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CRCT Preparation Workbook

TO THE STUDENT

Do you need to practice answering test questions? If so, this booklet

will help you. The CRCT Preparation Workbook is an important tool for

helping you prepare for the Criterion-Referenced Competency Test.

The workbook has multiple worksheet pages of questions for each chapter

in your textbook. Use these worksheets to test your understanding of

chapter concepts and to practice answering questions in the CRCT format.

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ISBN-13: 978-0-03-093541-1

ISBN-10: 0-03-093541-5

[Print Code TK 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 14 5 03 02 01 00]

Contents

Original content Copyright © by Holt, Rinehart and Winston. Additions and changes to the original content are the responsibility of the instructor.

Holt Science and Technology iii Table of Contents

CRCT Preparation

The World of Physical Science ............................................................................................ 1

The Properties of Matter ........................................................................................................ 4

States of Matter ........................................................................................................................ 7

Elements, Compounds, and Mixtures .............................................................................. 10

Matter in Motion ..................................................................................................................... 14

Forces and Motion ................................................................................................................ 18

Forces in Fluids ..................................................................................................................... 22

Work and Machines .............................................................................................................. 25

Energy and Energy Resources .......................................................................................... 28

Heat and Heat Technology ................................................................................................. 31

Introduction to Atoms .......................................................................................................... 34

The Periodic Table ................................................................................................................ 38

Chemical Bonding ................................................................................................................. 41

Chemical Reactions .............................................................................................................. 44

Chemical Compounds ......................................................................................................... 47

Atomic Energy ....................................................................................................................... 50

Introduction to Electricity ................................................................................................... 53

Electromagnetism ................................................................................................................. 56

Electronic Technology ......................................................................................................... 60

The Energy of Waves ........................................................................................................... 63

The Nature of Sound ............................................................................................................ 67

The Nature of Light ............................................................................................................... 70

Light and Our World .............................................................................................................. 73

Name_______________________________Class __________________ Date __________________


Holt Science and Technology 1 The World of Physical Science

Assessment

CRCT Preparation

MULTIPLE CHOICE

Use the diagram below to answer questions 1 and 2.

Examples of Acids and Bases

Strong base

Weak base

Neutral

Weak acid

Strong acid

Drain cleaner

Baking soda

Pure water

Vinegar

Hydrochloric acid

Results of Litmus Paper Test on Four Substances

Substances Litmus paper color

1

2

3

4

Red

Pink

Light blue

Dark blue

_____ 1. Acids turn blue litmus paper red, and bases turn red litmus paper blue. Look at the table above. What is the identity of substance 3?

A. drain cleaner

B. vinegar C. hydrochloric acid

D. baking soda

_____ 2. What would happen when water is tested using a piece of blue litmus paper?

A. The litmus paper would not change color. B. The litmus paper would turn pink.

C. The litmus paper would turn red.

D. The litmus paper would turn light blue.

Name_______________________________Class __________________ Date __________________



CRCT Preparation continued

_____ 3. After swimming in the ocean, Jorge sits in the sun to dry off. He notices small white crystals on his skin. Analyze the strengths and weaknesses of the following explanations. Which is the most reasonable explanation for what has happened to Jorge?

A. The water evaporated and attracted dust to Jorge’s skin.

B. The white crystals are dead skin cells that are being shed. C. Jorge has developed a rare skin disorder.

D. Salt that is dissolved in the water remained on Jorge’s skin after the

water evaporated.

_____ 4. What type of model would you use to represent the big bang theory? A. physical

B. conceptual

C. mathematical

D. analogical

_____ 5. Which factor would have the least effect on the results of an experiment designed to determine which brand of bar soap most effectively kills bacteria? A. the color of the soap

B. the volume of soap used

C. the surface on which the soap is used

D. the ingredients in the soap

_____ 6. An environmental scientist suspects that acid precipitation is beginning to affect certain lakes in Georgia. What is the best way to test this hypothesis?

A. to do library research on the harmful effects of acid precipitation in lakes

B. to experiment with acid precipitation on water plants native to

Georgia

C. to count the number of water-plant species found in a Georgia lake

D. to collect lakewater samples and test the pH of each sample

_____ 7. Which of the following statements about the records made during a scientific investigation is true? A. Records should be recorded clearly and accurately.

B. Records should be predicted based on the hypothesis.

C. Records should be modified to support the hypothesis.

D Records should be protected from being seen by other scientists.

_____ 8. Katie wants to learn how various amounts of sunlight affect plants. Which of the following variables is the only one that she should change? A. the type of plant

B. the amount of light

C. the volume of water

D. the quantity of nutrients

Name_______________________________Class __________________ Date __________________




Use the diagram below to answer question 9.

_____ 9. While collecting data during an experiment on plant growth, Bill sees the situation shown above. How many centimeters taller than the plant on the left is the plant on the right? A. 0.7 cm

B. 2.2 cm

C. 2.9 cm

D. 5.1 cm

OPEN RESPONSE

10. Anthony is designing an experiment to test the effect of water temperature on the solubility of sugar. Describe one way that Anthony might do his experiment. Remember to include a list of variables that he should control.

_______________________________________________________________

_______________________________________________________________

_______________________________________________________________

11. The southern end of the Appalachian Trail is located in Georgia’s Amicalola Falls State Park. Laishan works as a park ranger in that park. Describe three ways that Laishan can use science in her job.

_______________________________________________________________

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_______________________________________________________________

Name_______________________________Class __________________ Date __________________


Holt Science and Technology 4 The Properties of Matter

Assessment

CRCT Preparation

MULTIPLE CHOICE

Use the table below to answer questions 1–2.

Substance State* Density* (g/cm3)

Color

Helium gas 0.0001663 colorless

Iron pyrite solid 5.02 metallic yellow

Mercury liquid 13.55 metallic gray

Oxygen gas 0.001331 colorless

Water liquid 1.00 colorless

*at 20°C and 1.0 atm

_____ 1. Look at the table above. Which of the following statements about mercury is true?

A. It is the densest gas listed.

B. Its density is less than the density of water.

C. It is a solid at 20°C and 1.0 atm. D. It is the densest substance listed.

_____ 2. A substance in the table has a mass of 10 g and a volume of 10 cm3. What is the substance?

A. mercury

B. oxygen C. water

D. helium

_____ 3. When oxygen in the air reacts with iron, iron oxide forms. Which statement is correct?

A. This is a physical change. B. This is a chemical change.

C. Iron and iron oxide have the same properties.

D. Oxygen and iron have similar properties.

Name_______________________________Class __________________ Date __________________




_____ 4. Which of the following statements about chemical properties is true?

A. They can be observed when the identity of a substance changes.

B. They can always be observed without changing the identity of a substance.

C. They are easier to observe than physical properties.

D. They are the properties that are most useful in identifying a

substance.

_____ 5. A chemical change takes place during a laboratory investigation of the properties of magnesium. Which of the following may have been observed?

A. Magnesium burns in the presence of oxygen.

B. Magnesium melts at 649°C. C. Magnesium becomes malleable when it is heated.

D. Magnesium conducts an electric current.

_____ 6. Which of the following statements describes a chemical change? A. Clear water turns red after a dye is added.

B. Ice melts.

C. Salt dissolves in water.

D. Milk sours.

_____ 7. Max drops one effervescent tablet into a beaker of water and places an identical tablet on the lab table. He observes bubbles of gas form on the surface of the first tablet. The bubbles rise and break on the surface of the water. After several minutes, no more bubbles form and the tablet is not visible in the water. The tablet on the lab table is unchanged. What conclusion should Max draw from his observations? A. The tablet that was placed in the water changed directly into a gas

through a physical change.

B. The tablet that was placed in the water broke down when exposed to

light and formed a gas through a chemical change.

C. The tablet that was placed in the water caused dissolved gases in the

water to be released through a physical change.

D. The tablet that was placed in the water interacted with the water to

form a gas through a chemical change.

_____ 8. Which physical property can be used to classify oxygen, helium, propane, and hydrogen as being similar? A. flammability

B. state

C. reactivity

D. malleability

Name_______________________________Class __________________ Date __________________





_____ 9. In an experiment that compares the densities of liquids, you must analyze the beaker shown above. Which statement best describes how the densities of the liquids compare? A. Liquid M is more dense than Liquid N.

B. Liquid N is more dense than Liquid L.

C. Liquid L is more dense than either Liquid M or Liquid N.

D. Liquid M is more dense than either Liquid L or Liquid N.

OPEN RESPONSE

10. Two balls are made of solid, white plastic. Both balls have the same diameter. One ball has twice the mass of the other. What can you conclude that would explain this difference?

_______________________________________________________________

_______________________________________________________________

_______________________________________________________________

11. What chemical properties would be important to consider when choosing a material to make a safe baking dish?

_______________________________________________________________

_______________________________________________________________

_______________________________________________________________

Name_______________________________Class __________________ Date __________________


Holt Science and Technology 7 States of Matter

Assessment

CRCT Preparation

MULTIPLE CHOICE

Use the table below to answer question 1.

Substance Temperature (°C)

Ice –2

Ice water 0

Water 27

Boiling Water 100

_____ 1. The table above shows data from a laboratory experiment in which Andrew measured the temperatures of water in various states. Which of the following would be a valid conclusion from this experiment? A. The particles in ice water have less energy than the particles in ice

do.

B. The particles in ice have more energy than the particles in water do.

C. The particles in ice water have more energy than the particles in boiling

water do.

D. The particles in boiling water have more energy than the particles in

ice water do.

_____ 2. Which of the following sentences best describes the process that happens when liquid water becomes ice at its freezing point?

A. Energy is added to the water, so its particles move slower.

B. Energy is added to the water, so its particles move faster.

C. Energy is removed from the water, so its particles lock into place. D. Energy is removed from the water, so its particles move apart.

_____ 3. Which of the following sentences describes oxygen at room temperature?

A. It has a constant volume and a definite shape.

B. It has a constant volume but takes the shape of its container. C. Its particles move fast enough to overcome the attraction between

them.

D. Its particles have a very orderly, three-dimensional arrangement.

Name_______________________________Class __________________ Date __________________




_____ 4. What equipment would you use to measure 10 mL of water for an experiment?

_____ 5. In a laboratory experiment, Kevin compared the viscosities of several substances. Substances A, B, and C flowed at different rates, but substance D did not flow at all. Which of the following is a valid conclusion? A. Substance D is at its melting point.

B. Substance D is in the same state as the other substances.

C. Substance D is a solid.

D. Substance D’s particles have little attraction to one another.

_____ 6. An ad for a brand of dry ice claims that the dry ice keeps food cold without getting it wet. Which of the following is a valid explanation for this claim? A. Dry ice undergoes sublimation.

B. Dry ice is not frozen.

C. Dry ice is colder than ice made from water.

D. Dry ice keeps food from freezing.

_____ 7. Madison conducted an experiment to find out what happens to the temperature of water after the water starts boiling. She measured the water’s temperature every 30 s during the experiment. Which of the following statements describes how she should graph her data?

A. Place time on the x-axis and boiling point on the y-axis.

B. Place amount of water on the x-axis and temperature on the y-axis.

C. Place time on the x-axis and temperature on the y-axis. D. Place temperature on the x-axis and boiling point on the y-axis.

A. B. C. D.

Name_______________________________Class __________________ Date __________________




_____ 8. In a laboratory experiment, Rashida observed water as it vaporized, froze, melted, and condensed. Which of the following is a valid conclusion? A. She observed different changes of state.

B. Each of these processes happened at different temperatures.

C. All of the changes required energy to be absorbed.

D. All of the changes required energy to be released.

Use the diagrams below to answer question 9.

_____ 9. The diagrams above were used to illustrate the arrangement of the particles of a substance in three different states of matter. Which of the following statements is correct? A. The particles in diagram 1 move faster than the particles in diagram 2.

B. The particles in diagram 3 move fast enough to break away from

each other.

C. The particles in diagrams 1 and 2 are locked in place.

D. The particles in diagram 2 are affected by electric and magnetic fields.

OPEN RESPONSE

10. Identify the three most familiar states of matter and describe the motion and arrangement of the particles in each of the states.

_______________________________________________________________

_______________________________________________________________

_______________________________________________________________

11. Brasstown Bald has an elevation of 1.5 km above sea level and is the highest point in Georgia. The Atlantic coast of Georgia is at sea level. How does the boiling point of water differ between these two locations? Why does this difference exist?

_______________________________________________________________

_______________________________________________________________

_______________________________________________________________

1. 2. 3.

Name_______________________________Class __________________ Date __________________


Holt Science and Technology 10 Elements, Compounds, and Mixtures

Assessment

CRCT Preparation

MULTIPLE CHOICE


Properties of Substances

Substance Mass (g)

Boiling point (°C)

Density (kg/m

3)

A 20 40 20

B 1,000 100 35

C 1,000 40 100

D 1,000 40 20

_____ 1. Which two substances in the table are most likely the same? A. substances A and C

B. substances B and D

C. substances C and D

D. substances A and D

_____ 2. You are given two jars, each of which contains an unknown substance. You are asked to determine if the substances are different from one another or if each jar contains the same substance. What should you do to complete this task? A. Compare the appearances of the substances. If the substances look

the same, then they are the same.

B. Compare only the physical properties of the substances. If the

substances have the same density or melting point, then they are the

same. C. Compare both the physical and the chemical properties of the

substances. If the substances perform the same in a variety of tests,

then they are the same.

D. Compare the physical states of the substances. If the substances are

in the same state, then they are the same.

Name_______________________________Class __________________ Date __________________




_____ 3. If two poisonous elements are combined chemically, which of the following will be true of the resulting compound? A. The compound will be more poisonous than the gases.

B. The compound will be as poisonous as the gases.

C. The compound may or may not be poisonous.

D. The compound will not be poisonous.


_____ 4. Ellen made the illustration above to show one of the steps in her most recent experiment. Which statement describes what Ellen was doing during this step of the experiment? A. She was using a chemical change to break down a compound into

the elements that make it up.

B. She was using a physical change to separate the compounds that

make up an element. C. She was using a physical change to separate the components that make

up a mixture.

D. She was using a chemical change to combine elements to form a

compound.

Name_______________________________Class __________________ Date __________________





_____ 5. The graph above was constructed from data collected during a laboratory investigation. Which of the following values is the amount of sodium nitrate that can dissolve in 100 mL of water at 40°C? A. 0 g

B. 40 g

C. 100 g

D. 130 g

_____ 6. Ka-wai makes a solution which contains the maximum amount of sodium chlorate that can dissolve in 100 mL of water at 0°C. He heats the solution to 60°C. How much additional sodium chlorate must he add to once again have a solution that has the maximum amount of sodium chlorate dissolved in it at this new temperature? A. 2 g

B. 40 g

C. 50 g

D. 80 g

_____ 7. Which of the following sentences best describes table salt, NaCl? A. Table salt is a compound made from two elements.

B. Table salt is a mixture made from two elements.

C. Table salt is an element made from two mixtures. D. Table salt is an alloy made from a metal and a nonmetal.

Name_______________________________Class __________________ Date __________________




_____ 8. Imagine that you were asked to classify four samples of equal and known volume, each of which was made up of a single element. Which factor would be most useful for identifying them? A. mass

B. shape

C. hardness

D. original source

OPEN RESPONSE

9. Rafiq has a container filled with a clear liquid. He knows that the liquid is either a compound or a mixture but does not know which. What can Rafiq do to find out? Explain your answer.

_______________________________________________________________

_______________________________________________________________

_______________________________________________________________

10. Compare elements and compounds. How are they similar and how are they different? List two examples of each kind of substance.

_______________________________________________________________

_______________________________________________________________

_______________________________________________________________

Name_______________________________Class __________________ Date __________________


Holt Science and Technology 14 Matter in Motion

Assessment

CRCT Preparation

MULTIPLE CHOICE

Use the diagram below to answer questions 1–3.

Time (s) Distance (m)

0 0

1 96

2 192

3 288

4 384

_____ 1. During a field experiment about speed, a scientist created the chart above. The chart shows distance and time measurements for a racing car on the straight section of a race track. What is the racing car’s speed? A. 0 m/s

B. 96 m/s

C. 192 m/s

D. 384 m/s

_____ 2. What is the racing car’s acceleration? A. 0 m/s2

B. 96 m/s2

C. 192 m/s2

D. 384 m/s2

_____ 3. Theodore plots the data in the chart above. He plots distance on the y-axis and time on the x-axis. How will the movement of the racing car be represented on the graph? A. a curved line

B. a straight line

C. a series of connected straight lines

D. a single point

Name_______________________________Class __________________ Date __________________




_____ 4. A downhill skier has her skis sharpened and waxed before every race. What effect would this have on her performance? A. The force of friction between the skis and snow would increase, and

her speed would decrease.

B. The force of friction between the skis and snow would decrease, and

her speed would decrease.

C. The force of friction between the skis and snow would increase, and her speed would increase.

D. The force of friction between the skis and snow would decrease, and

her speed would increase.


_____ 5. What is the average speed of the toy car if it moves through the distance shown in 2 s?

A. 2.0 cm/s

B. 2.0 cm/s2 C. 1.5 cm/s

D. 1.5 cm/s2

_____ 6. Which of the following pairs of forces is balanced? A. 16 N north and 16 N south

B. 16 N north and 16 N east

C. 16 N north and 16 N west

D. 16 N north and 16 N north

Name_______________________________Class __________________ Date __________________




Use the graph below to answer questions 7–8.

_____ 7. The graph above describes the motion of 2 balls—ball A and ball B. According to the graph, which of the following statements is true? A. The velocity of ball A is increasing over time at a constant

acceleration.

B. The velocity of ball B is increasing over time at a constant

acceleration.

C. The velocity of ball A is decreasing over time at a constant

acceleration.

D. The velocity of ball B is decreasing over time at a constant acceleration.

_____ 8. According to the data in the graph, which of the following conclusions about ball B is valid?

A. The ball is moving, but not accelerating.

B. The ball’s acceleration is positive and is not constant. C. The ball’s acceleration is negative and is not constant.

D. The ball is moving with constant deceleration.

_____ 9. How will the motion of a ball rolling on the ground change if the ball encounters a frictional force that opposes its motion?

A. The ball will speed up. B. The ball will slow down.

C. The ball’s speed will not change.

D. The ball will change direction.

Name_______________________________Class __________________ Date __________________




OPEN RESPONSE

10. Because most objects do not travel at a constant speed, average speed is often used to calculate speed. Yesterday, Juanita traveled 30 km. She drove 16 km in 20 min, walked 4 km in 1 h, then rode a bus that traveled 10 km in 10 min. Calculate her average speed in kilometers per hour. Show your work.

_______________________________________________________________

_______________________________________________________________

_______________________________________________________________

_______________________________________________________________

_______________________________________________________________

11. You observe the effects of gravity every day. What two quantities does gravitational force depend on? How do those quantities affect the size of the gravitational force between two objects?

_______________________________________________________________

_______________________________________________________________

_______________________________________________________________

_______________________________________________________________

_______________________________________________________________

Name_______________________________Class __________________ Date __________________


Holt Science and Technology 18 Forces and Motion

Assessment

CRCT Preparation

MULTIPLE CHOICE


Force (N) Acceleration (m/s2)

25 5

50 10

75 15

_____ 1. The table above shows the accelerations produced when different forces act on a 5 kg mass. Assuming that the pattern in the table continues, use these data to predict what the acceleration would be when a 100 N force acts on a 5 kg mass.

A. 10 m/s2

B. 100 m/s2 C. 20 m/s2

D. 30 m/s2

_____ 2. Friction acting on a rolling ball to eventually bring the ball to a stop is an example of which of the following?

A. an unbalanced force B. gravity

C. a balanced force

D. momentum

_____ 3. A short time after jumping from an airplane, a skydiver reaches a constant speed. Which of the following statements about the skydiver is true?

A. The skydiver is accelerating toward the ground at 9.8 m/s2.

B. An unbalanced force acts on the skydiver.

C. No unbalanced forces act on the skydiver. D. Air resistance does not affect the skydiver’s speed.

Name_______________________________Class __________________ Date __________________




_____ 4. Two objects in motion have different masses. How does the difference in mass affect the forces needed to make the objects achieve the same rate of change of velocity? A. The object that has less mass will require more force to achieve the

same rate of change.

B. Force does not affect the rate of change of an object.

C. It will take the same amount of force to achieve the same rate of

change for the two objects.

D. The object that has greater mass will require more force to achieve

the same rate of change.

_____ 5. The equation a = represents Newton’s second law of motion. Based on this equation, if balanced forces act on an object, which of the

following outcomes can be expected? A. The object’s acceleration will be negative.

B. The object’s acceleration will be zero.

C. The object’s mass will decrease.

D. The object’s mass will increase.

_____ 6. Analyze the equation a = . If the mass of an object decreases while a constant force is applied to the object, what happens to the object’s

acceleration? A. The object’s acceleration will increase.

B. The object’s acceleration will decrease.

C. The object’s acceleration remains unchanged. D. The object’s acceleration is zero.

F

m

F

m

Name_______________________________Class __________________ Date __________________





_____ 7. The illustration above summarizes the results of an experiment that involves dropping a feather and a rock at the same time in a vacuum chamber. Which of the following is a true statement? A. The rock and the feather are accelerating at the same rate.

B. The rock and the feather are subject to air resistance.

C. The rock and the feather are moving with constant speed.

D. The rock and the feather reach the ground at different times.

_____ 8. Analyze the illustration above. Given that acceleration is the rate at which velocity changes, what is the rate of acceleration of the rock? A. 0 m/s2

B. 9.8 m/s2

C. 14.7 m/s2

D. 19.6 m/s2

_____ 9. What does the magnitude of the gravitational force between two bodies depend on? A. the velocity of the bodies and the friction between them

B. the size of the bodies and their position relative to Earth

C. the weight of the bodies and how quickly they are moving

D. the mass of the bodies and the distance between them

_____ 10. An object moving in a straight line with a constant speed has no unbalanced forces acting on it. How will the object’s motion change over time? A. The object will gradually slow down and come to a stop.

B. Centripetal force will cause the object to go into a circular orbit.

C. The object’s motion will remain unchanged.

D. The object will accelerate and change direction.

Name_______________________________Class __________________ Date __________________




OPEN RESPONSE

11. In archery, you use a bow to shoot an arrow at a target. Why must an archer point the arrow a little above the target in order to hit the target in the center? What forces are involved?

_______________________________________________________________

_______________________________________________________________

_______________________________________________________________

_______________________________________________________________

_______________________________________________________________

12. Luging is a sport in which a racer slides down an ice-covered track. Identify the three main forces acting on the racer and describe whether each one acts to increase or to decrease the racer’s speed.

_______________________________________________________________

_______________________________________________________________

_______________________________________________________________

_______________________________________________________________

_______________________________________________________________

Name_______________________________Class __________________ Date __________________


Holt Science and Technology 22 Forces in Fluids

Assessment

CRCT Preparation

MULTIPLE CHOICE


Properties of Four Substances*

Substance Viscosity (mPa•s)

Density (g/cm

3)

Surface Tension (mN/m)

Gasoline 0.508 0.70 21.14

Mercury 1.526 13.53 485.48

Rubbing

alcohol 2.038 0.78 20.93

Water 0.890 1.00 71.99

* at room temperature and pressure

_____ 1. The information in the table above was collected during a laboratory investigation on different fluids. According to this information, which of the following conclusions is true? A. Gasoline, mercury, and rubbing alcohol will float in water.

B. Gasoline, rubbing alcohol, and water will float in mercury.

C. Mercury, rubbing alcohol, and water will float in gasoline.

D. Gasoline, mercury, and water will float in rubbing alcohol.

_____ 2. A rock weighs 30 N. It displaces a volume of water that weighs 5 N. What is the buoyant force on the object? A. 5 N

B. 6 N

C. 30 N

D. 35 N

Name_______________________________Class __________________ Date __________________




_____ 3. Leon did an experiment to determine what would happen to a rubber ball that he placed underwater. Leon held the ball under 10 cm of water in his kitchen sink. When he released the ball, it rose to the surface. What inference can Leon make based on his observations of the ball’s movement? A. The buoyant force acting on the ball was greater than the force of

gravity acting on the ball.

B. The force of gravity acting on the ball was greater than the buoyant

force acting on the ball.

C. The buoyant force acting on the ball was equal to the force of gravity acting on the ball.

D. There was no force of gravity acting on the ball.

_____ 4. Which of the following accurately describes the forces acting on a beach ball that is at rest on the surface of the water in a swimming pool? A. The forces are unbalanced.

B. The forces are balanced.

C. No forces are acting on the ball.

D. All of the forces are acting in the same direction.


Mass and Volume Measurements

Object Mass (g) Volume (cm3)

1 12 4

2 790 100

3 88 11

4 5 50

_____ 5. The table shows mass and volume measurements for four objects. Which of these objects will float in water, given that the density of liquid water is 1 g/cm3? A. object 1

B. object 2

C. object 3

D. object 4

Name_______________________________Class __________________ Date __________________




_____ 6. In which of the following situations are there unbalanced forces?

A. A submarine rises to the surface as crewmembers empty the ballast

tanks. B. A shipwreck lies undisturbed on the bottom of the ocean.

C. Two children paddle a canoe in opposite directions, but the canoe

does not move.

D. A fish floats just below the surface, suspended in the water.

_____ 7. Which of the following statements accurately explains why a steel boat can float in water? A. Steel is denser than water.

B. Steel is less dense than water.

C. The boat displaces a volume of water that weighs less than the boat.

D. The buoyant force acting on the boat is equal to the weight of the

boat.

OPEN RESPONSE

8. Many power tools and power lifts have pneumatic parts that use high-pressure air to move things. Like hydraulic devices, these pneumatic devices use an enclosed fluid to transmit force. While a hydraulic device uses a liquid, a pneumatic device uses a gas. How does Pascal’s principle apply to pneumatic devices?

_______________________________________________________________

_______________________________________________________________

_______________________________________________________________

9. A ship’s hollow shape allows it to float in water. Why does the same ship, when filled with water, sink in water?

_______________________________________________________________

_______________________________________________________________

_______________________________________________________________

Name_______________________________Class __________________ Date __________________


Holt Science and Technology 25 Work and Machines

Assessment

CRCT Preparation

MULTIPLE CHOICE


Industrial Rotary Saw

Work Input Work Output

Saw A 1500 J 1342 J

Saw B 1350 J 1279 J

Saw C 1425 J 1200 J

Saw D 1610 J 1500 J

_____ 1. Patrick is evaluating saws to buy for his lumber mill. He calculates work inputs and outputs for each saw. Which saw has the highest mechanical efficiency? A. saw A

B. saw B

C. saw C

D. saw D

_____ 2. Which of these common objects is a third-class lever? A. stapler

B. chisel

C. seesaw D. bottle opener

_____ 3. How does a simple machine decrease the required input force? A. by changing the direction of the input force

B. by increasing the distance through which the output force is exerted

C. by increasing the distance through which the input force is exerted

D. by decreasing the amount of work that is required

_____ 4. Kristin is looking for a doorknob that is hard to turn to keep her baby brother out of her room. Which of the following doorknobs should she choose?

A. a doorknob with a wheel radius of 5 cm and an axle radius of 4 cm B. a doorknob with a wheel radius of 6 cm and an axle radius of 2 cm

C. a doorknob with a wheel radius of 3 cm and an axle radius of 0.5 cm

D. a doorknob with a wheel radius of 4 cm and an axle radius of 3 cm

Name_______________________________Class __________________ Date __________________




_____ 5. A wheelchair ramp is 5.2 m long and 0.8 m high. What is the ramp’s mechanical advantage? A. 4.2

B. 4.4

C. 5.2

D. 6.5

_____ 6. Which of the following is true about the way a screw works? A. A small input force is applied over a short distance. B. A large input force is applied over a short distance.

C. A small input force is applied over a long distance.

D. A large input force is applied over a long distance.


_____ 7. In this movable pulley, the input force is 20 N. What is the output force? A. 10 N

B. 20 N

C. 40 N

D. 80 N

_____ 8. A screwdriver is used to open a paint can. How are the magnitudes and directions of the input and output forces related?

A. The output force is greater than the input force, and the directions of

the forces are opposite.

B. The output force is less than the input force, and the directions of the forces are opposite.

C. The output force is greater than the input force, and the direction of

both forces is the same.

D. The output force is less than the input force, and the direction of

both forces is the same.

Name_______________________________Class __________________ Date __________________




_____ 9. Which of the following is true of a simple machine in which the output force is greater than the input force? A. The mechanical advantage is less than 1.

B. The directions of input and output forces must be the same.

C. The amount of work required to accomplish a task is decreased.

D. The input force is exerted over a larger distance than the output

force is.

_____ 10. A wheelbarrow is a second-class lever. Its wheel is the fulcrum, and its load is carried in a tray. What could be done to a wheelbarrow in order to make lifting and moving rocks easier? A. the handles could be shortened

B. the wheel could be made larger and wider

C. the distance between wheel and tray could be increased

D. the tray could be moved so it is above the wheel

OPEN RESPONSE

11. Jenna is responsible for moving pianos for the Augusta Symphony. What are two simple machines that Jenna and her crew could use to move a piano from the stage in the concert hall onto a high outdoor stage? Explain how each machine would help make moving the piano easier.

_______________________________________________________________

_______________________________________________________________

_______________________________________________________________

12. Jeremy is using a hose and a sprinkler to water the lawn. What simple machines is he using, and how do these machines make the job easier?

_______________________________________________________________

_______________________________________________________________

_______________________________________________________________

Name_______________________________Class __________________ Date __________________


Holt Science and Technology 28 Energy and Energy Resources

Assessment

CRCT Preparation

MULTIPLE CHOICE


Object Weight

(N) Gravitational

Potential Energy (J)

Book 20 10.00

Plate 5 7.50

Framed picture 7 8.75

Statue 25 18.75

_____ 1. The objects in the table above are all on shelves in a bookcase. Which of the objects is located on the highest shelf?

A. the book B. the plate

C. the framed picture

D. the statue

_____ 2. Which of the following describes how energy is converted when a cat knocks a plant off of a counter? A. The gravitational potential energy of the cat is converted into kinetic

energy.

B. The kinetic energy of the cat is converted into gravitational potential

energy.

C. The gravitational potential energy of the plant is converted into

kinetic energy.

D. The kinetic energy of the plant is converted into gravitational

potential energy.

_____ 3. Which of the following is true of a closed system? A. Energy can be destroyed, but cannot be created.

B. Energy can be created, but cannot be destroyed. C. The total amount of energy in the system stays the same.

D. The system’s kinetic energy must equal its potential energy.

Name_______________________________Class __________________ Date __________________




_____ 4. Laboratory investigations show that when two cars traveling at the same speed have a head-on collision, the smaller car experiences more damage. Which of the following is a reasonable explanation for that fact?

A. The larger car has more potential energy than the smaller car does.

B. Mass has a greater effect on kinetic energy than speed does. C. The larger car experiences more friction than the smaller car does.

D. The larger car has more kinetic energy than the smaller car does.

_____ 5. What is the kinetic energy of a 30 kg greyhound that is running at a speed of 17 m/s?

A. 255 J B. 510 J

C. 4,335 J

D. 8,670 J


_____ 6. Melissa made the sketches above to record everyday examples of types of energy. Which sketch shows kinetic energy?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only C. 3 only

D. 1 and 2 only

_____ 7. Which of the following describes how energy is converted when a toaster toasts bread?

A. Electrical energy is converted into thermal energy. B. Thermal energy is converted into light energy.

C. Light energy is converted into electrical energy.

D. Electrical energy is converted into chemical energy.

_____ 8. Which situation describes a conversion from kinetic energy into potential energy? A. An apple falls from a tree.

B. A duck moves through the water.

C. A rubber band is wrapped around stalks of broccoli.

D. A can rolls along the floor.

Name_______________________________Class __________________ Date __________________




OPEN RESPONSE

9. Tyrone went camping at Fort Mountain State Park in Chatsworth, Georgia. He got up early one morning to bike the trails in the park. After a big breakfast, Tyrone headed out on his bicycle ride. His bike’s headlight was powered by his pedaling. Describe two ways in which energy was converted from one form into another.

_______________________________________________________________

_______________________________________________________________

_______________________________________________________________

_______________________________________________________________

_______________________________________________________________

10. Meredith fills a teapot with water and puts it on the stove. She turns the gas burner on and waits for the water to boil. When the water is boiling, Meredith pours it into a cup with a teabag in it. She drinks the tea after it has cooled slightly. Describe three transfers of thermal energy in this example.

_______________________________________________________________

_______________________________________________________________

_______________________________________________________________

_______________________________________________________________

_______________________________________________________________

Name_______________________________Class __________________ Date __________________


Holt Science and Technology 31 Heat and Heat Technology

Assessment

CRCT Preparation

MULTIPLE CHOICE


Specific Heat Capacities of Some Common Substances

Substance Specific heat capacity (J/kg•C)

Substance Specific heat capacity (J/kg•C)

Lead

Gold

Mercury

Silver

Copper

Iron

128

129

138

234

387

448

Glass

Aluminum

Wood

Steam

Ice

Water

837

899

1760

2010

2090

4184

_____ 1. If an object made of each of these substances was placed in a pot of boiling water, which object would reach 100˚C most quickly? A. lead

B. iron

C. glass

D. wood

_____ 2. Which statement best explains how a refrigerator works? A. Thermal energy is transferred from the room to the refrigerator

compartment and liquid refrigerant in the coils. B. Thermal energy from the liquid refrigerant in the coils is transferred

to the refrigerator compartment.

C. Thermal energy from the refrigerator compartment is transferred to

the liquid refrigerant in the coils.

D. Thermal energy is transferred between the refrigerator compartment

and the liquid refrigerant in the coils.

_____ 3. Which of the following sentences best describes the process that occurs when liquid water becomes ice? A. Thermal energy is transferred to the water, and its molecules stop

moving.

B. Thermal energy is transferred to the water, and its molecules move

more quickly.

C. Thermal energy is transferred from the water, and its molecules are

held tightly together. D. Thermal energy is transferred from the water, and its molecules

break apart.

Name_______________________________Class __________________ Date __________________




_____ 4. Which statement correctly describes how thermal energy is transferred when Phoenix holds a piece of ice in her hand? A. Thermal energy is transferred from her hand to the ice cube.

B. Thermal energy is transferred back and forth between her hand and

the ice cube.

C. Thermal energy is transferred from the ice cube to her hand.

D. Thermal energy is not transferred between her hand and the ice cube.

_____ 5. How do electromagnetic waves emitted by the sun heat Earth? A. by conduction

B. by convection

C. by radiation

D. by insulation


_____ 6. The diagram above shows three closed jars that all contain the same substance. Which of the following statements is true?

A. The particles in all three jars have the same amount of thermal

energy.

B. The particles in jar 1 have the greatest freedom of motion. C. The particles in jar 2 cannot transfer heat by convection.

D. The particles in jar 3 have the highest kinetic energy.

_____ 7. Which of the following statements best describes particles of water at room temperature?

A. They are held tightly together and can only vibrate. B. They are loosely connected and can slide past each other.

C. They move about freely and are far apart from each other.

D. They have no attractions between them and do not move.

_____ 8. Which of the following is an example of thermal expansion? A. water increasing in volume as it freezes in an ice cube tray

B. a jar lid loosening when it is placed under running hot water

C. hot soup cooling to room temperature

D. a balloon getting larger as more air is pumped into it

Name_______________________________Class __________________ Date __________________




OPEN RESPONSE

9. As Jackie walks along the beach on Tybee Island, the hot sand burns her feet. When she lies on a blanket in the sand, Jackie gradually becomes warm. To cool off, Jackie goes swimming in the ocean. Describe three ways that Jackie’s experiences illustrate thermal energy transfer. State the type of energy transfer that is not illustrated.

_______________________________________________________________

_______________________________________________________________

_______________________________________________________________

_______________________________________________________________

_______________________________________________________________

10. Gordon places a metal spoon into a mug of hot cocoa. Explain why the spoon is warm after a few minutes.

_______________________________________________________________

_______________________________________________________________

_______________________________________________________________

_______________________________________________________________

_______________________________________________________________

Name_______________________________Class __________________ Date __________________


Holt Science and Technology 34 Introduction to Atoms

Assessment

CRCT Preparation

MULTIPLE CHOICE


_____ 1. What principle of electromagnetic force is depicted in the above diagram of an atom?

A. Particles with the same charges have no effect on each other.

B. Particles with opposite charges attract each other.

C. Electromagnetic force repels objects from the nucleus.

D. Protons and neutrons repel each other because they have the same charge.

_____ 2. What is the key difference that causes the atoms of one element to differ from the atoms of all other elements?

A. the number of electrons

B. the number of isotopes C. the number of neutrons

D. the number of protons

Name_______________________________Class __________________ Date __________________




_____ 3. Atom A contains 8 protons and 8 neutrons. Atom B contains 8 protons and 9 neutrons. Which of the following statements correctly describes the two atoms? A. They are isotopes.

B. They are radioactive.

C. They are atoms of different elements.

D. They have the same mass number.

_____ 4. Which of the following pieces of equipment was J. J. Thomson using when he discovered electrons? A. electron microscope

B. magnifying lens

C. cathode-ray tube

D. telescope

_____ 5. Which of the following statements about the mass of a neutron is true? A. A neutron has half the mass of a proton.

B. A neutron is a little more massive than a proton.

C. A neutron has the same mass as an electron.

D. A neutron is a little less massive than an electron.

_____ 6. A neutral atom has an atomic number of 20 and a mass number of 42. How many electrons does the atom have? A. 20

B. 22

C. 42

D. 62

Name_______________________________Class __________________ Date __________________




Use the table below to answer questions 7–9.

Subatomic Particles

Particle Mass (amu)

Charge Location

Proton 1.0073 + Nucleus

Neutron 1.0087 Neutral Nucleus

Electron 0.0006 — Electron

Cloud

_____ 7. According to the table above, which of the following sets of particles has no charge? A. 6 protons, 5 neutrons, 4 electrons

B. 5 protons, 6 neutrons, 5 electrons

C. 4 protons, 4 neutrons, 6 electrons

D. 6 protons, 5 neutrons, 5 electrons

_____ 8. According to the table above, about how much mass would a nucleus that is composed of 15 protons and 18 neutrons have? A. 15 amu

B. 18 amu

C. 23 amu

D. 33 amu

_____ 9. According to the table above, which of the following statements about the mass of subatomic particles is true? A. The particles found in the nucleus are much more massive than the

particles found in the electron cloud.

B. Protons and electrons have about the same mass.

C. Neutrons are much less massive than protons and electrons.

D. The positively-charged particles in the nucleus are much more

massive than the neutral particles in the nucleus.

_____ 10. What would an atom of aluminum that has 13 protons and 15 neutrons be named? A. aluminum-13

B. aluminum-15

C. aluminum-26

D. aluminum-28

Name_______________________________Class __________________ Date __________________




_____ 11. Oxygen has an atomic number of 8. Which of the following could form the nucleus of an isotope of oxygen? A. 4 protons and 4 neutrons

B. 6 protons and 8 neutrons

C. 8 protons and 10 neutrons

D. 6 protons and 2 neutrons

OPEN RESPONSE

12. John Dalton, a British chemist, published his atomic theory in 1803. What were the three main points of Dalton’s theory? Which of those points were eventually shown to be incorrect?

_______________________________________________________________

_______________________________________________________________

_______________________________________________________________

_______________________________________________________________

_______________________________________________________________

13. The interactions of four fundamental forces can describe all the physical relationships in nature. Describe these four forces and explain how they contribute to the structure of an atom.

_______________________________________________________________

_______________________________________________________________

_______________________________________________________________

_______________________________________________________________

_______________________________________________________________

Name_______________________________Class __________________ Date __________________


Holt Science and Technology 38 The Periodic Table

Assessment

CRCT Preparation

MULTIPLE CHOICE


_____ 1. What does the number at the top of the square above tell you about carbon? A. A carbon nucleus has 6 protons.

B. Carbon has an average atomic mass of 6.

C. Carbon has 6 isotopes.

D. A carbon atom has 6 electrons in its outermost energy level.

_____ 2. Approximately how many elements are in the periodic table? A. between 75 and 100

B. between 100 and 125

C. between 125 and 150

D. more than 150

_____ 3. Alberto has an element that is a shiny, brittle solid that conducts electric current. The element most likely belongs to which class of elements? A. halogens

B. metals

C. nonmetals

D. metalloids

_____ 4. In what order are the regions arranged on the periodic table when you read it from left to right? A. noble gases, metals, nonmetals, metalloids

B. metalloids, metals, nonmetals, noble gases

C. metals, metalloids, nonmetals, noble gases

D. nonmetals, noble gases, metals, metalloids

6

C Carbon

12.0

Name_______________________________Class __________________ Date __________________




_____ 5. Fluorine, chlorine, bromine, iodine, and astatine make up Group 17, the halogens. Why are these elements grouped together? A. They are all very reactive nonmetals that have similar chemical

properties.

B. They are all nonreactive gases that have similar physical properties.

C. Their atoms all have 8 electrons in their outer energy levels.

D. They all have the same atomic number.

_____ 6. Which of the following best describes the properties of metals? A. hard, brittle, and nonconductive

B. liquid, dark, and conductive

C. shiny, malleable, and conductive

D. soft, oily, and very reactive


_____ 7. Which of the following statements about cobalt (Co) and nickel (Ni) is true? A. Nickel has a greater average atomic mass than cobalt does.

B. Nickel atoms have more protons than cobalt atoms do.

C. Cobalt atoms have more electrons than nickel atoms do.

D. Cobalt and nickel belong to the same group on the periodic table.

_____ 8. Which of the following statements about a group of elements is true? A. Atoms of the elements have the same number of neutrons.

B. Atoms of the elements have the same atomic number. C. The elements have similar properties.

D. The elements have the same average atomic mass.

27

Co Cobalt

58.9

28

Ni Nickel

58.7

Cobalt and Nickel Entries in Periodic Table

Name_______________________________Class __________________ Date __________________




_____ 9. What is the purpose of the zigzag line on the right side of the periodic table? A. It divides the metals and nonmetals and shows where the metalloids

are.

B. It indicates a group of elements that have the same chemical

properties.

C. It connects the elements in the table that have the same atomic number.

D. It marks the border between the alkali metals and the transition

metals.

OPEN RESPONSE

10. In Mendeleev’s periodic table, the element iodine (I) came before tellurium (Te). He arranged the elements by atomic weight. Later, Henry Moseley revised the table to place iodine after tellurium. Explain the basis for Moseley’s revision to the periodic table.

_______________________________________________________________

_______________________________________________________________

_______________________________________________________________

11. Sodium and potassium are members of the alkali metal group. What properties do sodium and potassium share with each other and with the other members of the alkali metal group? Describe at least four properties.

_______________________________________________________________

_______________________________________________________________

_______________________________________________________________

Name_______________________________Class __________________ Date __________________


Holt Science and Technology 41 Chemical Bonding

Assessment

CRCT Preparation

MULTIPLE CHOICE


_____ 1. How many electrons are in the second energy level of the atom shown above? A. 2

B. 7

C. 8

D. 9

_____ 2. Which of the following statements about helium atoms is true? A. Helium atoms can never have a full set of valence electrons. B. Helium atoms need only 2 valence electrons to have a full outermost

energy level.

C. Helium atoms do not have valence electrons.

D. Helium atoms have the same number of valence electrons as sulfur

atoms do.

_____ 3. Sodium chloride, or table salt, forms when a chlorine atom takes an electron from a neighboring sodium atom. Which of the following describes the force that holds sodium chloride together?

A. an ionic bond B. a hydrogen bond

C. a metallic bond

D. a covalent bond

Name_______________________________Class __________________ Date __________________




_____ 4. An aluminum ion has 13 protons, 14 neutrons, and 10 electrons. What is the charge of an aluminum ion? A. 10�

B. 3�

C. 1+

D. 3+

_____ 5. What property of copper allows copper wire to bend without breaking? A. Copper atoms have 29 protons.

B. Copper is found in Group 11 on the periodic table.

C. Copper atoms do not have a full outermost energy level.

D. Copper atoms form metallic bonds with each other.


_____ 6. According to the electron-dot diagram of oxygen shown above, how many more valence electrons does the oxygen atom need to fill its outermost energy level? A. 1

B. 2

C. 6

D. 8

_____ 7. The ions that make up an ionic compound are bonded in a repeating three-dimensional pattern. What is this pattern called? A. chloride lattice

B. covalent bond

C. crystal lattice

D. crystal pattern

Name_______________________________Class __________________ Date __________________




_____ 8. Which of the following forms when a neutral atom loses an electron?

A. a negative atom

B. a neutral ion C. a positive ion

D. a negative ion

_____ 9. During a laboratory experiment at Georgia State University, Juanita observes a model of two bonded atoms. She is told that the atoms are both nonmetals. Which of the following is a valid conclusion? A. She is looking at a model of atoms held together by a covalent bond.

B. She is looking at a model of atoms held together by an ionic bond.

C. She is looking at a model of a metalloid.

D. She is looking at a model of a crystal lattice.

OPEN RESPONSE

10. Which of an atom’s electrons are most likely to be involved in chemical bonding? Why?

_______________________________________________________________

_______________________________________________________________

_______________________________________________________________

11. Why do atoms of the noble gases, in Group 18 on the periodic table, usually not form chemical bonds?

_______________________________________________________________

_______________________________________________________________

_______________________________________________________________

Name_______________________________Class __________________ Date __________________


Holt Science and Technology 44 Chemical Reactions

Assessment

CRCT Preparation

MULTIPLE CHOICE


_____ 1. The diagram above shows how a light stick works. Light sticks begin to glow when the vial inside the stick is broken. Chemicals inside the vial mix with chemicals outside of the vial. Which of the following statements best supports the idea that a chemical reaction is occurring? A. The vial is broken into smaller pieces.

B. Energy is released in the form of light.

C. Two different substances are combined.

D. The substances are in a flexible container.

_____ 2. A scientist at the Chemical Analysis Core Facility at the University of Georgia’s Athens campus carries out a reaction in a test tube. After the bubbling stops, she notices that the test tube is very warm. What might she conclude about the reaction? A. The reaction happened very quickly.

B. The reaction is endothermic.

C. The reaction is exothermic.

D. No reaction took place.

_____ 3. Which of the following contains one oxygen atom? A. H2O

B. CO2

C. 2N2O

D. Co

Name_______________________________Class __________________ Date __________________




_____ 4. Some silverware is made with the element silver (Ag). Over time, this silverware will turn black if it is not cleaned with a special solution. Which of the following statements best explains why the element silver in the silverware turns black?

A. It absorbs energy when exposed to warm food.

B. It breaks down into smaller and smaller particles. C. It reacts with substances in the air to form a new substance.

D. It changes from one state of matter into another state of matter.

_____ 5. Which chemical equation correctly shows the formation of water from hydrogen and oxygen?

A. H2 + O2 H2O B. 2H2 + O2 2H2O

C. H2 + 2O H2O

D. H + O2 H2O


_____ 6. The energy diagram above shows the progress of a chemical reaction. Which of the following statements about this reaction is true? A. Energy is absorbed during this reaction.

B. The rate of this reaction increases, then it decreases.

C. The reaction is exothermic.

D. Activation energy is not required in this reaction.

_____ 7. Which of the following is an example of a chemical change? A. water freezing into ice

B. ice melting into water

C. meat spoiling and changing color D. butter softening into a liquid

Name_______________________________Class __________________ Date __________________




_____ 8. Which of the following is true of the law of conservation of energy?

A. The law of conservation of energy states that energy cannot change

forms. B. The law of conservation of energy states that energy cannot be

created or destroyed.

C. The law of conservation of energy states that the total energy of the

reactants is greater than the total energy of the products.

D. The law of conservation of energy states that the total energy of the

reactants is less than the total energy of the products.

_____ 9. Look at the equations below. Which of the following statements is true? A. Equation 1 is an endothermic reaction.

B. Both equations 1 and 2 are endothermic reactions.

C. Equation 2 is an endothermic reaction.

D. Both equations 1 and 2 are exothermic reactions.

1. CH4 + 2O2 CO2 + 2H2O + energy

2. N2 + O2 + energy 2NO

OPEN RESPONSE

10. What are three ways by which the rate of a chemical reaction can be increased?

_______________________________________________________________

_______________________________________________________________

_______________________________________________________________

11. Compare synthesis and decomposition reactions and give an example of each.

_______________________________________________________________

_______________________________________________________________

_______________________________________________________________

Name_______________________________Class __________________ Date __________________


Holt Science and Technology 47 Chemical Compounds

Assessment

CRCT Preparation

MULTIPLE CHOICE


_____ 1. What kind of carbon backbone does the figure above represent? A. an alkyne chain

B. a ring chain

C. a branched chain

D. a straight chain

_____ 2. Antacids usually contain bases. Which of the following best describes the reaction between antacids and stomach acid? A. A neutralization reaction occurs, producing neutral compounds.

B. The products formed are more acidic than stomach acid.

C. The antacid becomes bright red in the presence of stomach acid.

D. The products formed contain different elements than those contained

in antacid and stomach acid.

_____ 3. Which of the following substances is a lipid? A. glucose

B. carbohydrate

C. fat D. protein

Name_______________________________Class __________________ Date __________________




_____ 4. A compound dissolved in water turns red litmus paper blue and changes the indicator bromthymol blue to dark blue. What kind of compound is it? A. an acid

B. a base

C. lemon juice

D. table salt

_____ 5. A salt solution conducts an electric current, but a sugar solution does not. Which of the following statements best describes why a sugar solution does not conduct an electric current?

A. Sugar molecules are held together by ionic bonds. B. Covalent compounds cannot conduct electric currents.

C. Sugar molecules form ions in water.

D. Sugar molecules are not charged.


pH of Common Household Substances

Substance pH

Lemon juice 2.2

Vinegar 4.0

Milk 6.5

Ammonia 12.0

_____ 6. The pH of some common household substances is listed in the table. Which substance would most likely feel slippery? A. lemon juice

B. vinegar

C. milk

D. ammonia

_____ 7. What factor does the pH scale measure? A. the concentration of sodium ions in a solution B. the concentration of hydroxide ions in a solution

C. the concentration of glycogen ions in a solution

D. the concentration of hydronium ions in a solution

Name_______________________________Class __________________ Date __________________




_____ 8. All organic compounds are based on which element?

A. hydrogen

B. carbon C. oxygen

D. nitrogen

OPEN RESPONSE

9. A chemist is identifying an unknown white solid. The sample consists of a single compound. The first step in the identification process involves deciding if the compound is covalent or ionic. Describe two pieces of information the chemist could gather in order to decide if this compound is covalent or ionic. Explain your answer.

_______________________________________________________________

_______________________________________________________________

_______________________________________________________________

10. When you add a small amount of a weak acid to a sample of seawater, a neutralization reaction occurs. What can you conclude about the pH of seawater?

_______________________________________________________________

_______________________________________________________________

_______________________________________________________________

Name_______________________________Class __________________ Date __________________


Holt Science and Technology 50 Atomic Energy

Assessment

CRCT Preparation

MULTIPLE CHOICE


_____ 1. Which of the following nuclear processes is occurring in the diagram above? A. alpha decay

B. beta decay

C. nuclear fission

D. nuclear fusion

_____ 2. In a fission reaction, the total mass of the products does not equal the total mass of the reactants. Why? A. Some of the energy changes into matter when nuclei join together.

B. Some of the energy changes into matter when the nucleus breaks

apart.

C. Some of the matter changes into energy when nuclei join together.

D. Some of the matter changes into energy when the nucleus breaks

apart.

_____ 3. Who is credited with discovering radioactivity? A. Marie Curie B. Pierre Curie

C. Henri Becquerel

D. Albert Einstein

Uranium-235 Barium-142

Krypton-91

Name_______________________________Class __________________ Date __________________




_____ 4. What type of radioactive decay causes a uranium-238 nucleus to change into a thorium-234 nucleus? A. alpha decay

B. beta decay that releases an electron

C. beta decay that releases a positron

D. gamma decay

_____ 5. Ernesto wants to build a shield that he can stand behind that will block gamma rays. Which material should he use? A. several sheets of paper

B. several sheets of aluminum foil

C. several pieces of cloth

D. several centimeters of lead

_____ 6. Ellen has a 40 g sample of nitrogen-13. The half-life of nitrogen-13 is 10 minutes. What is the mass of nitrogen-13 in Ellen’s sample after 40 minutes? A. 2.5 g

B. 5.0 g

C. 13 g

D. 20 g


Half-Lives of Radioactive Isotopes

Isotope Half-life (days)

Cerium-141 32.50

Niobium-95 35.06

Ruthenium-103 39.25

Strontium-89 50.55

_____ 7. A scientist has a sample of an unknown radioactive isotope. After 70 days, the sample contains one-fourth of the original amount of the radioactive isotope. What is the identity of the isotope? A. cerium-141

B. niobium-95

C. ruthenium-103

D. strontium-89

Name_______________________________Class __________________ Date __________________




_____ 8. A nuclear chain reaction is a continuous series of nuclear fission reactions. Chain reactions in nuclear power plants are controlled by inserting control rods in the nuclear reactor. How do control rods work?

A. Control rods absorb excess uranium-235.

B. Control rods absorb emitted barium-142. C. Control rods absorb excess energy.

D. Control rods absorb emitted neutrons.

_____ 9. Which of the following is a difference between a fission reaction and a fusion reaction?

A. Fission is a “clean” source of energy, but fusion produces a great amount of radioactive waste.

B. A fission reaction releases beta particles, but a fusion reaction

releases alpha particles.

C. Energy from a fission reaction is released when a nucleus breaks

apart, but energy from a fusion reaction is released when nuclei join.

D. A fission reaction requires very high temperatures, but a fusion

reaction does not.

OPEN RESPONSE

10. Gray’s Reef National Marine Sanctuary is located off the coast of Georgia. Scientists have studied fossils in the area around Gray’s Reef and have determined the age of the fossils using carbon-14 dating. Explain how carbon-14 dating works.

_______________________________________________________________

_______________________________________________________________

_______________________________________________________________

11. Imagine that your city is planning to build a new power plant to supply electrical energy to the city. Some residents support building a power plant that uses fossil fuels. Other residents support building a nuclear power plant that will use energy from fission reactions. Describe two advantages and two disadvantages to building a nuclear power plant instead of a fossil fuel power plant.

_______________________________________________________________

_______________________________________________________________

_______________________________________________________________

Name_______________________________Class __________________ Date __________________


Holt Science and Technology 53 Introduction to Electricity

Assessment

CRCT Preparation

MULTIPLE CHOICE


_____ 1. The diagram above shows four light bulbs wired in a circuit. What would happen if bulb 3 burned out?

A. Bulb 1 and bulb 2 would go out but bulb 4 will remain lit. B. Bulb 2 and bulb 4 would go out but bulb 1 will remain lit.

C. All of the other bulbs would go out.

D. All of the other bulbs would remain lit.

_____ 2. Tara rubs a balloon on her hair and charges both the balloon and her hair. What will happen if Tara holds the balloon close to her hair? A. Her hair will be repelled by the balloon because her hair and the

balloon have the same charge.

B. Her hair will be attracted to the balloon because her hair and the

balloon have the same charge.

C. Her hair will be repelled by the balloon because her hair and the

balloon are oppositely charged.

D. Her hair will be attracted to the balloon because her hair and the

balloon are oppositely charged.

_____ 3. How does the electric force act within an atom? A. The electric force causes the repulsion of the negatively-charged

electrons from the positively-charged nucleus.

B. The electric force causes the attraction of negatively-charged

electrons to the positively charged nucleus.

C. The electric force holds neutrons and protons together in the

nucleus.

D. The electric force causes the attraction of negatively-charged

electrons to each other.

Name_______________________________Class __________________ Date __________________




_____ 4. When Andre plugs his stereo into the same outlet as the television and lamp, all three won’t work. What is the most likely hypothesis for what happened? A. The circuit was overloaded, and the circuit breaker opened.

B. The circuit was complete, and the circuit breaker closed.

C. Only the stereo operates on alternating current.

D. The stereo’s electrical cord was faulty.

_____ 5. Which of the following electrical devices could be used to monitor the temperature of an engine? A. a thermocouple

B. a photocell

C. a dry cell

D. a battery


Distance (mm) Electric force (N)

1 243

3 27

5 10

7 5

9 3

_____ 6. A scientist measured the distance between two positively-charged objects and determined the electric force between them. Based on the data in the table above, which of the following statements is true?

A. As the distance between the objects increases, the size of the electric

force decreases.

B. As the distance between the objects increases, the objects become more positively charged.

C. The size of the electric force is constant.

D. As the size of the objects increases, the size of the electric force

between them decreases.

Name_______________________________Class __________________ Date __________________




_____ 7. Suki can have all five appliances in her kitchen on at the same time, or she can have each appliance on one at a time. How are the appliances in Suki’s kitchen wired? A. in a single loop

B. in a direct current circuit

C. in a parallel circuit

D. in a series circuit

_____ 8. How should Pedro wire four bulbs in a circuit so that all the bulbs shine as brightly as possible? A. He should wire all four bulbs in a series circuit.

B. He should wire two bulbs in a parallel circuit and the other two

bulbs in a series circuit.

C. He should wire three bulbs in a series circuit and the other bulb in a

parallel circuit.

D. He should wire all four bulbs in a parallel circuit.

_____ 9. Which of the following copper wires will have the least amount of resistance? A. a short, thin wire

B. a short, thick wire

C. a long, thin wire

D. a long, thick wire

OPEN RESPONSE

10. Two kinds of electric current exist: direct current and alternating current. Explain the difference between these two kinds of current and give an example of where you might find each kind of current.

_______________________________________________________________

_______________________________________________________________

_______________________________________________________________

11. On a rainy day, David wears rubber boots to school. The floors in his math classroom are covered with carpet. After David walks across the room to the pencil sharpener, he gets a shock when he touches the sharpener. Explain why David got a shock.

_______________________________________________________________

_______________________________________________________________

_______________________________________________________________

Name_______________________________Class __________________ Date __________________


Holt Science and Technology 56 Electromagnetism

Assessment

CRCT Preparation

MULTIPLE CHOICE

Use the table below to answer questions 1 and 2.

Transformer Primary

Coil Loops Secondary Coil Loops

A 20 29

B 35 7

C 12 24

D 19 14

_____ 1. The table above shows the number of primary and secondary coil loops in four transformers. Which of the four transformers decrease current?

A. A and C B. B and C

C. B and D

D. A, B, C, and D

_____ 2. Which of the four transformers are step-down transformers? A. A and C

B. B and C

C. B and D

D. A, B, C, and D

_____ 3. In which of these locations would you find power lines with the highest voltage? A. in a neighborhood

B. leaving a power distribution center

C. leaving a power plant

D. entering a house

Name_______________________________Class __________________ Date __________________




_____ 4. An electromagnet used in a junkyard can only pick up cars. How could the electromagnet be improved so that it could lift trucks and other large vehicles? A. The electric current and the number of coils in the solenoid could be

increased.

B. The electric current could be increased and the number of coils in

the solenoid could be decreased.

C. The electric current and the number of coils in the solenoid could be

decreased.

D. The electric current could be decreased and the number of coils in

the solenoid could be increased.

_____ 5. Catherine rubs an iron nail in one direction with the south pole of a magnet. Which of the following is true of the magnetized nail?

A. It will only be attracted to the north pole of a bar magnet.

B. It has a strong north pole and a much weaker south pole.

C. Its domains have become rearranged so that they line up in one direction.

D. The bar magnet has caused a random arrangement of the nail’s

domains.

_____ 6. An electric outlet in the United States provides 120 volts of alternating current. An electric outlet in England provides 230 volts of alternating current. What kind of device would you need in order to use your hair dryer in a hotel in England? A. a galvanometer

B. a solenoid

C. a commutator

D. a step-down transformer

Name_______________________________Class __________________ Date __________________





_____ 7. When a current-carrying wire is placed between two poles of a magnet, the wire jumps up, as shown in the diagram above. Which of the following statements about this phenomenon is true? A. The wire creates a magnetic field that interacts with the magnetic

field of the magnet.

B. The north pole of the magnet interacts with the south pole of the

wire.

C. The battery transfers its magnetic field to the wire. D. The wire causes the domains of the magnet to rearrange.

_____ 8. Jane puts the north pole of a bar magnet near an object on her desk. As the magnet gets closer to the object, the object is repelled and moves away from the magnet. Which of the following statements about the object on Jane’s desk is true? A. The object has a north pole but no south pole.

B. The object is a magnet or has been magnetized.

C. The object has randomly-arranged domains.

D. The object is not made of metal.

Name_______________________________Class __________________ Date __________________




OPEN RESPONSE

9. Elise tells her friends that Earth’s magnetic field is created by a giant bar magnet at Earth’s center. Is she right? Explain your answer.

_______________________________________________________________

_______________________________________________________________

_______________________________________________________________

_______________________________________________________________

_______________________________________________________________

10. Dennis is building a toy car. He is trying to decide whether to install an electric generator or an electric motor to power the toy. Which should he choose? Explain your answer.

_______________________________________________________________

_______________________________________________________________

_______________________________________________________________

_______________________________________________________________

_______________________________________________________________

Name_______________________________Class __________________ Date __________________


Holt Science and Technology 60 Electronic Technology

Assessment

CRCT Preparation

MULTIPLE CHOICE


_____ 1. What happens to the current in the circuit above if the manual switch is opened? A. Current stops in the smaller loop but continues in the larger loop.

B. Current stops in the larger loop but continues in the smaller loop.

C. Current stops in both loops.

D. The direction of the current is reversed.

_____ 2. Quinyana is using the circuit diagram above to design a sound amplifier. She replaced the manual switch with a microphone. What other part should she replace? A. She should replace the transistor with a speaker.

B. She should replace the transistor with a volume control dial.

C. She should replace the motor with a speaker.

D. She should replace the motor with a volume control dial.

_____ 3. A company produces electronic components that are used in radios to convert alternating current (AC) to direct current (DC). On one assembly line, machines layer an n-type semi-conductor into a mold. What else should be added to complete the component? A. one n-type semiconductor

B. one p-type semiconductor

C. two p-type semiconductors

D. one p-type semiconductor and one n-type semiconductor

- + Energy source

+ - Energy source

Motor

Name_______________________________Class __________________ Date __________________




_____ 4. Which of these devices converts sound energy into electrical energy?

A. telephone

B. speaker C. digital alarm clock

D. remote control

_____ 5. Laptop computers have very thin screens. How might a laptop computer screen produce images?

A. Electron beams sweep the screen and cause fluorescent materials to glow.

B. Laser beams shine behind the screen and create patterns of reflected

light.

C. Vibrations in thousands of electron tubes transfer energy to wells of

colored light.

D. Charged atoms of gas in wells on the screen transfer energy to

fluorescent materials.

_____ 6. Cecily uses a remote control to turn on her DVD player. What kind of hardware is the remote? A. a central processing unit

B. an input device

C. an output device

D. an interface card


Element Number of Electrons in

Outermost Energy Level

Boron 3

Germanium 4

Phosphorus 5

Selenium 6

_____ 7. Which element in the table above could be used with silicon to make a p-type semiconductor? A. boron

B. germanium

C. phosphorus

D. selenium

Name_______________________________Class __________________ Date __________________




_____ 8. Which of the following works in an analog way?

A. a remote control for a television

B. a volume control dial on a stereo C. a programmable thermostat

D. a light switch

_____ 9. Why do remote-controlled toy cars contain transistors instead of vacuum tubes?

A. Transistors change AC to DC, but vacuum tubes do not. B. Transistors amplify electric current, but vacuum tubes do not.

C. Transistors are energy sources, but vacuum tubes are not.

D. Transistors are small and light, but vacuum tubes are not.

OPEN RESPONSE

10. Would a diode containing only two p-type semiconductors conduct an electric current? Explain your answer.

_______________________________________________________________

_______________________________________________________________

_______________________________________________________________

11. Telephones and radios are similar because they both convert signals into sound waves. Describe two ways in which telephones and radios are different.

_______________________________________________________________

_______________________________________________________________

_______________________________________________________________

Name_______________________________Class __________________ Date __________________


Holt Science and Technology 63 The Energy of Waves

Assessment

CRCT Preparation

MULTIPLE CHOICE

_____ 1. The amount of energy that a wave carries is related to the wave’s amplitude and wavelength. Which of the following waves would carry the most energy?

_____ 2. Which of the following items would work well in space? A. drum set

B. guitar

C. radio

D. flashlight

_____ 3. For a laboratory experiment, Antonia wants to measure the amplitude of a transverse wave. Which of the following distances is equal to the amplitude of a transverse wave?

A. the distance from one crest to the next B. the distance from the highest point to the lowest point

C. the distance from one trough to the next

D. the distance from the rest position of the wave to its highest point

A.

B.

C.

D.

Name_______________________________Class __________________ Date __________________




_____ 4. Jeff and Lyle were fishing in the ocean. Jeff bet Lyle that the ocean waves moving quickly by the floating boat would not carry away a piece of bread that Jeff threw into the water. Which of the following is a valid explanation for this claim?

A. Ocean waves are surface waves, which move the particles of their

medium in circles. B. Ocean waves are longitudinal waves, which move the particles of

their medium back and forth.

C. Ocean waves are combination waves, which can move particles

along the ocean surface.

D. Ocean waves are transverse waves, which move the particles of their

medium up and down.

_____ 5. Lanh performed a laboratory experiment about wave motion. He and a partner held opposite ends of a rope. Each person generated a wave crest in the same direction at the same time. What happened when the wave crests met?

A. The amplitude of the combined wave was larger than the amplitude

of the individual waves.

B. The amplitude of the combined wave was smaller than the amplitude of the individual waves.

C. The amplitude of the combined wave was the same as the amplitude

of the individual waves.

D. The waves cancelled each other out.

Name_______________________________Class __________________ Date __________________





Sound Waves in Water

Time (s) Distance traveled (km)

1 1.5

2 3.0

3 4.5

4 ?

_____ 6. The data above were collected for sound waves traveling through water. If all other factors were the same, how far did the sound wave travel after 4 seconds? A. 5.0 km

B. 5.5 km

C. 6.0 km

D. 6.5 km

_____ 7. Marie is conducting an experiment about diffraction. Which of the following hypotheses could she test in order to learn more about diffraction? A. Light waves will bend as they pass through a small opening.

B. Light waves will bend as they move from air to water.

C. Light waves will pass through different media at different speeds.

D. Light waves will bounce off of objects.

_____ 8. What is the frequency of a wave that has a wavelength of 3 m and a speed of 18 m/s? A. 3 Hz

B. 6 Hz

C. 9 Hz

D. 15 Hz

Name_______________________________Class __________________ Date __________________




OPEN RESPONSE

9. Why are string instruments, such as violins and cellos, hollow with a hole below the strings?

_______________________________________________________________

_______________________________________________________________

_______________________________________________________________

_______________________________________________________________

_______________________________________________________________

10. Why does a rainbow of colors appear after white light passes through a glass prism?

_______________________________________________________________

_______________________________________________________________

_______________________________________________________________

_______________________________________________________________

_______________________________________________________________

Name_______________________________Class __________________ Date __________________


Holt Science and Technology 67 The Nature of Sound

Assessment

CRCT Preparation

MULTIPLE CHOICE


_____ 1. During a laboratory investigation, Aaron used an oscilloscope to create graphs of sounds that he produced using tuning forks. Which of these four graphs represents the sound that has the lowest volume? A. graph 1

B. graph 2

C. graph 3

D. graph 4

_____ 2. Which of these graphs represents the sound that has the lowest pitch? A. graph 1 B. graph 2

C. graph 3

D. graph 4

_____ 3. If you were conducting an experiment to determine the speed of sound through water, which of the following factors should you keep constant?

A. the source of the sound

B. the amplitude of the sound wave

C. the loudness of the sound D. the temperature of the water

_____ 4. Cletus wants to make ear protectors for people who work around loud jet engines at Hartsfield Airport in Atlanta. Which of the following materials should he experiment with for the best results? A. a material that amplifies sound

B. a material that absorbs sound

C. a material that transmits sound

D. a material that produces sound

Name_______________________________Class __________________ Date __________________




_____ 5. Which of the following statements about what happens when a guitar is played is true? A. The strings of the guitar are compressed.

B. Particles of air move away from the guitar in all directions.

C. A longitudinal sound wave moves away from the guitar.

D. Sound moves away from the guitar in a single direction.

_____ 6. Jesse walked into a large, dark room and yelled “Hello!” She heard a loud echo of the word almost immediately. Which of the following is a valid conclusion that Jesse could draw from her observations? A. She produced sound waves that reflected off of the walls of the

room.

B. She produced sound waves that created a sonic boom.

C. She produced sound waves that destructively interfered with each

other.

D. She produced sound waves that demonstrated the Doppler effect.


Speed of Sound in Different Gases at 0°C

Medium Speed (m/s)

Air 331

Helium 972

Hydrogen 1290

Oxygen 317

_____ 7. According to the table, which of the following statements about the speed of sound is true? A. The frequency of a sound wave traveling through hydrogen is higher

than the frequency of that wave traveling through helium.

B. The amplitude of a sound wave traveling through helium is greater

than the amplitude of that wave traveling through oxygen.

C. The speed of a sound wave traveling through hydrogen is greater than

the speed of that wave traveling through oxygen.

D. The pitch of a sound wave traveling through oxygen is higher than

the pitch of that wave traveling through hydrogen.

Name_______________________________Class __________________ Date __________________




_____ 8. Which statement best describes what happens in the inner ear?

A. Electrical signals are interpreted.

B. Sound waves enter the ear and are channeled through the ear canal. C. Sound waves are amplified by the hammer, anvil, and stirrup.

D. Sound vibrations are turned into electrical signals.

_____ 9. You hear a single note played on a violin and the sound of a firecracker exploding. Why is one sound considered music while the other is considered noise? A. The violin produces a soft sound, but the firecracker produces a loud

sound.

B. The violin produces sound waves that travel in a single direction, but

the firecracker produces sound waves that spread out in all directions.

C. The violin produces a sound wave that has a repeating pattern, but

the firecracker produces a complex sound wave that has no repeating

pattern.

D. The violin produces a sound wave that has a high frequency, but the

firecracker produces a sound wave that has a low frequency.

OPEN RESPONSE

10. LaToya generated a longitudinal wave within a coiled-spring toy to model a sound wave. What is a limitation of LaToya’s model?

_______________________________________________________________

_______________________________________________________________

_______________________________________________________________

11. Describe the Doppler effect. When might you observe the Doppler effect?

_______________________________________________________________

_______________________________________________________________

_______________________________________________________________

Name_______________________________Class __________________ Date __________________


Holt Science and Technology 70 The Nature of Light

Assessment

CRCT Preparation

MULTIPLE CHOICE


_____ 1. While performing an experiment on the colors of light at the University of West Georgia, Pablo mixed three colors of light to form the image above. What color would Pablo see at point A?

A. yellow B. magenta

C. white

D. black

_____ 2. What color would Pablo find at point A if pigments were used instead of colors of light? A. yellow

B. magenta

C. white

D. black

_____ 3. Which of these conclusions accurately describes the difference between mixing colors of light and mixing colors of pigment? A. Mixing colors of light involves color addition, while mixing

pigments involves color subtraction.

B. There are secondary pigments, but there are not secondary colors of

light.

C. Different colors of light always combine to form black light, while

different colors of pigment always combine to form white pigment.

D. Pigments cannot be mixed, while colors of light can.

Blue Green

Red

A

Name_______________________________Class __________________ Date __________________




_____ 4. Ultraviolet light has a higher frequency than infrared light has. Which statement about visible light is true? A. Blue light has a longer wavelength than orange light has.

B. Green light has a higher frequency than violet light has.

C. Yellow light has a shorter wavelength than blue light has.

D. Red light has a lower frequency than green light has.

_____ 5. Which of the following helps to produce rainbows in the sky? A. diffraction B. interference

C. absorption

D. refraction


_____ 6. Why is the light from the flashlight above brighter at point A than it is at point B? A. The flashlight is in a vacuum.

B. Light does not travel very fast in air.

C. The light is absorbed and scattered by air particles.

D. Destructive interference makes the light appear dimmer.

_____ 7. Which of the following produces a mirror image? A. illumination

B. regular reflection

C. scattering

D. absorption

Name_______________________________Class __________________ Date __________________




_____ 8. Students at the Medical College of Georgia in Augusta are studying to become X-ray technicians. What precautions must be taken when they use an X-ray machine to make images of patients’ broken bones? A. The patients should wear earplugs to protect their ears.

B. The patients’ bodies should be protected with a lead-lined cover.

C. The patients should wear helmets.

D. The technician should wear safety goggles to protect his or her eyes.

OPEN RESPONSE

9. How is sound sent from a radio station in Atlanta to a radio in Macon?

_______________________________________________________________

_______________________________________________________________

_______________________________________________________________

10. How do X rays form an image of a broken bone, such as a broken arm bone?

_______________________________________________________________

_______________________________________________________________

_______________________________________________________________

Name_______________________________Class __________________ Date __________________


Holt Science and Technology 73 Light and Our World

Assessment

CRCT Preparation

MULTIPLE CHOICE

Use the table below to answer questions 1 and 2.

Image Description of Reflection

A Dog is life size and right side up.

B Dog is smaller than life size and

upside down.

C Dog is smaller than life size and

right side up.

D Dog is larger than life size and

right side up.

_____ 1. The table above describes the reflection of a dog as seen in four different mirrors. Which image was seen in a concave mirror with the dog standing less than 1 focal length away? A. image A

B. image B

C. image C

D. image D

_____ 2. Which image described in the table above is a real image? A. image A

B. image B

C. image C

D. image D

_____ 3. When Greg stands on a spot in front of a funhouse mirror, he cannot see a clear image of himself. What conclusion can Greg draw about the mirror and his position in front of it?

A. Greg is located more than 1 focal length away from a concave

mirror. B. Greg is located less than 1 focal length away from a convex mirror.

C. Greg is located at the focal point of a concave mirror.

D. Greg is located directly between two plane mirrors.

Name_______________________________Class __________________ Date __________________




_____ 4. Jordan is nearsighted. Which of the following describes how lenses are used to correct her vision, so that she can focus on objects that are far away? A. The concave lenses in Jordan’s eyeglasses refract the light outward.

The convex lenses in her eyes focus the refracted light onto her

retinas.

B. The convex lenses in Jordan’s eyeglasses focus the light inward. The

convex lenses in her eyes focus the refracted light onto her retinas.

C. The concave lenses in Jordan’s eyeglasses refract the light outward.

The concave lenses in her eyes focus the refracted light onto her

retinas. D. The convex lenses in Jordan’s eyeglasses focus the light inward. The

concave lenses in her eyes focus the refracted light onto her retinas.


_____ 5. Kenneth drew the above diagram of a helium-neon laser during a lab experiment. What is the purpose of the mirrors inside a laser? A. The mirrors bring the light into focus.

B. The mirrors reflect photons back through the tube.

C. They filter all but one wavelength of light.

D. They heat the atoms into an excited state.

_____ 6. What would happen if Kenneth passed the red light from the laser above through a glass prism? A. The resulting light would be red.

B. The resulting light would be white.

C. The light would be split to form a rainbow.

D. The light would not pass through.

_____ 7. Which of the following statements about Kenneth’s diagram is correct? A. Laser light contains light waves of many wavelengths.

B. Laser light contains light waves of many colors.

C. Laser light is tightly focused and does not spread out much.

D. Laser light spreads out a lot, even over short distances.

_____ 8. Side mirrors on cars are convex mirrors. What would you see if you put your face very close to a side mirror?

A. a larger real image of your face, right side up

B. a smaller virtual image of your face, right side up

C. a larger virtual image of your face, right side up D. a smaller real image of your face, upside down

Name_______________________________Class __________________ Date __________________




_____ 9. A slide projector makes a small image larger as it projects the image onto a screen. How does a slide projector magnify an image? A. The projector uses a convex lens.

B. The projector uses a convex mirror.

C. the projector uses a concave lens.

D. The projector uses a concave mirror.

OPEN RESPONSE

10. Carrie creates a simple camera with a concave lens. What happens when she takes pictures with the camera?

_______________________________________________________________

_______________________________________________________________

_______________________________________________________________

11. Describe two ways in which laser light differs from nonlaser light.

_______________________________________________________________

_______________________________________________________________

_______________________________________________________________

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