exam 1
TRANSCRIPT
Exam 1 BIOL 1322-‐72H Nutrition and Diet Therapy Multiple choice – select the best answer
1. When considering chemical analysis, which substance is found in the greatest amount in both food products and human beings?
A. Vitamins B. Protein C. Carbohydrates D. Water
2. A person eats 10 grams of protein, 20 grams of carbohydrates, 5 grams of fat and 2 grams of alcohol. Calculate the energy value (in calories) from the stated totals.
A. 160 B. 168 C. 174 D. 179 E. 188
3. Two meals are available, each with equal caloric value, but one has a calculated energy density of 1.1 kcal/g whereas the other has a calculated energy density of 3.5 kcal/g. When making your dietary choice which statement would provide you with the most information to make your selection?
A. Meals with a lower energy density need supplementation to increase their nutritional value.
B. Meals that have a higher energy density help to satisfy hunger. C. Meals with a lower energy density include a wider variety of foods
when compared with higher-‐energy density meals of the same caloric value.
D. Meals with higher energy density are not healthy. 4. Which of the following statements is true regarding the differences between
vitamins and minerals? A. Minerals are inorganic in nature whereas vitamins are organic. B. Minerals are needed in larger amounts than vitamins. C. Vitamins are considered to be essential nutrients whereas minerals
are not. D. Minerals provide energy and vitamins help to facilitate the release of
energy in the body. 5. Which of the following would constitute a cohort research design?
A. Studies of groups of cells in a lab setting. B. Researching a group of individuals who take vitamin C for a 30-‐day
period to determine the possible effects of vitamin C as an antioxidant. C. Comparison of a group of individuals who have diabetes with a group
that doesn't have diabetes.
D. Researching a group of individuals who eat low-‐fat diets over a two-‐year time frame to determine the possible long-‐term effects of low-‐fat diets.
6. Which of the following statements is accurate regarding nutrient recommendations?
A. Nutrient recommendations are not minimum requirements, and may not represent optimal intakes for all individuals.
B. Nutrient recommendations apply to all members of the population. C. Nutrient recommendations encourage the use of supplements to meet
dietary goals. D. Nutrient recommendations are based on the daily caloric intake of the
individual. 7. While reading a research article you note a phrase that states, "Individuals
who exercise more will lose weight easier." How would you categorize this statement?
A. Correlation B. Placebo effect C. Hypothesis D. Data collection
8. An individual whose body uses a nutrient inefficiently may be considered to have a(n):
A. Subclinical deficiency B. Overt deficiency C. Secondary deficiency D. Primary deficiency
9. Anthropomorphic data is collected in order to: A. Perform a physical exam B. Compare measurements to standards specific for each gender C. Diagnose nutritional disease D. Isolate the etiology of malnutrition
10. In order to establish an RDA for a nutrient, the ______ must be evident. A. EAR B. UL C. AI D. BMR
11. What is the chief reason people choose the foods the eat? A. Cost B. Taste C. Convenience D. Nutritional value
12. An essential nutrient is one that cannot be A. Found in food B. Degraded by the body C. Made in sufficient quantities by the body. D. Used to synthesize other compounds in the body.
13. Which of the following is a result of the metabolism of energy nutrients? A. Body fat increases B. Energy is destroyed C. Body water decreases D. Energy is released
14. A person who eats the same food every day is not following the diet-‐planning principle of:
A. Moderation B. Adequacy C. Balance D. Variety
15. Upon evaluation of an individual using the HEI (Healthy Eating Index) a score of 75 is noted. How would you interpret this finding?
A. Some improvement is needed for the individual to be able to meet their dietary recommendations for most nutrients.
B. The individual is able to meet their dietary recommendations for most nutrients.
C. This individual is at great risk of not meeting their dietary recommendations for most nutrients.
D. No further follow-‐up is needed as the individual has met their dietary recommendations for most nutrients.
16. Which of the following foods is considered to be a legume? A. Rice B. Lentils C. Collard greens D. Bran muffin
17. A food product that is high in fiber with all of its nutrients retained in the food product can be described as a(n):
A. A refined food B. Enriched food C. Whole grain food D. Fortified food product
18. How many cups would be needed to meet the dietary recommendations for the fruit group on a daily basis for an individual on a 2000-‐kcal diet?
A. 1 cup per day B. 2 cups per day C. 3 to 5 cups per day D. 5 to 10 cups per day
19. A food that is labeled as being "fat free" is best described as containing: A. 3 grams or less fat per serving B. Less than 1 gram of fat per serving C. Less than 0.5 grams of fat per serving D. No fat
20. Which of the following is a key recommendation of the Dietary Guidelines for Americans 2005?
A. Limit the intake of potassium-‐rich foods. B. Keep total fat intake between 10% and 20% of kcalories. C. Consume less than 20% of kcalories from saturated fats. D. Cook foods to a safe internal temperature.
21. An equivalent to 1 ounce of grains is: A. 2 slices of bread B. ½ ounce of dry rice C. ½ cup of cooked cereal D. 2 cups of popped popcorn
22. A food that provides 15% of the Daily Value of a nutrient is considered to be a(n):
A. Good source B. Poor source C. Excellent source D. Fair source
23. Which of the following statements is true regarding the health status of a vegetarian?
A. They have higher intakes of fat to make their diet more palatable, leading to an increased risk for hypertension.
B. They have a lower rate of cancer. C. They are more likely to develop diverticular disease due to an
increased consumption of fiber. D. They have slightly higher risks for heart disease than non-‐vegetarians.
24. What two major nutrients are supplied by the fruit and vegetable groups? A. Protein and calcium B. Vitamins A and C C. Vitamins E and E D. B vitamins and iron
25. According to nutrition labeling laws, what two minerals must be listed on the package label as percent Daily Value?
A. Calcium and Iron B. Zinc and Phosphorous C. Fluoride and Chloride D. Chromium and Magnesium
26. What protective mechanism helps to prevent erosion in the stomach? A. Peristalsis B. Segmentation C. Mucus secretion D. Bicarbonate secretion
27. When digesting a food product such as multigrain bread, where would you expect the digestion of the majority of fibers to take place?
A. Mouth B. Pancreas C. Small intestines D. Large intestines
28. A person who has a history of gastrointestinal problems related to indigestion and heartburn might have problems with the:
A. Large intestine B. Gallbladder C. Pancreas D. Lower esophageal sphincter
29. What transport process accounts for the absorption of water? A. Simple diffusion B. Facilitated diffusion C. Active transport D. Active diffusion
30. Which gastrointestinal hormone acts to slow the action of the stomach's acidic juices?
A. Cholecystokinin B. Secretin C. Aldosterone D. Gastrin
31. A person is experiencing frequent heartburn after each meal. What measure could help to relieve this type of discomfort?
A. Increase the time spent while eating any meal or snack item. B. Eat the largest meal in the morning. C. Increase the amount of fluids taken in at each meal. D. Chew food faster to prevent over-‐stimulation of gastric enzymes.
32. Gastrointestinal bacteria in the body: A. Work better in an acidic environment. B. Have no relationship to an individual's health status. C. Occur in very small amounts in the body. D. Assist in the production of vitamins
33. Which of the following best describes the action of the pancreas with respect to digestive secretions?
A. Fluid mixes with the food bolus in the presence of hydrochloric acid. B. Bile emulsifies fat C. Bicarbonate is released to neutralize gastric acidity D. Salivary enzymes are secreted.
34. Which two actions help to propel a bolus of food through the digestive tract? A. Active transport and peristalsis B. Reflux and segmentation C. Absorption and digestion D. Peristalsis and segmentation
35. Because an enzyme does not change its chemical structure but promotes other chemical reactions it is called:
A. A catalyst B. A digestive enzyme C. Chime D. A protein
36. What is the pH of bile and pancreatic fluids that are secreted into the duodenum?
A. 2 B. 5 C. 7 D. 8 E. 10
37. What organ systems regulate all digestive and absorptive processes? A. Central nervous and respiratory system B. Digestive and lymphatic system C. Endocrine and nervous system D. Nervous and lymphatic system
38. All of the following are the chief causes of ulcers except A. Excessive caffeine consumption. B. H. pylori infection. C. Regular use of anti-‐inflammatory drugs D. Disorders that cause high gastric acid output.
39. A distinguishing feature of monosaccharides is: A. The structural arrangement of the compounds. B. The presence of nitrogen C. The number of hydrogen bonds D. The number of carbon atoms
40. Storage forms of glucose in living things are: A. Maltose and sucrose B. Phytates and viscous fibers C. Fibers and disaccharides D. Glycogen and starch
41. In order to determine the total amount of fiber you would total the amounts of:
A. Starch and cellulose B. Functional and viscous fibers C. Dietary and viscous fibers D. Dietary and functional fibers
42. A condensation reaction that forms lactose is expressed as: A. Two molecules of galactose B. One molecule of sucrose and on molecule of fructose C. One molecule of glucose and one molecule of galactose D. Two separate molecules of glucose
43. The action of bacterial enzymes on fiber in the large intestines causes: A. Small amounts of polysaccharides to be released. B. The release of short-‐chain fatty acids C. Delay of gastric emptying. D. Release of acid secretions
44. Glucose is stored in the body in the following manner: A. 1/3 in the liver and 2/3 in the muscle cells. B. 1/2 in the liver and 1/2 in the muscle cells. C. All of the glucose is stored in the muscle cells. D. 1/2 in the muscle cells, 1/4 in the peripheral tissues and 1/4 in the
stomach. 45. Prediabetes can be defined as a serum blood glucose of:
A. 180 mg/mL B. 115 mg/mL C. 130 mg/mL D. 70mg/mL
46. If an individual has not eaten for most of the day, what mechanism is triggered to maintain blood glucose?
A. pH remains in the normal range. B. Insulin is released. C. Glucagon is released D. Epinephrine is released
47. A typical serving of fruits contains an average of: A. 15g of carbohydrates B. 20g of carbohydrates C. 10g of carbohydrates D. 5g of carbohydrates
48. The warning label that appears on Nutrasweet is necessary to prevent problems:
A. For individuals who have cardiac disease. B. For individuals who have diabetes C. With fat absorption D. For individuals with PKU
49. When glucose is not available in cells what are the metabolic products of the incompatible breakdown of fat?
A. Ketosis B. Acid-‐base balance C. Ketone bodies D. Protein-‐sparing action
50. What stimulates the conversion of excess glucose into fat for storage? A. Glucagon B. Glycogen C. Insulin D. Leupeptin