biology- cell & division bio...

NEET | MOCK TEST NO 15

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BIOLOGY- CELL & DIVISION BIO MOLECULES

1. An elaborate network of filamentous proteinaceous structures present in the cytoplasm which helps

in the maintenance of cell shape is called

(a) Thylakoid (b) Endoplasmic reticulum

(c) Plasmalemma (d) Cytoskeleton

2. During mitosis the ER and nucleolus begins to disappear at

(a) Late prophase (b) Early metaphase

(c) Late metaphase (d) Early prophase

3. Which stages of cell division do the following figures A and B represent respectively?

A B

(a) Metaphase - Telophase

(b) Telophase - Metaphase

(c) Late anaphase - Prophase

(d) Prophase - Anaphase

4. At metaphase, the chromosomes are attached to the spindle fibres by their

(a) Satellites

(b) Secondary constrictions

(c) Kinetochores

(d) Centromeres

5. Identify the meiotic stage in which the homologous chromosomes separate while the sister

chromatids remain associated at their centromeres:

(a) Metaphase II (b) Anaphase I

(c) Anaphase II (d) Metaphase I

6. During gamete formation the enzyme recombinase participates during



(a) Metaphase I (b) Anaphase II

(c) Prophase I (d) Prophase II

7. Given below is the representation of a certain event at a particular stage of a type of cell division.

What is this stage?

(a) Prophase I during meiosis

(b) Prophase II during meiosis

(c) Prophase of mitosis

(d) Both prophase and metaphase of mitosis

8. The complex formed by a pair of synapsed homologous chromosomes is called

(a) Equatorial plate (b) Kinetochore

(c) Bivalent (d) Axoneme

9. A stage of cell division is shown in the below figure. Select the answer which gives the correct

identification of this stage with its characteristics.

(a) Telophase - Nuclear envelope reforms, Golgi complex reforms.

(b) Late anaphase - Chromosomes move away from the equatorial plate, Golgi complex is not present

(c) Cytokinesis – Cell palte formed by mitochondria is distributed between two daughter cells.

(d) Telophase – Endoplasmic reticulum and nucleolus is not reformed yet.

10. During which phase (s) of cell cycle, the amount of DNA in a cell remains at 4C level if the initial

amount is denoted as 2C?

(a) G0 and G1 (b) G1 and S



(c) Only G2 (d) G2 and M

11. The figure given below shows the conversion of a substrate into product by an enzyme. In which

one of the four option (a to d) the components of reaction labeled as A, B, C and D are identified

correctly?

(a) A; Potential energy, B: Transition state, C: Activation energy with enzyme, D: Activation energy

without enzyme

(b) A: Transition state, B: Potential energy, C: Activation energy without enzyme,D: Activation

energy with enzyme

(c) A: Potential energy, B: Transition state, C: Activation energy with enzyme, D: Activation energy

without enzyme

(d) A: Activation energy with enzyme, B: Transition state, C: Activation energy without enzyme, D:

Potential energy

12. Three of the following statements about enzymes are correct and one is wrong. Which one is

wrong?

(a) Enzymes require optimum pH for maximal activity .

(b) Enzymes are denatured at high temperature but in certain exceptional organisms they are effective

even at temperatures from 800-900C.

(c) Enzymes are highly specific.

(d) Most of the enzymes are proteins but some are lipids.

13. Which one of the following structural formulae of two organic compounds is correctly identified

along with its related function?

(a) A: Triglyceride - Major source of energy

(b) B: Uracil - A component of DNA

(c) A: Lecithin - A component of cell membrane

(d) B: Adenine - A nucleotide that makes up nucleic acids

14. Select the correct option with respect to mitosis.



(a) Chromatids start moving towards opposite poles in

telophse.

(b) Golgi complex and endoplasmic reticulum are still visible at the end of prophase.

(c) Chromosomes move to the spindle equator and get aligned along the equatorial plate in metaphase.

(d) Chromatids separate but remains at the centre of the cell in anaphase.

15. The curve given below shows enzymatic activity with relation to three conditions )pH,

temperature and substrate concentration)

What do the two axes (X and Y) represent?

X-axis Y-axis

(a) Temperatrue - Enzyme activity

(b) Substrate concentrartion - Enzymatic activity

(c)Enzymatic activity - Temperature

(d) Enzymatic activity - pH

16. Which one of the following biomolecules is correctly characterized?

(a) Palmitic acid – An unsaturated fatty acid with 18 carbon atoms.

(b) Adenylic acid – Adenosine with a glucose phosphate molecule.

(c) Alanine amino acid – Contains an amino group and an acidic group anywhere in the molecule.

(d) Lecithin –A phosphorylated glyceride found in cell membrane.

17. Given below is the diagrammatic representation of one of the categories of small molecular

weight organic compounds in the living tissues. Identify the category shown and the one blank

component ‘X’ in it

Category Component

(a) Cholesterol Guanin

(b) Amino acid NH2

(c) Nucleotide Adenine

(d) Nucleoside Uracil

18. Which one is the most abundant protein in the animal world?



(a) Trypsin (b) Haemoglobin

(c) Collagen (d) Insulin

19. Which one out of A to D given below correctly represents the structural formula of the basic

amino acid?

Options:

(a) C (b) D (c) A (d) B

20. The transition state structure of the substrate formed during an enzymatic reaction is

(a) Transient but stable

(b) Permanent but unstable

(c) Transient and unstable

(d) Permanent and stable

CHEMISTRY - Polymers

21. Polymer formation from monomers starts by:

(a) Condensation reaction between monomers

(b) Coordination reaction between monomers

(c) Conversion of monomer to monomer ions by protons

(d) Hydrolysis of monomers

22. On the basis of mode of formation, polymers can be calssified:

(a) As addition polymers only

(b) As condensation polymers only

(c) As co-polymers

(d) Both addition and condensation polymers

23. Which of the following is a chain growth polymer?

(a) Proteins

(b) Starch

(c) Nucleic acid

(d) Polystyrene



24. The repeating units of PTFE are:

(a) F2C=CF2

(b) FCI C=CF2

(c) F3C-CF3

(d) Cl2CH=CH3

25. Low density polythene is prepared by:

(a) free radical polymerization

(b) Cationic polymerization

(c) Anionic polymerization

(d) Ziegler – Natta polymerization

26. Which of the following is a chain growth polymer?

(a) Proteins

(b) Starch

(c) Nucleic acid

(d) Polystyrene

27. Which among the following is a synthetic polymer?

(a) Phenol-formaldehyde resin

(b) Proteins

(c) Polysaccharides

(d) Natural rubber

28. The abbreviation PDI refers to:

(a) Poly diagonal index

(b) Application of polymer

(c) Name of the polymer

(d) Poly dispersity index of polymer

29. Which pair of species given below produce Bakelite?

(a) Phenol, methanol

(b) Phenol, NaOH

(c) Phenol, urea

(d) Phenol, formaldehyde



30. Treatment of rubber with sulphur is:

(a) Annealing

(b) Vulcanization

(c) Quenching

(d) None of these

31. Teflon, Styrene and neoprene are all:

(a) Monomers

(b) Co-polymers

(c) Homopolymers

(d) Condensation polymers

32. Which of the following contains isoprene units?

(a) Natural rubber

(b) Nylon-6, 6

(c) Polyethylene

(d) Dacron

33. PVC as obtained after polymerization is:

(a) Soft and pliable

(b) Hard, brittle and transparent

(c) Hard and infuseable

(d) None of these

14. Which of the following polymers does not involve cross linkages?

(a) Melmac

(b) Bakelite

(c) Polythene

(d) Vulcanized rubber

35. The compound used in the manufacture of terylene is:

(a) Ethylene

(b) Vinyl chloride

(c) Ethylene glycol

(d) Adipic acid



36. The best way to prepare polyisobutylene is:

(a) Coordination polymerization

(b) Free radical polymerization

(c) Cationic polymerization

(d) Anionic polymerization

37. F2C = CF2 is monomer of:

(a) Teflon

(b) Glyptal

(c) Nylon-6

(d) Buna-S

38. Which of the following is not correctly matched?

(a) Nylon-6, 6:

(b) Neoprene

(c) PMMA

(d) Terylene

39. Monomer of:

(−

CH3

|CH3

− CH2 −)

𝑛

is

(a) 2-methylpropene



(b) Styrene

(c) Propylene

(d) Ethene

40. Cellulose is a polymer of:

(a) Sucrose

(b) Ribose

(c) Fructose

(d) Glucose

PHYSICS- MODERN PHYSICS 41. In modulation process, radio frequency wave is termed as

(a) modulating wave

(b) modulated wave

(c) carrier wave

(d) none of the above

42. Amplitude modulation is used for broadcasting, because

(a) it is more noise immune than other modulation systems

(b) compared with other systems, it requires less transmitting power

(c) its circuitry is simple

(d) no other modulation system can provide the necessary bandwidth for high fidelity

43. Modulation index of an AM signal

(a) depends upon peak amplitude of modulating signal

(b) depends upon peak amplitudes of carrier and the modulating signal

(c) is a function of carrier frequency


44. An example of point to point mode of communication is

(a) FM radio

(b) Standard FM radio

(c) Television

(d) Telephony

45. A signal of 5 kHz frequency is amplitude modulated on a carrier wave of frequency 2 MHz. The

frequencies of the resultant signal is/are

(a) 2 MHz only



(b) 2005 kHz, and 1995 kHz

(c) 2005 kHz, 2000 kHz and 1995 kHz

(d) 2000 kHz and 1995 kHz

46. A antenna is a device

(a) that converts electromagnetic energy into ratio frequency signal

(b) that converts ratio frequency signal into electromagnetic energy

(c) that converts guided electromagnetic waves into free space electromagnetic waves and vice-versa


47. Through which mode of propagation, the radio waves can be sent from one place to another

(a) Ground wave propagation

(b) Sky wave propagation

(c) Space wave propagation

(d) All of the them

48. Consider telecommunication through optical fibres. Which of the following statements is not true?

(a) Optical fibres may have homogeneous core with a suitable cladding

(b) Optical fibres can be of graded refractive index

(c) Optical fibres are subject to electromagnetic interference from outside

(d) Optical fibres have extremely low transmission loss

49. In an amplitude modulation with modulation index 0.5, the ratio of the amplitude of the carrier

wave to that of the side band in the modulated wave is

(a) 4 : 1

(b) 1 : 1

(c) 1 : 2

(d) 2 : 1

50. The purpose of oscillation in the AM signal

(a) provide modulating signal

(b) provide carrier

(c) provide enough power to meet transmission system requirement


51. Modulation index in an FM signal

(a) varies inversely as the frequency deviation

(b) varies directly as the modulating frequency



(c) varies directly as frequency deviation and inversely as

the modulating frequency

(d) none of above

52. The carrier frequency generated by a tank circuit containing 1 nF capacitor and 10 𝜇𝐻 inductor is

(a) 1592 Hz

(b) 1592 MHz

(c) 1592 kHz

(d) 159.2 Hz

53. Maximum usable frequency (MUF) in F-region layer is x, when the critical frequency is 60 MHz

and the angle of incidence is 70°. Then x is

(a) 150 MHz

(b) 170 MHz

(c) 175 MHz

(d) 190 MHz

54. A step index fibre has a relative refractive index of 0.88%. What is the critical angle at the core

cladding interface

(a) 60°

(b) 75°

(c) 45°

(d) None of these

55. An audio signal in the frequency range of 20 Hz to 10 kHz modulates the carrier. The bandwidth

requirement is

(a) 20 kHz

(b) 40 kHz

(c) cannot be determined from the given data


56. An antenna behaves as a resonant circuit when its length

(a) equals 1/4

(b) equals 1/2

(c) equals ½ or its integral multiple


57. In frequency modulation

(a) The amplitude of modulated wave varies as frequency of carrier wave

(b) The frequency of modulated wave varies as amplitude of modulating wave

(c) The frequency of modulated wave varies as frequency of modulating wave

(d) The frequency of modulated wave varies as frequency of carrier wave



58. In which of the following remote sensing technique

is not used

(a) Forest density

(b) Pollution

(c) Wetland mapping

(d) Medical treatment

59. In amplitude modulation

(a) the amplitude of the carrier varies in accordance with the amplitude of the modulating signal.

(b) the amplitude of the carrier remains constant.

(c) the amplitude of the carrier varies in accordance with the frequency of the modulating signal.


60. The velocity of all radio waves in free space is 3 x 108 m/s. The frequency of a radio wave of

wavelength 150 m is

(a) 20 KHz

(b) 2 KHz

(c) 2 MHz

(d) 1 MHz

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