chapter 1 part 2 multiple choice

7/28/2019 Chapter 1 Part 2 Multiple Choice

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CHAPTER 1 PART 2

CHAPTER 1 Parts 4, 5, and 6

Write the letter of the best answer in the space provided.

______1. An active exercise performed against stable resistance, wheremuscles are exercised in a motionless manner is called:

A. isotonic.B. isometric.C. anaerobic.

D. aerobic.

______2. Exercising vigorously enough to raise your pulse to its target heart

rate will increase:A. flexibility.

B. muscle strength.

C. cardiovascular endurance.D. respiratory endurance.

______3. Which of the following is NOT one of the major food groups?

A. grains/breadsB. fruits

C. dairy products

D. carbohydrates______4. Foods from one food group contain vitamins A and C, potassium,

and fiber. You should eat 2 to 4 servings a day of this food group,

which is:

A. vegetables.B. fruits.

C. grains/breads.

D. carbohydrates.

______5. In general, you should avoid or minimize your intake of which ofthe following?

A. complex carbohydratesB. oils

C. caffeine

D. protein

______6. Your body needs plenty of fluids to flush food through yoursystem and eliminate toxins. The drink that is more thirst

quenching and better for you is:

A. diet sodas.B. milk.

C. coffee.D. water.______7. Which of the following is TRUE regarding back fitness?

A. One of the best exercises for the back is the old-fashioned sit-up.

B. While important for appearance, posture has little to do with the risk ofback injury.

C. Abdominal muscles are crucial to overall spinal-column strength and safe

lifting.

D. Smoking has not been shown to contribute to intervertebral discdeterioration.


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______8. Important principles of lifting include:

A. positioning the load as far from your body as comfortably possible.B. keeping your palms down whenever possible.

C. pulling rather than pushing, when given a choice.

D. exhaling during the lift.

______9. Microorganisms capable of producing disease, such as bacteria and

viruses, are called:A. pathogens.

B. infections.C. germs.

D. microbes.

______10. An example of a disease transmitted by airborne droplets is:A. hepatitis B.

B. chicken pox.

C. AIDS.

D. staphylococcal skin infections.______11. Acquired Immune Deficiency Syndrome (AIDS) has an incubation

period of:A. several months or years.B. 1 to 3 days.

C. 2 to 6 weeks.

D. 10 to 12 days.______12. The time between contact with a disease organism and the

appearance of the first symptoms is called the:

A. contagious period.B. asymptomatic period.

C. incubation period.

D. developmental period.

______13. Body substance isolation (BSI) is a strict form of infection controlthat:

A. outlines procedures to use if you believe the patient may have an

infectious disease.B. assumes that all blood and other body fluids are infectious.

C. requires the use of protective gloves, mask, and gown for every patient

contact.D. dictates minimal physical contact with a patient.

______14. Equipment used by EMS personnel to protect against injury and

the spread of infectious disease is called:A. biohazard protective equipment (BPE).

B. infection protective equipment (IPE).

C. patient protective equipment (PPE).D. personal protective equipment (PPE).

______15. In cases where you suspect your patient is infected with

tuberculosis, use a(n):A. HEPA respirator.

B. plastic respirator.

C. cotton mask.D. surgical mask


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______16. A situation that would usually call for the use of a gown as

protection would be:A. any patient contact.

B. childbirth.

C. venous bleeding.

D. tuberculosis.

______17. HIV/AIDS, hepatitis B, and tuberculosis are diseases of greatconcern because they are:

A. contagious.B. untreatable.

C. transmitted by airborne pathogens.

D. life-threatening.______18. The most important infection-control practice is:

A. wearing protective gloves when in contact with every patient.

B. placing a mask on both yourself and the patient.

C. proper handwashing.D. being up-to-date on all vaccinations and immunizations.

______19. Contaminated wastes such as bloody dressings and bandagesshould be disposed of:A. only at the hospital emergency department.

B. in a red bag with a biohazard seal.

C. in a cardboard box and sealed with tape.D. in any normal garbage container.

______20. In most areas, an EMS provider who has had an exposure should

do all of the following EXCEPT:A. immediately wash the infected area with a disinfecting agent.

B. get a medical evaluation.

C. take the proper immunization boosters.

D. notify the agency's infection-control liaison.______21. The use of a chemical or a physical method to kill all

microorganisms on an object is called:

A. cleaning.B. washing.

C. disinfecting.

D. sterilizing.______22. According to Elisabeth Kbler-Ross, there are five predictable

stages of loss. They include:

A. denial.

B. elation.C. fear.

D. confusion.

______23. The dying patient who is sad, mourning things not accomplished

and dreams that will not come true, is in which stage of loss?

A. denialB. anger

C. depression

D. acceptance


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______24. How people of different ages cope with death varies. When dealing

with children from age 3 to 6 years, you should:A. encourage sharing of memories to facilitate the grief response.

B. encourage the child to talk about and/or draw pictures of his feelings.

C. locate a support group for the child.

D. see if a trusted friend can provide appropriate support.

______25. When telling a survivor that a loved one has died, your messageshould include the:

A. use of encouraging statements, such as the person is "no longer in pain."B. use of terms such as passed on instead of the harsh word dead.

C. statement that it was "God's will" (if the survivor is religious).

D. statement that "There was nothing more anyone could have done."______26. While stress is usually understood to be harmful, some stress is

beneficial. It is called:

A. positive stress.

B. antistress.C. eustress.

D. distress.______27. As a person adapts to stress, he or she develops:A. defensive strategies.

B. resistance.

C. illusions.D. desensitization.

______28. To manage stress, you must:

A. learn to become detached.B. think of patients only as signs and symptoms, not as people.

C. know the amount of stress you can take before it becomes a problem.

D. immerse yourself in work.

______29. The three phases of a stress response include:A. excitement.

B. exhaustion.

C. fear.D. desensitization.

______30. The physiological phenomena that occurs over intervals of

approximately 24 hours are:A. anchor time events.

B. second-wind responses.

C. hormonal rhythms.

D. circadian rhythms.______31. In situations where your stress response threatens your ability to

handle the moment, you should:

A. concentrate on the medical needs of the patient.B. "retreat" and get away from the stressor.

C. take medication to help you temporarily deal with the situation.

D. increase your breathing rate and the amount of oxygen in your system.


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______32. The short, informal meeting held within two to four hours after a

critical incident is called:A. demobilization.

B. critical incident stress debriefing.

C. on-scene support.

D. defusing.

______33. A formal, carefully planned, structured intervention 24 to 72 hoursafter an event is called:

A. critical incident stress debriefing.B. defusing.

C. demobilization.

D. on-scene support.______34. An emotional warning sign of excessive stress is:

A. fatigue.

B. difficulty in making decisions.

C. withdrawal.D. depression.

______35. Since one of the greatest hazards in EMS is motor vehicles, youshould learn:A. basic engine repair.

B. how to safely approach a vehicle in which someone is slumped over the

wheel.C. high-speed pursuit driving.

D. to closely follow escort vehicles, such as police cars.

______36. ______ recently surpassed stroke as the third leading cause ofdeath in the United States.

A. AIDS

B. Alzheimer's disease

C. InjuriesD. Hepatitis B

______37. ______ are among the leading causes of death from unintentional

injuries.A. Firearms

B. Environmental exposures

C. Industrial machineryD. Falls

______38. Years of productive life is calculated based on the age of death

being:

A. 60.B. 65.

C. 70.

D. 75.______39. For every one death caused by injury, there are ______ emergency

department visits.

A. 254B. 358

C. 419

D. 523


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______40. Instead of motor-vehicle "accident," we now use the term motor-

vehicle:A. incident.

B. collision.

C. mishap.

D. casualty.

______41. The study of factors that influence the frequency, distribution, andcauses of injury, disease, and other health-related events in a

population is:A. anthropology.

B. sociology.

C. epidemiology.D. pathology.

______42. Keeping an injury from occurring is ______ prevention.

A. primary

B. secondaryC. tertiary

D. initial______43. EMS organizational commitment is vital to the development of anyprevention activities. Organizational commitment includes:

A. body substance isolation precautions.

B. safe driving.C. data collection.

D. stress management.

______44. The first priority of EMS providers is to:A. care for the patient.

B. protect themselves from harm.

C. provide public education.

D. fulfill their obligation to their employer.______45. The most frequent cause of injury to children younger than six

years old is:

A. firearms.B. vehicle/bicycle collisions.

C. physical abuse.

D. falls.______46. ______ are responsible for over half of all deaths from

unintentional injuries.

A. Motor vehicle collisions

B. FirearmsC. Falls

D. Burns

______47. About half of all motor-vehicle fatalities involve:A. pedestrians.

B. elderly patients.

C. alcohol.D. drivers falling asleep.


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______48. Twenty-two percent of all disabling injuries in the workplace are to

the patient's:A. back.

B. hips.

C. legs.

D. arms.

______49. The largest number of preventable injuries for persons over 75years of age are:

A. motor-vehicle collisions.B. firearms related.

C. burns.

D. falls.______50. Patient documentation forms should include ______ , which is

(are) the best determinant of patient care on scene.

A. statements from bystanders

B. patient health insurance verificationsC. mechanisms of injury

D. patients' consents______51. The rules or standards that govern the conduct of members of aparticular group or profession are known as:

A. guidelines.

B. morals.C. ethics.

D. laws.

______52. Social, religious, or personal standards of right and wrong are:A. ethics.

B. morals.

C. mores.

D. beliefs.______53. Allowing a person to decide how to behave and accepting

whatever decision that person makes is called:

A. consequentialism.B. the deontological method.

C. ethical relativism.

D. the nonmaleficence method.______54. The single most important question a paramedic has to answer

when faced with an ethical challenge is:

A. "What are my protocols?"

B. "What are the patient's family's wishes?"C. "What is in the patient's best interest?"

D. "Does the patient have a valid DNR?"

______55. The principle of doing good for the patient is:A. autonomy.

B. justice.

C. beneficence.D. nonmaleficence.


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______56. The obligation to treat all patients fairly is:

A. autonomy.B. justice.

C. beneficence.

D. nonmaleficence.

______57. A competent adult patient's right to determine what happens to his

own body is:A. autonomy.

B. justice.C. beneficence.

D. nonmaleficence.

______58. The Latin phrase primum non nocere, or "First, do no harm," sumsup the principle of:

A. autonomy.

B. justice.

C. beneficence.D. nonmaleficence.

______59. One of the three basic steps in solving an ethical problem is:A. stating the action in a situation-specific form.B. listing the implications or consequences of the action.

C. comparing implications or consequences to current protocols.

D. applying the impartiality test.______60. Asking whether you can justify or defend your actions to others is

called the:

A. interpersonal justifiability test.B. universalizability test.

C. autonomizability test.

D. relevantability test.

______61. A general principle for paramedics to follow regarding advancedirectives is:

A. Always follow the family's wishes.

B. Accept verbal DNR orders from other health care providers.C. When in doubt, resuscitate.

D. Under no circumstances accept any DNR order in the prehospital setting.

______62. A competent patient of legal age has the right to decide what healthcare he or she does not wish to receive. To exercise this right, a

patient must have:

A. an attorney present to witness the patient's decision.

B. an advance directive document physically with him or her.C. the mental faculties to weigh the risks and benefits.

D. a consultation with his personal physician.

______63. An ethical issue raised by the role of a paramedic as a preceptor iswhether:

A. the paramedic may function in the hospital setting.

B. patients should be informed that a student is caring for them.C. the paramedic can allow the student to perform advanced skills under his

supervision.

D. the paramedic should allow the student to drive the EMS vehicle.


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______64. One of the three most common sources of conflict between

physicians and paramedics is a situation in which:A. the physician refuses to allow the paramedic to perform a procedure.

B. the physician orders something that the paramedic believes is medically

acceptable but morally wrong.

C. the physician allows the paramedic to perform a procedure that is

detrimental to the patient.D. the physician requires the paramedic to obtain on-line direction for all

advanced procedures.

chapter 1 part 2 multiple choice

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