english language & comprehension · as per statistics, the landless (including marginal...

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Centres at: MUKHERJEE NAGAR MUNIRKA UTTAM NAGAR DILSHAD GARDEN ROHINI BADARPUR JAIPUR GURGAON LAXMI NAGAR

GHAZIABAD NOIDA MEERUT VARANASI ROHTAK PANIPAT SONEPAT PATNA AGRA CHANDIGARH LUCKNOW ALLAHABAD

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ENGLISH LANGUAGE & COMPREHENSION

Directions (1-10): Read the following passage

carefully and answer the questions given below

it. Certain words/phrases have been printed in

bold to help you locate them while answering

some of the questions:

Many people think that when new irrigation

projects are executed and commissioned, the area

will prosper and poverty will get eradicated. But

this is not true. These objects are mostly designed

for irrigating one crop of light irrigated type. Even

if 100 percent of the area under the command is

irrigated, it would create employment to the

landless for a maximum of 90 days in a year.

As per statistics, the landless (including

marginal farmers) constitute 50 to 70 percent of

the rural population. They are classified as

agricultural labour and many of them go out in

search of work for the balance 270 days. Striking

instances of this phenomenon are seen in the

Godavari and Krishna deltas in Andhra Pradesh,

where 100 percent of the area is irrigated. The

agricultural labour who constitue 70 percent of the

rural population continue to remain poor, even

though some go out to other places seeking work.

It is therefore necessary to structure new

livelihoods as part of water resources development

projects wherever there is a possibility, so that the

landless may get employment throughout the year.

The World Water Forum (WWF) in its Kyoto

(Japan) convention, held in March 2003,

recommended that all the future water resources

development projects in the world should include

the component of inland water navigation. I

suggest that flat bottom sea going vessels upto

3,000 tonnes capacity should be able to ply in major

rivers such as the Godawari up to Pochampad

(SRSP) Dam and the Krishna up to Nagarjuna

Sagar Dam, throughout the year. It would then be

possible to convey Singareni coal by the river and

sea route to the Haldia Port in the North and

Tuticorin in the South. This mode of tranporation

would be cheap and eco-friendly invovling least

pollution and less consumption of fossil fuels.

Cheap transportation of bulk and finished

good would lead to industrial growth, all along the

banks of rivers. Industries will come up quickly

in the mineral rich areas. Also, adequate water

can be made available to them. Inland water

navigation coupled with industries will create new

livelihoods for the landless rural poor throughout

the year. This is in tune with the former president

A.P.J. Abdul Kalam's Republic Day message on the

need to create additional employment.

It is disappointing to note that relatively no

effort is being made in India to develop Inland water

navigation in any of the water resources projects

under construction. On the other hand, there is a

wrong understanding in several quarters that

navigation, as a means of transport, is outdated and

not relevant to the modern 'Jet Age'. Interestingly,

there are recorded versions (Encylopaedia Britannica)

that development had resulted in the U.S., Europe

and Russia after establishing navigation in the rivers.

The modern inland irrigation envisages seagoing

vessels plying in rivers and is different from the

earlier canal navigation.

Since an overall development through

inland navigation was already experienced in the

developed countries, the Government of India

should make this component mandatory for all

the future water resources projects in the

country. This would also amount to honouring

the Kyoto Convention 2003.

1. Which of the following is not true in context

of the passage?

(1) Some agricultural labourers go to other

places looking for work.

(2) Inland water navigation will lead to

lowering of transportation costs for

certain goods.

(3) The landless workers constitute a very

small part of the rural populace.

(4) India is not making too much effort to

develop inland water navigation.

(5) People generally believe that irrigation

projects lead to prosperity.

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2. According to the passage, why are marginal

farmers even in areas with 100 percent

irrigation facing problems?

(1) Their cost of cultivation is very high.

(2) They do not get subsidy for the seeds

purchased by them.

(3) Red-tapism leads to the benefits not

reaching these farmers.

(4) They still remain unemployed for 270

days in a year.

(5) They have huge debt burdens on their

heads.

3. Landless and marginal farmers make up

what percentage of rural population?

(1) 10-20% (2) 20-50%

(3) 50-70% (4) 40-90%

(5) 100%

4. Which of the following is true in context of

the passage?

A. Inland water navigation led to

development in the U.S. and Europe.

B. Inland water navigation can help create

new livelihoods for marginal farmers.

C. Inland water navigation has been

successfully implemented in several

Indian states.

(1) Only A (2) Only A and B

(3) A, B and C (4) Only B

(5) Only A and C

5. Which of the following is a recommendation

made by the World Water Forum?

(1) Flat bottom vessels should start plying

in Indian rivers.

(2) The authorities should push for rapid

industralisation of rural and backward

areas.

(3) More Emphasis should be paid to air

transport than to water transport.

(4) Inland water navigation should be a part

of all water resources development

projects.

(5) All of the above

6. What is the objective of the author in

writing this passage?

(1) To describe the problems faced by farmers

(2) To advocate for the implementation of

inland water navigation

(3) To highlight the benefits of 100 percent

irrgiation to farmers

(4) To protest against the discriminatory

policies of the authorities

(5) To describe the inland water navigation

system

Direction (7-8): Choose the word that is most

nearly the same in meaning as the word printed

in bold, as used in the passage.

7. ERADICATED

(1) Encouraged (2) Protected

(3) Wiped out (4) Insulted

(5) Criticised

8. INSTANCES

(1) Quickly (2) Examples

(3) Sorrows (4) Suggestions

(5) Complaints

Directions (9-10): Choose the word that is most

opposite in meaning to the word printed in bold,

as used in the passage.

9. CHEAP

(1) Modern (2) Fashionable

(3) Expensive (4) Handsome

(5) Luxurious

10. MANDATORY

(1) Optional (2) Favourable

(3) Compulsory (4) Inexpensive

(5) Light

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Directions (11-15): Rearrange the following five

sentences (A), (B), (C), (D) and (E) in a proper

sequence to form a meaningful paragraph; then,

answer the questions given below them.

(A) The second Persian invasion of Greece

was catalysed by the spectacular of the

first, with the then Persian King Darius

I seeing his desire to subjugate the city-

states of Athens and Eretria end brutally

at the Battle of Marathon in 490 BCE.

(B) Indeed, despite spending over 3,00,000

soldiers to take down the Persian's

western enemy, the majority of Greece

- and certainly the mainland - remained

firmly out of Persian hands, with Darius

himself checked in his empire's

expansion for the first time.

(C) Well, if you were a Spartan, the most

war-loving, brutal and savage city-state

in the entirety of Greece, then you

would fight - and you would do so to the

last man.

(D) That is exactly what King Leonidas I of

Sparta did in 480 BCE, and despite

falling in battle, he fell a free man on

his home country's soil and helped repel

the Persians from mainland Greece

once and for all.

(E) After receiving the news of the defeat,

however, his will remained intact, and

he bagan prepartions for an even larger

second invasion.

11. Which of the following should be the FIRST

sentence after the rearrangement?

(1) A (2) D

(3) B (4) E

(5) C

12. Which of the following should be the SECOND


(1) A (2) D

(3) B (4) E

(5) C

13. Which of the following should be the THIRD


(1) A (2) D

(3) B (4) E

(5) C

14. Which of the following should be the FOURTH


(1) A (2) D

(3) B (4) E

(5) C

15. Which of the following should be the FIFTH


(1) A (2) D

(3) B (4) E

(5) C

Directions (16-20): The sentence has two

blanks. Each blank indicates that something

has been omitted. Choose the words that best

fit the meaning of the sentence as a whole.

16. After a ____ review it was found that many

financial institutions don't have proper ____

in place and could unwillingly be financing

illegal activities.

(1) routine, checks

(2) periodic, space

(3) schedule, standard

(4) custom, timing

(5) suddently, system

17. The main reason youth unemployment has

____ in this region is the depth of the

recession in these countries and the

chances of improvement are ____ unless

governments kick-start their economies.

(1) fallen, negligible

(2) risen, visible

(3) grown, create

(4) soared, remote

(5) collapsed, much

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18. For the country as a whole more than half

the population ____ regular electricity as

connections to the national grid are ____

and generators are expensive.

(1) deficient, dependable

(2) want, running

(3) lack, unenviable

(4) short, faded

(5) requiring, fumy

19. It is ____ that 400 million Indian passengers

will want to fly in or out of the country by

2050 and unless the airport facility is

improved it will be ____ to handle this traffic.

(1) though, easier

(2) assume, worrisome

(3) estimated, difficult

(4) typical, perfect

(5) expected, able

20. Reform is set to gain ____ as much of the

spadework for a vibrant economy such as ____

laws on taxes and banking are underway.

(1) steam, specialising

(2) advantage, fix

(3) pace, amending

(4) tame, modify

(5) weight, compensating

Directions (21-25): Read each sentence to find

out whether there is any grammatical or idomatic

error in it. The errors, if any, will be in one part

of the sentence. The number of that part is the

answer. If there is 'no error', the answer is (5).

(Ignore errors of punctuation, if any.)

21. (1) The beautician listed out /(2)a few quick

tips that /(3) one needs to keep in mind /

(4) in order to get that perfect holiday

radiance. /(5) No error.

22. (1) After weeks of talks, /(2) the two parties

failed to resolving /(3) their differences and

the makers eventually /(4) decided to look

for an alternative. /(5) No error.

23. (1) The Minister said that the State was

facing /(2) an acute financial crunch and

feared that /(3) the Government might be

compelled to take /(4) loans to pay the

salaries of its employees. /(5) No error.

24. (1) The states dependent on oil and gas

revenues /(2) are growing increasingly

anxious about /(3) the ripple effect that

falling oil prices /(4) may have on their local

economies. /(5) No error.

25. (1) Though the year witnessed /(2) a rise

in crimes against women, /(3) the police

claimed that their changed images has

given /(4) confidence to women to come

forward and lodge complaints. /(5) No error.

Directions (26-30): In the following passage,

there are blanks, each of which has been

numbered. These numbers are printed below

the passage, and against each, five words/

phrases are suggested, one of which fits the

blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate

word/phrase in each case.

Foreign investment banks are showing

signs they will be more (26) about bidding for roles

to help manage government share sales after the

country's largest ever equity offering of $3.6

billion left them (27) a fee of just one rupee. (28)

fees for advisory roles in government share sales

are not (29) in India, but bankers say they are

struggling now to (30) the costs to shareholders

in the current enviornment of low interest rates

and rising regulatory costs.

26. (1) keen (2) aware

(3) happy (4) choosy

(5) enthusiastic

27. (1) sharing (2) paying

(3) purchasing (4) rejecting

(5) bidding

28. (1) high (2) low

(3) no (4) unpaid

(5) arge

29. (1) common (2) paid

(3) ordinary (4) normal

(5) unusual

30. (1) pay (2) receive

(3) justify (4) pass on

(5) insure

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la[;kRed vfHk;ksX;rkfunsZ'k (31-40): fuEufyf[kr iz'uksa esas iz'ufpUg (?) ds LFkkuij D;k vkuk pkfg,?

31. 55.55 ÷ 5 × 10 ÷ 5.5 = ?

(1) 101 (2) 202

(3) 20.2 (4) 110

(5) 10.1

32. (0.3 + 0.9 + 0.06) (0.1 + 0.4 + 0.05) = ?

(1) 6.930 (2) 9.90

(3) 0.99 (4) 0.693

(5) 0.099

33. 255.4 + 542.3 – ? = 1014.3 – 499.4

(1) 272.8 (2) 285.5

(3) –258.5 (4) 282.8

(5) –282.8

34. 31024 40 448 (?)´ + =

(1) 16 (2) 14

(3) 12 (4) 22

(5) 32

35. 1240 dk 30% + 2480 dk 20% – 248 = 620 dk ?%

(1) 100 (2) 50

(3) 200 (4) 400

(5) 250

36. 57 9.5 (63 11.5) 1408 ?´ - ´ + =

(1) 15 (2) 35

(3) 25 (4) 45

(5) buesa ls dksbZ ugha

37.3 17 2 3 2

1 1 1 ? 1 140 20 5 40 3

æ ö æ öç ÷ ç ÷- + ¸ = - ´ç ÷ ç ÷è ø è ø

(1) 73

275

(2) 173

2175

(3) 74

275

(4) 74

175

(5) buesa ls dksbZ ugha38. 2184 ÷ 39 ÷ 4 – 67 = (?)1/2 – 109

(1) 3316 (2) 3136

(3) 3616 (4) 3636

(5) 3336

39. ? = 24 – (24)2 + 24 × (24 ÷ 0.24 + 24)

(1) 2924 (2) 2432

(3) 2424 (4) 3632

(5) 3262

40. 3 3 331000 0.008 0.125 ? 0.064+ + = +

(1) 10 (2) 10.25

(3) 10.3 (4) 100

(5) 125

funsZ'k (41-45): fuEufyf[kr la[;k J`a[kyk esa iz'ufpUg (\)

ds LFkku ij D;k vkuk pkfg,\

41. 13 13 19 43 103 ?

(1) 221 (2) 227

(3) 223 (4) 217

(5) 239

42. 27 13 12 16.5 ? 75

(1) 31 (2) 29

(3) 37 (4) 33

(5) 35

43. 17 19 42 132 ? 2690

(1) 532 (2) 544

(3) 528 (4) 536

(5) 512

44. 25 29 67 217 ? 4501

(1) 927 (2) 877

(3) 885 (4) 911

(5) 893

45. 21 38 59 84 113 ?

(1) 138 (2) 152

(3) 134 (4) 146

(5) 148

46. rhu lky igys ,d isM+ yxk;k x;k FkkA bldh of¼ dh nj izfro"kZ 30% gSA ;fn orZeku eas] isM+ dh mQapkbZ 670 lsaeh gS, tcisM+ yxk;k x;k Fkk] rks bldh mQapkbZ D;k Fkh?(1) 305 lsaeh (2) 500 lsaeh(3) 405 lsaeh (4) 625 lsaeh(5) buesa ls dksbZ ugha

47. nks vadksa dh ,d la[;k esa bdkbZ dk vad 100% vkSj ngkbZdk vad 50% c<+k fn;k tkrk gSA bl izdkj izkIr la[;k]izkjafHkd la[;k ls 19 vf/d gSA izkjafHkd la[;k D;k gS?(1) 22 (2) 63

(3) 24 (4) 25

(5) buesa ls dksbZ ugha48. ,d nw/okyk ` 6.4 izfr yhVj nw/ dk Hkqxrku djrk gSA

mlesa og ikuh feykrk gS vkSj ` 8 izfr yhVj dh nj lsfeJ.k csprk gS] rkfd 37.5% ykHk feysA xzkgdksa }kjk izkIrnw/ esa ikuh dk vuqikr D;k gS?(1) 1 : 15 (2) 1 : 10

(3) 1 : 20 (4) 1 : 12


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Ph: 011-27607854, (M) 8860-333-333 6

QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE

Directions (31-40): What should come in place

of question mark (?) in the following questions?

31. 55.55 ÷ 5 × 10 ÷ 5.5 = ?

(1) 101 (2) 202

(3) 20.2 (4) 110

(5) 10.1

32. (0.3 + 0.9 + 0.06) (0.1 + 0.4 + 0.05) = ?

(1) 6.930 (2) 9.90

(3) 0.99 (4) 0.693

(5) 0.099

33. 255.4 + 542.3 – ? = 1014.3 – 499.4

(1) 272.8 (2) 285.5

(3) –258.5 (4) 282.8

(5) –282.8

34. 31024 40 448 (?)´ + =

(1) 16 (2) 14

(3) 12 (4) 22

(5) 32

35. 30% of 1240 + 20% of 2480 – 248 = ?% of 620

(1) 100 (2) 50

(3) 200 (4) 400

(5) 250

36. 57 9.5 (63 11.5) 1408 ?´ - ´ + =

(1) 15 (2) 35

(3) 25 (4) 45

(5) None of these

37.3 17 2 3 2

1 1 1 ? 1 140 20 5 40 3

æ ö æ öç ÷ ç ÷- + ¸ = - ´ç ÷ ç ÷è ø è ø

(1) 73

275

(2) 173

2175

(3) 74

275

(4) 74

175

(5) None of these

38. 2184 ÷ 39 ÷ 4 – 67 = (?)1/2 – 109

(1) 3316 (2) 3136

(3) 3616 (4) 3636

(5) 3336

39. ? = 24 – (24)2 + 24 × (24 ÷ 0.24 + 24)

(1) 2924 (2) 2432

(3) 2424 (4) 3632

(5) 3262

40. 3 3 331000 0.008 0.125 ? 0.064+ + = +

(1) 10 (2) 10.25

(3) 10.3 (4) 100

(5) 125

Directions (41-45): What will come in place of

question mark (?) in the following series?

41. 13 13 19 43 103 ?

(1) 221 (2) 227

(3) 223 (4) 217

(5) 239

42. 27 13 12 16.5 ? 75

(1) 31 (2) 29

(3) 37 (4) 33

(5) 35

43. 17 19 42 132 ? 2690

(1) 532 (2) 544

(3) 528 (4) 536

(5) 512

44. 25 29 67 217 ? 4501

(1) 927 (2) 877

(3) 885 (4) 911

(5) 893

45. 21 38 59 84 113 ?

(1) 138 (2) 152

(3) 134 (4) 146

(5) 148

46. A tree was planted three years ago. The rate

of its growth is 30% per annum. If at

present, the height of the tree is 670 cm,

what was it when the tree was planted?

(1) 305 cm (2) 500 cm

(3) 405 cm (4) 625 cm

(5) None of these

47. The digit at unit's place of a two-digit

number is increased by 100% and the ten's

digit of the same number is increased by

50%. The new number thus formed is 19

more than the original number. What is the

original number?

(1) 22 (2) 63

(3) 24 (4) 25

(5) None of these

48. A milkman pays ` 6.4 per litre of milk. He

adds water and sells the mixture at ` 8 per

litre, thereby making 37.5% profit. The

proportion of water to milk received by the

customers is

(1) 1 : 15 (2) 1 : 10

(3) 1 : 20 (4) 1 : 12

(5) None of these

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49. ,d dkWyst eas vk/h yM+fd;k¡ vkSj yM+dksa esa ls ,d&frgkbZyM+ds Nk=kkokl esa jgrs gSaA ;fn fdlh dkWyst esa yM+fd;ksa dh

dqy la[;k 100 gS] tks dqy la[;k dk 1

4 gS] rks Nk=kkokl

esa jgus okys Nk=kksa dk vkaf'kd Hkkx D;k gS?

(1) 2

5(2)

5

12

(3) 1

5(4)

1

4(5) buesas ls dksbZ ugha

50. 5 O;fDr izfrfnu vkB ?kaVs dke djds fdlh nhokj dks

10 fnuksa esa iwjk dj ldrs gSA muds 15

2fnuksa rd dke dj

pqdus ds ckn] ikap vkSj O;fDr;ksa dks dke djus ds fy,yk;k x;kA vc nhokj fdrus fnuksa esas iw.kZ gksxh?(1) ,d fnu T;knk(2) nks fnu T;knk(3) rhu fnu T;knk(4) pkj fnu T;knk(5) buesa ls dksbZ ugha

51. ;fn 120 fdeh dh ;k=kk jsyxkM+h vkSj 'ks"k dkj }kjk dh tkrhgS] rks 600 fdeh dh ;k=kk esa vkB ?kaVs yxrs gSaA ;fn 200

fdeh jsyxkM+h }kjk vkSj 'ks"k dkj }kjk ;k=kk dh tkrh gS rks20 feuV vkSj vf/d yxrs gSaA jsyxkM+h dh xfr dh rqyukesa dkj dh xfr dk vuqikr Kkr dhft,A(1) 4 : 3 (2) 3 : 4(3) 3 : 2 (4) 2 : 3

(5) buesa ls dksbZ ugha52. ,d ikbi fdlh VSad dks 15 feuV esa vkSj nwljs dks

10 feuV esa Hkjrk gSA ,d rhljk ikbi 5 feuV esa ikbi[kkyh djrk gSA 'kq:vkr esa igys nks ikbi dks 4 feuV dsfy, [kksyk tkrk gS vkSj fiQj rhljk ikbi Hkh [kksy fn;k tkrkgSA VSad fdruh nsj esa [kkyh gksxk?(1) 35 feuV (2) 15 feuV(3) 20 feuV (4) [kkyh ugha dj ldrs(5) buesa ls dksbZ ugha

53. uko A dh 'kkar ty esa pky] uko B dh 'kkar ty esa pkydh vis{kk 2 fdeh@?kaVk de gSA uko A }kjk 20 fdeh dh nwjhvuqizokg esa r; djus esa] mlh nwjh dks uko B }kjk r; djusesa yxus okys le; dh vis{kk 30 feuV vf/d yxrs gSaA ;fn

/kjk dh pky] uko dh pky dk1

3gS] rks uko B dh 'kkar ty

esa pky fdruh gS? (fdeh@?kaVk)(1) 4 fdeh@?kaVk (2) 6 fdeh@?kaVk(3) 12 fdeh@?kaVk (4) 10 fdeh@?kaVk(5) 8 fdeh@?kaVk

54. ,d vk;rkdkj ikdZ esa mldh pkSM+kbZ ds lekarj eè; esadaØhV dk ,d ekxZ cuk gSA 'ks"k IykWV dks ykWu ds rkSj ijmi;ksx fd;k tkrk gS] ftldk {ks=kiQy 240 oxZ ehVj gSA ;fnekxZ dh pkSM+kbZ 3 ehVj gks rFkk vk;rkdkj IykWV dh yEckbZ]mldh pkSM+kbZ ls 2 ehVj vf/d gks, rks vk;rkdkj IykWV dk{ks=kiQy fdruk gS? (oxZ eh eas)(1) 255 (2) 168

(3) 288 (4) 360

(5) 224

55. tkosn us Ldhe A ,oa Ldhe B esa leku /ujkf'k dk fuos'kfd;kA nksuksa Ldhe C;kt dh leku nj ;kuh 8% izfr o"kZ vnkdjrs gSaA dsoy ;g varj gS fd Ldhe A okf"kZd :i lsla;ksftr pØo`f¼ C;kt ,oa Ldhe B lk/kj.k C;kt vnkdjrk gSA nks o"kZ i'pkr~ tkosn }kjk nksuksa Ldheksa }kjk izkIr

C;ktksa dk varj ` 53.76 gS, rks izR;sd Ldhe esa fuosf'krèkujkf'k D;k gS?

(1) ` 8,800 (2) ` 8,400

(3) ` 9,400 (4) ` 8,200

(5) ` 9,600

56. 4 o"kZ iwoZ] A dh ml le; dh mez ds 1

2 ,oa B dh ml

le; dh mez ds pkj xqus dk vuqikr 5 : 12 FkkA vkt ls

8 o"kZ ckn A dh mez dk 1

2B dh ml le; dh mez ls

2 o"kZ de gksxkA B dh orZeku mez D;k gS?(1) 10 o"kZ (2) 14 o"kZ(3) 12 o"kZ (4) 5 o"kZ(5) 8 o"kZ

57. A us ,d O;kikj vkjaHk fd;kA 4 ekg ckn B ,oa C, A dslkFk lk>snkj cu x,A A, B vkSj C ds fuos'k dk vuqikr4 : 6 : 5 FkkA ;fn okf"kZd ykHk esa A dk ykHkka'k C ds

ykHkka'k ls ` 250 vf/d gks] rks vftZr dqy okf"kZd ykHkD;k Fkk?

(1) ` 3740 (2) ` 3910

(3) ` 4250 (4) ` 4350

(5) buesa ls dksbZ ugha58. 18 O;fDr ,d izkstsDV dks 30 fnu esa lekIr dj ldrs gSa

,oa 16 efgyk,a mlh izkstsDV dks 36 fnu esa lekIr djldrh gSA 15 O;fDr dke vkjaHk djrs gSa ,oa 9 fnu i'pkr~muds LFkku ij 18 efgyk,a dke ij yx tkrh gSA 'ks"k dkedks 18 efgyk,a fdrus fnuksa esa lekIr djsaxh?(1) 20 (2) 30

(3) 26 (4) 28

(5) 24

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Ph: 011-27607854, (M) 8860-333-333 8

49. Half the girls and one-third of the boys of acollege reside in the hostel. What fractionalpart of the student is hostel dwellers if thetotal number of girls in the college is 100

and is 1

4 of the total strength?

(1) 2

5(2)

5

12

(3) 1

5(4)

1

4

(5) None of these50. 5 persons working eight hours daily can

complete a wall in 10 days. When they have

worked for 15

2days, 5 more persons are

brought to work. The wall can now becompleted in how many days?(1) one more day(2) two more days(3) three more days(4) four more days(5) None of these

51. It takes eight hours for a 600 km journey,if 120 km is done by train and the rest bycar. It takes 20 min more, if 200 km is doneby train and the rest by car. The ratio ofthe speed of the train to that of the speed ofthe car is(1) 4 : 3 (2) 3 : 4(3) 3 : 2 (4) 2 : 3(5) None of these

52. A pipe can fill a tank in 15 min and anotherone in 10 min. A third pipe can empty thetank in 5 min. The first two pipes are keptopen for 4 min in the beginning and thenthe third pipe is also opened. In what timewill tank be emptied?(1) 35 min (2) 15 min(3) 20 min (4) Can't be emptied(5) None of these

53. The speed of Boat A is 2 km/h less thanthe speed of Boat B. The time taken by BoatA to travel a distance of 20 km downstreamis 30 minutes more than the time takenby Boat B to travel the same distancedownstream. If the speed of the current is

1

3of the speed of Boat A, then what is the

speed of Boat B? (km/h)(1) 4 km/h (2) 6 km/h(3) 12 km/h (4) 10 km/h(5) 8 km/h

54. A rectangular plot has a concrete path running

in the middle of the plot parellel to the breadth

of the plot. The rest of the plot is used as a

lawn which has an area of 240 sqm. If the

width of the path is 3 m and the length of the

path is greater than its breadth by 2m, what

is the area of the rectangular plot? (in sqm)

(1) 255 (2) 168

(3) 288 (4) 360

(5) 224

55. Javed invested equal sums in schemes A

and B. Both the schemes offer same rate of

interest i.e. 8 p.c.p.a. The only difference

is scheme A offers compound interest

(compounded annually) and scheme B offers

simple interest. If the difference between

interests accured by Javed from both the

schemes after two years is ` 53.76, what

sum was invested by him in each of the

schemes?

(1) ` 8,800 (2) ` 8,400

(3) ` 9,400 (4) ` 8,200

(5) ` 9,600

56. 4 years ago, the ratio of 1

2of A's age at that

time and four times of B's age at that was

5 : 12. Eight years hence, 1

2of A's age at

that time will be less than B's age at that

time by 2 yrs. What is B's present age?

(1) 10 yrs (2) 14 yrs

(3) 12 yrs (4) 5 yrs

(5) 8 yrs

57. A started a business, after 4 months from

the start of the business, B and C joined

him. The ratio of the investments of A, B

and C was 4 : 6 : 5. If A's share in annual

profit was ` 250 more than that of C, what

was the total annual profit earned?

(1) ` 3740 (2) ` 3910

(3) ` 4250 (4) ` 4350

(5) None of these

58. 18 men can complete a project in 30 days

and 16 women can complete the same

project in 36 day. 15 men start working and

after 9 days they are replaced by 18 women.

In how many days will be 18 women

complete the remaining work?

(1) 20 (2) 30

(3) 26 (4) 28

(5) 24

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Ph: 011-27607854, (M) 8860-333-333 9

59. LFkku A ls LFkku B rd 4 cts vijkg~u igqapus ds fy, lkjkdks 18 fdeh@?kaVk dh vkSlr pky ls ;k=kk djuk gksxkA ;fnog 24 fdeh@?kaVk dh vkSlr pky ls ;k=kk djrh gS] rks ogLFkku B ij 3 cts vijkg~u igqapsxhA lkjk dks LFkku B ls2 cts vijkg~u igqapus ds fy, fdl vkSlr pky ls ;k=kkdjuh gksxh?(1) 36 fdeh@?kaVk (2) 28 fdeh@?kaVk(3) 25 fdeh@?kaVk (4) 30 fdeh@?kaVk(5) 32 fdeh@?kaVk

60. ,d izkFkfed fo|ky; dh yM+fd;ksa dh dqy la[;k dh

3

8Hkkx yM+fd;ksa ,oa yM+dksa dh dqy la[;k ds

4

9Hkkx

yM+dksa us okf"kZd ØhM+ksRlo esa Hkkx fy;kA ;fn Hkkx ysus okysdqy 155 fo|kfFkZ;ksa esa ls 92 yM+ds gksa] rks izkFkfedfo|ky; eas fo|kfFkZ;ksa dh dqy la[;k D;k gS?(1) 350 (2) 390(3) 345 (4) 375(5) 385

funsZ'k (61-65): fuEukafdr xzkiQ dk lko/kuhiwoZd vè;;u dhft, ,oa fn, x, iz'uksa ds mÙkj nhft,:

foxr 6 ekgksa ds nkSjku ns'k A ,oa B ds fy, ns'k XYZ }kjk fuxZr ohtk izi=kksa dh la[;k

ns'k Ans'k B

450

400

350

300

250

200

fuxZr

oht

k izi

=kksa d

h la[;

k

ekpZ vizSy ebZ twu tqykbZ400

300

310

350

360

280

320

250

250

320

300

360

150

100

50

0

61. vizSy ekg esa ns'k A ,oa ns'k B ds fy, fuxZr fd, x, ohtkizi=kksa ,oa twu ekg esa nksuksa ns'kksa ds fy, fuxZr fd, x, ohtkizi=kksa dh dqy la[;k ds chp D;k varj gS?(1) 90 (2) 70(3) 110 (4) 100(5) 80

62. ekpZ] ebZ] tqykbZ ,oa vxLr ekg ds nkSjku ns'k B ds fy,fuxZr fd, x, ohtk izi=kksa dh vkSlr la[;k D;k gS?(1) 315 (2) 310(3) 320 (4) 335(5) 325

63. ekpZ esa ns'k A ds fy, fuxZr ohtk izi=kksa dh la[;k xr ekgls 20% de gks xbZA ns'k A ds fy, iQjojh esa fuxZr ohtkizi=kksa dh la[;k ,oa mlh ns'k ds fy, ebZ ekg eas fuxZr ohtkizi=kksa dh la[;k ds eè; Øe'k% D;k vuqikr gS?(1) 25 : 13 (2) 25 : 18(3) 26 : 13 (4) 24 : 13(5) 26 : 15

64. ebZ dh vis{kk tqykbZ esa ns'k A ds fy, fuxZr ohtk izi=kksa dhla[;k esa fdrus izfr'kr dh deh gqbZ?

(1) 1

353

(2) 33

(3) 5

309

(4) 2

323

(5) 4

329

65. ekpZ esa ns'k B ds fy, fuxZr ohtk izi=kksa dh la[;k] twu ekgesa ns'k A ds fy, fuxZr ohtk izi=kksa dh la[;k ls fdrukizfr'kr de gS?(1) 8.5 (2) 7.75(3) 4.25 (4) 6.25(5) 5.75

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Ph: 011-27607854, (M) 8860-333-333 10

59. To reach point B from point A, at 4 pm, Sara

will have to travel at an average speed of

18 kmph. She will reach point B at 3 pm if

she travels at an average speed of 24 kmph.

At what average speed should Sara travel

to reach point B at 2 pm?

(1) 36 km/h (2) 28 km/h

(3) 25 km/h (4) 30 km/h

(5) 32 km/h

60.3

8th of the girls and

4

9th of the boys of a

primary school participated in the annualsports. If the number of participatingstudents is 155 out of which 92 are boys,what is the total number of students in theprimary school?(1) 350 (2) 390(3) 345 (4) 375(5) 385

Directions (61-65): Read the graph and answer the given questions:Number of visas issued by Country XYZ for country A and country B in 6 different months

April May June July

400

300

310

350

360

280

320

250

250

320

300

360

450

400

350

300

250

200

Num

ber

of

vis

as i

ssued

Country ACountry B

150

100

50

0

61. What is the difference between the totalnumber of visas issued for country A andcountry B together in April and the totalnumber of visas issued for both thecountries together in June?(1) 90 (2) 70(3) 110 (4) 100(5) 80

62. What is the average number of visas issuedfor country B in March, July and August?(1) 315 (2) 310(3) 320 (4) 335(5) 325

63. The number of visas issued for Country Ain March decreased by 20% from theprevious month. What is the respective ratiobetween the number of visas issued forcountry A in February and the number ofvisas issued for the same country in May?(1) 25 : 13 (2) 25 : 18(3) 26 : 13 (4) 24 : 13(5) 26 : 15

64. The number of visas issued for country Adecreased by what percent from May toJuly?

(1) 1

353

(2) 33

(3) 5

309

(4) 2

323

(5) 4

329

65. The number of visas issued for country Bin March is what percent less than thenumber of visas issued for country A inJune?(1) 8.5 (2) 7.75(3) 4.25 (4) 6.25(5) 5.75

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Ph: 011-27607854, (M) 8860-333-333 11

rdZ'kfDr ijh{k.k66. yM+fd;ksa dh ,d drkj esa] nhik lkeus ls vBkjgoha gS]

tcfd uank ihNs ls lksygoha gSA ;fn dfydk lkeus lsiPPhloha gS vkSj nhik vkSj uank ds Bhd chp esa gS rks drkjesa fdruh yM+fd;ka gSa\(1) 46 (2) 47

(3) 48 (4) fu/kZfjr ugha fd;k tk ldrk(5) buesa ls dksbZ ugha

67. P

N

T

Q

S

R

W

E

,seu (A) P fcUnq ls Q dh rjiQ lcls de nwjh ls gksdjpyuk vkjaHk djrk gS vkSj vk/s jkLrs esa og vius nkfguhrjiQ eqM+rk gS vkSj ftruh nwjh mlus igys r; dh gksrh gSmlls vk/h nwjh r; djrk gS vkSj 90° DykWdokbt eqM+ tkrkgS rks og bl oDr fdl fn'kk esa gS\(1) nf{k.k&if'pe (2) mÙkj(3) nf{k.k (4) mÙkj&if'pe(5) buesa ls dksbZ ugha

68. ;fn HEALTH dks GSKZDG fy[kk tkrk gS] rks NORTH

ml dwV esa fdl izdkj fy[kk tk,xk?(1) OPSUI (2) GSQNM(3) FRPML (4) IUSPO

(5) buesa ls dksbZ ugha69. ,d fuf'pr dwV esa BEAN dks ABNE fy[kk tkrk gS vkSj

SALE, dks LSEA fy[kk tkrk gSA rks ml dwV Hkk"kk esaNEWS fdl izdkj fy[kk tk,xk?(1) SNEW (2) SNWE(3) WNES (4) WNSE

(5) buesa ls dksbZ ughafunsZ'k (70-74): fuEufyf[kr tkudkjh dk vè;;u dj iz'uksads mÙkj nsaA,d fpfM+;k?kj esa nl tkuoj gSa& ftlesa nks 'ksj] nks rsanqvk] nks taxyhHkSalk] nks Hkkyw vkSj nks fgj.k gSA fpfM+;k?kj esa X, Y, Z, P vkSj Quked ik¡p vgkrs gSa vkSj izR;sd vgkrk fuEufyf[kr tSd] eksgu]'kkfyuh] lqeu vkSj jhrk esa ls fdlh ,d lsod dks vkcafVr gSA izR;sdvgkrs esa nks fHkUu izdkj ds tkfr ds tkuojksa dks ,d lkFk j[kk x;kgSA ,d 'ksj vkSj ,d fgj.k ,d lkFk ugha jg ldrs gSaA ,d rsanqvkfgj.k ;k taxyh HkSals ds lkFk ugha jg ldrk gSA lqeu dsoy taxyhHkSals] fgj.k vkSj rsanq, esa ls nks tkuojksa dks vVsaM djrh gSA eksgu ,d'ksj vkSj ,d rsanq, dks vVsaM djrk gSA tSd fgj.k] 'ksj ;k taxyh HkSalsdks vVsaM ugha djrk gSA X, Y vkSj Z Øe'k% eksgu] tSd vkSj jhrkdks vkcafVr gSA X vkSj Q vgkrs esa ,d tkuoj ,d gh iztkfr dsgaSA Z vkSj P esa ,d leku tkuojksa dk ,d ;qXe gSA

70. 'kkfyuh }kjk vVsaM fd, tkus okys tkuoj ______ gSaA(1) taxyh HkSalk vkSj fgj.k (2) Hkkyw vkSj taxyh HkSalk(3) Hkkyw vkSj 'ksj (4) Hkkyw vkSj rsanqvk(5) buesa ls dksbZ ugha

71. vgkrk X ______ dks vkcafVr gSA(1) tSd (2) eksgu(3) lqeu (4) 'kkfyuh(5) buesa ls dksbZ ugha

72. jhrk ds lanHkZ esa dkSu&lk la;kstu lgh gS\(1) P ® jhrk ® fgj.k vkSj taxyh HkSalk(2) Y ® tSd ® rsanqvk vkSj Hkkyw(3) Z ® jhrk ® fgj.k vkSj rsanqvk(4) X ® jhrk ® fgj.k vkSj rsanqvk(5) buesa ls dksbZ ugha

73. tSd }kjk vVsaM fd, tkus okys tkuoj -------- gSA(1) rsanqvk vkSj Hkkyw(2) 'ksj vkSj rsanqvk(3) fgj.k vkSj taxyh HkSalk(4) 'ksj vkSj Hkkyw(5) buesa ls dksbZ ugha

74. Z vkSj P vgkrk ------------ dks vkcafVr gSA(1) jhrk vkSj lqeu(2) lqeu vkSj 'kkfyuh(3) jhrk vkSj tSd(4) lqeu vkSj tSd(5) buesa ls dksbZ ugha

funsZ'k (75-79): fuEufyf[kr tkudkjh dk vè;;u dj iz'uksads mÙkj nsa%

A B C D E F G H I J K L M N O P Q R S T U VW X Y Z

75. fn, x, o.kZekyk esa G vkSj Q ds Bhd chp esa dkSu lk v{kjgS\(1) K (2) L(3) M (4) N

(5) buesa ls dksbZ ugha76. o.kZekyk esa dkSu lk v{kj G ls mruk gh nwj gS ftruk T,

M ls gS?(1) M (2) N(3) O (4) P

(5) buesa ls dksbZ ugha77. ;fn o.kZekyk esa ls lHkh Lojksa dks gVk fn;k tk, rks cka, ls

ikaposa v{kj ds nka, ls lkroka v{kj dkSu&lk gksxk\(1) L (2) M(3) N (4) P


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Ph: 011-27607854, (M) 8860-333-333 12

REASONING ABILITY

66. In a queue of girls, Deepa is eighteenth fromthe front while Nanda is sixteenth from theback. If Kalika is twenty-fifth from the frontand is exactly in the middle of Deepa andNanda, then how many girls are there in thequeue.(1) 46 (2) 47(3) 48 (4) Cannot be determined(5) None of these

67. P

N

T

Q

S

R

W

E

Aiman (A) starts walking from P towards Qalong the shortest distance and midway heturns to his right and covering half thedistance he had earlier covered, takes a 90ºturn in the clockwise direction whichdirection is he facing now?(1) South-West (2) North(3) South (4) North-west(5) None of these

68. If HEALTH is written as GSKZDG, then howwill NORTH be written in that code?(1) OPSUI (2) GSQNM(3) FRPML (4) IUSPO(5) None of these

69. In a certain code BEAN is written as ABNEand SALE is written as LSEA. How is NEWSwritten in that code?(1) SNEW (2) SNWE(3) WNES (4) WNSE(5) None of these

Directions (70-74): Study the followinginformation to answer the question.There are ten animals - two each of lions,panthers, bisons, bears and deers in a zoo. Theenclosures in the zoo are named X, Y, Z, P and Qand each enclosure is allotted to one of thefollowing attendents; Jack, Mohan, Shalini,Suman and Rita. Two animals of different speciesare housed in each enclosure. A lion and a deercannot be together. A panther cannot be witheither a deer or a bison. Suman attends to animalsfrom among bison, deer and panther only. Mohanattends to a lion and a panther. Jack does notattend to deer, lion or bison. X, Y and Z are allottedto Mohan, Jack and Rita respectively. X and Qenclosures have one animal of the same species.Z and P have the same pair of animals.

70. The animals attended by Shalini are ______.

(1) bison and deer (2) bear and bison

(3) bear and lion (4) bear and panther

(5) None of these

71. Enclosure X is allotted to ______.

(1) Jack (2) Mohan

(3) Suman (4) Shalini

(5) None of these

72. Which of the following combination is

correct regarding Rita?

(1) P ® Rita ® Deer and bison

(2) Y ® Jack ® Panther and bear

(3) Z ® Rita ® Deer and bison

(4) X ® Rita ® Deer and bison

(5) None of these

73. The animals attended by Jack are ---------.

(1) Panther and bear

(2) Lion and Panther

(3) Deer and bison

(4) Lion and bear

(5) None of these

74. Enclosure Z and P allotted to ---------.

(1) Rita and Suman

(2) Suman and Shalini

(3) Rita and Jack

(4) Suman and Jack

(5) None of these

Directions (75-79): Study the following

information and answer the questions.

A B C D E F G H I J K L M N O P Q R S T U V

W X Y Z

75. Which letter is exactly midway between G

and Q in the given alphabet?

(1) K (2) L

(3) M (4) N

(5) None of these

76. Which letter in the alphabet is as far from

G as T is from M?

(1) M (2) N

(3) O (4) P

(5) None of these

77. If all the vowels are removed from the

alphabet, which letter will be the seventh

to the right of the fifth letter from the left?

(1) L (2) M

(3) N (4) P

(5) None of these

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Ph: 011-27607854, (M) 8860-333-333 13

78. ;fn A ls 'kq: djds izR;sd ,dkUrfjd v{kj dks o.kZekyk lsgVk fn;k tk, rks cps gq, v{kjksa esa ls dkSu&lk v{kj nka,ls ikaposa v{kj ds nka, ls rhljk gksxk\(1) X (2) V(3) L (4) J

(5) buesa ls dksbZ ugha79. ;fn A vkSj B dks] B vkSj A fy[kk tk, rFkk C vkSj D dks D

vkSj C fy[kk tk, rFkk E vkSj F dks F vkSj E fy[kk tk, vkSjvkxs o.kZekyk ds var rd ,sls gh fy[kk tk, rks] vkids nka,ls M dk D;k LFkku gksxk\(1) X;kjgok¡ (2) ckgjok¡(3) rsgjok¡ (4) pkSngok¡(5) buesa ls dksbZ ugha

funsZ'k (80-84): uhps izR;sd iz'u esa nks ;k rhu dFku rFkkmlds ckn nks fu"d"kZ I vkSj II fn, x, gSaA vkidks fn, x,dFkuksa dks lR; ekuuk gS] Hkys gh os loZKkr rF;ksa ls fHkUu izrhrgksrs gksa rFkk ;g r; dhft, fd fn, x, fu"d"kksZa esa lsdkSu&lk@ls dFkuksa dk rdZlaxr <ax ls vuqlj.k djrk gS@djrsgSa] Hkys gh loZKkr rF; dqN Hkh gksaA mÙkj nhft,:

(1) ;fn dsoy fu"d"kZ I vuqlj.k djrk gSA

(2) ;fn dsoy fu"d"kZ II vuqlj.k djrk gSA

(3) ;fn ;k rks fu"d"kZ I ;k II vuqlj.k djrk gSA

(4) ;fn u rks fu"d"kZ I u gh II vuqlj.k djrk gSA

(5) ;fn fu"d"kZ I vkSj II nksuksa vuqlj.k djrs gSaA(80-81):

dFku:

lHkh ekufp=k fLVdj gaSA

lHkh fLVdj fp=k gSaA

dqN fp=k jksy gSaA

80. fu"d"kZ:

I. lHkh jksy fLVdj gSaA

II. lHkh ekufp=k fp=k gSaA

81. fu"d"kZ:

I. de&ls&de dqN fLVdj jksy gSaA

II. dksbZ jksy ekufp=k ugha gSA(82-83):

dFku:

dqN est dqlhZ gSaA

lHkh dqflZ;ka njokts gSaA

dksbZ njoktk f[kM+dh ugha gSA

82. dFku:

I. de&ls&de dqN dqflZ;ka f[kM+dh gSaA

II. dqN est fuf'pr :i ls njoktk ugha gSA

83. fu"d"kZ:

I. lHkh f[kM+fd;kas ds est gksus dh laHkkouk gSA

II. lHkh njokts est gSaA

84. dFku:

dqN iwQy ikS/s gSaA

dksbZ ikS/k isM+ ugha gSA

fu"d"kZ:

I. dqN iwQy isM+ gSaA

II. dksbZ iwQy isM+ ugha gSA

funsZ'k (85-90): iz'uksa esa @, ©, $, % vkSj * izrhdksa dk uhpscrk, vFkksZa ds vuqlkj iz;ksx fd;k x;k gS:

'P © Q' dk vFkZ gS 'P, Q ls NksVk ugha gSA*

'P * Q' dk vFkZ gS 'P, Q ls cM+k ugha gSA'

'P @ Q' dk vFkZ gS 'P, Q ls uk rks cM+k gS uk gh cjkcj gSA'

'P $ Q' dk vFkZ gS 'P, Q ls uk rks NksVk gS uk gh cjkcj gSA'

'P % Q' dk vFkZ gS 'P, Q ls uk rks cM+k gS uk gh NksVk gSA'85. dFku: J $ K, K * T, T @ N, N © R

fu"d"kZ:I. J $ T II. R * T

III. N $ K IV. R * K

(1) dksbZ lR; ugha gS (2) dsoy I lR; gS(3) dsoy II lR; gS (4) dsoy III lR; gS(5) dsoy IV lR; gS

86. dFku: F % W, W © R, R @ M, M $ D

fu"d"kZ:I. D @ R II. M $ F

III. R @ D IV. R * F

(1) dksbZ lR; ugha gS (2) dsoy III lR; gS(3) dsoy I lR; gS (4) dsoy IV lR; gS(5) dsoy II lR; gS

87. dFku: H @ B, B * E, V © E, W $ V

fu"d"kZ:I. W $ E II. H @ E

III. H @ V IV. W $ B

(1) dsoy I vkSj II lR; gSa(2) dsoy I, II vkSj III lR; gSa(3) dsoy II, III vkSj IV lR; gSa(4) lHkh lR; gSa(5) buesa ls dksbZ ugha

88. dFku: R © K, K * N, N $ J, J % H

fu"d"kZ:I. R $ N II. J @ K

III. H @ N IV. R $ H

(1) dsoy I lR; gS (2) dsoy III lR; gS(3) dsoy II lR; gS (4) dksbZ lR; ugha gS(5) dsoy IV lR; gS

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Ph: 011-27607854, (M) 8860-333-333 14

78. If every alternate letter, starting with A, is

removed from the alphabet, which letter among

the remaining letters would be the third to the

right of the fifth letter from the right?

(1) X (2) V

(3) L (4) J

(5) None of these

79. If A and B are written as B and A, C and D

as D and C, E and F as F and E and so on till

the end of the alphabet, what will be the

position of M from your right?

(1) 11th (2) 12th

(3) 13th (4) 14th

(5) None of these

Directions (80-84): In each of the following

questions, two/three statements followed by

two conclusions numbered I and II have been

given. You have to take the given statements

to be true even if they seem to be at variance

from commonly known facts and then decide

which of the given conclusions logically follows

from the given statements disregarding

commonly known facts. Give answer:

(1) if only conclusion I follows.

(2) if only conclusion II follows.

(3) if either conclusion I or II follows.

(4) if neither conclusion I nor II follows.

(5) if both the conclusions I and II follow.

(80-81):

Statements:

All maps are stickers.

All stickers are pictures.

Some pictures are rolls.

80. Conclusions:

I. All rolls are stickers.

II. All maps are pictures.

81. Conclusions:

I. Atleast some stickers are rolls.

II. No roll is map.

(82-83):

Statements:

Some tables are chairs.

All chairs are doors.

No door is a window.

82. Conclusions:

I. Atleast some chairs are windows.

II. Some tables are definitely not doors.

83. Conclusions:

I. All windows beings tables is a possibility.

II. All doors are tables.

84. Statements:

Some flowers are plants.

No plant is a tree.

Conclusions:

I. Some flowers are trees.

II. No flower is a tree.

Directions (85-90): In the following question,

the symbols @, ©, $, % and * are used with the

following meanings as illustrated below:

'P © Q' means 'P is not smaller than Q'.

'P * Q' means 'P is not greater than Q'.

'P @ Q' means 'P is neither greater than

nor equal to Q'.

'P $ Q' means 'P is neither smaller than

nor equal to Q'.

'P % Q' means 'P is neither greater than

nor smaller than Q'.

85. Statements: J $ K, K * T, T @ N, N © R

Conclusions:-

I. J $ T II. R * T

III. N $ K IV. R * K

(1) None is true (2) Only I is true

(3) Only II is true (4) Only III is true

(5) Only IV is true

86. Statements: F % W, W © R, R @ M, M $ D

Conclusions:-

I. D @ R II. M $ F

III. R @ D IV. R * F

(1) None is true (2) Only III is true

(3) Only I is true (4) Only IV is true

(5) Only II is true

87. Statements: H @ B, B * E, V © E, W $ V

Conclusions:-

I. W $ E II. H @ E

III. H @ V IV. W $ B

(1) Only I and II are true

(2) Only I, II and III are true

(3) Only II, III and IV are true

(4) All are true

(5) None of these

88. Statements: R © K, K * N, N $ J, J % H

Conclusions:-

I. R $ N II. J @ K

III. H @ N IV. R $ H

(1) Only I is true (2) Only III is true

(3) Only II is true (4) None of true

(5) Only IV is true

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Ph: 011-27607854, (M) 8860-333-333 15

89. dFku: K * D, D $ N, N % M, M © W

fu"d"kZ:I. M @ K II. N @ K

III. M @ D IV. W * N

(1) dsoy I vkSj II lR; gSa(2) dsoy III vkSj IV lR; gSa(3) dsoy I, II vkSj III lR; gSa(4) lHkh lR; gS(5) dksbZ lR; ugha

90. dFku: N $ T, T © R, R % M, M @ D

fu"d"kZ:I. D $ R II. M @ T

III. M % T IV. M $ D

(1) dsoy I lR; gS(2) dsoy ;k rks II ;k III lR; gS(3) dsoy III lR; gS(4) dsoy ;k rks II ;k III vkSj I lR; gSa(5) dksbZ lR; ugha gS

funsZ'k (91-95): fuEu lwpukvksa dks lko/kuhiwoZd vè;;u djsavkSj uhps fn, x, iz'uksa dk mÙkj nsa&

A, B, C, D, E, F vkSj G lkr izdkj ds isaV fofHkUu jaxksatSls yky] gjk] ihyk] dkyk] uhyk] liQsn vkSj ukjaxh fofHkUu fVuksatSls P, Q, R, S, T, U vkSj V esa Hkjs x;s gSaA

isaV dk izdkj jax vkSj fVu dh O;oLFkk vko';d ugha fd blhØe esa gksAisaV B, Q ;k R fVu esa ugha j[kk x;k gS vkSj ;g liQsn jaxdk gSAisaV D fVu V esa j[kk x;k gS vkSj ;g uhyk ;k yky ugha gSAF, fVu P esa j[kk x;k gS vkSj ;g gjs jax dk gSAisaV C vkSj E Øe'k% fVu T vkSj U esa j[kk x;k gS vkSj ;sØe'k% dkys vkSj ihys jax ds gSaAG uhys jax dk ugha gSA yky isaV fVu Q esa ugha j[kk x;k gSA

91. fuEufyf[kr dkSu&lk isaV ukjaxh jax dk gS\(1) C (2) A(3) D (4) G

(5) buesa ls dksbZ ugha92. isaV B fdl fVu esa j[kk x;k gS\

(1) S (2) T(3) U (4) Q

(5) buesa ls dksbZ ugha93. fdl fVu esa uhys jax dk isaV gS\

(1) R (2) P

(3) S (4) fu/kZfjr ugha fd;k tk ldrk(5) buesa ls dksbZ ugha

94. isaV D fdl fVu esa j[kk x;k gS\(1) A (2) B(3) C (4) V

(5) buesa ls dksbZ ugha95. fuEu esa fdl isaV dk jax yky gS\

(1) G (2) F(3) E (4) D

(5) buesa ls dksbZ ughafunsZ'k (96-100): uhps ,d ifjPNsn fn;k x;k gS vkSj mldsuhps ml ifjPNsn esa fn, x, rF;ksa ds vk/kj ij fudkys tkldus okys dqN laHkkfor vuqeku fn, x, gSaA vki ,d vuqekudh ifjPNsn ds lanHkZ esa vyx&vyx ijh{kk dj mldh lR;rk;k vlR;rk dh ek=kk fuf'pr dhft,A mÙkj nhft,&1) ;fn vuqeku fuf'pr :i ls lR; gS vFkkZr~ og fn, x, rF;ksa

dk mfpr :i ls vuqlj.k djrk gSA2) ;fn vuqeku laHkor% lR; gS ;|fi fn, x, rF;ksa ds lanHkZ esa

fuf'pr :i ls lR; ugha gSA3) ;fn MkVk vi;kZIr gS vFkkZr~ fn, x, rF;ksa ds lanHkZ esa fuf'pr

:i ls vlR; ugha gSA4) ;fn vuqeku laHkor% vlR; gS ;|fi fn, x, rF;ksa ds lanHkZ

esa fuf'pr :i ls vlR; ugha gSA5) ;fn vuqeku fuf'pr :i ls vlR; gS vFkkZr~ fn, x, rF;ksa

ls foijhr tkrk gSA,fo,'ku vius Lo;a ds vf/dkj esa ,d m|ksx ds :i esa vkSj vU;m|ksxksa dh liQyrk ,oa Li/kZRedrk ds fy, lgk;d ds :i esaegRoiw.kZ gSA jk"Vªh; Li/kZRedrk] vkfFkZd fodkl vkSj lkekftdizxfr ds fy, ,fo,'ku m|ksx dh liQyrk vfuok;Z gSA lwpukizkS|ksfxdh] ck;ksVsDuksykWth] foÙk ,oa bysDVªkWfuDl tSls ubZ vFkZO;oLFkkds {ks=k ftu ij Hkkjr dh le`f¼ fuHkZj gS ,sls m|ksxksa dks ,fo,'kucgqr egRoiw.kZ :i esa leFkZu iznku djrk gSA ;g ,d fufoZokn lR;gS fd Hkkjr dk gokbZ ifjogu m|ksx izxfr ds iFk ij vxzlj gSArFkkfi] ;fn ge Hkkoh m|ksxksa esa Li/kZ ds fy, l{ke gksaxs rks ghHkkjrh; vFkZO;oLFkk viuh lgh laHkkO;rk fl¼ dj ik,xhA thu {ks=kksaesa fodkl dh laHkkouk gS muesa gesa etcwr gksuk pkfg, vkSj bl lanHkZesa Hkkjrh; ,fo,'ku dh Hkwfedk egRoiw.kZ gSA96. Hkkjr dks vk/kjHkwr lajpuk ds fodkl esa fo'kky fuos'k djus

dh t:jr gSA97. Hkkjr ds vkfFkZd fodkl ds fy, blds ,fo,'ku {ks=k dk

fodkl egRoiw.kZ gSA98. Hkkjr us ck;ksVsDukykWth {ks=k esa cgqr fodkl fd;k gSA99. mHkjrs gq, m|ksxksa esa fodkl dh Hkkjr esa vR;f/d {kerk gSA100. Hkkjr esa ,fo,'ku {ks=k us iwoZ esa blds vkfFkZd fodkl esa

viuh Hkwfedk iw.kZr% fl¼ ugha dh gSA

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Ph: 011-27607854, (M) 8860-333-333 16

89. Statements: K * D, D $ N, N % M, M © W

Conclusions:-

I. M @ K II. N @ K

III. M @ D IV. W * N

(1) Only I and II are true

(2) Only III and IV are true

(3) Only I, II and III are true

(4) All are true

(5) None is true

90. Statements: N $ T, T © R, R % M, M @ D

Conclusions:-

I. D $ R II. M @ T

III. M % T IV. M $ D

(1) Only I is true

(2) Only either II or III is true

(3) Only III is true

(4) Only either II or III and I are true

(5) None is true

Directions (91-95): Study the following informationcarefully and answer the given questions:

Seven type of paints A, B, C, D, E, F and G ofdifferent colours red, green, yellow, black, blue,white and orange and filled in different tins P, Q,R, S, T, U and V.

The order of the types of paints, colours and

the tins is not necessarily in the same order.

Paint B is not kept in tins Q or R and is

white in colour.

Paint D is kept in tin V and is not blue or red.

F is kept in tin P and is green in colour.

Paints C and E are kept in tins T and U

respectively and are black and yellow incolour respectively.

G is not blue in colour. Red paint is not kept

in tin Q.

91. Which of the following paints is orange incolour?

(1) C (2) A

(3) D (4) G

(5) None of these

92. Paint B is kept in which tin?

(1) S (2) T

(3) U (4) Q

(5) None of these

93. Which tin contains blue paint?

(1) R (2) P

(3) S (4) Cannot be determined

(5) None of these

94. Paint D is kept in which tin?

(1) A (2) B

(3) C (4) V

(5) None of these

95. Which of the following paints is red incolour?

(1) G (2) F

(3) E (4) D

(5) None of these

Directions (96-100): Below is given a passagefollowed by several possible inferences which canbe drawn from the facts stated in the passage.You have to examine each inference separatelyin the context of the passage and decide uponits degree of truth or falsity. Mark answer1) if the inference is ‘definitely true’, ie it

properly follows from the statement of factsgiven.

2) if the inference is ‘probably true’ though not‘definitely true’ in the light of the factsgiven.

3) if the ‘data are inadequate’, ie from thefacts given you cannot say whether theinference is likely to be true or false.

4) if the inference is ‘probably false’ though not‘definitely false’ in the light of the facts given.

5) if the inference is ‘definitely false’, ie itcannot possibly be drawn from the factsgiven or it contradicts the given facts.

Aviation is important, both as an industry in itsown right and as a facilitator for the success andcompetitiveness of other industries. The successof the aviation industry is also integral tonational competitiveness, economic developmentand social progress. More importantly, aviationsupports those new economic sectors on whichIndia’s future prosperity relies, like Information

Technology, Biotechnology, Finance and

Electronics. That India’s air transport industryis on the rise is an undisputable fact. However,the Indian economy will only achieve its truepotential if we are able to compete in theindustries of the future. We need to be strong inthe areas with potential to grow and the role ofIndia’s aviation sector is critical in this regard.96. India needs to make massive investments

in infrastructural development.97. Growth in India’s aviation sector is

important to its economic development.98. India has made substantial development in

the Biotechnology sector.99. India has tremendous potential to grow in

the emerging industries.100. Aviation sector in India has not fulfilled its

role in the past in its economic development.

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