

QUESTION 3: DECISION MAKING (COST VOLUME ANALYSIS- BREAK EVEN POINT CALCULATION, DEFINITION & ASSUMPTIONS)

Candidates were required to: (a) Define Cost Volume Analysis (b) Mention two assumptions made under Cost Volume Analysis. (c) Calculate the Break Even Analysis Units and Sales


. The question was clear and fair which was appropriate to the candidates’ exam level although there were problems in calculations on how to determine BEP in units and in sales.

QUESTION 4: COSTING, FORECASTING, BUDGETING, INFORMATION TECHNOLOGY & INFORMATION SYSTEMS


(a) Compare- Statement of Income under absorption costing and marginal costing. State effects of opening and closing stock on profit.

(b) Prepare cash budget (c) Identify five (5) main risks that affect the reliability of data and

how they can be managed and controlled electronically. (d) Give four (4) classifications of cost by purpose for decision making Candidates’ performance in this question was not satisfactory. Out of 435 candidates who answered the question only 71 (16.3%) candidates passed while the remaining 364 (83.7%) candidates failed. Out of those who passed 66 (15.2%) and 5 (1.1%) candidates scored pass and credit marks respectively. No candidate scored distinction marks in this question.

Candidates were weak in understanding the type of cost for decision making and simple concepts relating to data and data management.

44


(a) Assessment of the paper The panel of examiners found the examination to be fair, well balanced containing both easy and moderate questions which were relevant to the candidates’ level and was well within the prescribed syllabus. It was examiners’ view that the paper could have been well attempted within the allocated time of three hours by an average candidate.

(b) Overall Candidates performance


The candidates’ overall performance in the subject is as shown on table 7.1.7

TABLE 7.1.7


CLASSIFICATION OF MARKS 0-39 40-59 60-79 80-100 TOTAL NO. OF CANDIDATES (FREQUENCY)

208 206 21 00 435

PERCENTAGE 47.8 47.4 4.8 0.0 100

TABLE 7.1.8


May 2016 May 2017 %


45

A5 – BUSINESS LAW

I: PRINCIPAL LEARNING OUTCOME Principal learning outcome of this paper is to examine candidates’ ability to apply theories, practices and laws governing business in providing accounting services and protecting business against unnecessary litigations.

II: STRUCTURE OF THE QUESTION PAPER:

The paper comprised seven questions. Candidates were required to answer five questions.


In this examination session, candidates were examined on the following topics: QUESTION 1: SOURCES OF LAW


(a) Write notes on the following concepts: - (i) Binding precedent (ii) Common Law (iii) Obiter Dicta

(b) Define the term subordinate legislation and describe any five advantages and disadvantages of subordinate legislation.


Candidate could not describe some basic issues about sources of law and define given concepts of law.

QUESTION 2: LAW RELATED TO NEGOTIABLE INSTRUMENTS Candidates were required to use the given case to:

(a) Describe some rights and liabilities of parties to a cheque (b) Outline major characteristics of a negotiable instrument


The Candidates did not focus on the rights/liabilities of the parties in relation to the cheque.

46

QUESTION 3: THE LAW OF CONTRACT Candidates were required to:

(a) Discuss a concept on law of contract (b) Define the concept of contract law and mentioning

circumstances under which it can be granted.

Candidates’ performance in this question was not satisfactory. Out of 148 candidates who answered the question, 9 (6.1%) candidates scored pass marks while the remaining 139 (93.9%) candidates failed. There were neither credit nor distinction marks in this questions.

Candidates failed to define/describe the concept of specific performance and circumstances under which it is granted.

QUESTION 4: EMPLOYMENT LAW

Candidates were required to: -

(a) State a certain actions or measures that are not discriminatory (b) Identify some rights of terminated employees. (c) Highlight on the objectives of the Employment and Labour

Relations Act 2004.


Many candidates could not understand the gist of question (4b), and mostly they did not focus on statutory rights stipulated in the Employment and Labour Relations Act.

47

QUESTION 5: COMPANY LAW


(a) Point out and briefly explain ways by which a company can reduce its share capital.

(b) Identify steps to be followed by a company when reducing its share capital.


Many candidates described some irrelevant matters and were not able to describe clearly concepts such as forfeiture or redemption of shares.

QUESTION 6: LAW OF PARTNERSHIP


(a) Differentiating some concepts. (b) Identifying whether there was partnership in the given hypothetical

situation (c) Describe modes of dissolution of partnership Candidates’ performance in this question was satisfactory. Out of 238 candidates who answered the question, 205 (86.0%) candidates passed while the remaining 33 (14.0%) candidates failed. Out of those who passed 54 (22.7%), 111 (46.6%) and 40 (16.8%) candidates scored pass, credit and distinction marks respectively

No major weakness was identified in this question.

QUESTION 7: COMPANY LAW Candidates were required to identifying and state duties, powers and

responsibilities of a company auditor.

Candidates’ performance in this question was satisfactory. Out of 227candidates who answered the question, 157 (69.2%) candidates passed while the remaining 70 (30.8%) candidates failed. Out of those who passed 103 (45.4%), 50 (22%) and 4 (1.8%) candidates scored pass, credit and distinction marks respectively.

Those who failed did not understand the question, hence wrote irrelevant issues.

48

IV: GENERAL OBSERVATIONS (a) Assessment of the paper

The panel of examiners found the examination to be fair, well balanced containing both easy and moderate questions which were relevant to the candidates’ level and was well within the prescribed syllabus. It was examiners view that the paper could have been well attempted within the allocated time of three hours by an average candidate.

(b) Overall Candidates performance

Candidates’ performance in this question was satisfactory. Out of 241 candidates who answered the Examination, 155 (64.3%) candidates passed while the remaining 86 (35.7%) candidates failed. Out of those who passed 131(54.3%) and 24 (10%) candidates scored pass and credit marks respectively. No candidate scored distinction marks in this Examination. The candidates’ overall performance in the subject is as shown in table 7.1.9

TABLE 7.1.9



86 131 24 00 241

PERCENTAGE 35.7 54.3 10.0 0.0 100

TABLE 7.1.10

A5. COMPARISON OF PASS RATE WITH MAY 2016 EXAMINATIONS

May 2016 May 2017 %


49

INTERMEDIATE LEVEL EXAMINATIONS The Intermediate level examinations are the second level of the Board’s professional examinations under the current examination scheme and syllabus. This examination level consists of six subjects as shown hereunder:- B1 Financial Management B2 Financial Accounting B3 Auditing Principles and Practices B4 Public Finance and Taxation I B5 Performance Management B6 Management, Governance and Ethics Under this examination scheme and syllabus, a candidate is required to complete Foundation Level before moving to Intermediate Level. However, candidates who were caught in the transition from the phased out syllabus to the current syllabus were allowed to cross the levels. During the May 2017 examination session, a total of 3,477 candidates sat for Intermediate Level examinations. The figure indicated above includes 820 candidate who sat for both Intermediate and Final level examinations, whose performance analysis is shown at the end of these levels’ report.

50

GENERAL OBSERVATIONS The examination draws candidates from the following sources:

(a) Candidates who have been referred previously in the respective corresponding subjects.

(b) Candidates who have majored in accounting in their bachelor degree programmes from

recognized institutions. GENERAL PERFORMANCE In this session 3,477 candidates sat for the Intermediate Level Examinations out of whom 536 (15.4%) have passed this level and therefore become eligible for the STATEMENT OF SUCCESS, 1,437 (41.3%) have passed some of the subjects while 1,504 (43.3%) candidates have failed the examination.

The general performance subject-wise is as shown on Table 8.1

TABLE 8.1

INTERMEDIATE LEVEL SUBJECT - WISE PERFORMANCE ANALYSIS: MAY 2016 AND MAY 2017

Paper Code No.

Subject



B1 Financial Management 1,227 441 35.9 1311 229 17.8

B2 Financial Accounting 1,109 502 45.3 1229 505 41.1 B3 Auditing Principles and

Practices 916 415 45.3 1025 706 68.9

B4 Public Finance & Taxation I 1,087 444 40.8 1,162 403 34.7 B5 Performance Management 2,526 316 12.5 2,258 583 25.8 B6 Management, Governance &

Ethics 733 539 69.7 881 823 93.4

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B1 FINANCIAL MANAGEMENT I: PRINCIPAL LEARNING OUTCOME

Principal learning outcome of this examination paper is to test candidates’ ability to apply financial management knowledge and skills in valuing various assets as well as businesses, in evaluating investment opportunities, in forecasting and planning financial needs of a firm, in deciding on the level of debt financing to use relative to equity capital, in determining the level of working capital to carry in a business and in deciding on the share of the earnings after tax between retained earnings and shareholders.


The paper had two sections A and B, with six questions carrying 20 marks each. Candidates were required to answer question one in section A and any other four out of five questions in Section B.


The following topics were tested in this paper:- QUESTION 1: INVESTMENT DECISION Candidates were required to:-

(a) Discuss whether a given Company should invest in all projects with

a positive net present value in order to maximize shareholders’ wealth in the context of investment finance.

(b) Use the given information about a person who was working as an Financial Consultant at one of Hotel to prepare a brief feasibility report gym and Spa for given person which covers the following issues to and advice on proposed investment: (i) Calculate the Net Present Value (NPV) of the gym and spa

project (ii) Using linear interpolation estimate the post-tax money cost of

capital at which the hotel would be indifferent to accepting or rejecting the project.

Candidates’ performance in this examination paper was not satisfactory. Out of 1311 candidates who answered the question only 05 (0.4%) candidates passed while the remaining 1306 (99.6%) candidates failed. Out of those who passed 04 (0.3%) and 01 (0.1%) candidates scored pass and credit respectively. No candidate who scored distinction marks. Most of candidates failed to compute figures that make elements used in determining cash flows used for NPV computations.

52

QUESTION 2: PORTFOLIO THEORY: CONCEPT OF RISK AND CAPM


(a) Discuss according to portfolio theory, a market estimates of investors reactions to risk cannot be measured precisely, so it is impossible to set risk adjusted discount rates for various classes of investment with a high degree of precision

(b) Use the given information relating to about a person who was working as a Market securities analyst at Local Market who given assignment to advise investors on how to select highly performing stocks from the market which experienced market changes due to different economic and political factors which have affected the price and return of the security traded in the market; to: (i) Explain which investor had a better performing stock aside

from the issue of general movements in the market. (ii) Advise, if the government bond rate were 6% and the market

return during the period were 14% which investor would have a superior stock selection? Out of the selection provided by the analysts.

(c) Use the given information to; (i) Compute the expected return of an equally weighted portfolio. (ii) Explain what will happen to the variance as given company

gets larger, and outline the main determinant(s) of the risk of a well-diversified portfolio.

Candidates’ performance in this question was not satisfactory. Out of 1,120 candidates who answered the question only 52 (4.6%) candidates passed while the remaining 1,068 (95.4%) candidates failed. Out of those who passed 50 (4.5%) and 02 (0.1%) candidates scored pass and credit marks respectively. No candidate scored distinction marks in this question.

Most candidates failed to understand the question and also to understand

that why it is impossible to precisely measure 100% of risk.

QUESTION 3: BUSINESS VALUATION: DIVIDEND POLICY

(a) Candidates were required to use the given information about one company which is listed on a stock exchange to indicate whether the following events might cause the price of equities (stocks) in general to change and whether they might cause a bank’s share price to change:

(i) The government announces that inflation unexpectedly jumped

by 2 per cent last month. (ii) The bank’s earnings report, just released, generally fell in line

with analysts’ expectations. (iii) The government reports that economic growth last year was at

3 per cent, which generally agreed with most economists’ forecasts.

53

(iv) The Parliament approves changes to the tax laws that will

increase the top marginal corporate tax rate. The legislation had been debated for the previous six months.

(b) Candidates were required to use the given information concerning one company which is listed on a major stock exchange to compute and show the effect of taxation on dividend and capital gain as follows:-

(i) Compute current price of a given listed company stock. (ii) If capital gains are also taxed at 25 percent, what is the price of

Amazon stock? (iii) Explain the result you found in part (b) (ii) above.

(c) Candidates were required to use the given information concerning one company which is listed on a major stock exchange to compute value of the business as follows: (i) Compute current value of the firm (ii) Compute the ex-dividend price of given company stock if the

board follows its current policy.

Candidates’ performance in this question was not satisfactory. Out of 923 candidates who answered the question, 10 (1.1%) candidates scored pass marks while the remaining 913(98.9%) candidates failed. There were neither credit nor distinction marks in this questions Most candidates failed to compute and show the effect of taxation on dividend and capital gain also to show effect of different economic situations on share price.

QUESTION 4: INVESTMENT DECISION

(a) Candidates were required to use the given information concerning a given company’s Cash flow for a given period; Evaluate and comment on the appropriate timing of abandoning the equipment.

(b) Discuss the difference between a nominal (money terms) approach and a real terms approach to calculating net present value

(c) Discuss any four factors to be considered in formulating a trade receivables policy.

Candidates’ performance in this question was not satisfactory. Out of 1,214 candidates who answered the question, only 281 (23.1%) candidates passed while the remaining 933 (76.9%) candidates failed. Out of those who passed 218 (18.0%), 52 (4.3%) and 11 (0.9%) candidates scored pass, credit and distinction marks respectively

Most candidates were weak in computing NPV and failed to differentiate between a nominal (money terms) approach and a real terms approach to calculating net present value.

54

QUESTION 5: FINANCING DECISIONS (a) Candidates were required to use the given statement “Retained

earnings are the cheapest source of funds. Actually they do not have opportunity cost” to respond the following questions: (i) Is retained earnings free of opportunity costs? (ii) How does the cost of retained earnings compare with that of

issuing new equity?

(iii) Why do firm raise external funds rather than rely only on retained earnings?

(b) Candidates were required to use the given statement about recent increasingly on changing of dividend pay-out and incorporate stock repurchase programs as a means of distributing corporate cash flows instead of dividend by most of corporations to explain the concept of share repurchase and briefly explain its advantages and disadvantages.

(c) Candidates were required to use the given extract of financing part from the statement of financial position to show the effect of the proposed stock dividend plan of issuing new shares as part of its stock dividend

Candidates’ performance in this question was not satisfactory. Out of 1,142 candidates who answered the question only 192 (16.8%) candidates passed while the remaining 950 (83.2%) candidates failed. Out of those who passed 164 (14.4%), 25 (2.2%) and 03 (0.3%) candidates scored pass, credit and distinction marks respectively

Candidates failed to understand the question requirements. Few who tried to attempt failed to understand the concept of share repurchase and why retained earnings are the cheapest source of funds.

QUESTION 6: INVESTMENT DECISIONS (a) Candidates were required to explain the concept of overtrading, its

causes and key ratios that signal its presence in a business. (b) Use the given information about a person who is working as Director

of Finance in a given company who is reviewing cost of the two given alternatives of convectional building or high tech building and select one with low cost for building and running new laboratories

Candidates’ performance in this question was satisfactory. Out of 850 candidates who answered the question 342 (40.2%) candidates passed while the remaining 508 (59.8%) candidates failed. Out of those who passed 276 (32.5%), 63 (7.4%) and 03 (0.4%) candidates scored pass, credit and distinction marks respectively

55

Some candidates were weak in computing cost of each proposed alternative.

IV: GENERAL OBSERVATIONS (a) Assessment of the Paper

The panel of examiners found the paper to be quite adequate in terms of the questions examined and time allocated for each question. The panel of markers also found the paper to be well balanced, covering almost eighty percent of the topics in the syllabus. The paper had a good mixture of theoretical and computational questions.


Candidates’ performance in this examination paper was not satisfactory. Out of 1311 candidates, only 229 (17.5%) candidates passed while the remaining 1082 (82.5%) candidates failed. Out of those who passed 226 (17.2%) and 03 (0.2%) candidates scored pass and credit marks respectively. No candidate scored distinction marks in this question.

The candidates’ over-all performance in the subject is as shown on table

8.1.1

TABLE 8.1.1

B1 CANDIDATES’ PERFORMANCE ANALYSIS


00-39

40-59

60-79

80-100

TOTAL


1082 226 03 00 1,311

PERCENTAGE 82.5 17.2 0.2 0.0 100

TABLE 8.1.2

B1 COMPARISON OF PASS RATE WITH MAY 2016 EXAMINATIONS

May 2016 May 2017 %


56

B2 FINANCIAL ACCOUNTING

I: PRINCIPAL LEARNING OUTCOME

Principal learning outcome of this examination paper is to test candidates’ ability to apply knowledge and skills in preparation of financial statements for a separate entity and a group in accordance with the IFRSs and IPSASs and analyse financial statements to examine the suitability of the business entity.

II: STRUCTURE OF THE PAPER The paper had two sections A and B, with six questions carrying 20 marks each. Candidates were required to answer question one in section A and any other four out of five questions in Section B.

III: TOPICS EXAMINED AND CANDIDATES’ PERFORMANCE The following topics were tested in this paper:-

QUESTION 1: PREPARATION OF CONSOLIDATED FINANCIAL

STATEMENTS

(a) Candidates were required to define control in the context of IFRS 10 and State the justification of full consolidation where the parent owns less than 100% of the ordinary shares of a subsidiary.

(b) Candidates were required to use the given information which was about a group of accounts which were already prepared with the exception of consolidating the parent’s interest in the new joint; to prepare the consolidated statement of financial position of a given group of company at a given period.

Candidates’ performance in this question was not satisfactory. Out of 1229 candidates, only 275 (22.4%) candidates passed while the remaining 954 (77.6%) candidates failed. Out of those who passed 227 (18.5%), 33 (2.7%) and 15 (1.2%) candidates scored pass, credit and distinction marks respectively Most candidates failed to prepare the consolidated statement of financial position.

QUESTION 2: FINANCIAL STATEMENTS ANALYSIS AND EVALUATION

ACCOUNTING

(a) Candidates were required to use the given information about the financial statements for the given company to compare the performance of the two companies in terms of profitability, liquidity and efficiency, supporting your arguments with at least two ratios in each case.

(b) State any four additional pieces of information that would have made the analysis above more useful, clearly indicating the possible added value of such information

57

Candidates’ performance in this question was satisfactory. Out of 1,211 candidates who answered the question 902 (74.5%) candidates passed while the remaining 309 (25.5%) candidates failed. Out of those who passed 452 (37.3%), 388 (32.0%) and 62 (5.1%) candidates scored pass, credit and distinction marks respectively No major weakness was observed in this question

QUESTION 3: STATEMENT OF CASH FLOW

(a) Candidates were required to discuss how do investors commonly use (analyse) free cash flow to value a firm and how best should cash flow statements be disclosed to enable the analysis

(b) Candidates were required to use the given information concerning the financial statement of one company for its most recent two years to prepare a Statement of Cash Flows using indirect method for year ended at the given period:

Candidates’ performance in this question was not satisfactory. Out of 904 candidates who answered the question only 12 (1.3%) candidates passed while the remaining 892 (98.7%) candidates failed. Out of those who passed 10 (1.1%) and 02 (0.2%) candidates scored pass and credit marks respectively. No candidate scored distinction marks in this question

Most candidates failed to prepare Statement of Cash flows using indirect method.

QUESTION 4: INVENTORY AND PREPARATION OF FINANCIAL

STATEMENTS

(a) Candidates were required to state rationale of inventory to be valued at the lower of cost or net realizable value as required by IAS 2 Inventories

(b) Candidates were required to use the given information to concerning inventories valuation to show the effect when inventories are not valued according to IAS 2 and Calculate the corrected profit before tax figures

(c) Candidates were required to use the given information concerning unadjusted extracts financial statements to prepare statement of financial position and statement of profit or loss and other comprehensive income


58

Most of candidates failed to state the rationale of inventory to be valued at the lower of cost or net realizable value as required by IAS 2 Inventories and show the effect on the given extracts of financial statements.

QUESTION 5: IAS I6 – PROPERTY, PLANT AND EQUIPMENT (PPE)

(a) Use the given information about the details of one company acquired a new factory plant and Financial Controller asked assistant newly CPA Accountant on how to treat the plant according to IAS 16 – Property, Plant & Equipment based on following questions: (i) Calculate the amount that should be capitalized as Property,

Plant and Equipment for the above wind farm.

(ii) In accordance with IAS 16 – Property, Plant & Equipment explain the

accounting treatment allowed for the measurement of PPE: a. At recognition; b. After recognition.

(iii) In the context of IAS 16 – Property, Plant & Equipment: a. Discuss what is meant by the term ‘fair value’. b. How can the fair value of a building be determined?

(b) In accordance with IAS 16 – Property, Plant & Equipment: (i) State how the depreciable amount of an asset should be allocated. (ii) State how often should the residual value and the useful life of an

asset be reviewed.


No major weakness was noted in this question. QUESTION 6: ACCOUNTING AND REPORTING CONCEPTS FRAMEWORK

AND PRACTICES (a) Candidates were required to use the given information concerning one

company to show how the given scenarios should be treated in the Financial Statements:

(b) Use the given information about the details of one company to show how the given scenarios should be treated in the Financial Statements:

Candidates’ performance in this question was not satisfactory. Out of 975 candidates who answered the question, 344 (35.3%) candidates passed while the remaining 631 (64.7%) candidates failed. Out of those who passed 302 (31.0%), 39 (4.0%) and 03 (0.3%) candidates scored pass, credit and distinction marks respectively Most of the candidates failed to understand how the given scenarios should be treated in the Financial Statements in accordance with IAS 37:

59


(a) Assessment of the Paper

The panel of examiners found the paper to be quite adequate in terms of the questions examined and time allocated for each question. The panel of markers also found the paper to be well balanced, covering over seventy five percent of the topics in the syllabus. The paper had a good mixture of theoretical and computational questions.


Candidates’ performance in this examination paper was not satisfactory. Out of 1,229 candidates, only 505 (41.1%) candidates passed while the remaining 724 (58.9%) candidates failed. Out of those who passed 483 (39.3%) and 22 (1.8%) candidates scored pass and credit marks respectively. No candidate scored distinction marks in this question.

The candidates’ over-all performance in the subject is as shown on table

8.1.3

TABLE 8.1.3



40-59

60-79

80-100

TOTAL


724 483 22 00 1,229

PERCENTAGE 58.9 39.3 1.8 0.0 100

TABLE 8.1.4


May 2016 May 2017 % decrease


502 45.3 505 41.1 4.2

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B3 AUDITING PRINCIPLES AND PRACTICE

I: PRINCIPAL LEARNING OUTCOME Principal learning outcome of this examination paper is to test candidates’ ability to apply auditing principles and standards in executing external audit assignments (carrying out audit procedures) and coming up with appropriate reports, as well as implementing entity’s internal control policies in carrying out internal audits.

II: STRUCTURE OF THE PAPER The paper had two sections A and B, with six questions carrying 20 marks each. Candidates were required to answer question one in section A and any other four out of five questions in Section B.


The following topics were tested in this paper:- QUESTION 1: FUNDAMENTAL PRINCIPLES OF CODE OF ETHICS FOR

ACCOUNTANTS; NATURE OF INTERNAL CONTROLS; DETECTION OF FRAUDS AND ERRORS AND ISA 570 – GOING CONCERN

(a) Candidates were required to use the given information to explain each of the fundamental principles of Code of Ethics for Professional Accountants issued by the International Ethics Standards Board for Accountants (IESBA).

(b) Candidates were required to use the given information to explain the actions that an auditor should carry out to ascertain whether an entity is a going concern as required by ISA 570 Going Concern provides guidance to auditors in respect of ensuring that an entity can continue as a going concern.

(c) Candidates were required to use the given information concerning one travel agency used to sell holidays tickets from tour operators though well-established computerized system to describe the nature of the risks arising from fraud and Errors Company subjected.

Candidates’ performance in this question was not satisfactory. Out of 1,025 candidates, only 427 (41.7%) candidates passed while the remaining 598 (58.3%) candidates failed. Out of those who passed 324 (31.6%), 85 (8.3%) and 18 (1.8%) candidates scored pass, credit and distinction marks respectively

Most of candidates failed to address issues that an auditor should cover during audit of going concern and they failed to link the case study with risks that business could face during its operation

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QUESTION 2: OBJECTIVES, PROCESS AND EXTERNAL AUDIT AND ASSURANCE

(a) Candidates were required to use the given information to outline and explain any three rights of auditors and duties of the auditor.

(b) Candidate were required to use the given information about a person who worked as an auditor of a given company to: (i) State the procedures applied to protect the removal of an auditor

from the office. (ii) From the given scenario to state whether the auditor may be

removed in the manner proposed. Give reasons.


No major weakness was observed. QUESTION 3: NATURE OF AUDIT EVIDENCE AND SELECTION OF

SUFFICIENT APPROPRIATE EVIDENCE

Use the give information about ISA 500: Audit Evidence to:

(a) Define ‘audit evidence’ (b) Explain four sources of audit evidence. (c) Provide explanation on the following terms in relation to audit

evidence: (i) Sufficiency of audit evidence (ii) Reliability of audit evidence (iii) External confirmation (iv) Analytical Procedures

Candidates’ performance in this question was satisfactory. Out of 1,022 candidates who answered the question only 957 (93.6%) candidates passed while the remaining 65 (6.4%) candidates failed. Out of those who passed 115 (11.3%), 346 (33.9%) and 456 (48.5%) candidates scored pass, credit and distinction marks respectively. No major weakness was observed.

QUESTION 4: BASICS OF ASSURANCE REPORTS

(a) Candidates were required to use the given statement concerning reports which auditor required to prepare at the end of each audit to:- (i) Explain the purposes of the statutory audit report. (ii) Identify the disclosures to the statutory audit report. (iii) State and explain the circumstances that may lead to qualified

opinion in the audit report

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(b) Candidates were required to identify any six matters that the auditor should pay keen attention when examining vouchers.


Most of the candidates could not distinguish between qualified opinion,

disclaimer opinion and adverse opinion also they confusing purpose of statutory audit report with the purpose of financial report

QUESTION 5: THE NATURE AND USE OF INTERNAL CONTROL

Candidates were required to use the given information about a person who works as auditor of a given company to:-

(a) State four reasons why inventory is often the most difficult and

time consuming aspect of many audits. (b) Describe the substantive procedures you would perform, both during

the year and at the year end, in order to verify the completeness and existence of inventory on the assumption that control risk is low and there is no necessity to observe the inventory count on or near year end,

(c) Identify risks that management should consider in relation to implementing an online sales system and suggest an internal control for each risk that management could implement that would reduce that risk.

Candidates’ performance in this question was not satisfactory. Out of 521 candidates who answered the question only 136 (26.1%) candidates passed while the remaining 385 (73.9%) candidates failed. Out of those who passed 108 (20.7%), 25 (4.8%) and 03 (0.6%) candidates scored pass, credit and distinction marks respectively. Most candidates failed to state reasons why inventory is often the most difficult and time consuming and they failed to identify risks associated with online sales system and its possible appropriate controls.

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QUESTION 6: PUBLIC SECTOR EXTERNAL AUDITING; BASICS OF ASSURANCE REPORT

(a) Candidates were required to outline six key elements of an effective public sector audit activity:

(b) State the effect of the following alternative situations in the audit report:

(i) Depreciation had not been provided on any non-current asset for

a number of years, the effect of which if corrected would be to turn an accumulated profit into a significant accumulated loss.

(ii) Given audit firm were appointed auditors after the end of the financial year of given company consequently, the auditors could not attend the year-end inventory count. Inventory is material to the financial statements of auditee ISA 200 to explain the overall objectives of the auditor as provided for in this standard

(c) Candidates were required to use give statement about ISA 315 to explain why obtaining an understanding of the entity and its environment is important for an auditor.


candidates who answered the question 378 (51.7%) candidates passed while the remaining 353 (48.3%) candidates failed. Out of those who passed 306 (41.9%) and 72 (9.9%) candidates scored pass and credit respectively. No candidate scored distinction marks in this question.

No major weakness was observed.

64


(a) Assessment of the Paper The panel of examiners found the paper to be quite adequate in terms of the questions examined and time allocated for each question. The panel of markers also found the paper to be well balanced, covering almost eight five percent of the topics in the syllabus. The paper had a good mixture of questions.

Candidates’ performance in this examination paper was satisfactory. Out of 1,025 candidates, 706 (68.9%) candidates passed while the remaining 319 (31.1%) candidates failed. Out of those who passed 672 (65.6%) and 34 (3.3%) candidates scored pass and credit marks respectively. No candidate scored distinction marks in this question.

Candidates’ overall performance


TABLE 8.1.5



00-39

40-59

60-79

80-100

TOTAL


319 672 34 00 1025

PERCENTAGE 31.1 65.6 3.3 0.0 100

TABLE 8.1.6

B3 COMPARISON OF PASS RATE WITH MAY 2016

EXAMINATIONS


415 45.3 706 68.9 23.6

65

B4 PUBLIC FINANCE AND TAXATION I I: PRINCIPAL LEARNING OUTCOME

Principal learning outcome of this examination paper is to test candidates’ ability to apply knowledge of public finance, tax laws and principles in the computation of tax liabilities, preparation and filing of tax returns; and in administering compliance with the tax laws; both in the public sector and in the private sector.


The paper had two sections A and B, with six questions carrying 20 marks each. Candidates were required to answer question one in section A and any other four out of five questions in Section B


The following topics were tested in this paper:- QUESTION 1: DETERMINATION OF EMPLOYMENT INCOME; RETURN OF

INCOME AND STATEMENT OF ESTIMATED TAX PAYABLE BY INSTALLEMENT

(a) Candidates were required to use the given information to:-

(i) Calculate the taxable employment income. (ii) Calculate the income tax suffered on the income calculated in

(i) above. (b) Compute taxable employment benefit and state when the amount will

be taxable. (c) Identify clearly the situations or circumstances that might prevent a

taxpayer from filling a return of income.

Candidates’ performance in this question was not satisfactory. Out of 1162 candidates who answered the question only 434 (37.4%) candidates passed while the remaining 728 (62.7%) candidates failed. Out of those who passed 410 (35.3%) and 24 (2.1%) candidates scored pass and credit marks respectively. No candidate scored distinction marks in this question. Most candidates failed to compute tax liabilities from primary and

secondary employments.

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QUESTION 2: INCOME TAX LAW

(a) Candidates were required to describe the role of the Tax Administration Act, 2015

(b) Candidate were required to use the given information to:- (i) Calculate the tax instalment payments. (ii) Assume the given tax rate to calculate the amount paid (iii) Determine any penalties and interest arising from the

above scenario


Candidates failed to calculate key issues required in this question.

QUESTION 3: VAT AND OTHER INDIRECT TAXES.

(a) Candidates were required to use the given information to:- (i) Define what a “place of supply” is. Why is it necessary to

determine the place of supply for VAT chargeability? (ii) Determine the place of supply.

(b) From the given information candidate were required to state when, if at all, the given person was liable to register for VAT.

(c) Candidates were required to use the given information to calculate the VAT payable or any excess carried forward for the given period of time.


Candidates failed to recognise that an item that is supplied from the warehouse is regarded as being supplied from outside the country. Failed also to recognise that the importation for services should be counted for as input as well as output tax.

QUESTION 4: DETERMINATION OF TOTAL INCOME

Candidates were required to use the provided information to advise whether to operate as a sole trader or to incorporate a limited liability company.

Candidates’ performance in this question was not satisfactory. Out of 744 candidates who answered the question only 56 (7.5%) candidates passed while the remaining 688 (92.5%) candidates failed. Out of those who

67

passed 50 (6.7%) and 06 (0.8%) candidates scored pass and credit marks respectively. No candidate scored distinction marks in this question.

Most candidates were not able to determine earning after tax, and were not able to differentiate a corporate company entity from a sole trade entity for tax purposes.

QUESTION 5: PUBLIC EXPENDITURE


(a) Explain the effects of protectionist trade policies in Tanzania and the strategies that can be used to protect the economy against those effects.

(b) Explain the differences between ‘public debt’ and ‘government budget’ deficit.

(c) Explain how deficit spending could be a burden to future generations.

Candidates’ performance in this question was satisfactory. Out of 982 candidates who answered the question, 764 (77.8%) candidates passed while the remaining 218 (22.2%) candidates failed. Out of those who passed 389 (39.6%), 324 (33%) and 51 (5.2%) candidates scored pass, credit and distinction marks respectively. There was no major weakness, although some candidates failed to understand the question hence failed to answer appropriately.

QUESTION 6: CUSTOM AND EXCISE DUTY

(a) Candidates were required with the help of examples, briefly explain the meaning of the term ‘customs area’ as applied in the East African Community Customs Management (EACCM) Act, 2004.

(b) Candidates were required to explain two reasons as to why goods are subjected to customs control.

(c) Candidates were required to:- (i) Explain briefly the meaning of the term customs entry.

(ii) Mention four purposes of entry of goods. (d) Candidates were required to:-

(i) Mention two types of warehouses within which goods have been entered for warehousing may be deposited.

(ii) Mention activities that may be performed on the goods entered to warehousing while still in the warehouses.

Candidates’ performance in this question was not satisfactory. Out of 941 candidates who answered the question only 191 (20.3%) candidates passed while the remaining 750 (79.7%) candidates failed. Out of those

68

who passed 140 (14.9%), 48 (5.1%) and 03 (0.3%) candidates scored pass, credit and distinction marks respectively.

Most candidates were not aware of issues asked. They did not put much emphasis on customs.


(a) Assessment of the Paper The panel of examiners found the paper to be quite adequate in terms of the questions examined and time allocated for each question. The panel of markers also found the paper to be well balanced with excellent spread of the topics in the syllabus. The paper had a good mixture of theoretical and computational questions.


Candidates’ performance in this examination paper was not satisfactory. Out of 1,162 candidates who answered the examination only 403 (34.7%) candidates passed while the remaining 759 (65.3%) candidates failed. Out of those who passed 394 (33.9%) and 09 (0.8%) candidates scored pass and credit marks respectively. No candidate scored distinction marks in this question. The candidates’ over-all performance in the subject is as shown on table

8.1.7

TABLE 8.1.7



00-39

40-59

60-79

80-100

TOTAL


759 394 09 0 1,162

PERCENTAGE 65.3 33.9 0.8 0.0 100

TABLE 8.1.8


May 2016 May 2017 % decrease


444 40.8 403 34.7 6.1

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B5 PERFORMANCE MANAGEMENT I: PRINCIPAL LEARNING OUTCOME

Principal learning outcome of this examination paper is to test candidates’ ability to apply knowledge and skills of financial and non-financial data analysis in providing information and decision support to management for decision-making, performance evaluation, and control.

II: STRUCTURE OF THE PAPER The paper had two sections A and B, with six questions carrying 20 marks each. Candidates were required to answer question one in section A and any other four out of five questions in Section B


The following topics were tested in this paper:- QUESTION 1: COST ACCOUNTING TECHNIQUES AND DECISIONS-

MAKING TECHNIQUES: THROUGH PUT ACCOUNTING AND INFORMATION FOR DECISION MAKING

From the given information candidates were required to:-

(a) Calculate the mix (units) of each type of leather accessory which will

maximize profit and state the value of profit. (b) Calculate the Throughput Accounting Ratio (TPAR) for each type of

leather accessory and briefly discuss when it is worth producing a product where throughput accounting principles are in operation.

(c) Explain how the given company could improve their TPAR and show the consequences of each improvement measure.

Candidates’ performance in this question was not satisfactory. Out of 2,258 candidates who answered the question only 247 (10.9%) candidates passed while the remaining 2011 (89.1%) candidates failed. Out of those who passed 183 (8.1%), 52 (2.3%) and 12 (0.5%) candidates scored pass, credit and distinction marks respectively.

Most candidates failed to determine the proper ranking criteria for the purpose of making product mix decisions.

QUESTION 2: COST ACCOUNTING TECHNIQUES: TARGET COSTING

(a) Candidates were required to use the given information to:- (i) Explain briefly how target costing might be used in the

development and production of a new product. (ii) Explain the benefits of adopting a target costing approach at

an early stage in the development of a new product. (iii) Suggest possible measures that a company might take to

reduce the gap. If a target costing approach is used and a cost gap is identified for the named component.

70

(b) From the given information candidates were required to calculate the expected cost per unit of a given component and calculate any cost gap that exists.

Candidates’ performance in this question was not satisfactory. Out of 1,885 candidates who answered the question only 494 (26.2%) candidates passed while the remaining 1,391 (73.8%) candidates failed. Out of those who passed 335 (17.8%), 125 (6.6%) and 34 (1.8%) candidates scored pass, credit and distinction marks respectively. Most candidates were not conversant with the issues tested in this

question.

QUESTION 3: BUDGETARY PLANNING AND CONTROL.

(a) Candidates were required to use the given information as a C (b) Consultant to assess cash position of a named Company for the given

period of time of the business and Comment on the results. (c) By using the given information candidates were required to:-

(i) Identify the problems which appear to exist in budgetary control system.

(ii) Explain how budgetary control system could be revised to improve the effectiveness.

Candidates’ performance in this question was not satisfactory. Out of 2054 candidates who answered the question only 389 (18.9%) candidates passed while the remaining 1,665 (81.1%) candidates failed. Out of those who passed 337 (16.4%), 46 (2.2%) and 06 (0.3%) candidates scored pass, credit and distinction marks respectively. Most candidates demonstrated poor understanding on the requirement of the questions, also most candidates failed to determine the cost of a given product, the sales figures and depreciation in their calculations.

QUESTION 4: VARIANCES ANALYSIS

(a) Candidates were required to use the given information about the CEO of a named Company, has a problem that does not involve a substantial monetary amount, to:- (i) State who is responsible for the given amount in dispute?

State reasons(s). (ii) From part (i) of the question if the responsibility cannot be

clearly assigned, how should accounting categorize the variance (price or usage)? State reasons for the answer.

(iii) Explain if there are likely to be other circumstances where materials variances cannot be considered the responsibility of the manager most closely involved in them.

(b) Write a commentary on the given approach to variance investigations and corrections, and advise accordingly.

71

Candidates’ performance in this question was not satisfactory. Out of 1,731 candidates who answered the question only 229 (13.2%) candidates passed while the remaining 1502 (86.8%) candidates failed. Out of those who passed 202 (11.7%) and 27 (1.6%) candidates scored pass and credit marks respectively. No candidate scored distinction marks in this question.

Most candidates were not aware of the way that joint variance can arise, they were not aware that even favourable variance can be investigated.

QUESTION 5: PERFOMANCE MEASUREMENT AND CONTROL

Candidates were required to use the given information to:- (a) Determine the Margin percentage (%), the Asset Turnover, and

Return on Investment, and comment on the importance of the relationship that exists amongst the three measures computed.

(b) Candidates were required to use given information to:- (i) Determine the effect on margin percentage (%), Asset

Turnover and Return on Investment of implementation of each of the given changes.

(ii) Comment the desirable course of action in each case given. (iii) State the implication of such action in (ii) above.

(c) By using the provided information candidates were required to write brief notes on the explanations, including simple numerical example (s) to clarify the case.

Candidates’ performance in this question was not satisfactory. Out of 1,559 candidates who answered the question only 79 (5.1%) candidates passed while the remaining 1,480 (94.9%) candidates failed. Out of those who passed 36 (2.4%), 27 (1.7%) and 16 (1.0%) candidates scored pass, credit and distinction marks respectively. Most candidates failed in computations, they provide inappropriate and unrelated comments.

QUESTION 6: PRICING DECISION

Candidates were required to use the given information to:- (a) Determine sales maximizing selling price and the maximum sales

revenue. (b) Determine profit maximizing selling price and the maximum profit. (c) Explain what is meant by a ‘penetration pricing’ strategy and a

‘market skimming’ strategy and discuss the cases to use such pricing strategies.

Candidates’ performance in this question was not satisfactory. Out of 1,763 candidates who answered the question only 328 (18.6%) candidates

72

passed while the remaining 1435 (81.4%) candidates failed. Out of those who passed 251 (14.2%), 72 (4.1%) and 05 (0.3%) candidates scored pass, credit and distinction marks respectively. Most candidates failed to explain penetration pricing strategy and marketing skimming strategy and the causes that makes an organisation to use penetration or skimming pricing strategy. Also failed to determine maximum sales revenue and maximum profit.


(a) Assessment of the Paper The panel of examiners found the paper to be quite adequate in terms of the questions examined and time allocated for each question. The panel of markers also found the paper to be well balanced. The paper had a good mixture of theoretical and computational questions.


Candidates’ performance in this examination paper was not satisfactory. Out of 2,258 candidates who answered the examination only 583 (25.8%) candidates passed while the remaining 1,675 (74.2%) candidates failed. Out of those who passed 562 (24.9%) and 21 (0.9%) candidates scored pass and credit marks respectively. No candidate scored distinction marks in this examination paper.


TABLE 8.1.9



00-39 40-59 60-79 80-100 TOTAL


1,675 562 21 00 2,258

PERCENTAGE 74.2 24.9 0.9 0.0 100

TABLE 8.1.10



316 12.5 583 25.8 13.3

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B6 MANAGEMENT, GOVERNANCE AND ETHICS I: PRINCIPAL LEARNING OUTCOME

Principal learning outcome of this examination paper is to test candidates’ ability to apply principles of strategic management, good governance and business ethics management and administrative functions of an organisation.

II: STRUCTURE OF THE PAPER The paper had two sections A and B, with six questions carrying 20 marks each. Candidates were required to answer question one in section A and any other four out of five questions in Section B


The following topics were tested in this paper:- QUESTION 1: BUSINESS STRATEGY, GOVERNANCE AND ETHICS

Candidates where required to use given information to:- (a) Discuss five main effects of government policies on businesses. (b) Illustrate various types of internal controls that are used by

management to provide reasonable assurance. (c) Argue for and against Kant’s ethical theory citing examples from

business undertakings.


No major weakness was noted in this question.

QUESTION 2: STRATEGIC ANALYSIS, GOVERNANCE, BUSINESS ETHICS

Candidates where required to use the given information to:- (a) Discuss five main benefits of organizational vision and mission. (b) Illustrate various characteristics of effective Board of Directors. (c) Using Ethical Relativism Theory explain how this theory propounds

peaceful coexistence.

Candidates’ performance in this question was satisfactory. Out of 811 candidates who answered the question, 690 (85.1%) candidates passed while the remaining 121 (14.9%) candidates failed. Out of those who passed 412 (50.8), 267 (32.9%) and 11 (1.4%) candidates scored pass, credit and distinction marks respectively.

74

Some candidates failed to understand the requirements of the questions. QUESTION 3: BUSINESS STRATEGY, GOOD GOVERNANCE AND LAW &

ETHICS


(a) Explain the importance of strategy to any business undertakings. (b) Elaborate various features of a good corporate governance. (c) Discuss various distinctions between ‘law’ and ‘ethics’.

Candidates’ performance in this question was satisfactory. Out of 840 candidates who answered the question, 606 (72.1%) candidates passed while the remaining 234 (27.9%) candidates failed. Out of those who passed 263 (31.3), 252 (30.0%) and 91 (10.8%) candidates scored pass, credit and distinction marks respectively. No major weakness was noted in this question, however, some candidates failed to link the case provided in answering the questions.

QUESTION 4: STRATEGIC MANAGEMENT


(a) Analyse necessary steps in formulating business strategy. (b) Discuss various forms of political corruption. (c) From the given case identify and explain ethical problem.


No major weakness was noted in this question, most of those who failed did not understand the requirement of the question.

QUESTION 5: STRATEGIC ANALYSIS’ BUSINESS ETHICS; CORPORATE CULTURE

Candidates were required to:- (a) Analyse the importance of Internet and e-commerce to developing

countries such as Tanzania. (b) Discuss various types of frauds in the procurement process. (c) Elaborate the importance of culture to a business company.

Candidates’ performance in this question was satisfactory. Out of 769 candidates who answered the question, 746 (97.0%) candidates passed while the remaining 23 (3.0%) candidates failed. Out of those who passed

75

161 (20.9%), 438 (57.0%) and 147 (19.1%) candidates scored pass, credit and distinction marks respectively

Few candidates failed to describe the types of fraud in procurement process.

QUESTION 6: RISK AND RISK MANAGEMENT; THREATS TO AN AUDITOR

By using the given statements candidates were required to:-

(a) Enumerate various actions that can be taken by Board of Directors to minimize risks in a manufacturing company.

(b) Discuss the situations where gifts might be considered as bribe and vice versa.

(c) Identify and explain any five types of threats to an auditor’s independence.

Candidates’ performance in this question was satisfactory. Out of 772 candidates who answered the question, 709 (91.8%) candidates passed while the remaining 63 (8.2%) candidates failed. Out of those who passed 316 (40.9%), 387 (50.1%) and 06 (0.8%) candidates scored pass, credit and distinction marks respectively. No major weakness was noted in this question.

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(a) Assessment of the Paper The panel of examiners found the paper to be quite adequate in terms of the questions examined and time allocated for each question, with a wider spread of topics within the syllabus.




TABLE 8.1.11



58 591 232 00 881

PERCENTAGE 06.6 67.1 26.3 0.0 100

TABLE 8.1.12



539 69.7 823 93.4 23.7

77

INTRA LEVELS ANALYSIS OF CANDIDATES’ PERFORMANCE – FOUNDATION AND INTERMEDIATE

Under the revised examination scheme and syllabi, the Board does not allow its candidates to sit both levels. However, it allowed those who were referred to sit for a referral paper and a full level, during the transitional period. The analysis below shows performance of the 182 candidates who sat for examination papers in both Foundation and Intermediate levels. The performance is as indicated hereunder:

S/No. COMBINATION FOUNDATION AND INTERMEDIATE

Number Percent

1 Pass Both 2

1.1 2 Pass FOUND, Partial Pass INTER 76 41.8 3 Pass FOUND, Fail INTER 30 16.5 4 Partial Pass FOUND, Pass INTER 0 0.00 5 Partial Pass Both 19 10.4 6 Partial Pass FOUND, Fail INTER 10 05.5 7 Fail FOUND, Pass INTER 0 0.00 8 Fail FOUND, Partial Pass INTER 22 12.1 9 Fail Both 23 12.6

Total 182 100%

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FINAL LEVEL EXAMINATIONS The Final Level examinations are the last level of the three-tier professional examination system of the Board.

The final level examinations consist of four subjects as mentioned hereunder: - C1 Corporate Reporting C2 Auditing and Assurance C3 Business and Corporate Finance C4 Public Finance and Taxation II

These examination papers have been tested for the six time in this examination session. The examination draws candidates from: - (a) Candidates who were referring P15 Financial Reporting II and P20 Contemporary

Issues in Accounting in the phased out syllabus where these candidates sat for C1 Corporate Reporting in the current syllabus

(b) Candidates who were referring P18 Auditing and Assurance Services in the phased out syllabus where these candidates sat for C2 Auditing and Assurance Services

(c) Candidates who were referring P16 International Finance in the phased out syllabus where these candidates sat for C3 Business and Corporate Finance in the current syllabus and

(d) Candidates who were referring P17 Public Finance and Taxation in the phased out syllabus where these candidates sat for C4 Public Finance and Taxation II in the current syllabus

The performance of the candidates who attempted both modules is shown at the end of the level’s report.

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GENERAL OBSERVATIONS

During the May 2017 examination session, 2,292 candidates sat for Final Level examinations out of whom 389 (17.0%) have passed this level and therefore eligible for the award of STATEMENT OF SUCCESS, 791 (34.5%) have passed some of the subjects while 1,112 (48.5%) have failed the examinations. The general performance subject-wise for the final level examination in this session is as shown on Table 9.1

TABLE 9.1

MODULE E SUBJECT -WISE PERFORMANCE ANALYSIS: MAY 2016 AND MAY 2017

Code Subject Performance

May 2016 May 2017 Entries Pass % Entries Pass %

C1 Corporate Reporting 1,296 376 29.0 1,294 641 49.5 C2 Auditing and Assurance 1,095 399 36.4 1,043 386 37.0 C3 Business and Corporate Finance 1,050 291 27.7 1,101 209 19.0 C4 Public Finance and Taxation II 880 465 52.8 797 531 66.6

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C1 CORPORATE REPORTING I: PRINCIPAL LEARNING OUTCOME

Principal learning outcome of this paper is to test candidates’ ability to financial reporting standards and corporate law in preparing, analysing and evaluating corporate reports by entities, both in the private and public sectors.


This examination paper comprised two sections with six questions. Candidates were required to answer four questions. Question one which carried 40 % was compulsory


In this paper, topics examined and candidates’ performances were as follows:

QUESTION 1: CONSOLIDATED FINANCIAL STATEMENTS, IMPAIRMENT AND LEASES Candidates were required to use the given information to concerning a group which consists of a parent entity and subsidiaries to:

(a) Prepare the Consolidated Statement of Financial Position for the

Dodo group as at 31st July 2016 in accordance with International Financial Reporting Standards.

(b) Discuss the importance and significance of the above factors when conducting an impairment test under IAS 36: Impairment of Assets.

(c) Assess the key differences between operating leases and finance leases.

Candidates’ performance in this question was not satisfactory. Out of 1,294 candidates who answered the question only 09 (0.7%) candidates scored pass marks while the remaining 1,285 (99.3%) candidates failed. There were neither credit nor distinction marks in this questions.

Almost all candidates were weak in dealing with various notes, that needed adjustments. More over some candidates failed to identify associate company hence its treatment (statement of financial position).

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QUESTION 2: EARNINGS PER SHARE

Candidates were required to use given information to:- (a) Discuss the significance of the Earnings Per Share (EPS) figure to

the analysis of company performance. Also to explain why is it important to have an accounting standard in this area?

(b) Applying the requirements of IAS 33: Earnings per Share to the information given, calculate the basic EPS for the given year and the comparative figures for given year to be reported in the given financial statements. The EPS figure originally reported in 2015 was TZS 0.525.


Many candidates failed to compute earnings per share IAS 33. They failed to adjust profit by excluding preference dividend which is not attributable to ordinary shares. They also failed to calculate weightings i.e. theoretical ex-right price and bonus weighting. Others did not capture all requirements of the question, so they left some parts unanswered.

QUESTION 3: NON-CURRENT ASSETS HELD FOR SALE AND DISCONTINUED OPERATIONS


(a) Prepare Profit/Loss from Discontinued operations. (b) Show Retail properties and comment on the write down amount. (c) Show all Property Plant & Equipment for continuing business. (d) Prepare the given company’s statement of comprehensive

Income (extracts) for the given year end

(e) Prepare the given company’s statement of financial position (extract) as at the given period.

Candidates’ performance in this question was not satisfactory. Out of 337 candidates who answered the question, only 06 (1.8%) candidates scored pass marks while the remaining 331 (98.2%) candidates failed. There were neither credit nor distinction marks in this questions.

Candidates failed to separate between continuing and discontinued operations. They also failed to calculate depreciation of NCA.

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QUESTION 4: PROFESSIONAL CODE OF ETHICS; CREATIVE ACCOUNTING AND IAS 34 –INTERIM REPORTING REQUIRED: (a) (i) Explain briefly the Ethical fundamental principles a

professional accountant is expected to comply with. (ii) What are the possible practices where accountants may

apply creative accounting to satisfy management and yet operate with the provision of IFRSs and what might be the management objective?

(b) Prepare brief notes for the presentation, covering the key differences between the other types of report mentioned, using the headings suggested as a guide.

Candidates’ performance in this question was satisfactory. Out of 1,113 candidates who answered the question, 656 (58.9%) candidates passed while the remaining 457 (41.1%) candidates failed. Out of those who passed 382 (34.3%), 163 (14.6%) and 111 (10.0%) candidates scored pass, credit and distinction marks respectively

Those who failed expressed poor understanding of the professional code of ethics.

QUESTION 5: FINANCIAL AND BUSINESS ANALYSIS

(a) Candidates were required to use the given information to prepare a report for the given person that includes the following:

(b) A calculation of the following ratios for the two years (i) gross profit ratio (ii) net profit ratio (iii) inventories turnover in days (based on cost of sales) (iv) trade receivables turnover in days (trade receivables

collection period) (c) A comment on the relative performance of the company for the two

years based on the ratios calculated and what this tells you about the company.

(d) Suggest as to how each of the ratios might be improved. Candidates’ performance in this question was satisfactory. Out of 1,212 candidates who answered the question, 1,056 (87.1%) candidates passed while the remaining 156 (12.9%) candidates failed. Out of those who passed 192 (15.8%), 466 (38.4%) and 398 (32.8%) candidates scored pass, credit and distinction marks respectively

Those who failed were unable to calculate net profit margin based on profit before tax and financial cost instead they used net profit after tax and financial cost.

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QUESTION 6: PROVISIONS AND EVENTS AFTER REPORTING DATE

Candidates were required to use the given information related to:-

(a) Assess, using appropriate figures, and advise on the effect on the financial statements of the given person for the given year

(b) Prepare for reporting, the provisions disclosure notes for inclusion in the given period’s accounts.


Those who answered the question showed a serious weakness in calculating provisions and the related disclosure requirements.

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(a) Assessment of the Examination The panel of examiners found that the question had an appropriate mixture of questions, the distribution of marks and the time allocated was adequate. The paper had easy and difficult questions which were all within the prescribed syllabus.

(b) Candidates’ overall performance of the paper

(c) Candidates’ performance in this examination paper was satisfactory. Out of 1,294 candidates who answered the examination, 641 (49.5%) candidates passed while the remaining 635 (50.5%) candidates failed. Out of those who passed 614 (47.4%) and 27 (2.1%) candidates scored pass and credit marks respectively. No candidate scored distinction marks in this examination paper.


TABLE 9.1.1

C1 CANDIDATES’ PERFORMANCE ANALYSIS

Classification of Marks 0-39 40-59 60-79 80-100 Total


623 614 27 00 1,294

Percentage 50.5 47.4 2.1 0.0 100

TABLE 9.1.2

C1 COMPARISON OF PASS RATE WITH MAY 2016 EXAMINATIONS

May 2016 May 2017 %


376 29.0 641 49.5 20.5

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C2 AUDITING AND ASSURANCE SERVICES

I: PRINCIPAL LEARNING OUTCOME Principal learning outcome of this paper is to test candidates’ ability to apply auditing and assurance standards and relevant laws in undertaking and managing auditing and assurance engagements in complex auditing and reporting situations.

II: STRUCTURE OF THE QUESTIONPAPER

This examination paper comprised two sections with six questions. Candidates were required to answer four questions. Question one carried 40% was compulsory


In this paper, topics examined and candidates’ performances were as follows: QUESTION 1: DRAWING CONCLUSION AND REPORTING AND

INTERNAL AUDIT IN THE PUBLIC SECTOR


(a) (i) Explain what is meant by subsequent events in the audit of financial statements of given limited company in the given year end.

(ii) Discuss the action that the given associates would take in view of the given event discovered after the issue of the financial statements but before the annual general meeting. (iii) Evaluate the matter of the given person being both Board

Chairman and Chief Executive Officer (CEO) of the given company and provide appropriate advice to the company.

(b) For each of the four given clients, explain the circumstances that could have led to the respective forms of opinions being issued.

(c) Advise the board members of the given a company as to whether it is the CAG or the private audit firm should be appointed to audit the financial statements of the company. Justify your answer.

(d) Explain if a private audit firm can be appointed to audit a public company. State the circumstances, if any.

Candidates were not able to redraft the audit opinion as required in the revised ISA 700. Candidates failed to analyse why the given option was provided. Also they failed to analyse why/or under which conditions the CAG or a private audit firm could be appointed as auditors.

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QUESTION 2: ASSESSMENT OF RISKS; INTERNAL CONTROLS; INTERNAL FINANCIAL CONTROLS

Candidates were required to use given information to:

(a) Suggest five suitable controls that should be put in place in the given company.

(b) For each control suggested in (i), state the control objective. (c) Explain five business or other risks in the given company.


No serious weakness was noted in this question.

QUESTION 3: AUDIT IN THE PUBLIC SECTOR

Candidates were required to use given information to:-

(a) Explain by giving the interpretation and rule of conducts of the three ethical principles of Internal Auditors.

(b) With respect to Public Audit Act 2008, describe:- (i) The circumstances under which any person commits an

offence. (ii) The circumstances under which staff of the National Audit

office, an auditor or an expert commit an offence.

(iii) The penalties for offences committed in (i) and (ii) above.


Most candidates demonstrated poor skills in writing essays. They mixed all the points in one paragraph. Others wrote irrelevant explanations and mention other IESBA code of ethics principles such as professional behaviour and competence due care.

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QUESTION 4: PLANNING AND UNDERSTANDING WORK

(a) Candidates were required to explain the role of ‘support letter’ as evidence in the audit of financial statements.

(b) Use the given information to comment on the matters one would consider before expressing an opinion on the consolidated financial statements of the given group of companies.


Candidates confused between support letter with written representation letter thus failed to provide the role support letter but provided the role of written representation letter. They also failed to provide matters an auditor will have to consider before expressing an opinion on the consolidated financial statements.

QUESTION 5: EVALUATION OF ACCOUNTING TREATMENTS

(a) Candidates were required to use the given information concerning to state the considerations that would determine your action in these circumstances.

(b) Use the given statement to state the main points to which you would direct attention in each of these circumstances.


Most candidates could not clearly understand the requirements of the question. They went on mentioning procedures including audit assertions, completeness, valuation and allocation, existence etc. and analytical procedures which were not required in this question. Others went on directing what management was supposed to do instead of where the auditor was supposed to direct his/her attention and action on the given scenario.

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QUESTION 6: ACCEPTING ENGAGEMENTS AND MANAGING ASSIGNMENT; ASSESSMENT OF RISKS, INTERNAL CONTROL, INTERNAL FINANCIAL CONTROL.

(a) Candidates were required use the information to: -

(i) Describe the general matters an auditor should consider before accepting an engagement as a reporting accountant on forecast financial information.

(ii) Detail the procedures that the reporting accountant should undertake in relation to the cash flow forecast of the given company for the given period

(b) (i) Discuss the four (4) issues noted from the meeting with the Chairman of the Audit Committee.

(ii) Advise on the possible responsibilities of the given

company in respect of the four (4) issues noted.


Most candidates responded to this question as if it were a normal external audit engagement. They could not also relate the issues raised in part (b) on money laundering.

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(b) Candidates’ overall performance of the paper Candidates’ performance in this examination paper was not satisfactory. Out of 1,043 candidates who answered the paper only 386 (37.0%) candidates passed while the remaining 657 (63.0%) candidates failed. Out of those who passed 375 (36.0%) and 11 (1.1%) candidates scored pass and credit marks respectively. No candidate scored distinction marks in this examination paper.


TABLE 9.1.3




657 375 11 00 1,043

Percentage 63.0 36.0 1.1 0.0 100

TABLE 9.1.4


MAY 2016 May 2017 %

increase No. of candidates passed % No. of candidates passed % 399 36.4 386 37.0 0.6

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C3 BUSINESS AND CORPORATE FINANCE

I: PRINCIPAL LEARNING OUTCOME Principal learning outcome of this paper is to test candidates’ ability to apply business and financial theories, concepts and analytical frameworks in evaluating and assessing business strategy, business and financing options as well as financial engineering products and provide advice based on such assessments.

II: STRUCTURE OF THE QUESTIONPAPER

This examination paper comprised two sections with six questions. Candidates were required to answer four questions. Question one carried 40% was compulsory



QUESTION 1: BUSINESS STRATEGY

Candidates were required to use given information to:-

(a) (i) Conduct a SWOT analysis of the given company and evaluate its usefulness in the prevailing situation.

(ii) Discuss the strategic decision-making techniques that the

given company could use when making the choice between Strategy A and Strategy B.

(b) (i) Advise the given company on what a good business plan will help her as an entrepreneur. (ii) As a start-up entrepreneur, what is the most important part

of company’s business plan? Explain why.

Candidates’ performance in this question was not satisfactory. Out of 1,101 candidates who answered the question only 51 (4.6%) candidates passed while the remaining 1,050 (95.4%) candidates failed. Out of those who passed 44 (3.4%) and 07 (0.6%) candidates scored pass and credit marks respectively. No candidate scored distinction marks in this question.

Most candidates rushed to answer the question without understanding the requirements of the question, also they lacked analytical skills.

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QUESTION 2: BUSINESS STRATEGY; GEARING AND CAPITAL STRUCTURE AND OPTIONS

(a) Candidates were required to use given information to use a decision

tree analysis to determine the alternative that will result into the highest expected payoff to the firm.

(b) “Equity in a leveraged firm is like a call option on the underlying assets”. Candidates were required to explain what is meant by this statement.

(c) (i) Use the given statement to explain if investors can borrow and lend at 6 percent per annum and explain if they will be indifferent between the two stocks. In the response the candidate was required to consider an investor currently owning TZS.10,000 worth of the given company. Show how his wealth will change by shifting his investment to the other given company while keeping leverage constant.

(ii) According to Modigliani and Miller, candidates were required to explain what kind of investors will attempt the strategy you executed in c(i) above? When will the process cease?

Candidates’ performance in this question was not satisfactory. Out of 306 candidates who answered the question only 09 (2.9%) candidates passed while the remaining 297 (97.1%) candidates failed. Out of those who passed 08 (2.6%) and 01 (0.3%) candidates scored pass and distinction marks respectively.

Most candidates expressed poor understanding of gearing and capital structure and option analysis.

QUESTION 3: FUTURE OPTIONS AND SWAPS

(a) Candidates were required to use given information to identify the key features of a futures contract and a forward contract. Compare and contrast the two and identify situations where each is most appropriate as a hedging tool.

(b) Use the given case to explain what can the given exporter do to protect itself from the expected depreciation of the £.

(c) Use the given information to explain how the sugar mill can hedge its position against the anticipated decline in sugar prices in the given month.


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Most of the candidates failed to identify situations where either forward or futures option is the most appropriate as hedging tool.

QUESTION 4: DIVIDEND POLICY

(a) Candidates were required to use given information to prepare brief notes for the forthcoming board meeting that:

(i) Set out the key considerations for the given company’s

position when formulating a dividend policy.

(ii) Address the specific points made by the two directors and how the given company might address the fact that particular groups of investors may have different preferences in respect of dividends.

(iii) Explain to the board the relationship between a company’s dividend policy and the ‘agency problem’ in business finance.

(b) It is uncommon for listed companies to make seasoned equity offering. (i) Candidates to briefly explain any two costs of a new issue of

equity. (ii) Candidates to explain what are the possible reasons for stock

prices to drop on the announcement of a seasoned equity offering?

(c) Use the given case to estimate the value of the equity and the debt.


Most candidates were giving too much unnecessary information e.g. reproducing the fact that were provided in the question.

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QUESTION 5: BUSINESS ANALYSIS; MANAGING RISK

(a) Candidates were required to use the given information to:- (i) Estimate the adjusted present value of the investment and

recommend whether the investment should be undertaken. (ii) Explain why the adjusted present value technique is sometimes

advocated as being a more appropriate way of evaluating a project than Net Present Value.

(b) Use the given information to evaluate three ways in which the given company can hedge the risks associated with its foreign exchange exposure.


Calculating the APV was a major problem to most candidates. They also failed to explain why APV is assumed to be the best evaluating approach than the NPV.

QUESTION 6: FINANCIAL ENGINEERING AND PLANNING

Candidates were required to use the given information to:- (a) Discuss whether the two given banks in an interest rate swap may

be exposed to some risks. (b) Evaluate whether all the parties involved in the swap benefit from

it. (c) Use the given case to estimate the present value of the cost

savings arising from the swap


Candidates were weak in establishing the logic of the question. They could not determine how swap arrangements are made and they could not determine and evaluate the swap arrangements. Specifically the mathematical part was difficulty for most candidates.

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(b) Candidates’ overall performance of the paper Candidates’ performance in this examination paper was not satisfactory. Out of 1,101 candidates who answered the paper only 209 (19.0%) candidates passed while the remaining 892 (81.0%) candidates failed. Out of those who passed 204 (18.5%) and 05 (0.5%) candidates scored pass and credit marks respectively. No candidate scored distinction marks in this examination paper.


TABLE 9.1.5




892 204 05 00 1,101

Percentage 81.0 18.5 0.5 0.0 100

TABLE 9.1.6

C3 COMPARISON OF PASS RATE WITH MAY 2016 EXAMINATIONS MAY 2016 May 2017 % decrease

No. of candidates passed % No. of candidates passed % 291 27.7 209 19.0 -8.7

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C4 PUBCLI FINANCE AND TAXATION II I: PRINCIPAL LEARNING OUTCOME

Principal learning outcome of this paper is to test candidates’ ability to apply knowledge of public finance, tax laws and Financial Reporting Standards and Corporate Law in preparing, analysing and evaluating corporate reports by entities, both in the private and public sectors.


This examination paper comprised two sections with six questions. Candidates were required to answer four questions. Question one carried 40% which was compulsory



QUESTION 1: PUBLIC FINANCE; TAXATION OF SPECIALISED INDUSTRIES; INCOME TAXATION (a) Candidates were required to use given information to briefly

describe at least seven (7) challenges facing the public expenditure in Tanzania.

(b) Use the given information to:- (i) Define the term ‘commuted pension’ as defined in the Income

Tax Act, Cap 332. (ii) Calculate the tax liability of the company for the year 2016.

(c) Use given information to:- (i) Explain your understanding of unrelieved losses as a deductible

expenditure under the provisions of the Income Tax Act, Cap 332.

(ii) Evaluate the validity of the argument in (c) above by governments in granting the exemptions.

(d) Use the given statement to identify five areas in which resident persons are treated differently from non-resident persons under the Income Tax Act, Cap 332.

(e) Use the given information to prepare calculations to determine which of the options result into the higher after tax annual will take home pay for the Sales Manager.

(f) Identify two situations where the Income Tax Act, Cap 332 provides for tax on business income to be assessed based on turnover, and state the justification in each case.

Candidates’ performance in this question was satisfactory. Out of 797 candidates who answered the question, 514 (64.5%) candidates passed while the remaining 283 (35.5%) candidates failed. Out of those who passed 419 (52.6%) and 95 (11.9%) candidates scored pass and credit

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marks respectively. No candidate scored distinction marks in this question.

Some candidates showed poor understanding of specialised industries and the income tax act.

QUESTION 2: PUBLIC SECTOR AND THE NATIONAL ECONOMIC

ACCOUNTS

(a) Candidates were required to use the given information to state in details why the national income accounting is very important for a country like Tanzania.

(b) Distinguish between Real Gross Domestic Product (Real GDP) and Nominal GDP. State clearly with reasons which one of these is a better index of welfare of the people.

(c) Use the given information calculate for the year to: (i) Net National Product at Factor Cost (ii) Gross National Disposable Income


QUESTION 3: RECENT REFORMS IN THE TANZANIAN TAXATION

SYSTEM; THEORETICAL CONCEPTS OF TAXATION

(a) Candidates were required use the given information to explain the relationship between ‘tax policy’, ‘tax revenue’ and ‘tax reform’.

(b) Use the given information to:- (i) Educate taxpayers on the requirements of a Good Tax

System. (ii) Explain on the Optimal Taxation Theory.


Few candidates failed to discuss quality of good tax system.

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QUESTION 4: DOUBLE TAXATION TREATIES AND INCOME TAXATION

Candidates were required to apply relevant provisions of Income Tax Act, Cap 332, to compute for year 2016:

(a) Investment income (b) Total income (c) Total final withholding tax


Candidates failed to understand the items that are subject to withholding tax. The rate applicable on final withholding tax was also a problem.

QUESTION 5: DETERMINATION OF RESIDENTIAL STATUS OF TAXPAYERS; DOUBLE TAXATION TREATIES; TAXABLE PARTNESHIP INCOME Candidates were required to use the given information to:-

(a) Determine whether the given partner was a resident person or

not in the given year with reference to relevant provisions of the Income Tax Act, Cap 332

(b) Calculate the taxable partnership income for the year 2014, if the given partnership is a resident partnership.

(c) Determine taxable income in the hands of partners. (d) Use the given statement to explain to the given person why

that was a case.

Candidates’ performance in this question was satisfactory. Out of 191 candidates who answered the question 92 (48.2%) candidates passed while the remaining 99 (51.8%) candidates failed. Out of those who passed 89 (46.6%) and 03 (1.6%) candidates scored pass and credit marks respectively. No candidate scored distinction marks in this question.

Some candidates were mistreating items like discount received and return inwards. Confusion about distribution of taxable income of partnership using sharing profit while others used the partnership profit.

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QUESTION 6: SETTLEMENT OF TAX DISPUTES; CALCULATION OF DEPRECIATION ALLOWANCE (BUSINESS INCOME)

Candidates were required to use the given information to:

(a) Explain conditions which the Tax Revenue Appeals Board (TRAB) and Tax Revenue Appeals Tribunal (TRAT) shall accept for objection against an assessment.

(b) Calculate depreciation allowance admissible to G&G Hotel (T) under the 3rd Schedule of ITA, Cap 332 for the given year of income.

Candidates’ performance in this question was satisfactory. Out of 443 candidates who answered the question 216 (48.8%) candidates passed while the remaining 227 (51.2%) candidates failed. Out of those who passed 170 (38.4%) and 46 (10.4%) candidates scored pass and credit marks respectively. No candidate scored distinction marks in this question.

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(b) Candidates’ overall performance of the paper Candidates’ performance in this examination paper was satisfactory. Out of 797 candidates who answered the paper 531 (66.6%) candidates passed while the remaining 266 (33.4%) candidates failed. Out of those who passed 490 (61.5%), 41 (5.1%) candidates scored pass marks respectively. No candidate scored distinction marks in this examination paper


TABLE 9.1.7




266 490 41 00 797

Percentage 33.4 61.5 5.1 0.0 100

TABLE 9.1.8


MAY 2016 MAY 2017 %


465 52.8 531 66.0 13.2

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INTRA-LEVELS ANALYSIS OF CANDIDATES’ PERFORMANCE – INTERMEDIATE AND FINAL LEVELS

Under the revised examination scheme and syllabus, the Board does not allow its candidates to attempt both levels. However, it allowed those who were caught in transition from the phased out syllabus to the new syllabus during the transitional period. The analysis below shows performance of the 820 candidates who sat examination papers in the Intermediate and Final Levels respectively. Their performance is as indicated hereunder:

S/No. COMBINATION INTERMEDIATE & FINAL Number Percent

1 Pass Both 73 08.9 2 Pass INTER, Partial Pass FINAL 0 00.0 3 Pass INTER, Fail FINAL 115 14.0 4 Partial Pass INTER, Pass FINAL 1 0.1 5 Partial Pass Both 0 00.0 7 Partial Pass INTER, Fail FINAL 52 06.3 8 Fail INTER, Pass FINAL 41 05 9 Fail INTER, Partial Pass FINAL 0 00.0 10 Fail Both 538 65.6

Total 820 100%

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CHAPTER III EXAMINERS’ RECOMMENDATIONS TO THE TUTORS AND STUDENTS In each examination session, the panel of examiners come up with suggestions to both Tutors and Students which are aimed at improving future candidates’ performance. These recommendations arise from shortcomings observed in the course of marking the candidates’ scripts. RECOMMENDATIONS TO TUTORS Guidance to the candidates 1. Tutors should encourage their students to create a habit of reading current issues

and keeping themselves abreast with the issues taking place within and globally. This will assist them in answering the questions that are of general nature and at the same time improve their vocabulary.

2. Tutors should encourage their students to put more efforts in their studies while

preparing for the examinations. They should ensure that only those students who have performed well in the class tests and mock examinations are allowed to sit for the Board’s examinations.

3. Tutors should encourage their students to read extensively and do a lot of exercises.

They should discourage students from cramming the questions and their solutions as this will not assist them during the examinations.

4. Tutors should encourage students to devote more time in their studies and help them

to obtain relevant materials and reference books for the particular subjects. 5. Tutors should expose their students to examination techniques including how to

tackle a question in on examination room.

Teaching and learning materials 6. Tutors should prepare and update their teaching notes (competence based) that can

be made available to their students. 7. Tutors should introduce an ‘examination technique’ topic during the course of

training. The examination techniques in one of the crucial areas that play a vital role to students when it comes to answering examination questions.

8. Tutors should devote their time to prepare appropriate case study questions and

orient students especially those at higher levels on how to tackle case study questions.

9. Tutors should make sure that they concentrate on teaching using NBAA Learning

Materials and other supplementary relevant learning materials to cover the syllabus adequately. It is important that the tutors should prepare work-plans that guide them in covering the entire syllabus of the subjects they teach.

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10. Tutors should devote their time to attend NBAA seminars, workshops and Training of Trainers workshops in order to be aware of current emerging professional issues.

Evaluating the candidates 11. Tutors should at a certain point of time, prepare mock examinations that would test

the students understanding and segregate weak from strong students whom should be given more exercises and attention before they can be allowed to register for the examinations. The mock examinations should cover typical examination questions in an examination atmosphere thereby familiarizing the students to similar conditions that they would encounter when taking their examinations.

Effective teaching 12. Tutors should prepare scheme of works/lesson plans that will guide them during

the teaching process. Teaching plans have to be provided to enable the students be aware of what has to be covered and at what time.

13. Tutors should ensure that they are using relevant and up-to-date teaching materials

in order to avoid misleading the students. 14. Tutors should ensure that they attend short courses regarding teaching

methodologies in order to improve their teaching styles and acquire modern teaching methodologies.

15. Tutors should take time to read comments prepared by markers which have been

summarized in the Examiners’ and Performance Report. By so doing they will understand their shortfalls and improve in the respective areas mentioned by the markers.

16. For the subjects which need practical orientation like auditing, it would be much

better for the trainers to invite practicing auditors to teach some of the topics. 17. Tutors should avoid spoon feeding the students, instead they have to apply various

participatory teaching methods in order to bring about effective learning among the students.

18. Tutors should in as much as possible try to observe the weaknesses of their students

and address them by equipping them with different skills on the subject matter especially on new statutes.

19. Tutors should at all times be up-to-date with emerging teaching techniques and

should apply them. Tutors should also apply the techniques that make the learner think more rather than cramming.

20. Tutors should ensure that they equip themselves with knowledge and skills that are required to teach effectively the students under competence based syllabi

21. Tutors should assist students on how to use the learning materials for effectively learning

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RECOMMENDATIONS TO STUDENTS Applying appropriate learning styles 22. Students should develop a culture of reading NBAA Learning materials, various

textbooks and journals in order to get an in depth knowledge and understanding of the subject matter.

23. Students should develop study schedules that will guide them during the

preparations for the examinations and ensure that they have covered each and every topic in the syllabus.

24. Changes taking place in the accounting, auditing, tax, law regimes are vast and

hence students should keep up-to-date with those changes. For example definitions and terminologies in accounting and auditing have been modified since the adoption of the International Accounting/Auditing Standards. Students need to know these changes in order to be able to apply them in their course of study and in their work places.

25. Students should put more effort on Public Sector Accounting/Auditing as it seems

they do not give special attention on the area. 26. Students should work hard, think critically and do more practice to enhance their

competence and confidence. 27. Students should make sure that they respond to the requirements of the question

asked rather than answering what has not been asked. They should not formulate their own questions and provide their own answers.

28. Students are required to do comprehensive preparations. They should not base their

preparations on occurrence of topics on past examinations.

Self motivation towards learning 29. Students need to take personal initiative to improve their mastery of English

Language. This can be achieved in many ways – through reading daily newspapers, magazines, books and through speaking the language. Language limitations has affected majority of candidates as they fail to express themselves properly let alone giving them flexibility in answering the questions.

30. Students should take an initiative of improving their case study analysis. Should

seek assistance from their trainers on how to analyze a case study questions.

31. Students should develop their own learning strategies; they should not depend entirely on their trainers.

Assurance of knowledge mastery 32. Students should work hard and not rush to sit for the examinations before they have

assured themselves that they are ready for the examinations. They should not take chances and play a game of chance (doing examination is not gambling), hoping that they will find the examinations questions they are familiar with. They need to

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ensure that they get value for the money they have used as tuition and examination fees.

33. Students to take seriously initiative and effort to cover the whole syllabus

requirement material through reading various books, journals and published articles not to concentrate mostly in teaching questions and answers of past examinations.

34. Students should avoid attempting the examination unless they have covered a major

part of the respective syllabus; also devote more time in private and group discussions study rather than considering the examination as “going concern”.

35. Students should make a good use of the learning materials in order to improve their learning

36. Students should ensure that they avoid learning through memorisation, instead they have to study and understand subject matters in details

Appropriate preparation for examinations and examination techniques 37. When attempting the examinations, students/candidates are urged to first read the

instructions, and then read the questions properly before they start attempting the question. Make a viable choice in case there are optional questions or even the choice of questions they should start attempting.

38. Students should learn how to organize their answers during the examination

attempts. This can be achieved through practice.

39. Students should have extensive course contents coverage and attempt many questions in the preparation of their examination in the form of self exercise to build their ability to tackle questions properly and to be able to understand different term used in examinations.

40. Students should ensure that they attend review classes without giving any excuses for not enrolling to these reviews.

41. Students should take time to read about examination techniques that are published

regularly in the NBAA Students’ Newsletters and other publications in order to acquire rightful techniques in dealing and answering examination questions.

42. Students should make use of the syllabus outlines during their preparations in order

to countercheck that they have adequately covered the syllabus. 43. Students should make use of group discussions in order to enhance their

understanding through such discussion. 44. Students should orient themselves with different type of questions, theoretical and

computational type of questions and do thorough preparations during the study sessions. They should also equip themselves with analytical skills, especially as at the higher levels in order to be tackle questions that require such skills.

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45. Students should change their reading behaviour of memorizing various questions and answers by devoting their time in reading various books and get an insight of the subject matters.

46. Students should make thorough preparation for the examination by reading

extensively the recommendations text books to supplement what they are getting from the review classes.

47. Students are advised to apply the following techniques among others in order to pass their examinations.

47.1 Ensuring that the syllabus is well covered Candidates are required to use the syllabus as their base of determining whether they are ready to sit for the examinations or not. The problem of most candidates is total dependence on the trainers. It is not funny to find a candidate attending a review class without having a syllabus. It is difficult for such a candidate to know what has been covered by the trainer and what has been left out. Some candidates instead of ensuring that they have covered the syllabus adequately they rely on Question and Answers (Qs and As) booklets. Questions and Answers of previous examinations are good but they are not supplements of the syllabus. By reading Question and Answer booklets students cannot get sufficient knowledge about the subject matter. The best way of making use of Qs and as is after the completion of the syllabus to see how examination questions are set and the best ways to approach them.

47.2 Active participation in the classroom sessions The education system of most countries including Tanzania does not prepare students/candidates to take active role in the classroom. The predominant teaching method used i.e. lecturing is characterized by various shortcomings including: subject experts are not always good teachers, students are passive, learning is difficult to gauge and communication is one way i.e. students are just listening to lectures and do not participate actively. If a student goes to the class waiting for a trainer to come and dish information to be grasped, automatically learning becomes impaired. An effective learning to take place requires the learners to take effective role in the learning process. Experience shows that students who ask questions and pose challenges during the learning process they do well in their examinations. Asking a question or posing a challenge to a trainer does not come from nowhere, it come only if a student is interested to what he is learning. An interested student in the learning process is the one who takes trouble to read what is going to be taught before entering the class. Therefore trainers are required to prepare course outlines derived from the prescribe syllabus so as to enable students to follow. Students can make use of the course outline to prepare on their own before they go to the classroom. The lesson becomes enjoyable when both students and the trainers are prepared before entering the classroom. The secret behind this is that, if trainers know that the students are prepared in advance, they also do extra work. They ensure that they are well prepared before they enter into the classroom. In short,

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student’s active role in the class is fundamental factor in the effective learning process.

47.3 Review class attendance

Review classes are quite different from formal schooling. In the formal schooling context trainers exercise authority of controlling students’ attendance. They can penalize students who miss classes without genuine reasons. This does not happen in the review classes because those who are attending review classes are heterogeneous. Some are employees, some are self employed, and others are fresh graduates from colleges while others are occupied with various social responsibilities. It becomes difficult for the trainers to control attendance of such categories of learners. But we should bear in mind that at higher level education, classroom attendance is not a responsibility of the trainer. If there is any candidate who misses classes just because there is no one to question about it, such a student must have some problems. No one is expecting to see a student missing a class without having genuine reasons at this level of education. But, generally there is lack of seriousness among most candidates especially in the case of classroom attendance. Candidates are therefore reminded that attending classroom sessions appropriately should be self motivated. There is a good number of candidates who never attend review classes with confidence that they know each and every thing. They register themselves for examinations as private candidates. Experience shows that candidates who are attending review classes have a far better chance to pass their examinations than those who do not attend. Some of the candidates attend review classes only when they sit for the examinations on the first time but when they are required to refer or re-seat the examinations they neglect to register for review classes. They claim to have adequate and sufficient materials and therefore they can study on their own. This is not always a good decision. Human brain is characterized by the nature of forgetting. A famous study on forgetting textbook materials compared the percentage of material remembered after different intervals of time. The results were as follows:

After 1 day 54% was remembered. After 7 days 35% was remembered. After 14 days 21% was remembered. After 21 days 18% was remembered. After 28 days 19% was remembered. After 63 days 17% was remembered.

Remembering what you have heard in lectures is even more difficult to recall because you are not able to slow down, pause, reflect, or to reread unless you take excellent notes! In a study on recall after listening to a lecture, students forgot more than 90% of the points from the lecture after 14 days! (Engle, Susan: Context is everything: The nature of memory. W.H. Freeman & Co, 1999). If that is the case then there is no way a candidate may decide not to attend review classes.

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47.4 Group discussions By not sharing ones knowledge of understanding about a particular subject matter a candidate may think that he knows much about the subject but when it comes into examination, such a candidate fails! It is very easy for someone to cheat himself that he knows much about a particular subject matter due to lack of sharing knowledge with others. Going to the library daily or doing daily self-study is not a direct ticket to pass examinations. There is a belief that when you are taught something by your fellow student who understands the subject matter, the knowledge sticks into your mind than being taught by a trainer. Group discussions are said to be a good source of learning and sharing of knowledge and experiences due to its nature of open interaction. Although most candidates who are preparing for the professional examinations are facing limited time to organize group discussions, they should not ignore it at all. They should be aware that sometimes it is far better to discuss a subject/topic in a group than going to the library for self study. Group discussion is a potential source of learning but it is ignored by most candidates. Candidates are therefore obliged to form group discussions to discuss various topics especially those which are most difficult or complicated.

47.5 Practise learning of materials in deep One of the major factors that lead to poor performance in the examinations is learning things in shallow. Most candidates have ample time to study but they do not do it until the ‘late hours’. They keep on saying ‘there is enough time to study’. But since time does not on the favour of anyone in this universe they find themselves running shortage of time. What follows after this is to make ‘ad hoc’ preparations. In this case therefore they practise what the psychologists call ‘rote learning’. By definition rote learning is a learning technique which avoids understanding the inner complexities and inferences of the subject that is being learned and instead focuses on memorizing the materials so that it can be recalled by the learner exactly the way it was read or heard. In other words, it is learning "just for the test". The major practice involved in rote learning techniques is learning by repetition, based on the idea that one will be able to recall the meaning of the material the more they repeat it. However, in many fields, especially mathematics and related disciplines, this can often produce poor results. Rote learning is not the best way of studying. Students are required to study a subject matter in deep. This will make them to own what they have learnt and express it in their own words. In rote learning a student tries to reproduce what he has read as it was read. ‘If a student reads something with the aim of reproducing it as it is, that is not understanding. This method limits a student to learn many things because memory capacity for human beings is also limited. Students should also be aware that rote learning does not develop interest to learn. As you memorize new materials the old ones fade out.

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47.6 Conclusion Candidates should take trouble to read various techniques for passing examinations rather than concentrating only on studying topics that will appear in the examinations. Those who have been able to make use of various study techniques have found themselves enjoying learning and finally pass their examinations. Studying for the examinations should be enjoyable rather than becoming cumbersome to the candidates. This is possible if the candidates apply appropriate techniques in their studies.

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CHAPTER IV

CANDIDATURE DISTRIBUTION The Board’s examination candidature comes from various training institutions (Tuition Providers) in the country. The May 2017 examination session drew candidates from the following institutions as per Table 10:

TABLE 10

NO. OF CANDIDATES NAME OF ATEC ATEC FOUNDATION

LEVEL INTERMEDIATE

LEVEL FINAL LEVEL

TOTAL INSTITUTION I II

PRIVATE 12 33 86 492 330 953 PT ATTITUDE 3 151 100 254 PT CCA 17 6 2 3 1 29 PT CORNERSTONE 18 41 70 198 98 425

PT STEP AHEAD FIN. 7 67 39 113

PT EXCEL- MOSHI 1 1 14 88 48 152

PT FANI 2 1 3 PT KAS 20 31 17 13 81 PT PAC- ARUSHA 9 13 34 109 56 221 PT PTC MWANZA 2 4 13 2 4 25 PT TABORA G.C. 4 5 22 6 37 PT SJCS 7 7 PT OPT- SONGEA 1 2 20 6 29 PT MU-DSM 9 31 11 51 PT AFC 34 351 250 PT BRIGHT - MOROGORO 1 3 8 39 17 68

PT INSPIRE 2 2 PT EVIN 2 6 17 361 293 679 PT MMK DODOMA 1 2 27 12 42

PT NAO 18 15 33 PT WAME MWANZA 1 3 3 4 3 14

PT EMINENT 1 3 123 63 190 PT KMC ASSOCIATES 5 3 8

PT WADE ARUSHA 1 4 16 11 32

PT ZIBCO 2 15 9 26 PT BETA 1 1 PT COVENANT- FC 15 40 228 992 554 1829

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NO. OF CANDIDATES NAME OF ATEC ATEC FOUNDATION

LEVEL INTERMEDIATE

LEVEL FINAL LEVEL

TOTAL INSTITUTION I II

PT UPTAKE 1 1 10 76 50 138 PT FILADEFIA F.C DODOMA 11 84 56 151

PT FTC 3 2 1 6 PT ZENJI 2 39 16 57 PT TU-IRINGA 1 1 18 7 27 PT TCCG 1 6 367 297 671 PT IDIANA CONSULT. 8 24 10 42

PT PYTHAGORAS F.C 1 6 3 10

PT STAR FIN. CONS. 1 49 44 94

TOTAL APPLIED 108 194 607 3813 2413 7135 ABSENTEEISM 5 9 50 336 121 521 TOTAL SAT 103 185 557 3477 2292 6614

KEY 1 PRIVATE 2 PT ATTITUDE - Part-Time Review Classes conducted by Attitude Financial Consultants 3 PT CCA - Part-Time Review Classes conducted by Commercial College of Arusha

4 PT CORNERSTONE - Part-Time Review Classes conducted by Cornerstone Financial Consultants

5 PT DBC - Part-Time Review Classes Conducted by Delve Business Consultants Co. Ltd. of DSM

6 PT EXCEL- MOSHI - Part-Time Review Classes Conducted by Excel Financial & Tax Solutions of Moshi

7 PT FANI - Part-Time Review Classes conducted by Fani Business Consultants

8 PT KAS - Part-Time Review Classes conducted by KAS Institute of Professionals (T) Ltd. – DSM.

9 PT PAC- ARUSHA - Part-Time Review Classes Conducted by PAC Consultants of Arusha

10 PT PTC MWANZA - Part-Time Review Classes conducted by Professional Training Centre - Mwanza

11 PT REHOBOTH - Part-Time Review Classes conducted by Rehoboth Consultancy - DSM 12 PT SJCS - St. Joseph’s Commercial School – Tanga

13 PT PERFECT- SONGEA - Part-Time Review Classes conducted by Perfect Trainers and Business Consultants

14 PT PERFECT – FUTURE

- Part-Time Review Classes conducted by The Perfect Future Consultants

15 PT RUTER - Part-Time Review Classes conducted by Ruter Business and Management Services

16 PT FC - Part-Time Review Classes Conducted by First Contact Institute of Business Administration & Information Technology

17 PT BRIGHT - MOROGORO

- Part-Time Review Classes conducted by Bright Professionals Tanzania - Morogoro

18 PT INSPIRE - Part-Time Review Classes conducted by Inspire Consultants Ltd - DSM

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19 PT EVIN - Part-Time Review Classes conducted by Evin School of Management - DSM

20 PT MMK DODOMA - Part-Time Review Classes conducted by MMK - Dodoma 21 PT NAO - Part-Time Review Classes Conducted by National Audit Office – DSM 22 PT WAME MWANZA - Part-Time Review Classes Conducted by WAME Investment - Mwanza

23 PT WETA - KIGOMA - Part-Time Review Classes conducted by Western Tanganyika College - Kigoma

24 PT APT - Part-Time Review Classes conducted by APT Financial Consultants – DSM

25 PT BHC ARUSHA - Part-Time Review Classes conducted by Business Horizon Consultants - Arusha

26 PT WADE ARUSHA - Part-Time Review Classes conducted by WADE Through Financial Consultants

27 PT ZIBCO - Part-Time Review Classes conducted by Zanzibar Intellectual and Business Consultants

28 PT BETA - Part-Time Review Classes conducted by Beta Business Consultants - DSM 29 PT B&P - Part-Time Review Classes conducted by Inter Consultant

30 PT COVENANT- FC - Part-Time Review Classes conducted by Covenant Financial Consultants - DSM

31 PT UPTAKE - Part Time review classes conducted by UPTAKE Business Resources (T) Ltd - DSM

32 PT AFC - Part-Time Review Classes conducted by Accountants and Financial Consultants Ltd

33 PT ACG - Part-Time Review Classes Conducted by Accountant General’s Office

34 PT FILADEFIA F.C. DODOMA

- Part-Time Review Classes conducted by Filadefia Financial Consultancy

35 PT FTC - Part-Time Review Classes conducted by Financial Training Centre

36 PT ZENJI - Part-Time Review Classes conducted by Zenji Review and Consultancy - Zanzibar

37 PT CCU - Part-Time Review Classes conducted by Chuo cha Uchumi Zanzibar

38 PT TCCG - Part-Time Review Classes conducted by Tanzania Centre for Corporate Governance DSM

39 PT IDIANA CONSULTANCY MBEYA

- Part-Time Review Classes conducted by Idiana Consultancy Mbeya

40 PT PYTHAGORAS F.C. - Part-Time Review Classes conducted by Pythagoras Financial Consultants

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INSTITUTIONAL PERFORMANCE

The assessment of institutional performance is done using two approaches:

1. Best Candidate Approach: The best institution under this approach is the one which produces the “NBAA Best

Level Candidate”, a candidate who obtained the highest marks in aggregate, at a single examination attempt. Using this approach, the best candidate for each of the Board’s examination levels is as follows:

Examination Best Candidates came from ATEC Level I PT CORNERSTONE

ATEC Level II PT CORNERSTONE

FOUNDATION LEVEL: PT KAS

INTERMEDIATE LEVEL: No candidate qualified for award

FINAL LEVEL: PT CONVENANT F.C 2. Performance Approach:

Under this approach, the best institution is that which obtains the highest Grade Point Average (GPA) in relation to the total number of A ,B, C, F grades obtained by candidates in comparison with total number of papers sat by candidates in that level.

The following formula is applied

Subject GPA = (�� )

(�� )

Where Na = Total Number of Candidates who have scored A in an institution at

that level Nb = Total Number of Candidates who have scored B in an institution at that

level Nc = Total Number of Candidates who have scored C in an institution at that

level Nf = Total Number of Candidates who have scored F in an institution at that

level Pa = The weight of Grade A = 3 Pb = The weight of Grade B = 2 Pc = The weight of Grade C = 1 Pf = The weight of Grade F = 0

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Arising from the above, the best three institutions under this approach for each examination level are as indicated hereunder: (See tables 15.1 to 15.5(b) on pages 145 to 154 of this report).

Examination Level Best Institution

ATEC I: Category A: 1-5 Candidates 1st - PT TCCG 2nd - PT STAR FIN. CONSULTANCY 3rd - PT PTC MWANZA, UPTAKE & WAME MWANZA Category B: Above 5 Candidates 1st - PT CORNERSTONE 2nd - PT PAC ARUSHA 3rd - PT SJCS

ATEC II: Category A: 1-5 Candidates 1st - PT INSPIRE 2nd - PT EMNENT 3rd - PT BRIGHT-MOROGORO Category B: Above 5 Candidates 1st - PT CORNERSTONE 2nd - PT PAC ARUSHA 3rd - PT EVIN

FOUNDATION LEVEL: Category A: 1-20 Candidates 1st - PT FTC, TU-IRINGA & CCA

Category B: Above 20 Candidates 1st - PT AFC 2nd - PT CORNERSTONE 3rd - PT COVENANT F.C

INTERMEDIATE LEVEL: Category A: 1-20 Candidates 1st - PT FTC & FANI

3rd - PT PYTHAGORAS F.C

Category B: Above 20 Candidates 1st - PT UPTAKE 2nd - PT MU DSM 3rd - PT ATTITUDE

FINAL LEVEL: Category A: 1-20 Candidates 1st - PT IDIANA CONSULTANCY 2nd - PT KMC ASSOCIATES 3rd - PT MMK DODOMA

Category B: Above 20 Candidates 1st - PT UPTAKE 2nd - PT EXCEL MOSHI 3rd - PT COVENANT F.C

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TABLE 11.1 SUMMARY OF RESULTS BY EXAMINATION LEVEL AND INSTITUTION WISE

1-5 CANDIDATES - ACCOUNTING TECHNICIAN LEVEL I

Institution Entered Absent Sat No of

papers No of

A % of A No of

B % of B No of

C % of C No of F % of F GPA Ranking PT- TCCG 1 0 1 4 0 0.0% 2 50.0% 2 50.0% 0 0.0% 1.50 1 PT - STAR FIN.CONS 1 0 1 4 0 0.0% 1 25.0% 3 75.0% 0 0.0% 1.25 2 PT - PTC MWANZA 2 0 2 8 1 12.5% 0 0.0% 5 62.5% 2 25.0% 1.00 3 PT - WAME MWANZA 1 0 1 1 0 0.0% 0 0.0% 1 100.0% 0 0.0% 1.00 3 PT -UPTAKE 1 0 1 1 0 0.0% 0 0.0% 1 100.0% 0 0.0% 1.00 3 PT -EVIN 2 0 2 7 0 0.0% 1 14.3% 4 57.1% 2 28.6% 0.86 6 PT - BRIGTH MOROGORO 1 0 1 4 0 0.0% 1 25.0% 1 25.0% 2 50.0% 0.75 7 PT - EXCEL MOSHI 1 1 0 0 0 0.0% 0 0.0% 0 0.0% 0 0.0% 0.00 8

Subtotals 10 1 9 29 1 3.4% 5 17.2% 17 58.6% 6 20.7% 1.03 RANKING

1ST - PT TCCG 2ND - PT STAR FINANCIAL COUNSALTANCY 2ND - PTC MWANZA ,WAME MWANZA & UPTAKE Key: Total No of Papers Attempted – Is calculated as sum of No of Candidates times Papers Attempted (∑ of Candidates x No of Papers)

Number of Grades – Is Number of Grades (A-F) scored by that Institution in all papers in that particular level.

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TABLE 11.1 SUMMARY OF RESULTS BY EXAMINATION LEVEL AND INSTITUTION WISE

ABOVE 5 CANDIDATES - ACCOUNTING TECHNICIAN LEVEL I


papers No of A % of

A No of B % of B No of C % of C No of F % of F GPA Ranking PT – ConerStone 18 1 17 49 3 6.1% 6 12.2% 26 53.1% 14 28.6% 0.96 1 PT - PAC - ARUSHA 9 0 9 22 0 0.0% 1 4.5% 14 63.6% 7 31.8% 0.73 2 PT - SJCS 7 0 7 22 0 0.0% 0 0.0% 15 68.2% 7 31.8% 0.68 3 PT - CCA 17 0 17 49 1 2.0% 2 4.1% 23 46.9% 23 46.9% 0.61 4 PT - Covenant F. C. 15 1 14 42 0 0.0% 1 2.4% 21 50.0% 20 47.6% 0.55 5 PT - KAS 20 1 19 58 0 0.0% 1 1.7% 24 41.4% 33 56.9% 0.45 6

Subtotals 86 3 83 242 4 1.7% 11 4.5% 123 50.8% 104 43.0% RANKING

1ST - PT Cornerstone 2ND - PT PAC Arusha 3RD - PT SJCS Key: Total No of Papers Attempted – Is calculated as sum of No of Candidates times Papers Attempted (∑ of Candidates x No of Papers) Number of Grades – Is Number of Grades (A-F) scored by that Institution in all papers in that particular level?

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TABLE 11.2

SUMMARY OF RESULTS BY EXAMINATION LEVEL AND INSTITUTION WISE 1-5 CANDIDATES - ACCOUNTING TECHNICIAN LEVEL II


papers No of A % of A No of B % of B No of C % of C No of F % of F GPA Ranking PT INSPIRE 2 0 2 8 1 12.5% 4 50.0% 3 37.5% 0 0.0% 1.75 1 PT EMNENT 1 0 1 2 0 0.0% 0 0.0% 2 100.0% 0 0.0% 1.00 2 PT-BRIGHT MOROGORO 3 0 3 9 1 11.1% 0 0.0% 4 44.4% 4 44.4% 0.78 3 PT- OPT SONGEA 1 0 1 4 0 0.0% 0 0.0% 3 75.0% 1 25.0% 0.75 4 PT - EXCEL MOSHI 1 0 1 4 0 0.0% 0 0.0% 3 75.0% 1 25.0% 0.75 4 PT- WAME MWANZA 3 0 3 7 0 0.0% 0 0.0% 4 57.1% 3 42.9% 0.57 6 PT- TABORA G.C 4 0 4 16 0 0.0% 0 0.0% 9 56.3% 7 43.8% 0.56 7 PT - BETA 1 0 1 2 0 0.0% 0 0.0% 1 50.0% 1 50.0% 0.50 8 PT- PTC MWANZA 4 0 4 16 0 0.0% 1 6.3% 6 37.5% 9 56.3% 0.50 8 PT - MMK DODOMA 1 0 1 2 0 0.0% 0 0.0% 1 50.0% 1 50.0% 0.50 8 PT - UPTAKE 1 0 1 4 0 0.0% 0 0.0% 1 25.0% 3 75.0% 0.25 11 PT- TU IRINGA 1 0 1 3 0 0.0% 0 0.0% 0 0.0% 3 100.0% 0.00 12 PT - WADE ARUSHA 1 1 0 0 0 0.0% 0 0.0% 0 0.0% 0 0.0% 0.00 12


1ST - PT INSPIRE 1ST - PT EMNENT 3RD - PT BRIGHT MOROGORO Key: Total No of Papers Attempted – Is calculated as sum of No of Candidates times Papers Attempted (∑ of Candidates x No of Papers) Number of Grades – Is Number of Grades (A-F) scored by that Institution in all papers in that particular level.

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TABLE 11.2 (b) SUMMARY OF RESULTS BY EXAMINATION LEVEL AND INSTITUTION WISE

ABOVE 5 CANDIDATES - ACCOUNTING TECHNICIAN LEVEL II


papers No of A % of A No of B % of B No of C % of C No of F % of F GPA Ranking PT - CornerStone 41 3 38 111 9 8.1% 15 13.5% 56 50.5% 31 27.9% 1.02 1 PT - PAC - ARUSHA 13 1 12 27 0 0.0% 1 3.7% 16 59.3% 10 37.0% 0.67 2 PT - EVIN 6 0 6 15 0 0.0% 1 6.7% 7 46.7% 7 46.7% 0.60 3 PT - KAS 31 0 31 92 1 1.1% 2 2.2% 47 51.1% 42 45.7% 0.59 4 PT - Covenant F. C. 40 2 38 113 2 1.8% 1 0.9% 50 44.2% 60 53.1% 0.51 5 PT - CCA 6 0 6 17 0 0.0% 1 5.9% 6 35.3% 10 58.8% 0.47 6

Subtotals 137 6 131 375 12 3.2% 21 5.6% 182 48.5% 160 42.7% RANKING 1ST - PT Cornerstone 2ND - PT PAC ARUSHA 3RD - PT EVIN Key: Total No of Papers Attempted – Is calculated as sum of No of Candidates times Papers Attempted (∑ of Candidates x No of Papers) Number of Grades – Is Number of Grades (A-F) scored by that Institution in all papers in that particular level.

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TABLE 11.3 (a)

SUMMARY OF RESULTS BY EXAMINATION LEVELS AND INSTITUTIONS 1- 20 CANDIDATES - FOUNDATION LEVEL


papers No of A % of A No of B % of B No of C % of C No of F % of F GPA Ranking PT - FTC 3 0 3 3 0 0.0% 1 33.3% 2 66.7% 0 0.0% 1.33 1 PT - TU IRINGA 1 0 1 3 0 0.0% 1 33.3% 2 66.7% 0 0.0% 1.33 1 PT - CCA 2 0 2 6 0 0.0% 3 50.0% 2 33.3% 1 16.7% 1.33 1 PT-UPTAKE 10 1 9 25 1 4.0% 9 36.0% 12 48.0% 4 16.0% 1.27 4 PT - OPT SONGEA 2 0 2 8 0 0.0% 1 12.5% 7 87.5% 0 0.0% 1.13 5 PT -PYTHAGORAS F.C 1 0 1 2 0 0.0% 0 0.0% 2 100.0% 0 0.0% 1.00 6 PT - ATITTUDE 3 1 2 3 0 0.0% 1 33.3% 1 33.3% 1 33.3% 1.00 6 PT - MU DSM 9 0 9 21 0 0.0% 5 23.8% 10 47.6% 6 28.6% 0.95 8 PT- STEP AHEAD FIN. 7 0 7 16 0 0.0% 3 18.8% 9 56.3% 4 25.0% 0.94 9

PT - PTC Mwanza 13 1 12 37 0 0.0% 7 18.9% 20 54.1% 10 27.0% 0.92 10 PT - WADE ARUSHA 4 0 4 10 0 0.0% 1 10.0% 7 70.0% 2 20.0% 0.90 11 PT - IDIANA CONSULT. 8 1 7 22 0 0.0% 4 18.2% 11 50.0% 7 31.8% 0.86 12 PT -EXCEL MOSHI 14 1 13 43 0 0.0% 6 14.0% 23 53.5% 14 32.6% 0.81 13 PT -EVIN 17 4 13 30 0 0.0% 3 10.0% 18 60.0% 9 30.0% 0.80 14 PT -BRIGHT MORO 8 1 7 23 0 0.0% 3 13.0% 12 52.2% 8 34.8% 0.78 15 PT - WAME MWANZA 3 1 2 4 0 0.0% 0 0.0% 3 75.0% 1 25.0% 0.75 16 PT- KAS 17 0 17 60 0 0.0% 9 15.0% 26 43.3% 25 41.7% 0.73 17 PT - G.C TABORA 5 0 5 23 0 0.0% 1 4.3% 10 43.5% 12 52.2% 0.52 18

PT - FANI 2 0 2 2 0 0.0% 0 0.0% 1 50.0% 1 50.0% 0.50 19 PT -FILADEFIA F.C DOM 11 2 9 27 0 0.0% 1 3.7% 10 37.0% 16 59.3% 0.44 20 PT -EMINENT 3 2 1 5 0 0.0% 0 0.0% 2 40.0% 3 60.0% 0.40 21

PT - TCCG 6 1 5 10 0 0.0% 0 0.0% 3 30.0% 7 70.0% 0.30 22 PT - MMK Dodoma 2 1 1 1 0 0.0% 0 0.0% 0 0.0% 1 100.0% 0.00 23

PT - ZIBCO 2 1 1 1 0 0.0% 0 0.0% 0 0.0% 1 100.0% 0.00 23 PT -ZENJI 2 1 1 5 0 0.0% 0 0.0% 0 0.0% 5 100.0% 0.00 23

Subtotals 155 19 136 390 1 0.3% 59 15.1% 193 49.5% 138 35.4%

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RANKING

1ST - PT TTC, TU IRINGA & CCA

Key: Total No of Papers Attempted – Is calculated as sum of No of Candidates times Papers Attempted (∑ of Candidates x No of Papers)


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TABLE 11.3 (b)

SUMMARY OF RESULTS BY EXAMINATION LEVELS AND INSTITUTIONS ABOVE 20 CANDIDATES - FOUNDATION LEVEL


papers No of A % of A No of B % of B No of C % of C No of F % of F GPA Ranking PT - AFC 34 1 33 93 0 0.0% 14 15.1% 53 57.0% 26 28.0% 0.87 1 PT - CornerStone 70 12 58 169 1 0.6% 24 14.2% 91 53.8% 53 31.4% 0.84 2 PT - Covenant F. C. 228 10 218 656 2 0.3% 68 10.4% 329 50.2% 257 39.2% 0.72 3 PT- PAC ARUSHA 34 2 32 101 0 0.0% 8 7.9% 51 50.5% 42 41.6% 0.66 4


1ST - PT AFC 2ND - PT Cornerstone 3RD - PT Covenant F.C Key: Total No of Papers Attempted – Is calculated as sum of Number of Candidates times Papers Attempted (∑ of Candidates x No of Papers) Number of Grades – Is Number of Grades (A-F) scored by that Institution in all papers in that particular level.

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TABLE 11.4 (a)

SUMMARY OF RESULTS BY EXAMINATION LEVELS AND INSTITUTIONS 1-20 CANDIDATES - INTERMEDIATE LEVEL


papers No of A % of A No of B % of B No of C % of C No of F % of F GPA Ranking PT - FTC 2 1 1 1 0 0.0% 0 0.0% 1 100.0% 0 0.0% 1.00 1 PT - FANI 1 0 1 1 0 0.0% 0 0.0% 1 100.0% 0 0.0% 1.00 1 PT-PYTHAGORAS F.C 6 0 6 15 0 0.0% 1 6.7% 6 40.0% 8 53.3% 0.53 3 PT-ZIBCO 15 2 13 32 0 0.0% 1 3.1% 11 34.4% 20 62.5% 0.41 4 PT - TU IRINGA 18 0 18 48 0 0.0% 1 2.1% 16 33.3% 31 64.6% 0.38 5 PT - KMC ASSOCIATES 5 0 5 14 0 0.0% 0 0.0% 5 35.7% 9 64.3% 0.36 6 PT - KAS 13 0 13 33 0 0.0% 1 3.0% 5 15.2% 27 81.8% 0.21 7 PT - WADE ARUSHA 16 1 15 31 0 0.0% 0 0.0% 5 16.1% 26 83.9% 0.16 8 PT-WAME MWANZA 4 0 4 13 0 0.0% 1 7.7% 0 0.0% 12 92.3% 0.15 9 PT - CCA 3 0 3 8 0 0.0% 0 0.0% 1 12.5% 7 87.5% 0.13 10 PT - NAO 18 5 13 21 0 0.0% 0 0.0% 1 4.8% 20 95.2% 0.05 11 PT - PTC MWANZA 2 0 2 2 0 0.0% 0 0.0% 0 0.0% 2 100.0% 0.00 12 Subtotals 103 9 94 219 0 0.0% 5 2.3% 52 23.7% 162 74.0%

RANKING 1ST - PT FTC & PT FANI 3RD - PT PYTHAGORAS Key: Total No of Papers Attempted – Is calculated as sum of Number of Candidates times Papers Attempted (∑ of Candidates x No of Papers) Number of Grades – Is Number of Grades (A-F) scored by that Institution in all papers in that particular level.

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TABLE 11.4 (b)

SUMMARY OF RESULTS BY EXAMINATION LEVELS AND INSTITUTIONS ABOVE 20 CANDIDATES - INTERMEDIATE LEVEL


papers No of

A % of

A No of

B % of

B No of

C % of

C No of

F % of

F GPA Ranking PT - UPTAKE 76 4 72 195 0 0.0% 13 6.7% 101 51.8% 81 41.5% 0.65 1 PT- MU DSM 31 5 26 75 0 0.0% 5 6.7% 36 48.0% 34 45.3% 0.61 2 PT - ATTITUDE 151 5 146 384 0 0.0% 17 4.4% 183 47.7% 184 47.9% 0.57 3 PT- CORNERSTONE 198 19 179 462 0 0.0% 33 7.1% 194 42.0% 235 50.9% 0.56 4 PT - EXCEL MOSHI 88 7 81 236 0 0.0% 15 6.4% 97 41.1% 124 52.5% 0.54 5 PT - IDIANA CONSULT 24 1 23 73 0 0.0% 4 5.5% 31 42.5% 38 52.1% 0.53 6 PT - COVENANT F.C 992 57 935 2361 0 0.0% 119 5.0% 932 39.5% 1310 55.5% 0.50 7 PT - EVIN 361 37 324 706 0 0.0% 25 3.5% 295 41.8% 386 54.7% 0.49 8 PT - ZENJI 39 7 32 93 0 0.0% 5 5.4% 35 37.6% 53 57.0% 0.48 9 PT - STAR FIN CONS. 49 0 49 87 0 0.0% 4 4.6% 34 39.1% 49 56.3% 0.48 10 PT-BRIGHT MORO 39 4 35 81 0 0.0% 4 4.9% 29 35.8% 48 59.3% 0.46 11 PT - TCCG 367 48 319 663 0 0.0% 16 2.4% 239 36.0% 408 61.5% 0.41 12 PT - AFC 351 32 319 624 0 0.0% 20 3.2% 214 34.3% 390 62.5% 0.41 13 PT - EMINENT 123 8 115 180 0 0.0% 5 2.8% 60 33.3% 115 63.9% 0.39 14 PT - PAC ARUSHA 109 10 99 257 0 0.0% 8 3.1% 72 28.0% 177 68.9% 0.34 15 PT- OPT SONGEA 20 0 20 54 0 0.0% 0 0.0% 18 33.3% 36 66.7% 0.33 16 PT - FILADEFIA FC 84 5 79 137 0 0.0% 1 0.7% 42 30.7% 94 68.6% 0.32 17 PT - STEP AHEAD FIN. 67 7 60 130 0 0.0% 1 0.8% 36 27.7% 93 71.5% 0.29 18 PT - TABORA G.C 22 2 20 45 0 0.0% 0 0.0% 13 28.9% 32 71.1% 0.29 19 PT - MMK DODOMA 27 2 25 49 0 0.0% 0 0.0% 13 26.5% 36 73.5% 0.27 20 Subtotals 3218 260 2958 6892 0 0.0% 295 4.3% 2674 38.8% 3923 56.9%

123

RANKING 1ST - PT UPTAKE. 2ND - PT MU DSM 3RD - PT ATTITUDE Key: Total No of Papers Attempted – Is calculated as sum of No of Candidates times Papers Attempted (∑ of Candidates x No of Papers) Number of Grades – Is Number of Grades (A-F) scored by that Institution in all papers in that particular level.

124

TABLE 11.4 (a)

SUMMARY OF RESULTS BY EXAMINATION LEVELS AND INSTITUTIONS 1-20 CANDIDATES - FINAL LEVEL


papers No of A % of A No of B % of B No of C % of C No of F % of F GPA Ranking PT - IDIANA CONSULT. 10 0 10 31 0 0.0% 3 9.7% 21 67.7% 7 22.6% 0.87 1 PT - KMC ASSOCIATES 3 0 3 3 0 0.0% 1 33.3% 0 0.0% 2 66.7% 0.67 2 PT - MMK DODOMA 12 0 12 24 0 0.0% 1 4.2% 10 41.7% 13 54.2% 0.50 3 PT - TU IRINGA 7 0 7 12 0 0.0% 0 0.0% 6 50.0% 6 50.0% 0.50 3 PT - MU DSM 11 1 10 23 0 0.0% 0 0.0% 11 47.8% 12 52.2% 0.48 5 PT - ZIBCO 9 0 9 15 0 0.0% 0 0.0% 6 40.0% 9 60.0% 0.40 6 PT - WADE ARUSHA 11 2 9 15 0 0.0% 0 0.0% 5 33.3% 10 66.7% 0.33 7 PT-WAME MWANZA 3 0 3 6 0 0.0% 0 0.0% 2 33.3% 4 66.7% 0.33 7 PT - BRIGHT MOROGORO 17 2 15 28 0 0.0% 0 0.0% 9 32.1% 19 67.9% 0.32 9 PT - NAO 15 1 14 24 0 0.0% 0 0.0% 6 25.0% 18 75.0% 0.25 10 PT - OPT SONGEA 6 0 6 9 0 0.0% 0 0.0% 2 22.2% 7 77.8% 0.22 11 PT- ZENJI 16 2 14 24 0 0.0% 0 0.0% 5 20.8% 19 79.2% 0.21 12 PT - PYTHAGORAS F.C 3 0 3 5 0 0.0% 0 0.0% 1 20.0% 4 80.0% 0.20 13 PT - G.C TABORA 6 0 6 11 0 0.0% 0 0.0% 2 18.2% 9 81.8% 0.18 14 PT - CCA 1 1 0 0 0 0.0% 0 0.0% 0 0.0% 0 0.0% 0.00 15 PT - FTC 1 1 0 0 0 0.0% 0 0.0% 0 0.0% 0 0.0% 0.00 15 PT - PTC MWANZA 4 0 4 5 0 0.0% 0 0.0% 0 0.0% 5 100.0% 0.00 15

Subtotals 135 10 125 235 0 0 5 2.1% 86 36.6% 144 61.3% RANKING

1ST - PT IDIANA CONSULTANCY 2ND - PT KMC ASSOCIATES 3RD - PT MMK DODOMA

Key: Total No of Papers Attempted – Is calculated as sum of No of Candidates times Papers Attempted (∑ of Candidates x No of Papers)


125

TABLE 11.5 (b)

SUMMARY OF RESULTS BY EXAMINATION LEVELS AND INSTITUTIONS ABOVE 20 CANDIDATES - FINAL LEVEL


papers No of A % of A No of B % of B No of C % of C No of F % of F GPA Ranking PT - UPTAKE 50 2 48 91 0 0.0% 7 7.7% 44 48.4% 40 44.0% 0.64 1 PT-EXCEL MOSHI 48 3 45 102 0 0.0% 5 4.9% 55 53.9% 42 41.2% 0.64 2 PT - COVENANT F.C 554 24 530 1055 0 0.0% 31 2.9% 529 50.1% 495 46.9% 0.56 3 PT- PAC ARUSHA 56 5 51 91 0 0.0% 2 2.2% 46 50.5% 43 47.3% 0.55 4 PT - CORNERSTONE 98 4 94 185 0 0.0% 2 1.1% 87 47.0% 96 51.9% 0.49 5 PT - EVIN 293 3 290 535 0 0.0% 14 2.6% 200 37.4% 321 60.0% 0.43 6 PT - ATTITUDE 100 1 99 208 0 0.0% 4 1.9% 79 38.0% 125 60.1% 0.42 7 PT - TCCG 297 14 283 500 0 0.0% 8 1.6% 190 38.0% 302 60.4% 0.41 8 PT - AFC 250 10 240 441 0 0.0% 3 0.7% 139 31.5% 299 67.8% 0.33 9 PT- STEP AHEAD FINC. 39 3 36 68 0 0.0% 0 0.0% 21 30.9% 47 69.1% 0.31 10 PT - EMINENT 63 5 58 91 0 0.0% 2 2.2% 22 24.2% 67 73.6% 0.29 11 PT - STAR FIN.CONS 44 1 43 80 0 0.0% 1 1.3% 19 23.8% 60 75.0% 0.26 12 PT- FILADEFIA F.C 56 5 51 94 0 0.0% 0 0.0% 23 24.5% 71 75.5% 0.24 13

Subtotals 1948 80 1868 3541 0 0.0% 79 2.2% 1454 41.1% 2008 56.7% RANKING 1ST - PT UPTAKE 2ND - PT EXCEL MOSHI. 3RD - PT COVENANT F. C Key: Total No of Papers Attempted – Is calculated as sum of No of Candidates times Papers Attempted (∑ of Candidates x No of Papers) Number of Grades – Is Number of Grades (A-F) scored by that Institution in all papers in that particular level.

126

CHAPTER V

ACCOUNTING MANPOWER CREATED BY THE BOARD UP TO MAY 2017 In an effort to meet the demand of the highly needed accounting personnel in the country, the Board has been able to create cumulatively 22,022 accounting manpower since its inception in May 1975. These qualified accounting personnel created are categorized in the following groups:

Table 12 below shows the statistics of graduates per session and cumulatively since May 1975 to May 2017

NBAA GRADUATES – CUMULATIVE STATISTICAL ANALYSIS

MAY 1975 –MAY 2017

TABLE 12

EXAMINATION SESSION

BBC NABOCE ATEC NAD CPA TOTAL

NO. CUM. NO. CUM. NO. CUM. NO. CUM. NO. CUM. NO. CUM. 1ST SESSION MAY 1975

- - 04 04 - - 01 01 NE NE 05 05

2ND SESSION NOV. 1975

- - 32 36 - - 10 11 NE NE 42 47

3RD SESSION MAY 1976

- - 158 194 - - 25 36 02 02 185 232

4TH SESSION NOV. 1976

- - 73 267 - - 43 79 02 04 118 350

5TH SESSION MAY 1977

- - 174 441 - - 36 115 08 12 218 568


- - 98 539 - - 17 132 03 15 118 686


- - 193 732 - - 57 189 13 28 263 949


- - 172 904 - - 56 245 11 39 239 1188


- - 199 1103 - - 46 291 27 66 272 1460

10TH SESSION - - 75 1178 - - 31 322 13 79 119 1579

(1) Certified Public Accountants (CPA) 8,007 (2) National Accountancy Diploma (NAD)

(Phased out in November 1991)

1,537 (3) National Book-keeping Certificate (NABOCE)

(phased out in May 1991)

5,746 (4) Basic Book-keeping Certificate (BBC)

(phased out in November 1990)

2,971 (5)

Accounting Technician Certificate (ATEC)

3,761

127

EXAMINATION SESSION


NO. CUM. NO. CUM. NO. CUM. NO. CUM. NO. CUM. NO. CUM. NOV. 1979 11TH SESSION MAY 1980

- - 123 1301 - - 22 344 22 101 167 1746


- - 119 1420 - - 24 368 20 121 163 1909


- - 229 1649 - - 53 421 13 134 295 2204


- - 124 1772 - - 23 444 21 155 168 2372


- - 172 1945 - - 37 481 19 174 228 2600


- - 236 2181 - - 36 517 20 194 292 2892


- - 248 2429 - - 47 564 21 215 316 3208


- - 200 2629 - - 28 592 14 220 242 3450


- - 199 2828 - - 36 628 17 246 252 3702


- - 215 3043 - - 37 665 12 258 264 3966

21ST SESSION MAY 1985

18 18 306 3349 - - 41 706 12 270 377 4343


40 58 194 3543 - - 44 750 09 279 287 4630


62 120 123 3666 - - 54 804 21 300 260 4890


86 206 168 3834 - - 48 852 11 311 313 5203


64 270 205 4039 - - 25 877 06 317 300 5503


93 363 129 4168 - - 40 917 14 331 276 5779


298 661 175 4343 - - 32 949 14 345 519 6298


292 953 179 4522 - - 72 1021 22 367 565 6863


332 1285 201 4723 - - 40 1061 16 377 589 7452


446 1731 232 4955 - - 78 1139 31 414 787 8239


482 2213 235 5190 - - 118 1257 17 431 852 9091


758 2971 211 5401 - - 114 1371 40 471 1123

10214


- 2971 345 5746 - - 111 1482 61 532 517 10731


- 2971 - 5746 56 56 55 1537 64 596 175 10906


- 2971 - 5746 136 192 - 1537 - 596 136 11042

128

EXAMINATION SESSION


NO. CUM. NO. CUM. NO. CUM. NO. CUM. NO. CUM. NO. CUM. 36TH SESSION NOV. 1992

- 2971 - 5746 186 378 - 1537 11 607 197 11,239


- 2971 - 5746 119 497 - 1537 12 619 131 11,370


- 2971 - 5746 104 601 - 1537 12 631 116 11,486


- 2971 - 5746 110 711 - 1537 16 647 126 11,612


- 2971 - 5746 207 918 - 1537 19 666 226 11,838


- 2971 - 5746 122 1040 - 1537 28 694 150 11,988


- 2971 - 5746 117 1157 - 1537 29 723 146 12,134


- 2971 - 5746 87 1244 - 1537 36 759 123 12,257


- 2971 - 5746 111 1355 - 1537 53 812 164 12,421


- 2971 - 5746 109 1464 - 1537 28 840 137 12,558


- 2971 - 5746 107 1571 - 1537 40 880 147 12,705


- 2971 - 5746 124 1695 - 1537 40 920 164 12,869


- 2971 - 5746 60 1755 - 1537 29 949 89 12,958


- 2971 - 5746 80 1835 - 1537 52 1001 132 13,090


- 2971 - 5746 80 1915 - 1537 47 1048 127 13,217


- 2971 - 5746 104 2019 - 1537 42 1090 146 13,363

52ND SESSION NOV.2000

- 2971 - 5746 91 2110 - 1537 71 1161 162 13,525

53RD SESSION MAY,2001

- 2971 - 5746 45 2155 - 1537 77 1238 122 13,647


- 2971 - 5746 64 2219 - 1537 33 1271 97 13,744


- 2971 - 5746 41 2260 - 1537 28 1299 69 13,813

56TH SESSION Nov. 2002

- 2971 - 5746 42 2302 - 1537 53 1352 95 13,908


- 2971 - 5746 55 2357 - 1537 49 1401 104 14,012

58th SESSION NOV. 2003

- 2971 - 5746 58 2415 - 1537 55 1456 113 14,125

59th SESSION MAY 2004

- 2971 - 5746 85 2500 - 1537 165 1621 250 14,375


- 2971 - 5746 113 2613 - 1537 134 1755 247 14,622


- 2971 - 5746 65 2678 - 1537 142 1897 207 14,829

129

EXAMINATION SESSION


NO. CUM. NO. CUM. NO. CUM. NO. CUM. NO. CUM. NO. CUM. 62ND SESSION NOV. 2005

- 2971 - 5746 75 2753 - 1537 131 2028 206 15,035


- 2971 - 5746 62 2815 - 1537 92 2120 154 15,189


- 2971 - 5746 35 2850 - 1537 83 2203 118 15,307


- 2971 - 5746 102 2952 - 1537 97 2300 199 15,506


- 2971 - 5746 61 3013 - 1537 177 2477 238 15,744


- 2971 - 5746 21 3034 - 1537 184 2661 205 15,949


- 2971 - 5746 49 3083 - 1537 97 2758 146 16,095


- 2971 - 5746 45 3128 - 1537 179 2937 224 16,319


- 2971 - 5746 61 3189 - 1537 146 3083 207 16,525


- 2971 - 5746 32 3221 - 1537 164 3247 196 16,722


-

2971

-

5746

33

3254

-

1537

176

3423

209

16,931


- 2971 - 5746 29 3283 - 1537 185 3608 214 17,145


- 2971 - 5746 31 3314 - 1537 268 3876 299 17,444


- 2971 - 5746 35 3349 - 1537 259 4135 294 17,738


- 2971 - 5746 23 3372 - 1537 188 4323 211 17,949


- 2971 - 5746 26 3398 - 1537 468 4791 494 18,443


- 2971 - 5746 36 3434 - 1537 377 5,168 413 18,856


- 2971 - 5746 46 3480 - 1537 478 5,646 524 19,380


- 2971 - 5746 43 3523 - 1537 369 6,015 412 19,792


- 2971 - 5746 42 3565 - 1537 600 6,615 642 20,434

1ST Mid-SESSION AUGUST 2015

- 2971 - 5746 - 3565 - 1537 03 6,618 03 20,437

82ND SESSION NOVEMBER 2015

- 2971 - 5746 42 3607 - 1537 270 6,888 312 20,749

2ND MID-SESSION FEBRUARY 2016

- 2971 - 5746 - 3607 - 1537 01 6,889 01 20,750


- 2971 - 5746 40 3647 - 1537 282 7,171 322 21,072

130

EXAMINATION SESSION


NO. CUM. NO. CUM. NO. CUM. NO. CUM. NO. CUM. NO. CUM. 3RD MID-SESSION AUGUST 2016

- 2971 - 5746 - 3647 - 1537 06 7,177 06 21,078

84TH SESSION NOVEMBER 2016

- 2971 - 5746 49 3,696 - 1537 420 7,597 469 21,547


- 2971 - 5746 65 3761 - 1537 410 8,007 475 22,022

Table 13 shows the statistics of CPA (T) equivalent graduates per session and cumulatively since November 2014 to May 2017.

TABLE 13: CPA (T) EQUIVALENT CERTIFICATES FROM NOVEMBER 2014 TO

MAY 2017

EXAMINATION SESSION

TOTAL NO. CUM.

80TH SESSION NOVEMBER 2014 01 01 81ST SESSION MAY 2015 08 09 1ST MID-SESSION AUGUST 2015 04 13 82ND NOVEMBER 2015 03 16 2ND MID-SESSION FEBRUARY 2016 08 24 83RD SESSION MAY 2016 10 34 3RD MID-SESSION AUGUST 2016 05 39 84TH SESSION NOVEMBER 2016 19 58 4TH MID-SESSION FEBRUARY 2017 05 63 85TH SESSION MAY 2017 17 80

131

CHAPTER VI CANDIDATES WINNING THE SPECIAL PRIZES – MAY 2017 EXAMINATION SESSION 1.0 PRIZES OFFERED BY NBAA

NBAA offers prizes in the following categories: 1.0.1 Best Level Performance Prize 1.0.2 Single Subject Prize 1.0.3 Best Female Prizes

1.1 Minimum Requirement to Win the Prize

In order to win any of the above prizes offered by NBAA, the minimum requirement is for a candidate to obtain an overall pass in a level, having attempted whole set of subjects in that level and passing at a single examination attempt.

1.2 Amount offered in each Examination level: 1.2.1 NBAA Best Level Performance Prize

This prize is awarded to the best candidate who completes an examination level in the first attempt and scores highest marks in aggregate in that level.

Exam Paper Codes

Amounts Tshs.

Accounting Technician Levels I & II T01 – T08 50,000 Foundation Level A1 – A5 60,000 Intermediate Level B1 – B6 80,000 Final Level C1 – C4 100,000

1.2.2 Single Subject Prize (Subject to Subject) Performance Prize

The prize is awarded to the best candidate who has excelled in a subject by attaining at least a credit mark – 70% or above in the Accounting Technician Examination Scheme, 60% or above in the Professional Examination Scheme.

Exam Paper Codes

Amounts Tshs.

Accounting Technician Levels I & II T01 – T08 40,000 Foundation Level A1 – A5 50,000 Intermediate Level B1 – B6 60,000 Final Level C1 – C4 70,000

132

1.2.3 Best Female Prizes In motivating female candidates to work harder in their studies and perform better in the Board’s examination, two categories of prizes are offered to female candidates as follows:

1.2.3.1 Best Level Female Performance Prize: This prize is offered to a female candidate as long as the score in aggregate in a level is 70% and above in ATEC examinations and 60% and above in professional examinations.

Exam Paper

Codes Amounts Tshs.

Accounting Technician Level I T01 – T04 50,000 Accounting Technician Level II T05 – T08 50,000 Foundation Level A1 – A5 60,000 Intermediate Level B1 – B6 80,000 Final Stage Level C1 – C4 100,000

1.2.3.2 Best Female Graduate Prize:

The second category of prize is the Best Graduate Prize which is offered to the female candidate who scores highest marks in aggregate among female candidates in ATEC II or CPA (T).

Exam Paper

Codes Amounts Tshs.

Best ATEC Female Graduate Prize Award T05 – T08 250,000 Best CPA (T) Female Graduate Prize Award C1 – C4 500,000

1.3 Prizes won by Candidates:

1.3.1 NBAA Best Level Performance Prize: Code and Subject Name Name Index No. Amount

Tshs. Accounting Technician Level I

MWITA, NORBERT Z. 1029923 50,000

Accounting Technician Level II

JAMES, ARNOLD 2029837 50,000

Foundation Level BUBELE, MAYALA J. 3029134 60,000

Intermediate Level No Candidate qualified for the award.

80,000

Final Level MAHANYU, SALHA N. 5028708 100,000

133

1.3.2 Subject to Subject Performance Prize The prize is offered to the best candidate who has excelled in a subject by attaining at least a credit mark -70% or above in Technician Examination Scheme or 60% or above in professional examination scheme. The following candidates qualify for the prizes in each examination layer:

Accounting Technician Level I

Code and Subject Name Name Index No. Amount Tshs.

T.01 - Bookkeeping and Accounts

MAGAYANE, DANIEL 1029903 40,000

T.02 - Elements of Business Maths and Statistics

MOLLEL, AMOS N. 1030108 40,000

T.03 - Introduction to Information and Communication Technology

No Candidate qualified for the award.

40,000

T.04 - Business Communication Skills

MWITA,NORBERT Z. 1029923 40,000

Accounting Technician Level II Code and Subject Name Name Index No. Amount

Tshs. T.05 - Principles of Accounting and Auditing

JAMES, ARNOLD 2029837 40,000

T.06 – Principles of Cost Accounting and Procurement

JOSEPH, EMMANUEL 2027532 40,000

T.07 – Elements of Commercial Knowledge, Management Practices and Taxation

JAMES, ARNOLD 2029837 40,000

T.08 – Accounting for Public Sector and Cooperatives

JAMES, ARNOLD 2029837 40,000

134

FOUNDATION LEVEL Code and Subject Name Name Index No. Amount

Tshs. A1 – Quantitative Techniques KIMBARI, J0HN P.

A2 - Business and Management SAIDI, HAMZA 3029142 50,000

A3 – Accounting MWAIKENDA, GWAKISA 3028943 50,000

A4 - Business Information BUBELE, MAYALA J. 3029134 50,000

A5 - Business Law

BUBELE, MAYALA J. 3029134 50,000

INTERMEDIATE LEVEL Code and Subject Name Name Index No. Amount

Tshs. B1 - Financial Management No candidates qualified for the

award 60,000

B2 - Financial Accounting MRISHO, DEO T. 4029337 60,000

B3 - Auditing Principles and Practice

KASONTA, KASONTA S. 4029544 60,000

B4 - Public Finance and Taxation I

MRISHO, DEO T. 4029337 60,000

B5 - Performance Management KASONTA, KASONTA S. 4029544 60,000

B6 - Management, Governance and Ethics

RAMADHANI, BAKARI 4027485 60,000

FINAL LEVEL Code and Subject Name Name Index No. Amount

Tshs. C1- Corporate Reporting EDWIN, NSAJIKWA 5028009 70,000

C2 - Auditing and Assurance MAHANYU, SALHA N. 5028708 70,000

C3- Business and Corporate Finance

MSEMO, IDDY S. 5028814 70,000

C4 - Public Finance and Taxation II

MAHANYU, SALHA N. 5028708 70,000

3027539 50,000

135

1.3.3 NBAA Best Female Prizes: In motivating female candidates to work harder in their studies and perform better in the Board’s examinations, two categories of prizes shall be offered to female candidates.

1.3.3.1 NBAA Female Prizes:

This prize shall be offered to a female candidate as long as the score in aggregate in a level is 70% and above in ATEC examinations and 60% and above in professional examinations.

Code and Subject Name Name Index

No. Amount Tshs.

Accounting Technician Level I

No Candidate qualified for the award.

50,000

Accounting Technician Level II No Candidate qualified for the award.

50,000

Foundation Level BUBELE, MAYALA J. 3029134 60,000

Intermediate Level No candidate qualified for the award

80,000

Final Level MAHANYU, SALHA N. 5028708 100,000

1.3.3.2 NBAA Best Graduate Female Prizes

The second category of prize is the Best Graduate Prize which is to be offered to the female candidates who scores highest marks in aggregate among female candidates in ATEC II or CPA (T).

The following female candidates qualify for the award:

Level Name Index No. Amount

Tshs. ATEC GRADUATE No Candidate qualified

for the award. 250,000

CPA (T) GRADUATE MAHANYU, SALHA N. 5028708 500,000

136

2.0 PRIZES FROM SPONSORING INSTITUTIONS In support of the Board’s effort to improve candidates’ examination performance a number of professional progressive institutions have willingly offered different prizes for the best performers.

The names of organizations and amounts offered in each examination session are indicated hereunder:

1 PricewaterhouseCoopers Prizes: 1.1 PricewaterhouseCoopers: Auditing and Assurance (C2) Prize Tshs.600,000 1.2 PricewaterhouseCoopers: Best CPA (T) Graduate Prize Tshs.1,000,000 1.3 Best Female CPA (T) Graduate Tshs.500,000

2 Tanna Sreekumar Grant Thornton Prize: Best CPA (T) Graduate Prize

Tshs.400,000

3 STANBIC Tanzania Ltd Prize: Best CPA (T) Graduate Prize US$ 100

4 TAC Associates Prize: Auditing and Assurance (C2) Prize Tshs.200,000

5 Khatri & Company Prize: Corporate Reporting (C1) Prize Tshs.200,000

6 Ernst & Young Prize: Auditing and Assurance (C2) Prize Tshs.310,000

7 IPP Prize: Best CPA (T) Graduate Prize Tshs.200,000

8 Tax Plan Associates Prize: Best Public Finance and Taxation II (C4) Prize

Tshs.400,000

9 TIB Development Bank Ltd: International Finance Prizes 1st TIB: Business and Corporate Finance (C3) Prize 2nd TIB: Business and Corporate Finance (C3) Prize 3rd TIB: Business and Corporate Finance (C3) Prize

Tshs.500,000, Tshs.350,000

& Tshs.200,000

10 Dar Es Salaam Stock Exchange Prize: Business and Corporate Finance (C3) Prize

Tshs.150,000

11 Deloitte &Touche Prize: Auditing and Assurance (C2) Prize Tshs.500,000

12 Capital Markets and Securities Authority Prize: Best Financial Management (B1) Prize

Tshs.100,000

13 KPMG Prize: Best CPA (T) Graduate Prize US$ 100

14 Accountant General’s Office Prizes: 14.1 Best CPA (T) Graduate Overall Prize Tshs.800,000 14.2 Auditing and Assurance (C2) Prize Tshs.500,000 14.3 Performance Management (B5) Prize Tshs.500,000 14.4 Best Core Subject Prizes:

137

14.4.1 Accounting (A3) Prize Tshs.30,000 14.4.2 Business Information (A4) Prize Tshs.30,000 14.4.3 Financial Management (B1) Prize Tshs.50,000 14.4.4 Financial Accounting (B2) Prize Tshs.50,000 14.4.5 Auditing Principles and Practice (B3) Prize Tshs.50,000 14.4.6 Corporate Reporting (C1) Prize Tshs.100,000 14.4.7 Business and Corporate Finance (C3) Prize Tshs.100,000 14.4.8 Public Finance and Taxation II (C4) Prize Tshs.100,000

15 NEXIA SJ Tanzania Accountants & Business Adviser Prize: 15.1 NEXIA SJ Tanzania Accountants & Business Adviser: Best

Performance Management (B5) Prize Offer of Employment

15.2 NEXIA SJ Tanzania Accountants & Business Adviser: Best Public Finance and Taxation II (C4) Prize

Offer of Employment

16 Innovex Prizes: 16.1 Innovex Best CPA(T) Graduate Prize Tshs.150,000 16.2 Innovex Best CPA(T) Female Graduate Prize Tshs.150,000

17 Controller and Auditor General’s Office Prizes 17.1 CAG: Auditing and Assurance (C2) Prize Tshs.300,000 17.2 CAG: Best CPA (T) Graduate Prize Tshs.100,000

18 Peoples Bank of Zanzibar Prize: Best CPA (T) Graduate Prize Tshs.500,000

19 BM Associates Prizes 19.1 Best CPA(T) Female Graduates Prize Tshs.100,000 19.2 Best ATEC Female Graduates Prize Tshs.50,000

20 TAA Best Candidates’ Prizes 20.1 TAA Best Two ATEC Candidates Prizes Tshs.100,000 20.2 TAA Best Two CPA (T) Candidates Prizes Tshs.200,000

21 RSM Ashvir Prize: Best CPA (T) Graduate Prize Tshs.500,000 & Employment

22 Cornerstone Financial Consultants Prizes 22.1 Overall Best Candidate in ATEC II Level Prize Tshs.100,000 22.2 Overall Best Candidate in Foundation Level Prize Tshs.100,000 22.3 Overall Best CPA (T) Candidates Prizes Tshs.100,000

23 Watumishi Housing CompanyPrize 23.1 Overall Best Candidate in ATEC II Level Prize 100,000 23.2 Best Financial Management (B1) Prize 100,000 23.3 Performance Management (B5) Prize 200,000 23.4 Corporate Reporting (C1) Prize 200,000

138

1. PRICEWATERHOUSECOOPERS PRIZES Name of Prize Name of Winner Index No. Amount PWC: AUDITING AND ASSURANCE (C2) PRIZE

MAHANYU, SALHA N. 5028708 600,000

PWC BEST CPA (T) GRADUATE PRIZE

MAHANYU, SALHA N. 5028708 1,000,000

BEST FEMALE CPA (T) GRADUATE

MAHANYU, SALHA N. 5028708 500,000

2. TANNA SREEKUMAR GRANT THORNTON: PRIZES Name of Prize Name of Winner Index No. Amount Tanna Sreekumar Grant Thornton: BEST CPA (T) GRADUATE PRIZE

MAHANYU, SALHA N. 5028708 400,000

3. STANBIC TANZANIA LIMITED PRIZES Name of Prize Name of Winner Index No. Amount STANBIC TANZANIA LIMITED BEST CPA [T] GRADUATE PRIZE

MAHANYU, SALHA N. 5028708 US$100

4. TAC ASSOCIATES PRIZES Name of Prize Name of Winner Index No. Amount TAC ASSOCIATES: AUDITING AND ASSURANCE (C2) PRIZE

MAHANYU, SALHA N. 5028708 200,000

5. KHATRI AND COMPANY PRIZES Name of Prize Name of Winner Index No. Amount KHATRI AND COMPANY FINANCIAL: CORPORATE REPORTING (C1)

EDWIN, NSAJIGWA 5028009 200,000

6. ERNST & YOUNG PRIZES Name of Prize Name of Winner Index No. Amount ERNST & YOUNG: AUDITING AND ASSURANCE (C2) PRIZE

MAHANYU, SALHA N. 5028708 310,000

7. IPP BEST CPA (T) GRADUATE PRIZES Name of Prize Name of Winner Index No. Amount IPP BEST CPA (T) GRADUATE PRIZE

MAHANYU, SALHA N. 5028708 200,000

139

8. TAXPLAN ASSOCIATES PRIZES Name of Prize Name of Winner Index No. Amount TAXPLAN ASSOCIATES: PUBLIC FINANCE AND TAXATION II (C4) PRIZE

MAHANYU, SALHA N. 5028708 400,000

9. TIB DEVELOPMENT BANK LTD: BANK PRIZES Name of Prize Name of Winner Index No. Amount TIB Development Bank Ltd:BUSINESS AND CORPORATE FINANCE (C3) PRIZE

MSEMO, IDDY S. 5028814 500,000

No candidate qualified for the award

350,000


200,000

10. DAR ES SALAAM STOCK EXCHANGE PRIZES Name of Prize Name of Winner Index No. Amount DSE: BUSINESS AND CORPORATE FINANCE (C3) PRIZE

MSEMO, IDDY S. 5028814 150,000

11. DELOITTE & TOUCHE PRIZES Name of Prize Name of Winner Index No. Amount DELOITTE & TOUCHE: AUDITING AND ASSURANCE (C2) PRIZE

MAHANYU, SALHA N. 5028708 500,000

12. CAPITAL MARKETS AND SECURITIES AUTHORITY PRIZES Name of Prize Name of Winner Index No. Amount CMSA: BEST FINANCIAL MANAGEMENT (B1) PRIZE

No candidate qualified for the award.

100,000

13. KPMG PRIZES Name of Prize Name of Winner Index No. Amount KPMG: BEST CPA (T) GRADUATE PRIZE

MAHANYU, SALHA N. 5028708 US$100

140

14. ACCOUNTANT GENERAL’S OFFICE PRIZES The Office of the Accountant General offers special prize awards to candidates with excellent performance in the Board’s examinations. The awards worth Tshs.2,440,000 are offered in each examination session.

The conditions of winning the prizes are: A candidate must obtain an overall pass at a single sitting in the first examination attempt and must score a credit pass (60%) or above either overall, or in the subject be awarded a prize in the professional examinations as the case may be. Candidates winning the prizes for the May 2017 examinations are as shown below:

Name of Prize Name of Winner Index No. Amount AG’S: BEST CPA [T] GRADUATE PRIZE

MAHANYU, SALHA N. 5028708 800,000

AG’S: AUDITING AND ASSURANCE (C2) PRIZE

MAHANYU, SALHA N. 5028708 500,000

AG’S: BEST PERFORMANCE MANAGEMENT (B5) PRIZE


ACGEN’S BEST CORE SUBJECT PERFORMANCE PRIZES ACCOUNTING (A3) PRIZE MWAIKENDA, GWAKISA 3028943 30,000 BUSINESS INFORMATION (A4) PRIZE

BUBELE, MAYALA 3029134 30,000

FINANCIAL MANAGEMENT (B1) PRIZE

No candidate qualified for the award.

50,000

FINANCIAL ACCOUNTING (B2) PRIZE

MRISHO, DEO T. 4029337 50,000

AUDITING PRINCIPLES AND PRACTICE (B3) PRIZE


CORPORATE REPORTING (C1) PRIZE


BUSINESS AND CORPORATE FINANCE (C3) PRIZE

MSEMO, JDDY S. 5028814 100,000

PUBLIC FINANCE AND TAXATION II (C4) PRIZE

MAHANYU, SALHA N. 5028708 100,000

141

15. NEXIA SJ TANZANIA ACCOUNTANTS & BUSINESS ADVISERS PRIZES: Name of Prize Name of Winner Index No. Amount NEXIA SJ TANZANIA ACCOUNTANTS & BUSINESS ADVISER:BEST PERFORMANCE MANAGEMENT (B5) Prize

KASONTA, KASONTA S. 4029544 Employment

NEXIA SJ TANZANIA ACCOUNTANTS & BUSINESS ADVISER:PUBLIC FINANCE AND TAXATION II (C4) PRIZE

MAHANYU, SALHA N. 5028708 Employment

16. INNOVEX PRIZES Name of Prize Name of Winner Index No. Amount INNOVEX BEST CPA (T) GRADUATE PRIZE

MAHANYU, SALHA N. 5028708 150,000

INNOVEX BEST CPA (T) FEMALE GRADUATE PRIZE

MAHANYU, SALHA N. 5028708 150,000

17. CONTROLLER AND AUDITOR GENERAL’S OFFICE PRIZES Name of Prize Name of Winner Index No. Amount CAG: AUDITING AND ASSURANCE (C2) PRIZE

MAHANYU,SALHA N. 5028708 300,000

CAG: BEST CPA (T) GRADUATE PRIZE

MAHANYU, SALHA N. 5028708 150,000

18. PEOPLE’S BANK OF ZANZIBAR PRIZE Name of Prize Name of Winner Index No. Amount PBZ: BEST CPA (T) GRADUATE PRIZE

MAHANYU, SALHA N. 5028708 500,000

142

19. BM ASSOCIATES PRIZES Name of Prize Name of Winner Index No. Amount BM ASSOCIATES: BEST CPA (T) FEMALE GRADUATE PRIZE

MAHANYU, SALHA N. 5028708 100,000

BM ASSOCIATES: BEST ATEC FEMALE GRADUATE PRIZE


50,000

20. TANZANIA ASSOCIATION OF ACCOUNTANTS PRIZES Name of Prize Name of Winner Index No. Amount TAA: BEST TWO ATEC CANDIDATE PRIZE

JAMES, ARNOLD JOSEPH, EMMANUEL

2029837 2027532

50,000 50,000

TAA: BEST TWO CPA (T) CANDIDATE PRIZE

MAHANYU, SALHA N. 5028708 200,000

21. RSM ASHVIR PRIZES

Name of Prize Name of Winner Index No. Amount RSM ASHVIR: BEST CPA (T) GRADUATE PRIZE

MAHANYU, SALHA N. 5028708 500,000 & Employment

22. CORNERSTONE FINANCIAL CONSULTANTS PRIZES Name of Prize Name of Winner Index No. Amount CORNERSTONE: OVERALL BEST CANDIDATE IN ATEC II LEVEL PRIZE

JAMES, ARNOLD 2029837 100,000

CORNERSTONE:OVERALL BEST CANDIDATE IN FOUNDATION LEVEL PRIZE

BUBELE, MAYALA J. 3029134 100,000

CORNERSTONE :OVERALL BEST CPA (T) CANDIDATES PRIZES

MAHANYU, SALHA N. 5028708 100,000

143

23. WATUMISHI HOUSING COMPANYPRIZE Name of Prize Name of Winner Index No. Amount WATUMISHI HOUSING CO: OVERALL BEST CANDIDATE IN ATEC II LEVEL PRIZE

JAMES, ARNOLD 2029837 100,000

WATUMISHI HOUSING CO: BEST FINANCIAL MANAGEMENT (B1) PRIZE


100,000

WATUMISHI HOUSING CO: BEST PERFORMANCE MANAGEMENT (B5) PRIZE


WATUMISHI HOUSING CO: BESTCORPORATE REPORTING (C1)


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