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EXAMINATION NUMBER:

DEPARTMENT OF EDUCATIONPUBLIC EXAMINATIONS

BIOLOGY 3201

SAMPLE EXAM

Value: 100 marks Time: 3 hours

GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS

1. This is a two-part test. Part I consists of 75 multiple-choice items. Part II consists offive written response items. Part I has a total value of 75 marks. Part II has a total valueof 25 marks.

2. Part I is to be answered using the computer scorable answer sheet supplied. Instructionsfor completing this answer sheet are given on the sheet itself. Please complete itaccording to those instructions and any others given by the supervisor.

3. Part II is to be answered in the spaces provided in this test booklet. Please pass in theentire test booklet to the supervisor when you have finished the examination.

4. Please enter your Public Examination Number on this page, on the computerscorable answer sheet, and on the first page of Part II as indicated.

5. Rough work may be done in any blank spaces in Part I and on the blank pages throughoutPart II.

REGULATIONS FOR CANDIDATES

Candidates are expected to be thoroughly familiar with all regulations pertaining to their conduct duringthe examinations. These were explained by the chief supervisor prior to the first session, and have been posted forfurther reference near the entrance to the examination room. Candidates should ensure that they understand andcomply with all requirements governing the following matters:

) Materials required ) Use of pen or pencil) Punctuality ) Use of unauthorized means, and penalties) Leaving the room ) Completion of required information) Use of answer booklets ) Materials not permitted) Use of handheld calculator ) Communication and movement during the

examination

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PART ISECTION A

Total Value: 75%

Shade in the letter of the correct answer on the computer scorable answer sheet.

1. What biome is important in agriculture?

(A) desert(B) grassland(C) marine(D) tropical rainforest

2. In which biome do plants produce seeds that are adapted to drought?

(A) desert(B) grassland(C) tropical rainforest(D) tundra

3. In which of the following does photosynthesis NOT occur?

(A) abyssal zone(B) desert(C) grassland(D) tundra

4. What is an example of a decomposer?

(A) frog(B) mushroom(C) rabbit(D) wolf

5. A tapeworm living in the intestine of a human is an example of which relationship?

(A) host(B) parasite(C) producer(D) saprophyte

6. Which sequence represents the successional changes from bare rock to climax vegetation?

(A) lichens - mosses - grasses - shrubs & saplings - forest(B) lichens - mosses - shrubs & saplings - grasses - forest(C) mosses - lichens - shrubs & saplings - grasses - forest(D) shrubs & saplings - lichens - grasses - mosses - forest

7. Which of the following would be considered part of the abiotic environment?

(A) dissolved oxygen(B) fish population(C) microscopic animal life(D) microscopic plant life

8. Which are producers?

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(A) autotrophs(B) heterotrophs(C) parasites(D) saprophytes

9. Which is MOST important in determining the distribution of organisms in an aquaticbiome?

(A) light(B) pressure(C) salinity(D) temperature

10. Which of the following is INCORRECT statements about in an aquatic environment?

(A) Photosynthesis occurs in the abyssal aphotic zone.(B) Photosynthesis organisms generally live in the top 200 m.(C) Light intensity is an important abiotic factor in limiting the distribution of

photosynthetic organisms.(D) The ocean biome is the most stable biome on earth.

11. Which biome supports the MOST abundant amount of growth?

(A) grassland(B) taiga(C) temperate deciduous forest(D) tropical rain forest

12. What results from the elimination of a herbivore from an ecosystem?

(A) extinction of the esosystem(B) overpopulation of predators(C) starvation of carnivores(D) undernourishment of producers

13. What is illustrated when: Blowfly larvae are given a restricted amount of food, feweradults survive and the population size is reduced.

(A) commensalism(B) intraspecific competition(C) interspecific competition(D) predation

14. Which generally occurs during ecological succession?

(A) Climax plants are replaced by intermediate forms.(B) Energy is recycled.(C) Existing organisms make the ecosystem more suitable to new organisms.(D) Materials can not be recycled.

15. When moving along altitudinal and latitudinal gradients, you generally find the same

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sequence of biomes. For which factor are there NO equivalent changes along thegradient?

(A) humidity(B) oxygen concentration(C) temperature(D) vegetation

16. Which BEST describes the effect of climate on biome distribution?

(A) Biome distribution is determined only by climate(B) Changes in environmental variables is not important if areas have the same annual

temperature and precipitation means.(C) Temperate forests, coniferous forests, and grasslands all have the same mean

annual temperatures and precipitation.(D) The distribution of biomes depends, in part, on the mean annual temperature and

precipitation of an area.

17. Which statement BEST describes the interaction between fire and ecosystems?

(A) Fire is unnatural in ecosystems and should be prevented.(B) Many kinds of plants and plant communities have adapted to frequent fires.(C) The chance of fire in a given ecosystem is highly predictable.(D) The prevention of forest fires has allowed more productive and stable plant

communities to develop.

18. Imagine an astroid jolts the Earth so that its axis is always perpendicular to the linebetween the Earth and the Sun. What is the most obvious effect of this change?

(A) an increase in the length of a year.(B) an increase in the length of night.(C) the elimination of seasonal variation.(D) the elimination of tides.

19. Which are in the same kingdom?

(A) grasshopper and protozoans(B) green algae and fungi(C) monerans and blue-green algae(D) protozoans and bacteria

20. Which sequence indicates the least specific to most specific sequence?

(A) family - genus - species(B) kingdom - family - order(C) order - class - kingdom(D) phylum - family - class

21. Which developmental sequences are correct?

(A) cleavage, blastula, gastrula, and zygote(B) gastrula, zygote, blastula, and cleavage(C) zygote, cleavage, blastula, and gastrula(D) zygote, cleavage, gastrula, and blastula

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22. How do spermatogenesis and oogenesis differ?

(A) Oogenesis begins at the onset of sexual maturity.(B) Oogenesis produces four haploid cells, whereas spermatogenesis produces only

one functional spermatozoa.(C) Oogenesis produces one functional gamete, whereas spermatogenesis produces

four functional spermatogenesis.(D) Spermatogenesis begins before birth.

23. What is the function of the structure labelled W?

(A) exchange nutrients and wastes(B) form blood cells(C) produce amniotic fluid(D) produce food for the fetus

24. What would happen if a woman in the later stages of pregnancy were given a combinationof estrogen and oxytocin?

(A) Contractions of uterine muscles would begin.(B) Hormones would be secreted from the placenta.(C) Menstruation would begin.(D) Ovulation would occur.

25. What are the two body forms of the coelenterates (cnidarians)?

(A) ectoderm and mesoglea(B) free-swimming and sessile(C) hydra and sponge(D) polyp and medusa

26. Which statement BEST describes the symmetry displayed by the common starfish?

(A) bilateral symmetry(B) radial symmetry(C) spherical symmetry sides(D) symmetry asymmetrical

27. While working in your garden, you uncover an animal with many legs, mostly as two pairsper segment. What type of animal is it?

(A) centipede(B) crustacean(C) insect(D) millipede

28. Which organism has both internal fertilization and internal development?

(A) crayfish(B) bird(C) frog(D) human

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29. A student came upon two organisms. Organism A had a cephalothorox, abdomen andjointed legs. Organism B had a head, thorax, abdomen, and jointed legs. To what groupswould these organisms belong?

(A) A - arahnid; crustacean(B) A - crustacean; B - arachnid(C) A - crustacean; B - insesct(D) A - insect; B - arachnid

30. Which represents the vascular plants?

(A) bryophytes(B) club mosses(C) fungi(D) tracheophytes

31. In what way have fruits contributed to the success of angiosperms?

(A) attracting insects to the pollen inside(B) facilitating dispersal of seeds by wind and animals(C) nourishing the plants that make them(D) producing sperm and eggs inside a protective coat

32. Which category would the bean plant fall?

(A) angiosperm(B) bryophte(C) conifer(D) gymnosperm

33. A botanist discovers a new species of plant in a tropical rainforest. After observing itsanatomy and life cycle, the following characteristics are noted: xylem and phloem,separate gametophyte and sporophyte generations, and no seeds. To what classification isthis plant most closely related?

(A) conifers(B) ferns(C) flowering plants(D) mosses

34. Which of the following has NOT contributed to the growth of the human population?

(A) environmental degradation(B) improved nutrition(C) improved sanitation(D) vaccines

35. Which of the following has NOT contributed to the rapid growth of human population?

(A) average age to first give birth(B) carrying capacity of the environment(C) high percentage of young people(D) modern medical techniques

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36. Which of the following would be MOST helpful in solving the world’s environmentalproblems?

(A) decreased human birth rates(B) increased agricultural productivity(C) increased life expectancy(D) more food from the oceans

37. A pregnant female rabbit moves into a new area uninhabited by other rabbits. Whichgraph would BEST represent the growth in population during the first three years?

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

38. Which of the following is a density-independent factor limiting human population growth?

(A) disease(B) earthquakes(C) famines(D) plagues

39. What does point A represent in the following graph?

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(A) The extinction point for that species.(B) The introduction of new species into an area.(C) The point at which a predator has been introduced in an area.(D) The time when birth rate and death rate is equal.

40. Which statement about the logistic model of population growth is INCORRECT?

(A) It exactly predicts the population growth of most populations.(B) It fits an S-shaped curve.(C) It incorporates the concept of carrying capacity.(D) It predicts an eventual state in which birth rate equals death rate.

41. In what phase of the cell cycle does cell growth occur?

(A) anaphase(B) interphase(C) metaphase(D) prophase

42. During which phase of meiosis does synopsis occur?

(A) anaphase I(B) metaphase I(C) prophase I(D) telophase I

43. Which type of mutation would produce the greatest change in a polypeptide sequence?

(A) frameshift mutation(B) nondisjunction(C) point mutation(D) translocation

44. In genetics, what is the physical appearance of an organism described as?

(A) genotype(B) pedigree(C) phenotype(D) recessiveness

45. How do replication of DNA involve the original molecule?

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(A) disintegrating and forming a different DNA molecule(B) reorganizing to form four new DNA molecules(C) unzipping to eventually become two different DNA molecules(D) unzipping to eventually become two identical DNA molecules

46. Which factor causes the genetic defect known as Down’s Syndrome?

(A) a missing chromosome(B) an extra chromosome(C) linkage and crossing over(D) multiple alleles

47. Which is true only if the genes for two traits are located on separates pairs of chromosomes?

(A) Mendel’s concept of unit characters(B) Mendel’s law of independent assortment(C) Mendel’s law of dominance(D) Mendel’s law of segregation

48. What characteristics of the organism results if the paired genes for a trait are identical?

(A) dominant(B) heterozygous(C) homozygous(D) hybrid

49. Which of Mendel’s laws is illustrated by: If a garden pea has a gene for round seeds anda gene for wrinkled seeds, the seeds will be round?

(A) dominance(B) incomplete dominance(C) independent assortment(D) segregation

50. In Begonias, purple is dominant over pink. If a heterozygous purple plant is crossed with a pink, what traits would the expected offspring have?

(A) all purple

(B) purple, pink

(C) purple, pink

(D) pink, purple

51. In house cats, pointed ears (E) is dominant to folded ears (e). A folded-eared female mates with a male of unknown phenotype. All 10 of their offspring have pointed ears. What is the most probable genotype of the parents?

(A) ee x EE.(B) Ee x Ee.(C) ee x Ee.(D) ee x ee.

52. Which of the following BEST describes Meiosis in humans?

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No.of cells Produced

No. of chromosomesin each cell

Where it occurs

(A) 2 23 testes

(B) 4 46 ovaries

(C) 4 23 testes

(D) 2 23 muscle cells

53. Two cells unite in the process of fertilization. Why does the number of chromosomes in the zygote equal the number of chromosomes in the typical parent body cell?

(A) Cleavage occurs following the fertilization of an egg by a sperm.(B) Eggs contain fewer chromosomes than sperm.(C) Meiosis occurs prior to fertilization.(D) Sperm contains fewer chromosomes than eggs.

54. A central portion of structural gene has the sequence: GTT CGC TAT GACUsing the table provided, what would be the sequence of amino acids coded by this gene?

(A) argenine - glutamic acid - alanine - proline(B) glutamine - alanine - isoleucine - leucine(C) lysine - asparagine - phenylalanine - threonine(D) serine - glycine - valine - cysteine

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55. If the DNA reads ATACG, what will the RNA produced read?

(A) ATACG(B) AUACG(C) TATGC(D) UAUGC

56. Suppose two biochemists investigated the DNA molecule. How would the amount of adenine compare to the amount of thymine?

(A) always greater than the amount of thymine.(B) inversely proportional to the amount of thymine.(C) the same as the amount of thymine (D) unrelated to the amount of thymine

57. Using the statements below, which represents the correct sequence for protein synthesis?

1. mRNA moves from the nucleus to the cytoplasm2. tRNA carries amino aids to the ribosome3. peptide bonds form between the amino acids4. DNA is transcribed to mRNA5. the ribosome attaches to the mRNA

(A) 2,3,1,5,4(B) 4,1,3,2,5(C) 4,1,5,2,3(D) 5,1,2,3,4

58. There was a mix-up in a hospital nursey. The doctor wanted to determine which one of the babies could not belongto Mr. & Mrs. Lindsey. The chart below gives the blood typesof the Lindsey’s and the babies.

Mrs. Lindsey - Type ABMr. Lindsey - Type BBaby Brad - Type BBaby Jane - Type ABaby Jill - Type O

Baby Joyce - Type AB

Which child CANNOT be the Lindsey’s?

(A) Baby Brad(B) Baby Jane(C) Baby Jill(D) Baby Joyce

59. Two black furred guinea pigs were crossed. Over the years, they produced 22 offspring, 5of which were white. What are the most likely genotypes for the two parents?

(A) BB x BB(B) Bb x BB(C) bb x bb(D) Bb x Bb

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60. Which statement BEST describes the pedigree below?

(A) Autosomal dominant(B) Autosomal recessive(C) Sex-linked dominant(D) Sex-linked recessive

61. Where would fossils of birds most probably be found in layers of sedimentary rock?

(A) above layers of most mammals(B) below layers of most fish(C) below layers of most insects(D) below layers of most worms

62. Which statement related to species evolution is true?

(A) Man caused the evolution of all other species.(B) The species on earth today are the same as those present when life originated.(C) The species present on earth today have evolved from species that lived in

former periods.(D) There is no evidence supporting evolution of species.

63. What is the study of the development of organisms called?

(A) comparative anatomy(B) comparative biochemistry(C) comparative embryology(D) genetics

64. Which is NOT an example of homology?

(A) The front legs of a horse – the arms of man(B) The wings of a butterfly – the wings of a bird(C) The brain of a cat – the brain of a fish(D) The skeleton of a snake – the skeleton of a man

65. Who first suggested that human populations (he was referring to humans) tend to over populate their environment and that death by war, starvation and disease keeps the population in check?

(A) Darwin(B) Lamarck(C) Malthus(D) Miller

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66. Which process is illustrated by: A woodpecker’s beak can drill a hole?

(A) adaptation(B) development(C) growth(D) homeostasis

67. What substances might have been originally present in the ancient atmosphere before lifeevolved?

(A) amino acids(B) CH4, NH3, and H2O(C) nucleic acids(D) O2, CO2, H2

68. According to the heterotroph hypothesis of the origin of life, what were the first life formscreated from?

(A) chlorophyll-like molecules that underwent photosynthesis(B) enzymes that could synthesize proteins from inorganic molecules

(C) organic compounds that resulted from atomospheric radiation (D) organic molecules that entered our atmosphere from space

69. Five male and five female deer were placed on an island wildlife preserve. There wasadequate food and water for the deer on the preserve. Also, there were no predatorsthat might kill the deer for food. What will happen to the deer population on the island?

(A) Artificial selection will occur in the population.

(B) Natural selection will ensure that the offspring best suited to the environment will survive.

(C) The adult deer will pass on acquired characteristic to their offspring.(D) The deer population will remain constant.

70. The allele for dark fur colour is dominant to the allele for light fur colour. If there areonly 4% of the members of a population that have the light fur colour, what percentage ofthe population should be homozygous dominant for dark fur colour?

(A) 16%(B) 32%(C) 64%(D) 96%

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PART ISECTION B

FisheryTotal Value: 5%

Do EITHER Section B or Section C

71. What is a whale’s baleen used for?

(A) assisting movement (B) filtering food

(C) protecting the eyes(D) sending and receiving sound

72. A female cod may produce many millions of eggs in a lifetime and potentially then manyoffspring. What is this ability of a cod fish called?

(A) fecundity(B) overproduction(C) parthenogenisis(D) sexual maturity

73. Which statement describes the niche of capelin?

(A) It eats cod.(B) It is a decomposer(C) It is a food source for cod.(D) It is a primary producer.

74. Which process is illustrated by: Although seal’s gestate for 8 months, they breed in Marchand bear young one year later?

(A) delayed birth(B) delayed fertilization(C) delayed gestation(D) delayed implantation

75. Which of the following is considered the littoral zone?

(A) the aphotic regions of the open shelf (B) the area of the ocean closest to the shore(C) the low wetland areas around streams(D) the shallow waters of the continental zone

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PART ISECTION C

ForestryTotal Value: 5%

76. Which of the following may prevent secondary succession from reaching a normal forest climax?

(A) black spruce(B) kalmia(C) moss(D) white birch

77. The vascular cambium of a woody stem produces both the xylem and the phloem.Which best describes this production?

(A) As the vascular cambium divides, differentiation of cambium cells toward the exterior of the cambium layer gives rise to the phloem.

(B) As the vascular cambium divides, differentiation of cambium cells toward theexterior of the cambium layer gives rise to the xylem.

(C) As the vascular cambium divides, differentiation of cambium cells toward the interior of the cambium layer gives rise to the phloem.

(D) Phloem is produced at the center of the stem and the xylem is pushed outwardfrom the vascular cambium.

78. Which term refers to the older part of the woody stem that is composed of xylem but haslost its function for water transport?

(A) heartwood(B) sapwood(C) spring wood(D) summer wood

79. Which tissue is part of the xylem?

(A) companion cells(B) fibers(C) sieve cells (D) tracheids

80. Full tree logging (whole tree harvesting) involves removing the whole tree from the forest and delimbing it at another site. Why is this NOT a preferred method of tree harvesting?

(A) decreases nutrient supply at original site(B) increases soil acidity at original site(C) is less cost effective(D) produces large clear cut areas

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PART IITotal Value: 25%

Do ALL questions in this part.

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2 81a. (i) Give two examples to illustrate the effects of the environment on gene expression.

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1 (ii) Give two reasons why the Drosophila (fruit fly) is an ideal insect for the study of genetics.

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2 81b. In guinea pigs, black hair (B) is dominant over brown hair (b), and long hair (L) isdominant (l) over short hair. What would be the expected genotypic and phenotypicratios of a cross between a black, homozygous long haired male and a femaleheterozygous for both traits. Show all work.

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The genotypic ratio is:

The phenotypic ratio is:

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2 81c. Blond hair and blue eyes are recessive traits. Why are they the predominantphenotype in Sweden?

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3 82. Give a brief description of the Taiga biome under the following headings:(i) climate (temperature & precipitation)

(ii) typical plants & animals (two of each)

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(c) two key characteristics

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1 83(a) Describe the “Gaia” hypothesis proposed by James Lovelock.

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1 (b) Explain why isolation is considered one of the conditions required to enable speciation.

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1 (c) Populations generally undergo evolutionary change given sufficient time. Do you believe this statement applies to the human population? Give ONE argumentin support of your belief.

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2 84(a) Describe any TWO functions of the placenta.

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3 (b) Describe ONE harmful effects for each of the following on the environment:

(i) Greenhouse effect

(ii) Ozone depletion

(iii) Habitat destruction

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1 (c) What is the main advantage to the use of a binomial (2- name) naming system to classify living things?

Do EITHER 85 OR 86.

FORESTRY

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3 85 (a) A forester is dispatched to a wooded area to inspect trees for infestation by either the spruce budworm, hemlock looper or balsam woolly aphid. Describethe types of damage that the forester would use to identify each type of insectpest stated above.

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2 (b) The latest laws have restricted the amount of wood Newfoundlanders can cut. Explain why it is critical to maintain a forest inventory and continue to regulatethe use of our forest.

FISHERY

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2 86 The intertidal zone of a sea shore offers harsh conditions for living organisms to survive.

(a) Describe any THREE adaptations that organisms have developed to survivein the intertidal zone.

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3 (b) Describe TWO abiotic factors that determine biotic diversity of tidal pools.