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© 2012 W. H. Freeman/BFW Publishers Chapter 5

Chapter 5 Quiz

Multiple Choice

Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

____ 1. What is most significant when determining the diversity of an ecosystem?

a. The number of organisms present

b. The number of species present

c. The amount of land the ecosystem covers

d. The amount of precipitation an ecosystem receives

e. The interactions between producers and consumers

____ 2. What factors are used to determine what constitutes a species?

I. Physically distinct from other groups of organisms

II. Can interbreed with others from the same group

III. Shares the same habitat as other groups of organisms

a. I only

b. II only

c. III only

d. I and II

e. I, II, and III

____ 3. Which of the following are measurements used to measure diversity within an ecosystem?

I. Species wealth

II. Species richness

III. Species evenness

a. I only

b. II only

c. III only

d. I, II and III

e. II and III


Figure 5-1

____ 4. Use Figure 5-1. Which of the following is the best description of the two communities shown?

a. Community 1 has a higher evenness but lower richness than Community 2

b. Community 1 has a higher evenness and higher richness than Community 2

c. Community 1 has a higher evenness and equal richness to Community 2

d. Community 2 has a higher evenness and higher richness than Community 1

e. Community 2 has a higher evenness but lower richness than Community 1

____ 5. Which of the following measures of biodiversity takes into account the number of species present and the

relative abundance of the species present?

a. Shannon’s Index

b. Species Richness

c. Species Evenness

d. Biodiversity Index

e. Hardy-Weinberg Index


Figure 5-2

____ 6. Use Figure 5-2. In the diagram, which pair of organisms shares the closest evolutionary relationship?

a. Lancelet and lizard

b. Chipmunk and lancelet

c. Lancelet and trout

d. Lizard and chipmunk

e. Lamprey and lizard

____ 7. Use Figure 5-2. Based on the diagram, which structure would be considered the most primitive?

a. Notochord

b. Vertebrae

c. Hinged jaw

d. 4 legs

e. Mammary glands

____ 8. Which of the following is used to determine how closely two species are related?

I. Body shape

II. Behavior

III. Genetic similarity

a. I only

b. II only

c. III only

d. I and II

e. I, II, and III


____ 9. What cellular processes can create genetic diversity?

I. Mutation

II. Recombination

III. Respiration

a. I only

b. II only

c. III only

d. I and II

e. I, II, and III

____ 10. When part of one chromosome breaks off and reattaches to another chromosome, this is known as:

a. A mutation

b. Reattachment disorder

c. Natural selection

d. Recombination

e. Genetic merging

____ 11. When an organism has a trait that improves that individual’s fitness for an environment, it is known as:

a. An advantage

b. An adaptation

c. Inherited

d. Increased strength

e. Increased size

____ 12. Which of the following are processes in which evolution occurs?

I. Artificial selection

II. Natural selection

III. Genetic Drift

a. I only

b. II only

c. III only

d. II and III

e. I, II, and III

____ 13. Which process can be controlled most directly by humans?

a. Natural selection

b. Artificial selection

c. Genetic Drift

d. Mutation

e. Genetic Bottleneck

____ 14. Which of the following is the best example of artificial selection?

a. Bees pollinating different species of flowers

b. Adaptation of finches to different sources of food on different islands

c. An isolated population of frogs develops a phenotype distinct from the original population

d. Breeding of horses for speed

e. A small population has an unusually high percentage of an rare phenotype


____ 15. Which two scientists are credited with developing the theory of evolution by natural selection?

a. Watson and Crick

b. Darwin and Wallace

c. Mendel and Darwin

d. Shannon and Simpson

e. Muir and Carson

____ 16. Which of the following processes of evolution is not random?

a. Mutation

b. Artificial selection

c. Genetic drift

d. Bottleneck effect

e. Founder effect

____ 17. When a population suddenly reduces in size either from habitat loss, natural disaster or other changes in the

environment, its genetic variation is affected. When this occurs, this is known as:

a. Founder effect

b. Geographic isolation

c. Genetic Drift


e. Mutation

____ 18. A population of rabbits with typical variations of traits lives in a meadow with a depression that runs through

the middle. Over time, the depression fills in with water and becomes a river, separating the one population

into two over a period of several years. This is an example of:

a. Artificial selection

b. Mutation

c. Sympatric speciation


e. Allopatric speciation

____ 19. Which of the following is not an example of geographic isolation?

a. Founder effect

b. Natural disturbance that separates a population into two

c. Allopatric speciation

d. Sympatric speciation

e. A group of birds colonizes a new island

____ 20. Which of the following pairs would increase the rate of evolution within a species?

a. Slow environmental change and high genetic variation

b. Rapid environmental change and large population size

c. Long generation times and low genetic variation

d. Large population size and slow environmental change

e. Short generation time and large population size

____ 21. Which of the following would result in the highest rate of evolution?

a. A rapidly changing environment

b. A population with high genetic variation

c. A long generation time

d. Few variations of phenotypes and genotypes

e. Drastic changes to the environment


____ 22. Which of the following would have the least effect on how successful a species is at adapting to a new

environment?

a. Population size

b. Generation time

c. Amount of parental care

d. Genetic variation

e. Rate of environmental change

____ 23. Which type of species would be most vulnerable to environmental changes?

a. Species with a large population size

b. Niche generalists

c. Niche specialists

d. Species with rapid reproductive rates

e. Species with high genetic variation

____ 24. Which of the following would not be considered when determining the fundamental niche of a species?

a. Reproductive rate

b. pH tolerance

c. Temperature tolerance

d. Salinity

e. Soil moisture content

Figure 5-3

____ 25. Use Figure 5-3. Using the data provided, what is the pH range of tolerance for species 1?

a. 3-11

b. 5-10

c. 7

d. 8-11

e. 10-11

____ 26. Use Figure 5-3. Using the data provided, what is the pH range for the fundamental niche for species 2?

a. 1-14

b. 3-11

c. 5-9

d. 7

e. 8-11


Figure 5-4

____ 27. Use Figure 5-4. What is the most likely explanation for the changes in distribution of Red and Loblolly pines

as indicated in the maps shown?

a. Increase in competition between the two species

b. Increase in urbanization

c. Increase in deforestation

d. Climate change, increasing temperature

e. Increase in use of herbicides, reducing weed competitors


Figure 5-5

____ 28. Use Figure 5-5. The diagram represents a layer of soil with fossils located in the various layers of sediments.

Which layer would contain the oldest fossils?

a. A

b. B

c. C

d. D

e. E

____ 29. Which of the following is not considered to be contributing to the current increase in extinction rates?

a. Habitat destruction

b. Natural selection

c. Overharvesting

d. Introduction of invasive species

e. Climate change


Figure 5-6

____ 30. Use Figure 5-6. The table lists the number of individuals of each species found within four field communities.

Which of the communities listed is most diverse overall?

a. Community 1

b. Community 2

c. Community 3

d. Community 4

e. All are equally diverse


Chapter 5 Quiz

Answer Section

MULTIPLE CHOICE

1. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: E MSC: Concept based

2. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: M MSC: Concept based

3. ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: E MSC: Concept based

4. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: M MSC: Critical thinking

5. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: E MSC: Definitional

6. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: M MSC: Fact based

7. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: M MSC: Fact based

8. ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: E MSC: Fact based

9. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: M MSC: Concept based

10. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: E MSC: Definitional

11. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: E MSC: Definitional

12. ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: M MSC: Concept based

13. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: E MSC: Fact based

14. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: M MSC: Critical thinking


16. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: E MSC: Definitional

17. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: E MSC: Definitional

18. ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: M MSC: Critical thinking

19. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: E MSC: Fact based

20. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: M MSC: Concept based

21. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: E MSC: Concept based

22. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: E MSC: Concept based

23. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: E MSC: Fact based

24. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: E MSC: Concept based

25. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: E MSC: Fact based

26. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: M MSC: Analytical thinking

27. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: D MSC: Critical thinking

28. ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: M MSC: Fact based


30. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: E MSC: Fact based

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