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State General Knowledge

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Civil Engineering MCQ

Q1. A thin-walled long cylindrical tank of inside radius r is

subjected simultaneously to

internal gas pressure p and axial compressive force F at its ends.

In order to produce pure shear

state of stress in the wall of the

cylinder,F should be equal to (a) ppr2

(b) 2ppr2

(c) 3ppr2 (d) 4ppr2 Ans: (c) Q2. If a beam of rectangular

cross-section is subjected to a

vertical shear force V, the shear force carried by the upper one-

third of the cross-section is

(a) zero

(b) 7V/ 27 (c) 8V/ 27

(d) V/3 Ans: (b)

Q3. The stiffness coefficient kij indicates

(a) force at i due to a unit

deformation at j (b) deformation at j due to a unit

force at i

(c) deformation at i due to a unit

force j (d) force at j due to a unit

deformation i Ans: (a)

Q4. A metal bar of length 100

mm is inserted between two rigid supports and its temperature is

increased by 10C. If the

coefficient of thermal expansion is 12 106 per C and the

youngs modulus is 2 105 MPa,

the stress in the bar is (a) zero

(b) 12 MPa

(c) 24 MPa

(d) 2400 MPa ANS: (C)

Q5. The maximum and minimum shear stresses in a hollow

circular shaft of outer diameter

20 mm and thickness 2 mm, subjected to a torque of 92.7 Nm

will be

(a) 59 MPa and 47.2 MPa (b) 100 MPa and 80 MPa

(c) 118 MPa and 160 MPa

(d) 200 MPa and 160 MPa

Ans: (b)

Q6. The shear stress at the

neutral axis in a beam of

triangular section with a base of 40 mm and height 20 mm,

subjected to a shear force of 3 kN

is

(a) 3 MPa (b) 6 MPa

(c) 10 MPa

(d) 20 MPa Ans: (c)

Q7. U1 and U2 are the strain energies stored in a prismatic bar

due to axial tensile forces P1 and

P2, respectively. The strain energy U stored in the same bar

due to combined action of P1 and

P2 will be

(a) U = U1 + U2 (b) U = U1U2

(c) U < U1 + U2

(d) U > U1 + U2 Ans: (d)

Q8. An axially loaded bar is subjected to a normal stress of

173 MPa. The shear stress in the

bar is (a) 75 MPa

(b) 86.5 MPa

(c) 100 MPa

(d) 122.3 MPa Ans: (b)

Q9. The shape of the cross-section, which has the largest

shape factor, is

(a) rectangular (b) I-section

(c) diamond

(d) solid circular Ans: (c)

Q10. A vertical PQ of length L is fixed at its top end P and has a

flange to the bottom end. A

weight W is dropped vertically

from a height h (

Q17. The major and minor principal stresses at a point are 3

MPa and 3 MPa respectively.

The maximum shear stress at the point is

(a) zero

(b) 3 MPa

(c) 6 MPa (d) 9 MPa Ans: (b) Q18. If a small concrete cube is

submerged deep in still water in

such a way that the pressure exerted on all faces of the cube is

p, then the maximum shear

stress developed inside the cube is

(a) 0

(b) p 2

(c) p (d) 2p Ans: (a) Q19. The ratio of the theoretical

critical buckling load for a

column with fixed ends to that of another column with the same

dimensions and material, but

with pinned ends, is equal to (a) 0.5

(b) 1.0

(c) 2.0

(d) 4.0 Ans: (d)

Q20. The following statements are related to bending of beams:

I. The slope of the bending

moment diagram is equal to the shear force. II. The slope of the

shear force diagram is equal to

the load intensity. III. The slope of the curvature is equal to the

flexural rotation. IV. The second

derivative of the deflection is equal to the curvature. The only

FALSE statement is

(a) I

(b) II (c) III

(d) IV Ans: (c)

Q21. The maximum value of

Poissons ratio for an elastic material is

(a) 0.25

(b) 0.5 (c) 0.75

(d) 1 Ans: (b)

Q22. In a linear elastic

structural element (a) stiffness is directly

proportional to flexibility

(b) stiffness is inversely proportional to flexibility

(c) stiffness is equal to flexibility

(d) stiffness and flexibility are not

related Ans: (b)

Q23. A cantilever beam of tubular cross section consists of

two materials, copper as outer

cylinder and steel as inner cylinder. It is subjected to

temperature rise of 20C and

acopper > asteel. The stress developed in tubes will be

(a) compression in steel and

tension in copper

(b) tension in steel and compression in copper

(c) no stress in both

(d) tension in both materials Ans: (b)

Q24. The magnitude of only shear stress acting at a plane

stress situation is 7.5 N/mm2.

The magnitude of principle stresses will be

(a) +15 N/mm2 and 7.5 N/mm2

(b) +7.5 N/mm2 and 15 N/mm2

(c) +7.5 N/mm2 and 7.5 N/mm2 (d) +10 N/mm2 and 7.5 N/mm2 Ans: (c) Q25. The state of two-

dimensional stresses acting on a

concrete lamina consists of a direct tensile stress, sx = 1.5

N/mm2 and shear stress, t =

1.20 N/mm2, which cause cracking of concrete. Then the

tensile strength of concrete in

N/mm2 is (a) 1.50

(b) 2.08

(c) 2.17

(d) 2.29 ANS: (C)

Q26. A cantilever beam curved in plan and subjected to lateral

loads will develop at any section.

(a) BM and SF (b) BM and twisting moment

(c) Twisting moment and SF

(d) BM, twisting moment and SF Ans: (d)

Q27. Pick the incorrect

statement from the following four statements.

(a) On the plane which carries

maximum normal stress, the shear stress is zero

(b) Principal planes are mutually

orthogonal (c) On the plane which carries

maximum shear stress, the

normal stress is zero

(d) The principal stress axes and principal strain axes coincide for

an isotropic material Ans: (c)

Q28. If the principal stresses in a

2-D case are 10 mPa and 20 mPa respectively, then maximum

shear stress at the point is MPa

(a) 10 mPa (b) 15 mPa

(c) 20 mPa

(d) 30 mPa Ans: (b)

Q29. The maximum bending

stress induced in a steel wire of modulus of elasticity 200 kN/m2

and diameter 1 mm when wound

on a drum of diameter 1 m is approximately equal to

(a) 50 N/mm2

(b) 100 N/mm2 (c) 200 N/mm2

(d) 400 N/mm2 Ans: (c) Q30. For a given SF across a

symmetrical I section, the

intensity of shear stress is maximum at the

(a) extreme fibres

(b) centroid of the section (c) at the junction of the flange

and the web, but on the web

(d) at the junction of the flange and the web, but on the flange Ans: (b) Q31. In a section, shear centre is

a point through which, if the

resultant load passes, the section

will be subjected to any (a) bending

(b) tension

(c) compression (d) torsion Ans: (d) Q32. The components of strain

tensor at a point in the plane

strain case can be obtained by measuring longitudinal strain in

the following directions:

(a) along any two arbitrary

directions

(b) along any three arbitrary

directions (c) along two mutually orthogonal

directions

(d) along any arbitrary direction Ans: (b)

Q33. The symmetry of stress

tensor at a point in the body under equilibrium is obtained

from

(a) conservation of mass (b) force equilibrium equations

(c) moment equilibrium

equations (d) conservation of energy Ans: (c) Q34. If a beam of rectangular

cross section is subjected to a

vertical shear force V, the shear

force carried by the upper one-third of the cross section is

(a) 0

(b) 7V/27 (c) 8V/27

(d) V/3 Ans: (c)

Q35. A cantilever beam of span L

is subjected to a downward load of 800 kN uniformly distributed

over its length and a

concentrated upward load P at

its free end. For vertical displacement to be zero at the

free end, the value of P is

(a) 300 kN (b) 500 kN

(c) 800 kN

(d) 1000 kN Ans: (a)

Q36. A kern area of a solid circular section column of

diameter D is a concentric circle

of diameter d equal to (a) D 8

(b) D 6

(c) D 4

(d) D 2 Ans: (a)

Q37. The axial load carrying capacity of a long column of

given material of cross sectional

area A and length l is governed by

(a) strength of its material only

(b) its flexural rigidity only (c) its slenderness ratio only

(d) both slenderness ratio and

flexural rigidity Ans: (d)

Q38. The Fixed End Moment

(FEM) of a uniform beam of span l and fixed at its ends subjected

to a central point load P is

(a) Pl 2 (b) Pl 8

(c) P 8

(d) p 16 Ans: (b)

Q39. A beam fixed at the ends

and subjected to lateral loads only is statically indeterminate

and degree of indeterminacy is

(a) 1 (b) 2

(c) 3

(d) 4 Ans: (b)

Q40. For linear elastic systems,

the type of displacement function for the strain energy is

(a) linear

(b) quadratic (c) cubic

(d) quartic Ans: (b)

Q41. For a linear elastic

structural system, minimization of potential energy yields

(a) compactibility conditions

(b) constitutive relation

(c) equilibrium equation (d) strain displacement relation Ans: (a) Q42. Ratio of stiffness of a beam

at the near end when the far end

is hinged to the stiffness of the beam at the near end when the

far end is fixed is

(a) 1/2 (b) 3/4

(c) 1

(d) 4/3 Ans: (b)

Q43. The plastic modulus of a

section is 4.8 104 m3. The shape factor is 1.2. The plastic

moment capacity of section is

120 kNm. The yield stress of the material is

(a) 100 mPa

(b) 240 mPa (c) 250 mPa

(d) 300 mPa Ans: (c)

Q44. A three hinged parabolic

arch ABC has a span of 20 m

and a central rise of 4 m. The arch has hinges at the ends and

at the corner. A train of two point

loads of 20 kN and 10 kN, 5 m apart crosses this arch from left

to right, with 20 kN load leading.

The maximum thrust induced at support 5 is

(a) 25 kN

(b) 28.13 kN

(c) 31.25 kN (d) 32.81 kN Ans: (c) Q45. If the characterisitc

strength of concrete fck is defined

as the strength below which not more than 50% of the test results

are expected to fall the

expression for fck in terms of mean strength fm and standard

deviation S would be

(a) fm 0.1645S

(b) fm 1.645S (c) fm

(d) fm + 1.645S Ans: (d)

Q46. A reinforced concrete

structure has to be constructed along a sea coast. The minimum

grade of concrete to be used as

per IS: 456-2000 is (a) M 15

(b) M 20

(c) M 25

(d) M 30 Ans: (d)

Q47. In the design of a reinforced concrete beam the requirement

for bond is not getting satisfied.

The economical option to satisfy the requirement for bond is by

(a) bundling of bars

(b) providing smaller diameter bars more in number

(c) providing larger diameter bars

less in number (d) providing same diameter bars

more in number Ans: (b) Q48. Assuming concrete below

the neutral axis to be cracked,

the shear stress across the depth of a singly-reinforce rectangular

beam section

(a) increases parabolically to the neutral axis and then drops

suddenly to zero value

(b) increases parabolically to the neutral axis and then remains

constant over the remaining

depth

(c) increases linearly to the

neutral axis and then remains constant up to the tension steel

(d) increases parabolically to the

neutral axis and then remains constant up to the tension steel Ans: (d)

Q49. Consider the following statements: I. Modulus of

elasticity of concrete increases

with increase in compressive strength of concrete. II.

Brittleness of concrete increases

with decrease in compressive strength of concrete. III. Shear

strength of concrete increases

with increase in compressive strength of concrete. The TRUE

statements are

(a) II and III

(b) I, II and III (c) I and II

(d) I and III Ans: (b)

Q50. Un-factored maximum

bending moments at a section of a reinforced concrete beam

resulting from a frame analysis

are 50, 80, 120 and 180 kNm under dead, live, wind and

earthquake loads respectively.

The design moment (kNm) as per

IS: 456-2000 for the limit state of collapse (flexure) is

(a) 195

(b) 250 (c) 345

(d) 372 Ans: (b)

Q51. A pre-tensioned concrete

member of section 200 mm 250 mm contains tendons of area 500

mm2 at the centre of gravity of

the section. The pre-stress in tendons is 1000 N/mm2.

Assuming modular ratio as 10,

the stress (N/mm2) in concrete is

(a) 11 (b) 9

(c) 7

(d) 5 Ans: (d)

Q52. In the theory of plastic bending of beams, the ratio of

plastic moment to yield moment

is called (a) shape factor

(b) plastic section modulus

(c) modulus of resilience

(d) rigidity modulus Ans: (d)

Q53. For limit state of collapse, the partial safety factors

recommended by IS 456: 2000

for estimating the design strength of concrete and

reinforcing steel are respectively

(a) 1.15 and 1.5

(b) 1.0 and 1.0 (c) 1.5 and 1.15

(d) 1.5 and 1.0 Ans: (c)

Q54. Column I gives a list of test

methods for evaluating properties of concrete and Column II gives

the list of properties: Column I

Column II P. Resonant frequency 1. Tensile strength test Q.

Rebound hammer test

2. Dynamic modulus of elasticity

R. Split cylinder test 3. Workability S. Compacting

factor test

4. Compressive strength The correct match of the test with the

property is

(a) P-2, Q-4, R-1, S-3 (b) P-2, Q-1, R-4, S-3

(c) P-2, Q-4, R-3, S-1

(d) P-4, Q-3, R-1, S-2 ANS: (C)

Q55. As per India standard code

of practice for pre-stressed concrete (IS: 1343-1980) the

minimum grades of concrete to

be used for post-tensioned and pre-tensioned structural

elements are respectively

(a) M20 for both (b) M40 and M30

(c) M15 and M20

(d) M30 and M40 Ans: (a)

Q56. Which one of the following is categorised as a long-term loss

of pre-stress in a pre-stressed

concrete member?

(a) Loss due to elastic shortening (b) Loss due to friction

(c) Loss due to relaxation of

strands (d) Loss due to anchorage slip Ans: (d) Q57. The loads carried (using the

elastic theory) by the longitudinal

steel and the net area of concrete, are Ps and Pc

respectively. The ration s c P P

expressed as per cent is

(a) 0.1

(b) 1 (c) 1.1

(d) 10 Ans: (d)

Q58. Modulus of elasticity of

concrete mix M25 is

(a) 25000 N/mm2 (b) 28500 N/mm2

(c) 15000 N/mm2

(d) 5100 N/mm2 Ans: (a)

Q59. The minimum area of tension reinforcement in a beam

shall be greater than

(a) 0.85 bd /fy (b) 0.87 fy /bd

(c) 0.04 bd

(d) 0.4 bd/ y Ans: (a)

Q60. The permissible bending

stress in concrete for the vertical wall of an R.C. water tank made

of M25 concrete is

(a) 8.5 N/mm2 (b) 6 N/mm2

(c) 2.5 N/mm2

(d) 1.8 N/mm2 Ans: (c)

Q61. Maximum strain in extreme

fibre of concrete and in tension reinforcement (Fe415 and E5 =

200 kN/mm2) in a balanced

section at limit state of flexure are respectively

(a) 0.0035, 0.0038

(b) 0.002, 0.0018 (c) 0.0035, 0.0041

(d) 0.002, 0.0031 Ans: (a)

Q62. An RC square footing of

side length 2 m and uniform effective depth 200 mm is

provided for 300 mm 300 mm

column. The line of action of the

vertical compressive load passes through the centroid of the

footing as well as of the column.

If the magnitude of the load is 320 kN, the nominal transverse

(one way) shear stress in footing

is (a) 0.26 N/mm2

(b) 0.3 N/mm2

(c) 0.34 N/mm2 (d) 0.75 N/mm2 Ans: (a)

Q63. A prestressed concrete rectangular beam of size 300 mm

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900 mm is prestressed with an

initial prestressing force of 700 kN at an eccentricity of 350 mm

at mid-span. Stress at top due to

prestress alone, in N/mm2 is (a) 3.46 (tension)

(b) 2.59 (compression)

(c) 0

(d) 8.64 (compression) Ans: (a)

Q64. IS 456: 2000 recommends to provide certain minimum steel

in RCC beam

(a) to ensure compressive failure (b) to avoid rupture of steel in

case a flexural failure occurs

(c) to hold the stirrup steel in position

(d) to provide enough ductility to

beam Ans: (d)

Q65. The effective length of a

circular electric pole of length L and constant diameter erected on

ground is

(a) 0.8 L (b) 1.2 L

(c) 1.5 L

(d) 2 L Ans: (d)

Q66. M10 grade of concrete

approximates (a) 1: 3: 6 mix

(b) 1: 1: 2 mix

(c) 1: 2: 4 mix (d) 1: 1.5: 3 mix Ans: (a) Q67. The risk of segregation is

more for

(a) wetter mix (b) larger proportion of maximum

size aggregate

(c) coarser grading (d) all the above. Ans: (d)

Q68. Permissible compressive strength of M 300 concrete grade

is

(a) 100 kg/cm2 (b) 150 kg/cm2

(c) 200 kg/cm2

(d) 300 kg/cm2 Ans: (d)

Q69. An aggregate is said to be flaky if its least dimension is less

than

(a) 1/5th of mean dimension

(b) 2/5th of mean dimension (c) 3/5th of mean dimension

(d) 4/5th of mean dimension

Ans: (c)

Q70. The process of proper and

accurate measurement of concrete ingredients for

uniformity of proportion, is

known

(a) grading (b) curing

(c) mixing

(d) batching Ans: (d)

Q71. The preliminary test is repeated if the difference of

compressive strength of three

test specimens, exceeds (a) 5 kg/cm2

(b) 8 kg/cm2

(c) 10 kg/cm2

(d) 15kg/cm2 Ans: (d)

Q72. Vicat's apparatus is used for

(a) fineness test

(b) consistency test (c) setting time test

(d) soundness test Ans: (b)

Q73. Workability of concrete is

measured by

(a) Vicat apparatus test (b) Slump test

(c) Minimum void method

(d) Talbot Richard test. Ans: (b)

Q74. Shrinkage in concrete can be reduced by using

(a) low water cement ratio

(b) less cement in the concrete (c) proper concrete mix

(d) all the above. Ans: (d)

Q75. For construction of

structures in sea water, the

cement generally preferred to, is (a) Portland-pozzolana cement

(b) quick setting cement

(c) low heat Portland cement (d) rapid hardening cement Ans: (a) Q76. An aggregate is said to be

flaky, if its least dimension is less

than (a) 2/3 mean dimension

(b) 3/4 mean dimension

(c) 3/5 mean dimension

(d) 5/8 mean dimension Ans: (c)

Q77. Segregation is responsible for

(a) honey-combed concrete

(b) porous layers in concrete (c) surface scaling in concrete

(d) all the above. Ans: (d) Q78. Efflorescence in cement is

caused due to an excess of

(a) alumina (b) iron oxide

(c) silica

(d) alkalis Ans: (d)

Q79. Separation of water or water sand cement from a freshly

concrete, is known

(a) bleeding

(b) creeping (c) segregation

(d) flooding Ans: (a)

Q80. According to Water-Cement

Ratio Law, the strength of workable plastic concrete

(a) depends upon the amount of

water used in the mix (b) does not depend upon the

quality of cement mixed with

aggregates

(c) does not depend upon the quanity of cement mixed with

aggregates

(d) all the above. Ans: (d)

Q81. Workability of concrete mix with low water cement ratio is

determined by

(a) tensile strength test (b) slump test

(c) compaction factor test

(d) flexural strength test Ans: (c)

Q82. If fineness modulus of sand

is 2.5, it is graded as (a) very fine sand

(b) fine sand

(c) medium sand (d) coarse sand Ans: (b) Q83. Sand requiring a high

water cement ratio, belongs to

(a) Zone I (b) Zone II

(c) Zone III

(d) Zone IV. Ans: (a)

Q84. The entrained air in

concrete (a) increases workability

(b) decreases workability

(c) decreases resistance to weathering

(d) increases strength Ans: (a) Q85. If P, Y and Z are the

weights of cement, fine

aggregates and coarse aggregates respetively and W/C is the water

cement ratio, the minimum

quantity of water to be added to first batch, is obtained by the

equation

(a) 0.1P + 0.3Y + 0.1Z = W/C x P (b) 0.3P + 0.1Y + 0.01Z = W/C x

P

(c) 0.4P + 0.2Y + 0.01Z = W/C x P

(d) 0.5P + 0.3Y + 0.01Z = W/C x P Ans: (b) Q86. The concrete mix which

causes difficulty in obtaining a

smooth finish, possess (a) segregation

(b) internal friction

(c) hardness (d) bleeding ANS: (C)

Q87. A steel column, pinned at both ends, has a buckling load of

200 kN. If the column is

restrained against lateral movement at its mid-height, its

buckling load will be

(a) 200 kN (b) 283 kN

(c) 400 kN

(d) 800 kN Ans: (d)

Q88. A mild steel specimen is under uni-axial tensile stress.

Youngs modulus and yield stress

for mild steel are 2 105 MPa

respectively. The maximum amount of strain energy per unit

volume that can be stored in this

specimen without permanent set is

(a) 156 Nmm/mm3

(b) 15.6 Nmm/mm3 (c) 1.56 Nmm/mm3

(d) 0.156 Nmm/mm3 Ans: (d)

Q89. A 16 mm thick plate

measuring 650 mm 420 mm is

used as a base plate for an ISHB 300 column subjected to a

factored axial compressive load of

2000 kN. As per IS: 456-2000, the minimum grade of concrete

that should be used below the

base plate for safely carrying the load is

(a) M15

(b) M20

(c) M30 (d) M40 Ans: (b) Q90. The cross-section of a

thermo-mechanically treated

(TMT) reinforcing bar has (a) soft ferrite-pearlite throughout

(b) hard martensite throughout

(c) a soft ferrite-pearlite core with a hard martensitic rim

(d) a hard martensitic core with a

soft pearlite-bainitic rim Ans: (c)

Q91. In a steel plate with bolted

connections, the rupture of the net section is a mode of failure

under

(a) tension (b) compression

(c) flexure

(d) shear Ans: (a)

Q92. Rivet value is defined as

(a) lesser of the bearing strength of rivet and the shearing strength

of the rivet

(b) lesser of the bearing strength of rivet and the tearing strength

of the thinner plate

(c) greater of the bearing strength of rivet and the shearing strength

of the rivet

(d) lesser of the shearing strength of rivet and the tearing strength

of the thinner plate Ans: (a)

Q93. Two equal angles ISA 100

mm 100 mm of thickness 10

mm are placed back to back and connected to either side of the

gusset plate through a single row

of 16 mm diameter rivet in double shear. The effective areas

of the connected and

unconnected legs of each of the angles is 775 mm2 and 950 mm2

respectively. If the angles are

NOT back riveted, the net effective area of the pair of angle

is

(a) 3650 mm2

(b) 3450 mm2 (c) 3076 mm2

(d) 2899 mm2

Ans: (d)

Q94. An ISMB 500 is used as a

beam in a multi-storey construction. From the viewpoint

of structural design, it can be

considered to be laterally

restrained when (a) the tension flange is laterally

restrained

(b) the compression flange is laterally restrained

(c) the web is adequately stiffened

(d) the conditions in Ans: (b)

Q95. In the design of lacing system for a built up steel

column, the maximum allowable

slenderness ratio in lacing bar is

(a) 120 (b) 145

(c) 180

(d) 250 Ans: (b)

Q96. A square steel slab of area 1 m2 is provided for a column

made of two channel sections.

The 300 mm 300 mm column carries an axial compression load

of 2000 kN. The line of action of

load passes through the centroid

of the column section as well as the slab base. The permissible

bending stress in slab base is

185 mPa. The required minimum thickness of slab base is

(a) 1100 mm

(b) 89 mm (c) 63 mm

(d) 55 mm Ans: (d)

Q97. A strut in a steel truss is

composed of two equal angles ISA 150 mm 150 mm of

thickness 100 mm connected

back to back to the same side of

gusset plate. The cross sectional area of each angle is 2921 mm2

and moment of inertia (IXX = IYY)

is 6335000 mm4. The distance of the centroid of the angle from its

surface (CX = CY) is 40.8 mm.

The minimum radius of gyration of strut is

(a) 93.2 mm

(b) 62.7 mm (c) 46.6 mm

(d) 29.8 mm ANS: (C)

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Q98. Allowable average shear stress in an unstiffened web for

beams made of steel of grade 250

N/mm2 is _____Nmm2 (a) 250 N/mm2

(b) 165 N/mm2

(c) 150 N/mm2

(d) 100 N/mm2 Ans: (d)

Q99. According to IS: 800 - 71, the minimum thickness of a

vertically stiffened web plate,

shall not be less than (a) 85 /d

(b) 200/ d

(c) 225/ d (d) 250/ d Ans: (d)

Q100. Slenderness ratio of a compression member is

(a) Moments of inertia Radius of

gyration (b) Effective length Area of cross-

section

(c) Radius of gyration Effective length

(d) Radius of gyration Area of

cross-section ANS: (C)

Q101. The most economical

section for a column, is (a) Rectangular

(b) solid round

(c) flat strip (d) tubular section Ans: (d) Q102. When a tension member

is made of four angles with a

plate as a web, the allowance for holes is made as

(a) two holes for each angle and

one hole for the web (b) one hole for each angle and

one hole for the web

(c) one hole for each angle and

two holes for the web (d) two holes for each angle and

two holes for the web Ans: (c)

Q103. The failure of a web plate

takes place by yielding if the ratio of the clear depth to thickness of

the web, is less than

(a) 45 (b) 55

(c) 60

(d) 82 Ans: (d)

Q104. The maximum permissible

slenderness ratio of a member carrying loads resulting from

wind, is

(a) 180 (b) 200

(c) 250

(d) 300 Ans: (c)

Q105. If d is the distance

between the flange angles, the vertical stiffeners in plate girders

are spaced not greater than

(a) d (b) 1.25 d

(c) 1.5 d

(d) 1.75 d ANS: (C)

Q106. For a rectangular section,

the ratio of the maximum and average shear stresses, is

(a) 1.5

(b) 2.0 (c) 2.5

(d) 3.0 Ans: (a)

Q107. The thickness t of a single

flat lacing should not be less than

(a) 1/30 th length between inner

end rivets

(b) 1/40 th length between inner end rivets

(c) 1/50 th length between inner

end rivets (d) 1/60 th length between inner

end rivets Ans: (b)

Q108. The minimum pitch of

rivet holes of diameter d should not be less than

(a) d

(b) 1.25 d (c) 1.5 d

(d) 2.5 d Ans: (d) Q109. Number of rivets required

in a joint, is

(a) load/ shear strength of a rivet (b) load/ bearing strength of a

rivet

(c) load/ tearing strength of a rivet

(d) load/ rivet value Ans: (d)

Q110. If d is the distance

between the flange angles, the

vertical stiffeners in plate girders without horizontal stiffeners, are

spaced at a distance not less

than (a) 0.15 d

(b) 0.22 d

(c) 0.33 d (d) 0.44 d Ans: (c)

Q111. In double lacing, the thickness t of flat lacing is

(a) t < 1/40 th length between

inner end rivets (b) t < 1/50 th length between

inner end rivets

(c) t < 1/60 th length between inner end rivets

(d) t < 1/70 th length between

inner end rivets Ans: (c)

Q112. The distance between the

outer faces of flanges of a plate girder, is known as

(a) overall depth

(b) clear depth (c) effective depth

(d) none of these. Ans: (a)

Q113. Effective sectional area of

a compression member is: (a) gross sectional area - area of

rivet hole

(b) gross sectional areas + area of

rivet hole (c) gross sectional areas area of

rivet hole

(d) gross sectional areas + area of rivet hole. Ans: (a) Q114. Factor of safety is the

ratio of

(a) yield stress to working stress (b) tensile stress to working

stress

(c) compressive stress to working stress

(d) bearing stress to working

stress Ans: (a)

Q115. Deposit with flocculated

structure is formed when (a) Clay particles settle on sea

bed

(b) Clay particles settle on fresh water lake bed

(c) Sand particles settle on river

bed (d) Sand particles settle on sea

bed Ans: (b)

Q116. Sieve analysis on a dry

soil sample of mass 1000 g showed that 980 g and 270 g of

soil pass through 4.75 mm and

0.075 mm sieve, respectively. The liquid limit and plastic limits of

the soil fraction passing through

425P sieves are 40% and 18%

respectively. The soil may be classified as

(a) SC

(b) MI (c) CI

(d) SM Ans: (a)

Q117. Group symbols assigned

to silty sand clayey sand are respectively

(a) SS and CS

(b) SM and CS

(c) SM and SC (d) MS and CS Ans: (c) Q118. The range of void ratio

between which quick sand

conditions occurs in cohesion less granular soil deposits is

(a) 0.4-0.5

(b) 0.6 0.7 (c) 0.8-0.9

(d) 1.0-1.1 Ans: (b) Q119. To provide safety against

piping failure, with a factor of

safety of 5, what should be he maximum permissible exit

gradient for soil with specific

gravity of 2.5 and porosity of 0.35?

(a) 0.155

(b) 0.176 (c) 0.195

(d) 0.213 ANS: (C)

Q120. Quick sand condition

occurs when

(a) The void ratio of the soil becomes 1.0

(b) The upward seepage pressure

in soil becomes zero (c) The upward seepage pressure

in soil becomes equal to the

saturated unit weight of the soil. (d) The upward seepage pressure

in soil becomes equal to the

submerged unit weight of the soil. Ans: (d)

Q121. For a saturated sand deposit, the void ratio and the

specific gravity of solids are 0.70

and 2.67, respectively. The critical (upward) hydraulic

gradient for the deposit would we

(a) 0.54 (b) 0.98

(c) 1.02

(d) 1.87 Ans: (b)

Q122. Compaction by vibratory

roller is the best method of compaction is case of

(a) moist silty sand

(b) well graded dry sand (c) clay of medium

compressibility

(d) silt of high compressibility Ans: (b)

Q123. The following statements

were made on a compacted soil, where DS stands for soil

compaction on dry side of OMC,

and WS stands for soil compaction on wet side of OMC.

Identify the incorrect statement.

(a) Soil structure is floculated on DS and dispersed on WS.

(b) Construction of pore water

pressure is low on DS and high on DS

(c) Soil is drying, shrinkage is

high on DS and low on WS

(d) On addition of water, swelling is high on DS and low on WS. Ans: (d) Q124. Ratio of saturated unit

weight to dry unit weight of soil

is 1.25. If the specific gravity of solids (G) = 2.65, the void ratio of

soil is

(a) 0.625 (b) 0.663

(c) 0.944

(d) 1.325 Ans: (b)

Q125. A soil sample has water

content 20% and wet unit weight 20 kN/m3. The void ratio of soil

is (G = 2.7)

(a) 1.667 (b) 16.67

(c) 1.62

(d) 0.162 Ans: (c)

Q126. A soil sample has natural void ratio of 0.8. The maximum

void ratio is 1.6 and minimum

void ratio is 0.54. Find the

relative density of the sample. (a) 100%

(b) 75.47%

(c) 76.67% (d) 81.47% Ans: (b) Q127. A soil sample has D10 =

0.15, D30 = 0.54 and D60 =

1.45. What is the coefficient of

curvature of the soil? (a) 0.34

(b) 8.45

(c) 9.67 (d) 1.34 Ans: (d) Q128. A soil mass contains 40%

gravel, 50% sand and 10% silt.

The soil can be classified as (a) silty sandy gravel having Cu <

60

(b) silty gravelly sand having Cu

= 10 (c) gravelly silty sand having Cu >

60

(d) gravelly silty sand and its Cu cannot be determined

Ans: (c) Q129. If the moisture content of

fully saturated soil is 100%, then

void ratio is equal to (a) half of specific gravity

(b) twice specific gravity

(c) mass specific gravity

(d) true specific gravity Ans: (d)

Q130. The water content of fully saturated clayey soil depends

upon

(a) OMC (b) WP

(c) WS

(d) void ratio Ans: (d)

Q131. A sheet of water of thickness 1 m is available to fill

the voids of a cohesionless soil to

a degree of saturation 50%. The

soil has void ratio 0.5. The thickness of soil layer required to

accommodate the amount of

water is (a) 3 m

(b) 3.25 m

(c) 3.75 m (d) 4 m Ans: (c) Q132. In a pycnometer

experiment, specific gravity of

sandy soil is reported as 2.2. The

reason for this is (a) presence of iron

(b) addition of defloculating agent

(c) non-addition of defloculating agent

(d) non-elimination of air Ans: (d)

Q133. A borrow pit of soil has

dry density of 17 kN/m3. How

many cubic meters of soil will be required to construct an

embarkment of 100 m3 volume

with dry density of 16 kN/m3. (a) 94 m3

(b) 106 m3

(c) 100 m3 (d) 90 m3 Ans: (a) Q134. The ratio of saturated unit

weight to dry unit weight of soil

is 1.25. If the specific gravity of

solids (Gs) is 2.56, the void ratio of soil is

(a) 0.625

(b) 0.663 (c) 0.944

(d) 1.325 Ans: (b)

Q135. Clay is said to be float

when WC is (a) less than 10%

(b) 10 to 30%

(c) more than 50%

(d) 100% Ans: (c)

Q136. Ans: (b)

Q137. A soil deposit of 3 layers of equal thickness and

permeabilities in the ratio 1: 2: 3.

What is the ratio of average permeability in horizontal to

vertical direction?

(a) 11/9 (b) 9/11

(c) 18/11

(d) 11/18 Ans: (a)

Q138. Specific yield of an

unconfined aquifer is (a) independent of porosity

(b) less than porosity

(c) greater than porosity (d) equal to porosity Ans: (b) Q139. The phreatic line of

homogeneous dam is of which

shape?

(a) Circular (b) Elliptical

(c) Hyperbolic

(d) Parabolic Ans: (d)

Q140. For a fully saturated soil, pore pressure parameter B is

(a) 0

(b) 1

(c) 2 (d) 0.5 Ans: (b) Q141. The specific gravity and

in-situ void ratio of a soil deposit

are 2.71 and 0.85 respectively. The value of critical hydraulic

gradient is

(a) 0.82 (b) 0.85

(c) 0.92

(d) 0.95 Ans: (c)

Q142. The critical gradient of soil

increases with (a) increase in void ratio

(b) decrease in specific gravity

(c) decrease in void ratio (d) none of these Ans: (c) Q143. The time for a clay layer to

achieve 85% consolidation is 10

years. If the layer was half as

thick, 10 times more permeable and 4 times more compressible

then the time that would be

required to achieve the same degree of consolidation is

(a) 1 year

(b) 5 years (c) 12 years

(d) 16 years Ans: (a)

Q144. Clay behaves like dense

sand when it is (a) unconsolidated clay

(b) over consolidated clay

(c) over consolidated clay with

low value of over consolidation ratio

(d) over consolidated clay with

high value of over consolidation ratio Ans: (d) Q145. The quantity of seepage of

water through soils is

proportional to (a) coefficient of permeability of

soil

(b) total head loss through the

soil (c) neither

(a) nor

Ans: (d)

Q146. The undrained cohesion of

a remoulded clay is 10 kN/m2. If the sensitivity of the clay is 20,

the corresponding remoulded

compressive strength is

(a) 5 kN/m2 (b) 10 kN/m2

(c) 20 kN/m2

(d) 200 kN/m2 Ans: (c)

Q147. If the effective stress strength parameters of a soil are

c' = 10 kPa and I' = 30, the

shear strength on a plane within the saturated soil mass at a point

where the total normal stress is

300 kPa and pore water pressure

is 150 kPa will be (a) 90.5 kPa

(b) 96.6 kPa

(c) 101.5 kPa (d) 105.5 kPa

Ans: (b) Q148. An unsupported

excavation is made to the

maximum possible depth in a clay soil having J t = 18 kN/m3, c

= 100 kN/m2, I = 30. The active

Earth pressure, according to

Rankines theory, at the base level of the excavation is

(a) 115.47 kN/m2

(b) 54.36 kN/m2 (c) 27.18 kN/m2

(d) 13 kN/m2 Ans: (a)

Q149. A clayey soil has

maximum dry density of 16 kN/m3 and optimum moisture

content of 12%. A contractor

during the construction of core of an earth dam obtained the dry

density 15.2 kN/m3 and water

content 11%. The construction is

acceptable because (a) the density is less than the

maximum dry density and water

content is on the dry side of optimum

(b) the compaction density is very

low and water content is less than 12%

(c) compaction is done on dry

side of optimum (d) both the dry density and

water content of the compacted

soil are within the desirable

limits Ans: (d)

Q150. The maximum value of effective stress in the past

divided by the present value is

defined as over consolidation ratio (OCR). The O.C.R. of an

over consolidated clay is

(a) less than 1

(b) 1 (c) more than 1

(d) None of these. Ans: (c)

Q151. Factor of safety against

sliding of a slope, is the ratio of (a) actual cohesion to that

required to maintain stability of

slope (b) shear strength to shear stress

along the surface

(c) neither

(a) nor Ans: (d)

Q152. The water content of soil is defined as the ratio of

(a) volume of water to volume of

given soil (b) volume of water to volume of

voids in soil

(c) weight of water to weight of air in voids

(d) weight of water to weight of

solids of given mass of soil. Ans: (d)

Q153. Stoke's law states that the

velocity at which a grain settles out of suspension, the other

factors remaining constant, is

dependent upon (a) shape of grain

(b) weight of grain

(c) shape and size of grain (d) shape, size and weight of

grain. Ans: (d)

Q154. Back fill with a sloping

surface exerts a total active

pressure Pa on the wall of heightH and acts at

(a) H/4 above the base parallel to

base (b) H/2 above the base parallel to

base

(c) H/3 above the base parallel to base

(d) H/5 above the base parallel to

base. ANS: (C)

Q155. The ratio of the weight of

given volume of soil solids to the weight of an equal volume of

distilled water at the given

temperature, is known (a) Porosity

(b) specific gravity

(c) void ratio (d) water content. ANS: (C)

Q156. The liquidity index is defined as a ratio expressed as

percentage of

(a) plastic limit minus the natural water content, to its

plasticity index

(b) natural water content minus its plastic limit to its plasticity

index

(c) natural water content plus its plastic limit to its plasticity index

(d) liquid limit minus the natural

water content to the plasticity

index. Ans: (b)

Q157. A coarse-grained soil has a voids ratio 0.75, and specific

gravity as 2.75. The critical

gradient at which quick sand condition occurs, is

(a) 0.25

(b) 0.50 (c) 0.75

(d) 1.00 Ans: (d) Q158. The weight of a

pycnometer containing 400 g

sand and water full to the top is 2150 g. The weight of

pycnometer full of clean water is

1950 g. If specific gravity of the soil is 2.5, the water content is

(a) 5%

(b) 10% (c) 15%

(d) 20% Ans: (d)

Q159. For determining the

moisture content of a soil

sample, the following data is available Weight of container =

260 g, Weight of soil sample and

= 320 g container, Weight of soil sample (dried) and = 310 g

container. The moisture content

of the soil sample, is (a) 15%

(b) 18%

(c) 20% (d) 25% ANS: (C)

Q160. Buoyant unit weight equals the saturated density

(a) multiplied by unit weight of

water (b) divided by unit weight of

water

(c) plus unit weight of water (d) minus unit weight of water. Ans: (d)

Q161. A compacted soil sample using 10% moisture content has

a weight of 200 g and mass unit

weight of 2.0 g/cm3. If the specific gravity of soil particles

and water are 2.7 and 1.0, the

degree of saturation of the soil is (a) 11.1%

(b) 55.6%

(c) 69.6% (d) none of these. Ans: (c)

Q162. A partially saturated sample of soil has a unit weight

of 2.0 g/cm3 and specific gravity

of soil particles is 2.6. If the moisture content in the soil is

20%, the degree of saturation is

(a) 20% (b) 77%

(c) 93%

(d) none of these. Ans: (a)

Q163. Degree of saturation of a

natural soil deposit having water content 15%, specific gravity

2.50 and void ratio 0.5, is

(a) 50% (b) 60%

(c) 75%

(d) 80% Ans: (c)

Q164. As per the Laceys method for design of alluvial channels,

identify the true statement from

the following. (a) Wetted perimeter increases

with an increase in design

discharge

(b) Hydraulic radius increases with an increase in silt factor

(c) Wetted perimeter decreases

with an increase in design discharge

(d) Wetted perimeter increases

with an increase in silt factor Ans: (a)

Q165. Direct step method of computation for gradually varied

flow is

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(a) applicable to non-prismatic

channels (b) applicable to prismatic

channels

(c) applicable to both prismatic and non-prismatic channels

(d) not applicable to both

prismatic and non-prismatic

channels Ans: (b)

Q166. The flow in a rectangular channel is sub-critical. If width of

the channel is reduced at a

certain section, the water surface under no-choke condition will

(a) drop at a downstream section

(b) rise at a downstream section (c) rise at an downstream section

(d) not undergo any change Ans: (c) Q167. For a given discharge, the

critical flow depth in an open

channel depends on (a) channel geometry only

(b) channel geometry and bed

slope (c) channel geometry, bed slope

and roughness

(d) channel geometry, bed slope, roughness and Reynolds number Ans: (a)

Q168. The flow in a horizontal, frictionless rectangular open

channel is supercritical. A

smooth hump is built on the channel floor. As the height of

hump is increased, choked

condition is attained. With further increase in the height of

the hump, the water surface will

(a) rise at a section upstream of the hump

(b) drop at a section upstream of

the hump (c) drop at the hump

(d) rise at the hump Ans: (a) Q169. Cavitation is caused by

(a) high velocity

(b) low pressure (c) high pressure

(d) high temperature Ans: (b)

Q170. Surface tension is due to

(a) cohesion and adhesion (b) cohesion only

(c) adhesion only

(d) none of the above Ans: (b)

Q171. Continuum approach in

fluid mechanics is valid when (a) the compressibility is very

high

(b) the viscosity is low (c) the mean free path of the

molecule is much smaller

compared to the characteristic

dimension (d) M >> 1, where M is the Mach

number Ans: (c)

Q172. A fluid is one which can

be defined as a substance that (a) has that same shear stress at

all points

(b) can deform indefinitely under the action of the smallest shear

force

(c) has the small shear stress in

all directions (d) is practically incompressible Ans: (b) Q173. Shear stress in the

Newtonian fluid is proportional to

(a) pressure (b) strain

(c) strain rate

(d) the inverse of the viscosity Ans: (c)

Q174. With increase in

temperature, viscosity of fluid (a) does not change

(b) always increases

(c) always decreases (d) increases if fluid is a gas and

decreases if it is a liquid Ans: (d)

Q175. A floating body with its

centre of gravity at G centre if buoyancy at B and metacentre

at m is stable when

(a) G lies above B (b) B lies above M

(c) B lies below M

(d) G lies below M Ans: (d)

Q176. Pitot tube is used to

measure (a) static pressure of a flowing

fluid

(b) dynamic pressure of a flowing fluid

(c) total pressure of a flowing

fluid (d) surface tension pressure of a

flowing fluid Ans: (c)

Q177. Shear stress develops on a

fluid element, if the fluid (a) is at rest

(b) if the container is subjected to

uniform linear acceleration (c) is inviscid

(d) is viscous and the flow is non-

uniform Ans: (d)

Q178. In a static fluid, the

pressure at a point is (a) equal to the weight of the fluid

above

(b) equal in all directions (c) equal in all directions, only if

its viscosity is zero

(d) always directed downwards Ans: (b)

Q179. The centre of pressure of

a liquid on a plane surface immersed vertically in a static

body of liquid, always lies below

the centroid of the surface area, because

(a) in liquids, the pressure acting

is same in all directions (b) there is no shear stress in

liquids at rest

(c) the liquid pressure is constant over depth

(d) the liquid pressure increases

linearly with depth Ans: (d)

Q180. How does viscosity of a

fluid change with increase in temperature?

(a) Increases

(b) Decreases (c) Increases for liquid, decreases

for gas

(d) Increases for gas, decreases for liquid Ans: (c) Q181. The ratio of pressures

between two points at depth 1 m

and 2 m below water is

(a) 1: 1 (b) 1: 2

(c) 1: 4

(d) 1: 2 Ans: (b)

Q182. According to Newtons law of viscosity, shear stress is

(a) inversely proportional to

angular deformation (b) directly proportional to

angular deformation

(c) inversely proportional to rate

of angular deformation

(d) directly proportional to rate of

angular deformation Ans: (d)

Q183. If flow condition satisfies Laplace equation, the

(a) flow is rotational

(b) flow does not satisfy

continuous equation (c) flow is irrotational but does

not satisfy continuity equation

(d) flow is irrotational and satisfies continuity equation Ans: (d) Q184. The continuity equation of

fluids is based on the principle of

(a) conservation of mass (b) conservation of velocity

(c) conservation of energy

(d) conservation of momentum Ans: (a)

Q185. An inert tracer is injected

continuously from a point in an unsteady flow field. The locus of

locations of all the tracer

particles at an instance of time represents

(a) stream line

(b) path line (c) stream tube

(d) streak line Ans: (d) Q186. The Pitot-static tube

measures

(a) static pressure (b) dynamic pressure

(c) difference in static and

dynamic pressures (d) difference in total and static

pressures Ans: (d)

Q187. If the velocity distribution

is rectangular, the kinetic energy correction factor is

(a) greater than zero but less

than unity

(b) less than zero (c) equal to zero

(d) equal to unity Ans: (d)

Q188. The range of co-efficient of

discharge of a venturimeter is (a) 0.5 to 0.6

(b) 0.62 to 0.73

(c) 0.7 to 0.8 (d) 0.95 to 0.99 Ans: (d)

Q189. Bernoullis equation is an equation of

(a) conservation of mass

(b) conservation of linear momentum

(c) conservation of energy

(d) conservation of angular momentum Ans: (c)

Q190. Water flows steadily down in a vertical pipe of constant

cross section. Neglecting friction,

according to Bernoullis equation (a) pressure is constant along the

length of the pipe

(b) velocity decreases with height (c) pressure decreases with

height

(d) pressure increases with height Ans: (d)

Q191. The discharge coefficient, Cd of an orifice metre is

(a) greater than the Cd of a

venturimeter (b) smaller than the Cd of a

venturimeter

(c) equal to the Cd of a venturimeter

(d) greater than one Ans: (b)

Q192. When a steady jet of water

impinges on a stationary inclined

plane surface and if fluid friction is neglected, the resultant force

on the plane

(a) is tangential to the surface (b) is normal to the surface

(c) is in the direction of the jet

flow (d) none of the above Ans: (b) Q193. In a Bernoulli equation,

used in pipe flow, each term

represents (a) energy per unit weight

(b) energy per unit mass

(c) energy per unit volume

(d) energy per unit flow length Ans: (a)

Q194. The friction factor for a turbulent flow in smooth pipes

varies

(a) inversely as Reynolds number (b) directly as Reynolds number

(c) as square of Reynolds number

(d) inversely as 1 th 4 power of Reynolds number Ans: (d)

Q195. The stresses that arise due to fluctuations in the velocity

components in a turbulent flow

are (a) Euler stresses

(b) Limit stresses

(c) Reynolds stresses (d) Principal stresses Ans: (c)

Q196. The prandtl mixing length for turbulent flow through pipes

is

(a) independent of shear stress (b) a universal constant

(c) zero at the pipe wall

(d) independent of radial distance from pipe axis Ans: (a) Q197. In network of pipes

(a) the algebraic sum of discharge

around each circuit is zero

(b) the algebraic sum of (pressure + datum) head drops around

each circuit is zero

(c) the elevation of hydraulic gradient line is assumed for each

junction point

(d) elementary circuits are replaced by equivalent pipes ANS: (C) Q198. The gradient in the

normal direction at the wall of

velocity in a fully developed

turbulent pipe flow is (a) nearly zero

(b) less than the gradient of

velocity in laminar fully developed pipe flow having the

same flow rate

(c) greater than the gradient of the velocity developed pipe flow

having the same flow rate

(d) 1/2 Ans: (a)

Q199. Up to what Reynolds number is Stokes law valid?

(a) 1000

(b) 2000

(c) 1 (d) 5 105

ANS: (C) Q200. Flow separation is likely

to occur when pressure gradient

is (a) positive

(b) zero

(c) negative (d) negative and only when equal

to 0.332 Ans: (a)

Q201. Stream line inside a

boundary layer over a flat plate is (a) parallel

(b) diverge

(c) converge (d) normal to flow direction Ans: (b)

Q202. On an immersed body in a flowing fluid the lift force is

(a) due to buoyant force

(b) always in opposite direction of gravity

(c) due to wake phenomenon

(d) dynamic fluid force component normal to approach

velocity Ans: (a)

Q203. Reciprocating pumps are

used for

(a) High discharge and low head (b) Low discharge and low head

(c) High discharge and high head

(d) Low discharge and high head Ans: (d)

Q204. A hydraulic turbine has a discharge of 5 m3 /s, when

operating under a head of 20 m

with a speed of 500 rpm. If it is to operate under a head of 15 m,

for the same discharge, the

rotational speed in rpm will

approximately be (a) 433

(b) 403

(c) 627 (d) 388 Ans: (a) Q205. Both Reynolds and

Froude numbers assume

significance in one of the following examples.

(a) Motion of submarine at large

depths (b) Motion of ship in deep seas

(c) Cruising of a missile in air

(d) Flow over spillways Ans: (b)

Q206. At a rated capacity of 44

cumecs, a centrifugal pump develops 36 m of head when

operating at 1450 rpm. Its

specific speed is (a) 654

(b) 509

(c) 700 (d) 90 Ans: (a)

Q207. A hydraulic turbine develops a power of 104 metric

horse power while running at a

speed of 100 revolutions per minute, under a head of 40 m.

Its specific speed is nearest to

one of the following. (a) 100

(b) 628

(c) 523

(d) 314 Ans: (a)

Q208. It is most appropriate to

say that uniform flow in an open channel occurs when there is

balance between

(a) gravity and frictional force (b) inertial and frictional force

(c) gravity and inertial force

(d) inertial and viscous force Ans: (a)

Q209. For a pipe of radius r

flowing half full, under action of gravity, the hydraulic depth is

(a) r

(b) r 4 S (c) 2r

(d) 0.379 r Ans: (b)

Q210. The downstream end of a

long prismatic channel of mild slope ends in a pool created by a

dam. The resulting non-uniform

water profile can be described as

(a) M1 profile ending in a hydraulic jump

(b) M1 profile that lies above a

normal depth line (c) M2 profile that lies between

critical and normal depth lines

(d) M3 profile that lies between critical and normal depth lines Ans: (b) Q211. A long prismatic channel

ends in an abrupt drop in bed.

Choose one of the following statements that adequately

explains the water surface profile

on the upstream of the drop, for

an initially subcritical flow. (a) Water surface lies between

critical and normal depth lines

(b) Water surface profile starts from critical depth line and joins

the normal depth line

asymptotically (c) Water surface lies wholly

above normal depth line

(d) Water surface lies wholly below critical depth line Ans: (b)

Q212. The hydraulic jump

always occurs from (a) an M2 curve to an M1 curve

(b) an H3 curve to an H1 curve

(c) below normal depth to above normal depth

(d) below critical depth to above

critical depth Ans: (d)

Q213. In deriving the equation

for the hydraulic jump in a rectangular channel in terms of

the conjugate depths and the

initial Froude number (a) continuity equation and

energy equation are used

(b) continuity equation and momentum equation are used

(c) equations of continuity,

momentum and energy are used

(d) gradually varied flow equation is used Ans: (c) Q214. Flow at critical depth

takes place in an open channel

when (a) for a given specific energy,

discharge is maximum

(b) for a given discharge, specific energy is maximum

(c) discharge is minimum for a

given specific force

(d) discharge is maximum for a given specific force Ans: (a) Q215. A discharge of 1 cumec is

flowing in a rectangular channel

one metre wide at a depth of 20 cm. The bed slope of the channel

is

(a) mild (b) critical

(c) steep

(d) adverse ANS: (C)

Q216. In a lined rectangular

canal, the Froude number of incoming flow is 3.0. A hydraulic

jump forms when it meets the

pool of water. The depth of flow after the jump formation is 1.51

m. Froude number of flow after

the hydraulic jump is (a) 0.30

(b) 0.71

(c) 0.41 (d) None of the above ANS: (C)

Q217. The critical depth at a section of a rectangular channel

http://mocktime.com/state-exams-online-test-series

is 1.5 m. The specific energy at

the section is (a) 0.75 m

(b) 1 m

(c) 1.5 m (d) 2.25 m Ans: (d)

Q218. A flood wave with a known inflow hydrograph is routed

through a large reservoir. The

outflow hydrograph will have (a) attenuated peak with reduced

time-base

(b) attenuated peak with increased time-base

(c) increased peak with increased

time-base (d) increased peak with reduced

time-base Ans: (b) Q219. A watershed got

transformed from rural to urban

over a period of time. The effect of urbanization on storm runoff

hydrograph from the watershed

is to (a) decrease the volume of runoff

(b) increase the time to peak

discharge (c) decrease the time base

(d) decrease the peak discharge Ans: (c) Q220. The ratio of actual

evapotranspiration to potential

evapotranspiration is in the range

(a) 0.0 to 0.4

(b) 0.6 to 0.9 (c) 0.0 to 1.0

(d) 1.0 to 2.0 ANS: (C)

Q221. Standard rain guage

adopted in India is (a) Natural siphon type

(b) Symons rain guage

(c) Tipping bucket type

(d) Weighing type Ans: (a)

Q222. Which of the following rain guages give mass curve?

(a) Natural siphon type

(b) Weighting bucket type (c) Tipping bucket type

(d) Both Ans: (d)

Q223. During a 6-hour storm,

the rainfall intensity was 0.8

cm/hour on a catchment area 8.6 km2. The measured run-off

volume during the period was

2,56,000 m3. The total rainfall was lost due to infilteration,

evaporation and transpiration in

cm/hr is (a) 0.8

(b) 0.304

(c) 0.494

(d) cannot be determined Ans: (b)

Q224. What is the pan co-efficient for an ISI pan used for

measuring evaporation?

(a) 0.8 (b) 0.7

(c) 0.6

(d) 1 Ans: (a)

Q225. The plan area of a

reservior is 1 km2. The water level in the reservior is observed

to decline by 20 cm in a certain

period. During this period, the reservior received a surface

inflow of 10 hectare m and 20

hectare meters are abstracted from the reservior for irrigation

and power. The pan evaporation

and rainfall recorded during the same period was at a nearly

meteorological station are 12 cm

and 3 cm respectively. The

calibrated pan factor is 0.7. The seepage loss from the reservior

during this period in hectare m is

(a) 0 (b) 1

(c) 2.4

(d) 4.6 Ans: (d)

Q226. Total area of DRH is equal to

(a) Total rainfall

(b) Total transpiration (c) Total evapotranspiration

(d) Run-off volume Ans: (d) Q227. Match the following: P.

Rainfall intensity

1. Isohyeto Q. Rainfall excess 2. Cumulative rainfall R. Rainfall

averaging

3. Hyetograph S. Mass curve 4. Direct run-off hydrograph

Codes: P QRS

(a) 1 3 2 4 (b) 3 4 1 2

(c) 1 2 4 3

(d) 3 4 2 1 Ans: (b)

Q228. What is unity in a unit

run-off hydrograph? (a) Duration of storm

(b) Area of basin

(c) Depth of run-off (d) Base period of hydrograph ANS: (C)

Q229. While applying the rational formulae for computing

the design discharge, the rainfall

duration is stimulated as the time of concentration because

(a) This leads to the largest

possible rainfall intensity (b) This leads to the smallest

possible rainfall intensity

(c) The time of possible of the smallest rainfall duration for

which the rational formulae is

applicable

(d) None of these Ans: (a)

Q230. When the outflow from a storage reservior is uncontrolled

in a freely operating spillway, the

peak of outflow hydrograph occurs at

(a) point of intersection of the

inflow and outflow hydrographs (b) a point, after the intersection

of inflow and outflow

hydrographs

(c) the tail of inflow hydrographs (d) a point before the intersection

of inflow and outflow hydrograph Ans: (a)

Q231. By using rods, the velocity

obtained is (a) mean velocity

(b) maximum velocity

(c) minimum velocity (d) surface velocity Ans: (a) Q232. An aquifer is made of

sand having porosity 30%. The

specific yield of aquifer is

(a) 30% (b) > 30%

(c) < 30%

(d) data insufficient ANS: (C)

Q233. Water is pumped from a well tapping an unconfined

aquifer at a certain discharge

rate and the steady state drawdown (X) in an observation

well is monitored. Subsequently,

the pumping discharge is

doubled and the steady state drawdown in the observation well

is found to be more than double.

This disproportionate drawdown is caused by

(a) well losses

(b) decrease in saturated thickness of acquifer

(c) non-linear flow

(d) delayed gravity field ANS: (C)

Q234. Two observation wells

penetrated into a confined aquifer and located 1.5 km apart

in the direction of flow. Indicate

head of 45 m and 20 m. If the well of permeability of aquifer is

30 m/day and porosity is 0.25.

The time of travel of an inert to travel from one well to another is

(a) 416.7 days

(b) 500 days

(c) 750 days (d) 3000 days ANS: (C) Q235. A tube well of 50 cm

diameter penetrates fully in an

artesian aquifer. Strainer length is 15m. The aquifer consists of

sand of effective size of 0.2 mm

having coefficient of permeability equal to 50 m/day. Assume

radius of drawdown equal to 150

metres. What is the yield from

the well under a drawdown of 3 m?

(a) 20.6 lit/sec

(b) 23.6 lit/sec (c) 25.6 lit/sec

(d) 28.3 lit/sec Ans: (b)

Q236. A tube well penetrates

fully an unconfined aquifer. Diameter of the well = 30 cm

Drawdown = 2m Effective length

of the strainer under the above drawdown = 10 m Coefficient of

permeability of acquier = 0.05

cm/sec Radius of zero drawdown

= 300m What is discharge from the tubewell under given

conditions?

(a) 6 lit/sec (b) 8 lit/sec

(c) 9 lit/sec

(d) 12 lit/sec Ans: (c)

Q237. Peak of a flood hydrograph due to a six-hour

storm is 470 m3 /sec. The

average depth of rainfall is 8.0

cms. Assume an infiltration loss of 0.25 cm/hour and a constant

base flow of 15m3 /sec. The peak

discharge of a 6 hour unit hydrograph for this catchment,

will be

(a) 50m3 /sec (b) 60m3 /sec

(c) 70 m3 /sec

(d) 90 m3 /sec Ans: (c)

Q238. An open well in fine sand

give a discharge of 0.003 cumec when worked under a depression

head of 2.5 metres. The well

diametre will be (a) 2.4 m

(b) 2.8 m

(c) 3.0 m (d) 3.4 m Ans: (d)

Q239. A synthetic sample of water is prepared by adding 100

mg Kaolinite (a clay mineral), 200

mg glucose, 168 mg NaCl, 120 mg MgSO4 and 111 mg CaCl2 to

1 litre of pure water. The

concentrations of total solids (TS) and fixed dissolved solids (FDS)

respectively in the solution in

mg/L are equal to (a) 699 and 599

(b) 599 and 399

(c) 699 and 199

(d) 699 and 399 Ans: (a)

Q240. The presence of hardness in excess of permissible limit

causes

(a) cardio vascular problems (b) skin discolouration

(c) calcium deficiency

(d) increased laundry expenses Ans: (d)

Q241. A water treatment plant is required to process 28800 m3 /d

of raw water (density = 1000

kg/m3, kinematic viscosity = 106

m 2 /s). The rapid mixing tank imparts a velocity gradient of

900s1 to blend 35 mg/l of alum

with the flow for a detention time of 2 minutes. The power input

(W) required for rapid mixing is

(a) 32.4 (b) 36

(c) 324

(d) 32400 Ans: (d)

Q242. Consider the following

unit processes commonly used in water treatment; rapid mixing

(RM), flocculation (F), primary

sedimentation (PS), secondary sedimentation (SS), chlorination

(C) and rapid sand filteration

(RSF). The order of these unit processes (first to last) in a

conventional water treatment

plant is

(a) PS - RSF - F - RM - SS - C (b) PS - F - RM - RSF - SS - C

(c) PS - F - SS - RSF - RM - C

(d) PS - RM - F - SS - RSF - C Ans: (d)

Q243. Anaerobically treated effluent has MPN of total coliform

as 106 /100 ml. After

chlorination, the MPN value declines to 102 /100 ml. The per

cent removal (%R) and log

removal (log R) of total coliform

MPN is (a) %R = 99.90; log R = 4

(b) %R = 99.90; log R = 2

(c) %R = 99.99; log R = 4 (d) %R = 99.99; log R = 2

Ans: (c) Q244. A water sample has a pH

of 9.25. The concentration of

hydroxyl ions in the water sample is

(a) 109.25 moles/l

(b) 104.75 moles/l

(c) 0.302 mg/l (d) 3.020 mg/l ANS: (C) Q245. A town is required to treat

4.2 m3 /min of raw water for

daily domestic supply. Flocculating particles are to be

produced by chemical

coagulation. A column analysis indicated that an overflow rate of

0.2 mm/s will produce

satisfactory particle removal in a settling basin at a depth of 3.5

m. The required surface area (in

m2) for settling is

(a) 210 (b) 350

(c) 1728

(d) 21000 Ans: (b)

Q246. Water distribution systems are sized to meet the

(a) max hourly demand

(b) Avg. hourly demand (c) max daily demand and fire

demand

(d) Avg. daily demand and fire

demand Ans: (d)

Q247. The microbial quality of treated piped water supplies is

monitored by

(a) Microscopic examination (b) Plate count of heterotrophic

bacteria

(c) Coliform MPN test

(d) Identification of all pathogens Ans: (c)

Q248. What factors is multiplied to max daily demand to obtain

peak hourly demand?

(a) 1.8 (b) 1.5

(c) 2.5

(d) 2.8 Ans: (b)

Q249. Temporary hardness in

water is caused by presence of (a) Bicarbonates of Ca and Mg

(b) Sulphates of Ca and Mg

(c) Chlorides of Ca and Mg (d) Nitrates of Ca and Mg

Ans: (a) Q250. In natural water,

hardness is mainly caused by

(a) Ca++ and Mn++ (b) Ca++ and Fe++

(c) Na+ and K+

(d) Ca++ and Mg++ Ans: (d)

Q251. The velocity of flow in

sedimentation tank is usually (a) 15-30 cm/hr

(b) 15-30 cm/min

(c) 15-30 cm/sec (d) 15-30 cm/day Ans: (b) Q252. Maximum BOD removal

efficiency is for

(a) Oxidation pond (b) Orientation ditch

(c) trickling filter

(d) Aerated lagoon Ans: (b)

Q253. Most of the turbidity

meters work on the scattering principle. The rabidity value OS

obtained is expressed in

(a) CFU (b) FTU

(c) JTU

(d) NTU Ans: (a)

Q254. Hardness of water is

directly measured by titration

with ethylene-di-amine-tetracetic

acid (EDTA) using (a) eriochrome black T indicator

(b) ferroin indicator

(c) methyl orange indicator (d) phenolphthalein indicator Ans: (a)

Q255. TCU is equivalent to the colour produced by

(a) 1 mg/L of chlorplatinate ion

(b) 1 mg/L of platinum ion (c) 1 mg/L Platinum in form of

chlorplatinate ion.

(d) 1 mg/L of organo-chlorplatinate ion Ans: (a) Q256. The alkalinity and the

hardness of a water sample are

250 mg/L and 350 mg/L as

CaCo3, respectively. The water has

(a) 350 mg/L, carbonate

hardness and zero non-carbonate hardness.

(b) 250 mg/L carbonate hardness

and zero non-carbonate hardness (c) 250m/L carbonate hardness

and 350 mg/L noncarbonate

hardness (d) 250 mg/L carbonate hardness

and 100 mg/L noncarbonate

hardness Ans: (d)

Q257. Two sample of water A

and B have pH values of 4.4 and 6.4 respectively. How many times

more acidic sample A is than

sample B? (a) 0

(b) 15

(c) 100 (d) 200 Ans: (c) Q258. Minimum (Do) required

for aquatic life in river water is

(a) 2ppm

(b) 6ppm (c) 4ppm

(d) 10ppm ANS: (C)

Q259. What is the maximum

permissible value of total solid in water used for domestic

purposes?

(a) Zero (b) 100 ppm

(c) 500ppm

(d) 1000ppm ANS: (C)

Q260. Zero hardness of water is

obtained by which process (a) ion exchange process

(b) lime soda process

(c) excess lime treatment (d) excess alum and lime

treatment Ans: (a) Q261. Group I contains some

properties of water/wastewater

and group II contains list of some tests on water/waste water.

Match the property with

corresponding test Group I Group II P. Suspended solids

concentration

1. BOD Q. Metabolism of biodegradable

2. MPN organics R. Bacterial

concentration

3. Jar test S. Coagulant dose 4. Turbidity Codes: P QR S P Q

R S

(a) 2 1 4 3 (b) 4 1 2 3

(c) 2 4 1 3

(d) 4 2 1 3 Ans: (b)

Q262. 27. In a continuous flow sedimentation tank, setting

velocity of particles that is to be

removed should be:

(a) more than SOR (b) equal to SOR

(c) less than SOR

(d) does not depend on SOR Ans: (a)

Q263. Flocculation is a process (a) that removes algae from

stabilization pond effluent

(b) that promotes the aggregation of small particles into larger

particles to enhance their

removal bye gravity. (c) All the above

(d) None of these Ans: (b) Q264. Design parameters for

rapid mixing units are

(a) velocity gradient and the volume of mixing basin

(b) viscosity and velocity gradient

(c) viscosity, velocity gradient and the volume of the mixing basin

(d) detention time and viscosity of

water Ans: (c)

Q265. Pathogens are usually

removed by

(a) Chemical precipitation (b

Chlorine (c) Ozone

(d) UV-radiation Ans: (d)

Q266. Coagulation-flocculation

with alum is performed

(a) immediately before chlorination

(b) immediately after chlorination

(c) after rapid sand filtration (d) before rapid sand filtration Ans: (d) Q267. For a flow of 5.7 MLD

(million liters per day) and a

detention time of 2 hours, the surface area of a rectangular

sedimentation tank to remove all

particles have setting velocity of

0.33 mm/s is (a) 20m2

(b) 100m2

(c) 200m2 (d) 400m2

Ans: (c) Q268. Use of coagulants such as

alum

(a) results in reduction of pH of the treated water.

(b) results in increases of pH of

the treated water.

(c) results in no change in pH of the treated water.

(d) May cause and increase or

decrease of pH of the treated water. Ans: (b) Q269. The following chemical is

used for coagulation

(a) Ammonium Chloride (b) Aluminum Chloride

(c) Aluminum Sulphate

(d) Copper sulphate Ans: (c)

Q270. A town has an existing

horizontal flow sedimentation tank with an overflow rate of

17m3 /day/m2, and it is

desirable to remove particles that having setting velocity of

0.1mm/sec. Assuming the tank

is an ideal sedimentation tank, the percentage of particles

removal is approximately equal

to (a) 30%

(b) 50%

(c) 70%

(d) 90% Ans: (b)

Q271. For a water treatment plant having a flow rate of 432m3

/hr, what is the required plan

area of a type I settling tank to remove 90% of the particles

having a setting velocity of 0.12

cm/sec is

(a) 120m2 (b) 111m2

(c) 90m2

(d) 100m2 ANS: (C)

Q272. An ideal horizontal flow settling basin is 3m deep having

surface area 900m2. Water flows

at the rate of 8000 m2 /d, at water temperature 200C(m = 103

kg/m.s) and U 1000kg/ m3).

Assuming stokes law to be valid,

the proportion (percentage) of spherical sand particles (0.01

mm in diameter with specific

gravity 2.65), that will be removed, is

(a) 32.5

(b) 67 (c) 87.5

(d) 95.5 ANS: (C)

Q273. Match the following Type

of water impurity Method of

Treatment (P) Hardness (1) Reverse Osmosis (Q) Brackish

water (2) Cholorination from sea

(R) Residual mpn (3) Zeolite treatment from filter (S) Turbidity

(4) Coagulation and flocculation

(5) Coagulation, flocculation, filtration Option: P QR S

(a) 1 2 4 5

(b) 3 2 2 4 (c) 2 1 3 5

(d) 3 1 2 5 Ans: (d)

Q274. Zero hardness is achieved

by

(a) Lime soda process (b) Excess lime treatment

(c) ion exchange process

(d) excess lime and lime treatment. Ans: (c) Q275. The design parameter for

flocculation is given by a

dimensionless number Gt, where G is the velocity gradient and t is

the detention time. Values of Gt

ranging from 104 to 105 are

commonly used, with t ranging from 10 to 30mm. The most

preffered combination of G and t

to produce smaller and denser flocs is

(a) large G values with short t

(b) large G values with long t (c) small G values with short t

(d) small G values with short t Ans: (a) Q276. What is the surface

overflow rate in the

sedimentation tank? (a) 20m3 /m2 /day

(b) 40m3 /m2 /day

(c) 67m3 /m2 /day (d) 133m3 /m2 /day Ans: (a) Q277. The disinfection efficiency

of chlorine in water treatment

(a) is not dependent on pH value

(b) is increased by increase in pH value

(c) will remain constant at all pH

value (d) is reduced by increase pH

value Ans: (d)

Q278. Chlorine gas used in

disinfection combines with water to form hypochlorous acid(HOCl),

the HOCl ionizes to form

hypochlorite(OCl) in a reversible

reaction HOCl U H+ +OCl (k = 2.7 106 at 20oC), the

equilibrium of which is governed

by pH. The sum of HOCl and OCl is known as free chlorine

residual and HOCl is more

effective disinfectant. The 90% fraction of HOCl in free chlorine

residual is available at pH value.

(a) 4.8 (b) 6.6

(c) 7.5

(d) 9.4 Ans: (b)

Q279. The absorbent most

commonly used in water and waste treatment

(a) Sand of grain size from 0.1 to

2 mm (b) Activated carbon granules of

size 0.1 to 0.2mm greater than or

less than COD (c) Stand of grain size from 3 to 5

mm.

(d) None of these Ans: (b)

Q280. In a certain situation,

wastewater discharged into a river, mixes with the river water

instantaneously and completely.

Following is the data available. Wastewater: DO=2.00 mg/L

Discharge rate = 1.10 m3 /s River

water DO = 8.3 mg/L Flow rate = 8.70 m3 /s Temperature = 200C

the initial amount of DO in

mixture of waste and river is

(a) 5.3 mg/l (b) 6.5 mg/l

(c) 7.6 mg/l

(d) 8.4 mg/l Ans: (c)

Q281. Ans: (b)

Q282. The consistency and flow resistance of bitumen can be

determined from the following

(a) Ductility test

(b) Penetration test (c) Softening point test

(d) Viscosity test Ans: (d)

Q283. The extra widening

required for a two-lane national highway at a horizontal curve of

300 m radius, considering a

wheel base of 8 m and a design speed of 100 kmph is

(a) 0.42 m

(b) 0.62 m

(c) 0.82 m (d) 0.92 m Ans: (c) Q284. While designing a hill road

with a ruling gradient of 6%, if a

sharp horizontal curve of 50 m radius is encountered, the

compensated gradient at the

curve as per the Indian Roads Congress specifications should

be

(a) 4.4% (b) 4.75%

(c) 5.0%

(d) 5.25% Ans: (a)

Q285. The design speed on a

road is 60 kmph. Assuming the driver reaction time of 2.5

seconds and coefficient of friction

of pavement surface as 0.35, the required slopping distance for

two-way traffic on a single lane

road is (a) 82.1 m

(b) 102.4 m

(c) 164.2 m

(d) 186.4 m Ans: (c)

Q286. Match the following tests on aggregate and its properties

TEST PROPERTY P. Crushing

test Ans: (d)

Q287. The specific gravity of paving bitumen as per IS:73-

1992 lies between

(a) 1.10 and 1.06 (b) 1.06 and 1.02

(c) 1.02 and 0.97

(d) 0.97 and 0.92 Ans: (c)

Q288. A combined value of flakiness and elongation index is

to be determined for a sample of

aggregates. The sequence in

which the two tests are conducted is

(a) elongation index test followed

by flakiness index test on the whole sample.

(b) flakiness index test followed

by elongation index test on the whole sample.

(c) flakiness index test followed

by elongation index test on the non-flaky aggregates.

(d) elongation index test followed

by flakiness index test on non-

elongated aggregates. Ans: (b)

Q289. Which of the following stress combinations are

appropriate in identifying the

critical condition for the design of concrete pavements? Type of

Stress Location P. Load

Ans: (a)

Q290. The design speed for a two-lane road is 80 kmph. When

a design vehicle with a wheel

base of 6.6 m is negotiating a

horizontal curve on that road, the off-tracking is measured as

0.096 m. The required widening

of carriageway of the two-lane road on the curve is

approximately

(a) 0.55 m (b) 0.65 m

(c) 0.75 m

(d) 0.85 m Ans: (c)

Q291. In Marshall testing of

bituminous mixes, as the bitumen content increases the

flow value

(a) remains constant (b) decreases first and then

increases

(c) increases monotonically

(d) increases first and then decreases Ans: (c) Q292. Road roughness is

measured using

(a) Benkelman beam (b) Bump integrator

(c) Dynamic cone penetrometer

(d) Falling weight deflectometer Ans: (b)

Q293. The following data are

related to a horizontal curved portion of a two-lane highway:

length of curve = 200 m, radius

of curve = 300 m and width of pavement = 7.5 m. In order to

provide a stopping sight distance

(SSD) of 80 m, the set back distance (in m) required from the

centre line of the inner lane of

the pavement is (a) 2.54

(b) 4.55

(c) 7.10

(d) 7.96 Ans: (a)

Q294. What is the relationship between camber

(c) and longitudinal gradient (G)

in normal design? (a) c = 2G

(b) c = G

(c) c = G/2 ANS: (C)

Q295. The convexity provided to the carriage way between the

crown and edge of pavement is

known as

(a) gradient (b) camber

(c) slope

(d) vertical curve Ans: (b)

Q296. What is the stopping sight distance(SSD) for a design speed

of 50kmph for a 2-way traffic on

a single lane road. Take reaction time as 2 seconds and coeff. of

friction 0.36

(a) 55.14m

(b) 110.28m (c) 27.57m

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(d) 26.8m

Ans: (b)

Q297. The reaction time for

calculating SSD is taken as: (a) 5 sec

(b) 2.5 sec

(c) 0.5 sec

(d) 10 sec Ans: (b)

Q298. A vehicle travelling on clay, level pavement at 80 kmph

had the brakes applied. The

vehicle travelled 76.5 m before stopping. What is the coeff. of

friction that has developed?

(a) 0.2 (b) 0.3

(c) 0.33

(d) 0.4 ANS: (C)

Q299. The safe SSD for a design

speed of 50 kmph for a 2 lane and with coeff. of friction 0.37 is

(a) 61.3 m

(b) 81.7 m (c) 123.7 m

(d) 161.6 m Ans: (a)

Q300. Calculate the SSD for an

ascending gradient of 5% for a

design speed of 60 kmph (t = 2.5s, f = 0.35)

(a) 77.13 m

(b) 154.26 m (c) 87.13 m

(d) 164.26 m Ans: (a)

Q301. What is the intermediate

sight distance (ISD) for a design speed of 50kmph with coeff. of

friction 0.37?

(a) 61.3 m (b) 30.6 m

(c) 122.6 m

(d) none of these Ans: (b)

Q302. A car is moving at a speed

of 72 kmph on a road having 2% upward gradient. If the reaction

time of driver is 1.5 seconds and

f = 0.18. Calculate the distance moved by the vehicle before the

car stops finally?

(a) 24 m (b) 150 m

(c) 1056 m

(d) 324 m Ans: (b)

Q303. The overtaking vehicle has

a speed of 60 kmph and an acceleration of 0.9. The speed of

overtaken vehicle is 40 kmph, on

a two way traffic road. The safe overtaking sight distance is

(a) 261 m

(b) 212 m

(c) 282 m (d) 255 m Ans: (a) Q304. For a highway with design

speed of 100 kmph, safe OSD is

(a = 0.53 m/s2) (a) 300 m

(b) 750 m

(c) 320 m (d) 470 m Ans: (b)

Q305. Minimum length of overtaking zone is equal to

(a) OSD

(b) 20 OSD (c) 3 OSD

(d) 4 OSD Ans: (c)

Q306. What is the super

elevation required for a horizontal curve of 120 m and

design speed of 60 kmph having

coeff. of lateral friction 0.13?

(a) 0.11 (b) 0.13

(c) 0.011

(d) 0.03 Ans: (a)

Q307. Calculate the required super elevation for a horizontal

curve of 135 m and design speed

of 67 kmph. Where the pressure in inner and outer wheels should

be equal?

(a) 0.026 (b) 0.02

(c) 0.16

(d) 0.26 Ans: (d)

Q308. A road is having a

horizontal curve of 400 m radius on which a super elevation of

0.07 is provided. The coeff. of

lateral friction mobilized on the curve when vehicle is travelling

at 100 kmph is

(a) 0.007 (b) 0.13

(c) 0.15

(d) 0.4 Ans: (b)

Q309. What is the mechanical

widening required for a road of 8 m width on a horizontal curve of

310 m. length of longest wheel