chem 1110 practice final

CHEM 1110 Final Exam Practice

1

CHEM 1110 Practice Final Exam

This exam is intended for diagnostic purposes only. Success on this exam in no way

guarantees success on the actual final exam. It is suggested that you take this exam in a

way to simulate the actual conditions of the final (2 hours; only a calculator and periodic

table available) and use the results to guide your studying.

1) The boiling of a substance is a ____________________________________________

change that occurs as a result of breaking _____________________________________:

a) physical; intermolecular forces

b) physical; intramolecular bonds

c) chemical; intermolecular forces

d) chemical; intramolecular bonds

e) reversible; atoms

2) Based on Avogadro’s Law:

a) The volume of a gas is intensive because it is independent of the amount of gas.

b) The volume of a gas is intensive because it is dependent on the amount of gas.

c) The volume of a gas is extensive because it is independent of the amount of gas.

d) The volume of a gas is extensive because it is dependent on the amount of gas.

e) The volume of a gas is neither intensive nor extensive.

3) A group of students is asked to count the number of a given object in a jar. The table

below shows their responses:

Student # Reported

1 250

2 260

3 245

4 253

There were actually 500 of the objects in the jar. What can be said about the accuracy

and precision of the students’ reports?

a) The students were both accurate and precise.

b) The students were accurate, but not precise.

c) The students were precise, but not accurate.

d) The students were neither accurate nor precise.

e) The accuracy and precision of the measurements cannot be adequately assessed.


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4) A student records the following data for the displacement of water in a graduated

cylinder by an unknown solid:

Mass of solid (g) 7.4625

Initial volume of water (mL) 10

Final volume of water (mL) 12.5

What is the density of this material (in g/mL), reported with the proper number of

significant figures?

a) 2.9850 b) 2.985 c) 2.99 d) 3.0 e) 3

5) A typical American football field has an area of 6,396 square yards (yd2). What is the

area of a football field in square meters (m2)? 1 meter = 1.0936 yards.

a) 5,348 b) 5,848 c) 6,994 d) 7,649 e) 8,365

6) Which of the following was not one of the conclusions reached as a result of

Millikan’s oil drop experiment & Rutherford’s gold foil experiment?

a) The nucleus is positively charged.

b) The atom is mostly empty space.

c) The nucleus of an atom contains only protons.

d) The charge of an electron is -1.6022x10-19

C.

e) The mass of an electron is 9.11x10-28

g.

7) How many of each particle indicated are present in Ti4+

22

46 ?

a) 22 protons, 48 neutrons, 18 electrons

b) 22 protons, 24 neutrons, 18 electrons

c) 22 protons, 48 neutrons, 26 electrons

d) 22 protons, 24 neutrons, 26 electrons

e) 24 protons, 24 neutrons, 24 electrons

8) Which of the following nuclides would be the most likely to be stable?

a) 145

Pm b) 4He c)

3H d)

252Es e)

131I


3

9) The element antimony (Sb) occurs naturally as two isotopes, antimony-121 and

antimony-123. The atomic weights of these isotopes are 120.9038 amu and 122.9041

amu respectively. What is the percent abundance of each isotope? The atomic weight of

antimony is 121.760 g/mol.

Antimony-121 Antimony-123

a) 57.20% 42.80%

b) 42.80% 57.20%

c) 36.95% 63.05%

d) 63.05% 36.95%

e) 51.00% 49.00%

10) A student studies a dull, brittle substance and finds that it does not conduct

electricity as a solid, liquid, or dissolved in aqueous solution. The student finds that the

substance cannot be decomposed into simpler substances by chemical means. Based on

this information, the substance is most likely:

a) A metallic element c) An elemental metalloid e) A molecular compound

b) A nonmetallic element d) An ionic compound

11) Epinephrine (C9H13NO3) is an important neurotransmitter. How many moles of

epinephrine are in 0.458 kilograms of the substance?

a) 458 b) 8.39x104 c) 2.5 d) 2.5x10

-3 e) 83.9

12) How many hydrogen atoms are in 2.00 mol of water?

a) 1.66x10-24

b) 3.32x10-24

c) 6.02x1023

d) 1.24x1024

e) 2.41x1024

13) As the wavelength of an electromagnetic wave increases:

a) The energy and frequency of the wave decrease.

b) The energy increases, but the frequency decreases.

c) The energy decreases, but the frequency increases.

d) The energy and frequency of the wave increase.

e) There is no correlation between wavelength, energy, and frequency of a wave.

14) An LED emits light at a wavelength of 525 nm. What is the energy of one mole of

these photons in kilojoules per mole?

a) 3.79x10-31

b) 2.28x102 c) 3.79x10

-22 d) 2.28x10

-7 e) 6.29x10

-46


4

15) When an electron in an atom goes from a higher energy level to a lower energy

level, energy is ____________________ resulting in a ___________________ spectrum.

a) released; continuous c) released; line e) destroyed; gamma

b) absorbed; continuous d) absorbed; line

16) Which of the following transitions in an atom would release/absorb the largest

amount energy?

a) n = 5 n = 9 c) n = 24 n = 23 e) n = 2 n = 3

b) n = 4 n = 3 d) n = 1 n = 4

17) Which of the following quantum numbers describes the spatial orientation of an

orbital?

a) n b) ℓ c) mℓ d) ms e) n + ℓ

18) What is the maximum number of orbitals that can have n = 4?

a) 2 b) 4 c) 8 d) 16 e) 32

19) Silver (Ag) is in the same group as copper (Cu), and is therefore expected to have a

similar electron configuration. What is the electron configuration of silver?

a) [Ar]4s23d

9 c) [Kr]5s

13f

144d

10 e) [Kr]5s

24d

9

b) [Ar]4s13d

10 d) [Kr]5s

14d

10

20) What property determines the order of the elements on the modern periodic table?

a) Electron affinity c) Electronegativity e) Atomic number

b) Atomic mass d) Ionization energy

21) Which of the following statements regarding the group 13 elements is false?

a) They all have the same number of valence electrons.

b) They are all classified as metals.

c) The outermost electrons are in the p subshell.

d) They would all be expected to have similar chemical reactivity.

e) The atomic mass increases down the group.

22) Which of the following correctly ranks the species in order of increasing radius?

a) Ar < Cl- < S

2- c) O

2- < O

- < O e) I < Br < Cl

b) Cu < Cu+

< Cu2+

d) Na < Mg < Al


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23) Which of the following correctly ranks the species in order of decreasing ionization

energy?

a) Na > Mg > Al c) K > Na > Li e) Ca > Ca+

> Ca2+

b) P > Si > Al d) O > N > C

24) For which of the following groups on the periodic table would gaining an electron be

the least favorable?

a) Alkali metals c) Halogens e) Noble gases

b) Alkaline earth metals d) Chalcogens

25) What is the electron configuration of the Pb4+

ion?

a) [Xe]6s24f

145d

106p

2 c) [Xe]4f

145d

10 e) [Rn]

b) [Xe]6s24f

145d

8 d) [Xe]6s

24f

145d

10

26) How many unpaired electrons are in the Fe2+

ion?

a) 0 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4 e) 5

27) Which of the following choices correctly ranks the compounds in terms of

increasing lattice energy?

a) KF < CsBr < CaO < BaSe < VN

b) KF < CsBr < VN < BaSe < CaO

c) CsBr < KF < BaSe < CaO < VN

d) BaSe < CsBr < KF < CaO < VN

e) KF < CaO < VN < CsBr < BaSe

28) What is the systematic name for the compound CrCl3?

a) Chromium chloride

b) Chromium (III) chloride

c) Chromium trichloride

d) Monochromium trichloride

e) Chlorochromate ion


6

29) Phosphorus sesquisulfide is the common name for P4S3, is one of the components of

strike-anywhere matches. What is the systematic name for this compound?

a) Phosphorus sulfide

b) Phosphorus (III) sulfide

c) Phosphorus (IV) sulfide

d) Phosphorus trisulfide

e) Tetraphosphorus trisulfide

30) What is the formula for strontium nitrite?

a) SrNO2 b) SrNO3 c) Sr(NO2)2 d) Sr(NO3)2 e) Sr3N2

31) What is the formula of hypobromous acid?

a) HBrO4 b) HBrO3 c) HBrO2 d) HBrO e) HBr

32) What is the empirical formula of a compound that is 26.58% potassium, 35.35%

chromium, and 38.07% oxygen by mass?

a) K2CrO3 b) K2CrO4 c) KCr3O5 d) K2Cr3O4 e) K2Cr2O7

33) What is the percent by mass of each element in aluminum sulfate?

Al S O

a) 35.95% 42.73% 21.32%

b) 10.10% 36.01% 53.89%

c) 18.34% 32.71% 48.95%

d) 15.77% 28.12% 56.11%

e) 29.64% 23.49% 46.87%

34) Carbon forms up to three bonds with oxygen. Which of these bonds will be the

strongest, and which of these bonds will be the longest?

a) The C≡O bond is the strongest and longest.

b) The C≡O bond is the strongest, but the C-O bond is the longest.

c) The C≡O is the longest, but the C-O bond is the strongest.

d) The C-O bond is the strongest and longest.

e) There is no direct correlation between the number of bonds and the strength.


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35) Which of the following is not a valid Lewis dot structure?

a)

c) e)

b) d)

36) Which of the following is/are valid resonance structure(s) for the Lewis dot structure

of perchloric acid shown below?

I II III

a) I only b) II only c) I & II d) II & III e) All of them

37) What are the electron domain geometry (EDG) and molecular geometry (MG) of

iodine pentachloride?

EDG MG

a) Octahedral Square pyramidal

b) Octahedral Square planar

c) Octahedral Octahedral

d) Trigonal bipyramidal Trigonal bipyramidal

e) Tetrahedral Bent

38) What are the approximate bond angles in phosphine, PH3?

a) 90° b) < 109.5° c) 109.5° d) 109.5° > e) 120°


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39) Which of the following statements correctly describes the polarity of the molecules

SiCl4 and SCl4?

a) Both molecules are polar.

b) SiCl4 is polar, but SCl4 is nonpolar.

c) SiCl4 is nonpolar, but SCl4 is polar.

d) Both molecules are nonpolar.

e) There is not enough information to predict their polarity.

40) Which of the following substances will have the strongest intermolecular forces?

a) c) e)

b) d)

41) Which of the following represents the correct relationship between the boiling points

of the two substances listed?

a) He > Ne c) F2 > HCl e) CH3CH2CH2CH3 >

b) H2S > H2O d) CH4 > C2H6

42) What is the hybridization of the central atom, iodine, in IBr2-?

a) sp b) sp2 c) sp

3 d) sp

3d e) sp

3d

2

43) Acetonitrile, pictured below, is a common solvent in chemical reactions. How many

of each type of bond are present in this molecule?

a) 6 σ, 1 π c) 7 σ, 0 π e) 4 σ, 0 π, 1 δ

b) 5 σ, 2 π d) 4 σ, 3 π


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44) Sodium borohydride reacts with boron trifluoride according to the unbalanced

reaction equation below. When the reaction is properly balanced, what is the sum of all

of the coefficients?

NaBH4 + BF3 ⟶ NaBF4 + B2H6

a) 4 b) 8 c) 10 d) 12 e) 16

45) Hydrogen peroxide decomposes according to the equation 2H2O2 ⟶ 2H2O + O2. If

5.00 moles of hydrogen peroxide are decomposed, how many moles of O2 would be

produced?

a) 1.25 b) 2.50 c) 5.00 d) 10.0 e) 20.0

46) A field test to determine if a rock sample contains limestone (CaCO3) is based on the

reaction of calcium carbonate with hydrochloric acid to give calcium chloride, carbon

dioxide, and water. If 10.00 moles of calcium carbonate are reacted with 15.00 moles of

hydrochloric acid, how many moles of water will be produced?

a) 5.000 b) 7.500 c) 10.00 d) 15.00 e) 30.00

47) Alkali metal peroxides (such as Na2O2) can be used in rebreathing apparatuses to

convert exhaled CO2 into breathable O2 according to the equation

2Na2O2(s) + 2CO2(g) ⟶ 2Na2CO3(s) + O2(g). If the reaction of 10.00 moles of CO2

with excess Na2O2 produces 2.50 moles of O2, what is the percent yield for this reaction?

a) 100.0% b) 75.00% c) 50.00% d) 25.00% e) 10.00%

48) Which of the following combinations of solutions will produce a precipitate when

mixed?

a) NH4NO3 & CrCl3 c) Ba(NO3)2 & K2SO4 e) H2SO4 & NaOH

b) AgNO3 & NaC2H3O2 d) NaOH & LiCl

49) Which of the following compounds will not act as a base in aqueous solution?

a) KOH b) Ba(OH)2 c) Fe(OH)3 d) CH3OH e) NH3


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50) Which of the following is the net ionic equation for the reaction between sodium

hydroxide and hydrofluoric acid?

a) NaOH(aq) + HF(aq) ⟶ NaF(aq) + H2O(l) b) Na+(aq) + OH

-(aq) + H+(aq) + F-(aq) ⟶ Na+(aq) + F-(aq) + H2O(l) c) OH

-(aq) + HF(aq) ⟶ F-(aq) + H2O(l) d) NaOH(aq) + H+(aq) ⟶ Na+(aq) + H2O(l) e) OH

-(aq) + H+(aq) ⟶ H2O(l)

51) What is the oxidizing agent in the following reaction?

Cr2O72-

+ 4Zn + 14H+ + 14Cl

- ⟶ 2CrCl3 + 4ZnCl2 + 7H2O?

a) Cr2O72-

b) Zn c) H+ d) Cl

- e) No redox

52) What are the formal charge and oxidation state of the nitrogen atom in the nitrate

ion?

Formal Charge Oxidation State

a) 0 0

b) -1 +3

c) +1 +3

d) -1 +5

e) +1 +5

53) Magnesium is a more active metal than iron. This means:

a) Magnesium has more valence electrons than iron.

b) Magnesium is more easily oxidized than iron.

c) Magnesium is more electronegative than iron.

d) Iron metal will displace magnesium ions from solution.

e) Magnesium is harder than iron.

54) An aqueous solution is made from 0.639 g of KMnO4 in 50.0 mL of water. What is

the molarity of KMnO4 in this solution?

a) 0.0809 b) 0.0128 c) 8.09x10-5

d) 12.8 e) 0.735

55) A solution of NaCl in water is prepared. A sample of this solution is then diluted to

double its original volume. What is the effect on the molarity of NaCl in this solution?

a) The molarity of NaCl in the solution was quartered.

b) The molarity of NaCl in the solution was halved.

c) The molarity of NaCl in the solution remained the same.

d) The molarity of NaCl in the solution doubled.

e) The molarity of NaCl in the solution quadrupled.


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56) The [H+] in a solution is calculated to be 1.0x10

-5 M. What is the pH of the solution,

and is the solution acidic, basic, or neutral?

a) pH = 9.00; basic c) pH = 5.00; basic e) pH = 7.00; neutral

b) pH = 9.00; acidic d) pH = 5.00; acidic

57) How many milliliters of 0.350 M potassium hydroxide are required to fully titrate

250 mL of 0.700 M sulfuric acid?

a) 1000 mL b) 500 mL c) 250 mL d) 125 mL e) 62.5 mL

58) The combustion of liquid butane (C4H10) has a ΔH°rxn of -5,271.4 kJ/mol. How

much energy, in kilojoules, is released if 2.906 g of butane is combusted in the presence

of excess oxygen?

a) 131.8 b) 263.6 c) 527.1 d) 7,659 e) 1.532x104

59) How much heat (in joules) is required to raise the temperature of a 10.0 g sample of

osmium (Os; specific heat: 0.130 J/mol·K) from 25 °C to its melting point, 3045 °C?

a) 393 b) 2.32x103 c) 3.99x10

3 d) 232 e) 3.93x10

3

60) In a coffee-cup calorimeter, dissolving 10.64 g of lithium perchlorate in 100.00 g of

water increases the temperature of the solution by 5.79 °C. What is the ΔH°rxn for the

dissolving of lithium perchlorate in kilojoules per mole? The specific heat capacity of the

solution is 4.184 J/g·°C.

a) +26.8 b) -26.8 c) +24.2 d) -24.2 e) 57.6

61) In a bomb calorimeter with a heat capacity of 110 kJ/°C, combustion of 19.5 g of

liquid butanol (C4H10O) increases the temperature of the calorimeter by 5.87 °C. What is

the ΔH°rxn for the combustion of butanol in kilojoules per mole?

a) -2,456 b) 646 c) -646 d) -71 e) 2,456

62) Given the following equations:

V(s) + 1

2O2(g) ⟶ VO(s) ΔH°rxn = -431.8 kJ/mol

Cl(g) + O(g) ⟶ OCl(g) ΔH°rxn = -290.2 kJ/mol

2V(s) + O2(g) + Cl2(g) ⟶ 2VOCl(s) ΔH°rxn = -1214 kJ/mol

What is the enthalpy of the reaction VO(s) + 1

2Cl2(g) ⟶ VOCl(s) in kJ/mol?

a) -1996 b) -1645 c) -1039 d) -782.2 e) -175.2


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63) Which of the following reactions corresponds to the standard molar enthalpy of

formation of lithium nitride?

a) 6Li(s) + N2(g) ⟶ 2Li3N(s) b) 3Li

+(g) + N3-(g) ⟶ Li3N(s) c) 3Li(s) + N(g) ⟶ Li3N(s) d) 2Li3N(s) ⟶ 6Li(s) + N2(g) e)

3Li(s) + 1

2N

2

(g) ⟶ Li3N(s)

64) Magnesium chloride hexahydrate (MgCl2·6H2O) can be prepared by the following

reaction:

MgO(s) + 2HCl(aq) + 5H2O(l) ⟶ MgCl2∙6H2O(s) ΔH°rxn = -133 kJ/mol

What is the standard molar enthalpy of formation of magnesium chloride hexahydrate in

kJ/mol?

ΔH°f(MgO) = -602 kJ/mol

ΔH°f(HCl) = -167 kJ/mol

ΔH°f(H2O) = -286 kJ/mol

a) -1444 b) -133 c) -2499 d) +1444 e) +2499

65) What is the rate of effusion of Br2(g) relative to I2(g)?

a) 0.6296 b) 1.588 c) 0.7935 d) 1.260 e) 1.000

66) Hydrogen gas and nitrogen gas react to form ammonia gas. How many liters of

ammonia will be produced when 39.00 L of hydrogen gas are reacted with excess

nitrogen gas at STP?

a) 39.00 b) 13.00 c) 26.00 d) 78.00 e) 58.50

67) A sample of gas held in a 500. mL vessel has a pressure of 560. torr at 0.00 °C. How

many moles of gas are in the vessel?

a) 1.25x104 b) 12.5 c) 9.50x10

3 d) 0.0164 e) 0.00


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68) A given sample of gas is held in a closed container at 400 K. Which of the following

changes will result in the pressure of the gas being doubled?

I – Doubling the volume of the container

II – Doubling the moles of gas in the container

III – Doubling the temperature in Celsius

IV – Doubling the temperature in Kelvin

a) II, III & IV b) I only c) I, II & III d) II & IV e) All of them

69) 1.80 grams of a gas is held in a 2.00 L vessel at STP. What is the identity of the gas?

a) H2 b) Ne c) N2 d) CO2 e) Cl2

70) Two flasks filled with argon and nitrogen gases at 25 °C are connected as shown in

the diagram below:

Which of the following statements regarding the gases in the flasks is false?

a) The moles of gas in each flask are equivalent.

b) The mass of gas in each flask is equivalent.

c) The average kinetic energy of the nitrogen and argon molecules is equivalent.

d) The nitrogen molecules are travelling faster than the argon molecules.

e) The nitrogen gas is less dense than the argon gas.

71) 4.00 moles of Ar gas and 5.60 moles of Xe gas are added to a flask, giving a total

pressure of 13.44 atm. What is the partial pressure, in atm, due to just Ar gas in this

system?

a) 9.60 b) 18.81 c) 32.25 d) 4.00 e) 5.60

N2

2.00 L

3.00 atm

Ar

2.00 L

3.00 atm


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Answer Key:

1) A 41) E

2) D 42) D

3) C 43) B

4) D 44) D

5) A 45) B

6) C 46) B

7) B 47) C

8) B 48) C

9) A 49) D

10) E 50) C

11) C 51) A

12) E 52) E

13) A 53) B

14) B 54) A

15) C 55) B

16) D 56) D

17) C 57) C

18) D 58) A

19) D 59) E

20) E 60) B

21) B 61) A

22) A 62) E

23) B 63) E

24) E 64) C

25) C 65) D

26) D 66) C

27) C 67) D

28) B 68) D

29) E 69) B

30) C 70) B

31) D 71) E

32) E

33) D

34) B

35) A

36) B

37) A

38) B

39) C

40) A

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