bank pos model papers

BANK Clerks Model Paper

REASONING

1. In a certain code BOND is written as 1543 and DEAN is written as 3864. How is BED written in that code ?(1) 153 (2) 183 (3) 138 (4) 143 (5) None

2. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word STRIVE each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet ?(1) One (2) Two (3) Three (4) Four (5) None

3. P is the brother of Q. M is sister of Q.T is brother of P. How is Q related to T ?(1) Brother (2) Sister (3) Brother or Sister (4) Data inadequate (5) None

4. How many such digits are there in the number 83165 each of which is as far away from the beginning of the number as when the digits are rearranged in ascending order within the number ?(1) None (2) One (3) Two (4) Three(5) More than three

5. BF is related to DH in the same way as PS is related to _____ ?(1) SU (2) SV (3) RV (4) RU (5) None

6. In a certain code NAMES is written as TFNBO. How is CRANE written in that code ?(1) FMBQD (2) DSBOF (3) FOBSD (4) FBODS (5) None

7. How many meaningful English words can be made with the letters ERTU using each letter only once in each word ?(1) None (2) One (3) Two (4) Three(5) More than three

8. 12 is related to 15 in the same way as 15 is related to ______(1) 24 (2) 21 (3) 18 (4) 16 (5) None

9. Pointing to a boy, Seema said “He is the son of my grandfather’s only child”. How is boy related to seema ?(1) Brother (2) Cousin (3) Sister (4) Data inadequate (5) None

10. Mohan is older than Prabhu, Suresh is younger than prabhu. Mahesh is older than Suresh but younger than Prabhu. Who among the four is the youngest ?(1) Prabhu (2) Mahesh (3) Mohan (4) Suresh(5) Data inadequate

11. What would come next in the following number sequence ?2 3 2 3 4 2 3 4 5 2 3 4 5 6 2 3 4 5 6 7 2 3 4(1) 6 (2) 5 (3) 8 (4) 9 (5) None

12. In a certain code ‘go home’ is written as ‘ta na’ and ‘nice little home’ is written as ‘na ja pa’. How is ‘go’ written in that code ?(1) ta (2) na (3) ja (4) na or ta (5) None

13. If ‘-‘ means ‘added to ‘×’ means ‘subtracted from’ ; ‘÷’ means ‘multiplied by; and ‘+’ means ‘divided by’; then20 × 12 + 4 – 16 ÷ 5 = ?

Rank School of Banking

(1) 17 (2) 80 (3) 63 (4) 97 (5) None14. ‘Picture’ is related to ‘See’ in the same way as “Book’ is related to

(1) Listen (2) Read (3) Buy (4) Box (5) None

15. “Footwear’ is related to ‘Cobbler’ in the same way as ‘furniture’ is related to ____(1) Mason (2) Goldsmith (3) Carpenter (4) Potter (5) None

Directions (16-20) :- In each questions below are three statements followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take the three given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the three statements disregarding commonly known facts.Give answer (1) if only conclusion I followsGive answer (2) if only conclusion II followsGive answer (3) if either I or II followsGive answer (4) if neither I nor II followsGive answer (5) if both I and II follow.

16. Statements :All shoes are pensSome pens are razorsSome razors are desksConclusions :I. some desks are shoesII. some razors are shoes

17. Statements :Some benches are windowsSome windows are wallsSome walls are trainsConclusions :I. Some trains are benchesII. No trains is bench

18. Statements :All brushes are chocolatesAll chocolates are mirrorsAll mirrors are tablesConclusions :I. Some tables are brushesII. Some mirrors are chocolates

19. Statements :Some pencils are knivesAll knives are papersSome papers are booksConclusions :I. Some books are pencilsII. Some papers are pencils

20. Statements :Some roofs are figuresAll figures are lionsAll lions are goatsConclusions :


I. Some goats are roofsII. All goats are figures

Directions(21-25):- Following questions are based on the five three digits numbers given.513 248 371 634 167

21. Which of the following is the middle digit of the second highest number among these numbers ?(1) 1 (2) 4 (3) 7 (4) 3 (5) 6

22. Which of the following is the last digit of the middle number when they are arranged in ascending order ?(1) 3 (2) 8 (3) 1 (4) 4 (5) 7

23. If the position of the first and the third digits in each of these numbers are interchanged, which of the following will be the highest number among them ?(1) 513 (2) 248 (3) 371 (4) 634 (5) 167

24. If the positions of the first and the second digits in each of them numbers are interchanged, which of the following will be the lowest number among them ?(1) 513 (2) 248 (3) 371 (4) 634 (5) 167

25. Which of the following represents the total of all the three digits of the lowest number among them (1) 9 (2) 15 (3) 11 (4) 13 (5) 14

Directions(26-30):- Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the questions given below :B 2 I J K 4 3 H 5 E R P 6 N A 9 W 8 T U 1 V D 7 F

26. Which of the following is the third to the right of the tenth from the right end of the above arrangement ?(1) 3 (2) 6 (3) T (4) E (5) None

27. How many such numbers are there in the above arrangement each of which is immediately preceded by a vowel and immediately followed by a consonant ?(1) None (2) One (3) Two (4) Three(5) More than three

28. How many such consonants are there in the given arrangement each of which is immediately followed by a number but not immediately preceded by a vowel ?(1) None (2) One (3) Two (4) Three(5) More than three

29. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group based on their positions in the given arrangement which is the one that does not belong to that group ?(1) JK4 (2) PRE (3) 6NA (4) 8TU (5) 1VD

30. What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following series based on the given arrangement ?2J 4H EP ?(1) N9 (2) NW (3)AW (4) 6A (5) None

Directions(31-35):- Following questions are based on the information provided below :‘A × B’ means ‘A, is mother of B’.‘A – B’ means ‘A is brother of B’.‘A + B’ means ‘A is sister of B’.‘A ÷ B’ means ‘A is father if B’


31. Which of the following means ‘R’ is maternal uncle of ‘T’ ?(1) R – M × T (2) R + M × T (3) T × M – R (4) T + M ÷ R (5) None

32. Which of the following means ‘F’ is paternal grandfather of ‘H’ ?(1) F – J ÷ H (2) F ÷ J – H (3) F ÷ J ÷ H (4) H ÷ J ÷ F (5) None

33. How is K related M in R ÷ M – K ?(1) Son (2) Daughter (3) Nephew (4) Cannot be determined (5) None

34. How will ‘M is daughter of N’ be written ?(1)M + D × N (2) N ÷ M + W (3) N ÷ M (4) N × M (5) None

35. How is ‘H related to D’ in ‘D ÷ R – M × H’ ?(1) Grandson (2) Granddaughter (3) Grandson or Granddaughter(4) Data inadequate (5) None

Directions(36-40):- Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below :W, Y, T, M, R, H and D are seven persons sitting around a circle facing at the centre. T is fourth to the right of M who is second to the right of R. W is third to the left of R. H is not an immediate neighbour of M. D is not an immediate neighbour of W.

36. Who is the immediate left of W ?(1) Y (2) M (3) D (4) Data inadequate (5) None

37. Who is to the immediate right of H ?(1) W (2) T (3) R (4) Data inadequate (5) None

38. Who is third to the right of H ?(1) M (2) R (3) Y (4) D (5) None

39. Who is third of the right D ?(1) M (2) R (3) W (4) D (5) None

40. What is Y’s position with respect to T ?(1) Third to the right (2) Fourth to the left (3) Second of the right(4) Second of the left (5) None

Directions(41-45):- Each of the following questions below consists of a question and two statements numbered I and II given below it. You have to decide if the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both statements and

Give answer (1) if the data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question.

Give answer (2) if the data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question

Give answer (3) if the data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question.

Give answer (4) if the data given in both the statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question, and

Give answer (5) if the data in both the statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.

41. Who is in the middle of the row comprising A, B, C, D and E ?I) B is to right of C, who is second from the left.II) A is standing to the left of C, who is D’s neighbor


42. What is Shilpa’s rank in the class?I) The class strength is 45II) Shilpa is eight ranks below Mahesh who stood 17th

43. Who runs the fastest among L, M, N and P?I) P runs faster than L, who is the slowestII) M runs faster than N but slower than P.

44. One which day of the week did Satish watch a movie?I) Satish only watches movies with his friends.II) Satish went out for dinner on Tuesday

45. How is Gita related to Ganesh?I) Gita’s brother is Ganesh’s father’s eldest sonI). Ganesh’s wife’s mother-in-law is Gita’s mother.

Directions(46-50):- In each questions below is given a group of digits followed by four combinations of letters or symbols numbered (1), (2), (3) and (4). You have to find out which of the combinations correctly represents the group of digits based on the coding system and the conditions given below and mark the number of that combination as your answer. If none of the combinations correctly represents the group of digits, mark (5), i.e. ‘None of these’ as your answer.

Digits : 5 1 3 4 9 6 8 2 7Letter/Symbol Code : P A K % R @ D © M

Conditions:(i) If the first digit is odd and the last digit is even, the codes for the first and last digits are to

be interchanged(ii) If both the first and the last digits are even, both are to be coded as *.(iii) If both the first and the last digits are odd, both are to be coded as $.

46. 215349(1) RAPK%© (2) *APK%$ (3) $APK%$ (4) ©PAK%R (5) None

47. 671254(1) @MA©P% (2) $MA©P$ (3) *MA©P* (4) %MA©P© (5) None

48. 813469(1) RAK%@D (2) DAK%@R (3) DAP%@R (4) *AK%@* (5)None

49 794821(1) MR%D©A (2) AR%D©M (3) M%RD©M (4) $R%D©$ (5) None

50. 591426(1) @RA%©P (2) PRA%©@ (3) @AR%©P (4) $RA%©* (5)None

NUMERICAL ABILITY

Directions(51-75):- What should come in the place of the question mark (?) in the following questions ?

51. 8994 – 4178 – 2094 = ?(1) 2720 (2) 2726 (3) 2730 (4) 2734 (5) None

52. 315 × 114 – 1565 = ?(1) 34534 (2) 34435 (3) 34345 (4) 33445 (5) None

53. 1256 ÷ (32 × 0.25) = ?(1) 160 (2) 154 (3) 165 (4) 157 (5) None


54. 69.2 × 18.4 × 4.5 = ?(1) 5729.76 (2) 5972.76 (3) 5279.76 (4) 5792.76 (5) None

55. 3.2 × 6.8 × 9.5 = ?(1) 207.62 (2) 202.67 (3) 206.27 (4) 207.72 (5) None

56. 153 × 93 – 15552 = ?(1) 41250 (2) 43250 (3) 42350 (4) 44250 (5) None

57.

(1) (2) (3) (4) (5) None

58.(1) 388 (2) 390 (3) 372 (4) 376 (5) None

59.(1) 169 (2) 256 (3) 225 (4) 196 (5) None

60. 123 ÷ 6 ÷ 0.8 = ?(1) 25.625 (2) 23.545 (3) 27.455 (4) 21.365 (5) None

61. 3647 + 4898 + 2120 + 165 = ?(1) 10830 (2) 10850 (3) 10910 (4) 10930 (5) None

62. 4.65 × ? – 25.18 = 31.271(1) 9.84 (2) 12.14 (3) 14.16 (4) 9.96 (5) None

63. 713896 – 24630 + 10687 = ?(1) 593696 (2) 563996 (3) 699953 (4) 698935 (5) None

64. (6)3 ÷ 4 × (3)3 = ?(1) 1448 (2) 1456 (3) 1460 (4) 1458 (5) None

65. 1190 ÷ × ? = 3094(1) 221 (2) 121 (3) 214 (4) 241 (5) none

66.

(1) (2) (3) (4) (5) None

67.(1) 1521 (2) 1681 (3) 1444 (4) 1849 (5) None

68. (0.98 × 6.3) + (? ÷ 12) = 58.174(1) 648 (2) 624 (3) 576 (4) 636 (5) None

69.(1) 8 (2) 15 (3) 2.8 (4) 24 (5) None


70. × ? + 148 = 196(1) 5160 (2) 6192 (3) 5502 (4) 4816 (5) None

71. (25% of 120) + (40% of 220) = ?(1) 115 (2) 122 (3) 120 (4) 112 (5) None

72. - 351 + (-441) × (-12) = ?(1) 4851 (2) -4941 (3) -4956 (4) 4951 (5) None

73. (9.3 × 7.5) ÷ (2.5 × 3.6) = ?(1) 7.15 (2) 8.95 (3) 6.75 (4) 7.95 (5) None

74. 32687 + 23349 = 33158 + ?(1) 22788 (2) 23278 (3) 23388 (4) 22878 (5) None

75.

(1) (2) (3) (4) (5) None

76. What would be the compound interest obtained on an amount of Rs. 1250 at the rate of 8 per cent per annum after 2 years ?(1) Rs. 200 (2) Rs. 208 (3) Rs. 212 (4) Rs. 220 (5) None

77. The owner of a stationary shop charges his customer 28% more than the cost price. If a customer paid Rs. 4544 for school books, then what was the cost price of the school books ?(1) Rs. 3,550 (2) Rs. 3,500 (3) Rs. 3,450 (4) Rs. 3,400 (5) None

78. The difference between 58% of a number and 39% of the same number is 247. What is 62% of that number ?(1) 1,300 (2) 806 (3) 754 (4) 1,170 (5) None

79. If (12)3 is subtracted from the square of a number, the answer so obtained is 976. What is the number ?(1) 58 (2) 56 (3) 54 (4) 52 (5) None

80. The average of 5 consecutive numbers A, B, C, D and E is 48. What is the product of A and E ?(1) 2162 (2) 2208 (3) 2024 (4) 2300 (5) None

81. What is the least number to be added to 3986 to make it a perfect square ?(1) 118 (2) 95 (3) 110 (4) 100 (5) None

82. If an amount of Rs. 50176 is distributed equally amongst 32 persons. How much amount would each person get ?(1) Rs. 1,555 (2) Rs. 1,478 (3) Rs. 1,460 (4) Rs. 1,568 (5) None

83. Ms. Sandhya deposits an amount of Rs. 31,400 to obtain a simple interest at the rate of 12 per cent per annum for8 years. What total amount will Ms. Sandhya get at the end of 8 years ?(1) Rs. 31,144 (2) Rs. 61,544 (3) Rs. 41,544 (4) Rs. 30,144 (5) None

84. If the fractions 2/5, 3/4, 4/5, 5/7 and 6/11 are arranged in ascending order of their values, which one will be the fourth ?(1) 2/5 (2) 3/4 (3) 4/5 (4) 6/11 (5) 5/7


85. What approximate value should come in place of the questions mark (?) in the following question?× 5.36 = ?

(1) 350 (2) 330 (3) 240 (4) 280 (5) 410

86. What amount of compound interest can be obtained on the principal amount of Rs. 15800 at the rate of 6 per cent per annum at the end of 2 years ?(1) Rs. 1,896 (2) Rs. 2012.48 (3) Rs. 1,952.88 (4) Rs. 1,956 (5) None

87. The average of five numbers is 281. the average of the first two numbers is 280 and the average of the last two numbers is 178.5. what is the third number ?(1) 488 (2) 336 (3) 228 (4) 464 (5) None

88. What should come in the place of the question mark (?) in the following number series ?18 38 120 ? 2480 14910(1) 394 (2) 450 (3) 492 (4) 486 (5) None

89. If 36a + 36b = 288, what is the average of a and b ?(1) 8 (2) 4 (3) 2 (4) 10 (5) None

90. What is 30% of 25% of 3/5th of 9800?(1) 433 (2) 453 (3) 441 (4) 391 (5) None

91. The difference between the ages of a boss and his subordinate is 16 years. Four years ago, the respective ratio of the ages of the boss and the subordinate was 11 : 7 then. What is the present age of the subordinate ?(1) 32 years (2) 28 years (3) 36 years (4) 40 years (5) None

92. If 7x + 5y = 20 and 12x + 5y = 75, what is the value of xy ?(1) 25 (2) 18 (3) 30 (4) Cannot be determined (5) None

93. If area of a circular jogging track is 3580 sq. metres. What is the circumference of the jogging track (1) 225 metres (2) 214 metres (3) 220 metres (4) 235 metres (5) None

94. What is 240 per cent of 700 ?(1) 1650 (2) 1780 (3) 1560 (4) 1710 (5) None

95. In a sale, a pair of trousers is available at 15% discount on the selling price. If the trousers discounted selling price is Rs. 837.25 in the sale. What was the original selling price of the trousers (1) Rs. 995 (2) Rs. 990 (3) Rs. 1,005 (4) Rs. 985 (5) Rs. 1,012

96. The average age of 3 friends is 32 years. If the age of the fourth friend is added. Their average age comes to 31 years. What is the age of the fourth friend ?(1) 32 years (2) 28 years (3) 24 years (4) 26 years (5) None

97. If (26)2 is subtracted from square of a number, the answer so obtained is 549. what is the numbers ?(1) 35 (2) 33 (3) 29 (4) 41 (5) None

98. A train running at speed of 90 km. per hour crosses a platform double its length in 36 seconds What is the length of the platform in metres ?(1) 450 (2) 200 (3) 300 (4) Cannot be determined (5) None


99. A sum of money is to be divided among Z, X, Y in the respective proportion of 4 : 5 : 6 and another sum to be divided between A and B equally. If Z got Rs. 2000 less than A, how much did X get ?(1) Rs. 10,000 (2) Rs. 5,000 (3) Rs. 4,000 (4) Rs. Cannot be determined (5) None

100. Surjeet’s Singh’s salary is 80% of Ranjeet’s salary and 120% of Lalitha’s salary. What is Surjeet Singh’s salary if Ranjeet salary is Rs. 15000 ?(1) Rs. 10,000 (2) Rs. 18,000 (3) Rs. 12,500 (4) Rs. 10,500 (5) None

MARKETING & COMPUTERS

101. Cross-selling covers(1) identifying customer needs (2) matching the products to customer needs(3) convincing the customers of product benefits (4) responding to questions and objections of customers (5) All of these

102. A prospect means(1) any customer who walks into the bank (2) an employee of the bank(3) a customer who is likely to be interested in bank’s product or service(4) a depositor of the bank (5) a borrower of the bank

103. A lead means(1) a prospect who is more likely to avail of the Bank’s Product. (2) a political leader(3) a religious leader (4) a bank chairman (5) None

104. Innovation means(1) compensation (2) inspiration (3) additional perquisites(4) implementing new ideas or new methods (5) None

105. A call means(1) calling in friends (2) calling on bank employees (3) calling on prospective customers(4) to make telephone calls (5) calling on relatives

106. Bank marketing means(1) Selling of banks (2) Buying of banks (3) Merger of banks(4) Selling bank’s products and services (5) Selling various items in banks

107. Proper pricing is needed for(1) Extra changes for extra services (2) Levy of VAT (3) Good customer service(4) Putting burden on the customer (5) Service with extra facilities

108. A lead means(1) A Bank’s marketing staff (2) A religious leader (3) Bank’s chairman(4) Target customer (5) Leash tied to a dog

109. A good salesman should be(1) Aggressive (2) pushy (3) fierce (4) polite, but firm (5) Talkative

110. Relationship selling means(1) Preparing a list of relatives (2) Cross selling (3) selling to relatives(4) selling to strangers (5) Telemarketing


111. Find the incorrect statement(1) Marketing has no relevance in public sector banks(2) Marketing has no relevance in private sector banks(3) Marketing has no relevance in foreign banks (4) All of these (5) None

112. Marketing is not required in one of the following products. That is(1) Sale of credit/debit cards (2) Sale of net banking (3) Sale of corporate loans(4) Sale of Retail loans (5) None

113. HNI means(1) Highly negative individual (2) High networth individual (3) high neutral individual(4) Highly necessary individual (5) All of these

114. Digital Banking means(1) Banking with calculators (2) Banking with digital instruments(3) Internet banking and telebanking (4) Export finance (5) None

115. Home loans are granted to(1) Individuals (2) Institutions (3) Builders (4) All of these (5) None

116. Credit cards are used for(1) Cash withdrawals (2) purchase of air tickets(3) purchase of consumable items from retail outlets (4) All of these (5) None

117. The ATMs are(1) Branches of banks (2) Manned counters of banks (3) Unmanned, cash dispensers(4) All of these (5) None

118. Internet Banking means(1) Meeting of Banks on the Net (2) Net Practice(3) Banking transactions through internet (4) Transactions with foreign countries(5) All of these

119. Customer Loyalty means(1) Shifting of customers from one bank to another(2) Customers banking with one bank exclusively (3) Customers returning lost items(4) Customer giving gifts to banks (5) None

120. A marketing plan is necessary for(1) Having a focussed approach to marketing (2) To decide marketing strategies(3) To decide product strategy (4) To decide advertising strategy(5) All of these

121. Public relations is required for(1) improving customer service in the company(2) Improving marketing functions in the company (3) Better atmosphere in the company(4) All of these (5) None

122. One of the following qulities is not required for effective marketing. That is(1) Self-motivation (2) Effective communication skills (3) Team work(4) Perseverance (5) Sympathy

123. Gift of the gab means


(1) Distributing gifts (2) Collecting garbage (3) Multi-linguist(4) Good communication skills (5) Short-tempered

124. Rural marketing involves(1) Selling to farmers and agriculturists (2) Selling to rural households(3) Selling to rural industries (4) Arranging meals (5) All of these

125. Find the incorrect statement(1) Marketing is redundant in computerized banks(2) Marketing is redundant in foreign countries(3) Marketing is redundant in private establishments(4) Marketing is redundant in Government establishments (5) All of these

126. What menu is selected to cut, copy, and paste ?(1) File (2) Tools (3) Special (4) Edit (5) None

127. The most important or powerful computer in a typical network is(1) desktop (2) network client (3) network server (4) network station (5) None

128. The primary purpose of software is to turn data into(1) Web sites (2) information (3) programs (4) objects (5) None

129. The ability to find an individual item in a file immediately ____ is used(1) file allocation table(2) directory (3) sequential access (4) direct access (5) None

130. To make a notebook act as a desktop model, the notebook can be connected to a ____ which is connected to a monitor and other devices.(1) bay (2) docking station (3) port (4) network (5) None

131. You can use the tab key to(1) move a cursor across the screen (2) indent a paragraph(3) move the cursor down the screen (4) Only (1) and (2) (5) None

132. A collection of related files is called a(1) character (2) field (3) database (4) record (5) None

133. Storage that retains its data after the power is turned off is referred to as(1) volatile storage (2) non-volatile storage(3) sequential storage(4) direct storage (5) None

134. Which of the following is an example of connectivity ?(1) internet (2) floppy disk (3) power cord (4) data (5) None

135. _____ is the process of finding errors in software code.(1) Compiling (2) Testing (3) Running (4) Debugging (5) None

136. A _____ contains specific rules and words that express the logical steps of an algorithm(1) Syntax (2) programming structure (3) prigramming language(4) logic chart (5) None

137. Changing an existing document is called ____ the document.(1) creating (2) editing (3) modifying (4) adjusting (5) None

138. Virtual memory is(1) memory on the hard disk that the CPU uses as an extended RAM (2) In RAM


(3) only necessary if you do not have any RAM in your computer(4) a back up device for floppy disks (5) None

139. Computers use the ____ number system to store data and perform calculations.(1) decimal (2) hexadecimal (3) octal (4) binary (5) None

140. The ____ key will launch the state buttons.(1) esc (2) shift (3) windows (4) shortcut (5) None

141. To move to the beginning of a line of text, press the ____ key.(1) home (2) a (3) page up (4) enter (5) None

142. When sending an e-mail, the ____ line describes the contents of the message.(1) to (2) subject (3) contents (4) CC (5) None

143. Which groupings do you work with when formatting text in word ?(1) Tables, paragraphs and indexes (2) paragraphs, indexes and selections(3) characters, sections and paragraphs (4) indexes, characters and tables (5) None

144. Which of the following is the largest unit of storage ?(1) GB (2) KB (3) MB (4) TB (5) None

145. The ____ tells the computer how to use its components.(1) utility (2) network (3) operating system(4) application program (5) None

146. When you are working on a document on PC, where is the document temporarily stored ?(1) RAM (2) ROM (3) The CPU(4) Flash memory (5) The CD-ROM

147. How are data organized in a spreadsheet ?(1) Lines and spaces (2) Layers and plans (3) Height and width(4) Rows and columns (5) None

148. Magnetic tape is not practical for applications where data must be quickly recalled because tape is(1) a random-access medium (2) a sequential access medium (3) a read only medium(4) fragile and easily damaged (5) an expensive storage medium

149. The blinking symbol on the computer screen is called the(1) mouse (2) logo (3) hand (4) palm (5) cursor

150. When cutting and pasting the item cut is temporarily stored in.(1) ROM (2) Hard drive (3) Diskette (4) Dashboard (5) Clipboard

GENERAL ENGLISH

Directions(151-165) :- Read the following two passages carefully and answer the questions given below them. Certain words/expressions are given in bold in passage I to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.

Passage I : (For Qs. 151-160) :- Ghanshyam Das Birla was a great architect of India’s industrial growth. He started his career in kolkata at the beginning of 20th century. He set up many industries. He entered the field of business during the days of the first world war and established himself after the war years. First, he established a cotton mill in Sabzi Mandi, Delhi, followed by


keshoram cotton Mills and Birla jute mills around 1920. The keshoram Mills were set up with the effects of Andrew yule. In 1919, with an investment of Rs. 50 lakhs, Birla Brothers Limited was formed and thereafter a mill was set up in Gwalior.

Mr. Birla realized that political freedom from British rule was imperative for the industrial growth of India. In 1920, he came into contact with Gandhiji and became his disciple. In the decade of the 30’s he set up sugar and paper mills. From 1943 to 1946, with the stock exchange gaining ground, Birla Brothers ventured into the areas of cars, cotton, machinery and manmade fabrics. United commercial Bank was set up during this period. Prior to this, he had established Ruby, Asiatic insurance Co. and inland Air service.

After independence, the Birlas expanded their business and started production in many fields. Near Mirzapur, he, in colladoration with Caesar, an American friend, set up an aluminum plant Hindalco in record time. He bought the century Mill from from Sir Chunnilal V.Mehta, the cousin of Sir purshottam Das Thakur Das. He also bought tea estates and started cement and fertilizer factories. He established a new style of management. In his birth place pilani, and at many other places he started many educational institutions. To his credit go many temples, planetariums and hospitals. In 1983, he died while in London, but not before seeing his business flourish as one of the topmost establishments in India. During the decades of 70’s and 80’s, Birla Brothers was among the topmost industrial Houses in India.

Passage II : (For Qs. 161-165) :- Anna Saheb Karve’s life was as simple and clean as that of an ancient ascetic (Rishi Muni). He was liberal in his views and sympathetic in his attitude. He was deeply moved by the troubles and tribulations of women folk.

What Anna Saheb did for the upliftment of women in the last decade of the nineteenth century was beyond the imagination of the people. He created an awakening among women through his writing in kesari. He was a staunch supporter of widow remarriage. On March 11, 1893, he set an example for society by talking the bold step of marrying a window. The couple dedicated their lives to social work and reform. He established an orphanage in pune.

Anna Saheb realised the importance of education for women. He spared no effoct in starting the Bharatiya Mahila Vidyapeeth, the first university for women. In 1921, he traveled to Europe and America and met famous people like Albert Einstein and formulated his opinions regarding work. In 1958, he was awarded the ‘Bharat Ratna’ in recognition of his services in educational and social reforms.

151. Ghanshyam Das Birla was better known to India as(1) a freedom fighter against British rule (2) an architect of temples in various cities(3) a pioneer of temples in various cities (4) an architect of the textile industry in India(5) None

152. Ghanshyam Das Birla’s first industrial venture was(1) a textile related industry (2) a cotton mill, Gwalior(3) Keshoram Cotton Mills, Delhi (4) car manufacturing company (5) None

153. What was Andrew Yule’s role in Ghanshyam Das Birla’s career ?(1) He helped Ghanshyam Das Birla in setting up cotton mills in Sabzi Mandi, Delhi.(2) He invested Rs.50 lakhs in keshoram cotton Mills(3) He extended a lot of help to Ghanshyam Das birla in his second venture.(4) He helped Ghanshyam Das Birla in the field of business before the First world War. (5) None

154. What was Ghanshyam Das Birla’s view about the British rule in India ?(1) The British rule was very atrocious(2) The British rule was counter productive to india’s industrial growth(3) The British rule was not a hindrance to india’s industrial growth.(4) The industrial growth of India had nothing to do with gaining freedom from the British(5) None


155. Which of the following can be inferred from the passage ?(A) Ghanshyam Das Bira could set up a large number of diverse industries due to British rule in India.(B) Ghanshyam Das Birla, with his family members, started various industries due to flourishing of the stock Exchange.(C) Ghanshyam Das Birla was impressed by Gandhiji’s philosophy.(1) Both (A) and (B) (2) Both (A) and (C) (3) All the three (4) Only (B) and (C) (5) None

156. Which of the following statements is FALSE in the context of the passage ?(A) Ghanashyam Das Birla unfortunately died before realizing the progress his business had made.(B) Hindalco was set up in a very short time span(C) Ghanashyam Das Birla’s management style was different from the traditional one.(1) (A) only (2) (B) only (3) (C) only(4) Both (A) and (B) (5) Both (A) and (C)

Directions (157-158) :- Choose the word/group of words which is/are most nearly the SAME in meaning to the word/group of words given in bold as used in the passage.

157. Imperative(1) trivial (2) dispensable (3) inadequate (4) improper (5) unavoidable

158. Gaining Ground(1) obtaining land (2) making advances (3) losing heavily(4) grounding due to losses (5) having level playing field

Directions (159-160):- Choose the word which is most OPPOSITE in the meaning of the word printed in bold as used in the passage.

159. Expanded(1) increased (2) extended (3) banned (4) curtailed (5) perished

160. Flourish(1) folwer (2) tarnish (3) gain (4) disgrace (5) deteriorate

161. Which of the following makes Anna Sahab Karve comparable to an ascetic ?(1) His emphasis on the importance of education(2) His efforts in founding Bharatiya Mahila Vidyapeeth(3) His liberal views and deep sympathy and sensitivity for women and simple and clean life.(4) His winning the Bharat Ratna Award (5) He was an old man.

162. What did Anna Saheb Karve do to prove that he practised what he preached ?(1) He wrote articles in ‘Kesari’ for creating awareness among women(2) He established an orgphanage in pune(3) He expressed very strong views in support of widow re marriage(4) He married a window (5) None

163. What was Karve’s ideology in starting Bharatiya Mahila Vidyapeeth ?(A) Women must have greater access to and opportunities for education(B) Windows and forsaken women should get opportunities for being self-reliant(C) Uplifting of women who had remained underprivileged for years.


(1) All the three (2) Both (A) and (C) (3) Both (B) and (C) (4) Only (C) (5) Only (A)

164. Anna Saheb Karve was felicitated with the ‘Bharat Ratne’ Award for :(A) his recognizing that educational reform alone was the solution to all the problems that women faced(B) his contribution to the education of women and their social transformation(C) his intellectual discussions with world famous scientists and social reformers.(1) (A) only (2) (B) only (3) (C) only (4) Only (A) and (B) (5) All the three

165. Which of the following statements is definitely TRUE in the context of the passage ?(A) Before the last decade of 19th century, widow remarriages were socially unacceptable.(B) Anna Saheb Karve thought that educating women was one of the most effective ways of their upliftment.(C) Anna Saheb Karve’s wife actively joined him in his social service.(1) Both (A) and (B) (2) Both (B) and (C) (3) Both (A) and (C) (4) All the three (5) None

Directions(166-180) :- Read each of the following sentences to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is (5). i.e. ‘No Error’. (ignore the errors of punctuation, if any).

166. The road from the (1)/ river bank to the hut (2)/ was more difficult than (3)/ we have feared. (4). No error (5).

167. I found that (1)/ I had had the (2)/ hardest time in writing dialogues (3)/ for elderly people. (4)/ No error (5).

168. During the course of the exhibition, (1)/ the old man who was (2)/ looking usually cheerful (3)/ kept on take notes. (4)/ No error (5).

169. Unable to decide (1)/ what to do,(2)/ he stared at the fountain (3)/ at the centre of the park. (4)/ No error (5).

170. The bank employees could remember john (1)/ as he has been maintained (2)/ his account with the bank (3)/ for the last ten years.(4)/ No error (5).

171. There has not a (1)/ moment when the gates (2)/ of the bungalow (3)/ were not being watched (4)/ No error (5)

172. Haven’t you notice (1)/ that for the past one month (2)/ he hasn’t been here (3)/ at his regular place ?(4)/ No error (5)

173. It seemed to him (1)/ that the manager of the (2)/ bank looking at him (3)/ in a rather suspicious manner. (4)/ No error (5)]

174. The policeman went away, (1)/ apparently convincing (2)/ but he did not (3)/ feel safe at all. (4)/ No error (5)

175. It was with that moment (1)/ that the front door scanner (2)/ warned us that (3)/ someone was approaching. (4)/ No error (5)

176. We all seemed to forget (1)/ for a while that (2)/ something very strangely and terribly (3)/ had happened (4)/ No error (5)


177. He is one (1)/ of the religious reformers (2)/ who has spoken out (3)/ strongly against casteism. (4)/ No error (5)

178. I becoming an administrator (1)/ was not liked (2)/ by my parents (3)/ and our well wishers. (4)/ No error (5)

179. With his many talents (1)/ and dynamic leadership (2)/ he served his country (3)/ in commendable and lasting ways. (4)/ No error (5)

180. He was not (1)/ a leader who (2)/ was desiring of making (3)/ compromises with the rulers. (4)/ No error (5)

Directions (181-185) :- Which of the phrases at (1), (2), (3) and (4) given below should replace the phrase given in bold in the sentence to make the sentence grammatically meaningful and correct. If the sentence is correct as it is and ‘No correction is required’, mark (5) as the answer.

181. Anyone with a little interest in sports is bound to familiar with Sachin Tendulkar’s name.(1) binding to familiar (2) bound to be familiar (3) binding to be familiar(4) bound to have familiar (5) No correction required

182. He asked me if I will accept his conditions if he helped me.(1) that if I will accept (2) that if I would accept (3) if I would accept(4) if would I be accepting (5) No correction required

183. The ship was not fit to survive another storm as the damage was beyond repair.(1) fitted to survive (2) fit to be surviving (3) fitting for survival(4) fit with survival (5) No correction required

184. His changed attitudes did not go well within his family.(1) had not gone well within (2) went not well within (3) could not go well into(4) did not go well with (5) No correction required

185. What all this mean, is that the disciples are more powerful than their teacher.(1) all this means (2) does all this mean (3) all the meaning(4) does this all mean (5) No correction required

Directions(186-190):- In the following passage, a set of seven statements denoted by (A), (B), (C), (D), (E), (F) and (G) are given. Keeping (A) as the first statement, rearrange the other six statements (B), (C), (D), (E), (F) & (G) to make a meaningful paragraph. Then answer the questions that follow.(A) Galileo Galleli was one of the greatest scientific pioneers who is still remembered.(B) It darkened his life and all his achievements(C) It shows us the new words of the heavens, stars, etc.(D) The Church imposed a ban on him.(E) Despite his fame, his support of the copernican Theory that the earth moved round the sun

created problem for him.(F) It was because of this, that he was held in high esteem.(G) His name lives on as that of an astronomer who perfected the the refracting telescope.

186. Which of the following should be the SECOND statement after rearrangement ?(1) C (2) D (3) E (4) F (5) G

187. Which of the following should be the THIRD statement after rearrangement ?(1) C (2) D (3) E (4) F (5) G


188. Which of the following should be the FIFTH statement after rearrangement ?(1) B (2) C (3) D (4) E (5) F

189. Which of the following should be the SIXTH statement after rearrangement ?(1) B (2) C (3) D (4) E (5) F

190. Which of the following should be the SEVENTH (LAST) statement after rearrangement ?(1) B (2) C (3) D (4) E (5) F

Directions(191-200) :-In the following passage, there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each, five words are suggested, one of which fits the blanks appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.

Madan Mohan Malviya belonged to a poor family. He was born on 25th December, 1861. He was a bright student. After graduating in 1891, he (191) law but later jumped into the (192) of freedom struggle. It is ironic but (193) that he was loved by both Indian masses and British officers. Mr. Malviya was an Indian (194) the backbone. He (195) the Indian culture and kept his ideas (196) all his life. He (197) name and fame because of the work he did for social, ethical and educational (198). He was called Mahamana and was loved by all. For the poor, he (199) special feelings. Dressed in an immaculate Khaddar Pyjama-Kurta and a head-gear, his image (200) ever in the hearts of the people. Unfortunately he died in 1946 a year before India got independence.

191. (1) designed (2) interpreted (3) joined (4) framed (5) explained

192. (1) arena (2) china (3) location (4) pool (5) valley

193. (1) absurd (2) unpalatable (3) extreme (4) unreliable (5) true

194. (1) with (2) to (3) at (4) of (5) by

195. (1) admired (2) insisted (3) defended (4) subscribed (5) maintained

196. (1) intact (2) unfulfilled (3) emerging (4) opened (5) safe

197. (1) aspired (2) demanded (3) gained (4) wanted (5) cherished

198. (1) process (2) deterioration (3) conservation (4) activism (5) upliftment

199. (1) loved (2) had (3) discarded (4) acquired (5) initiated

200. (1) sees (2) absolves (3) worships (4) remains (5) entersANSWERS

(1) 2 (2) 1 (3) 3 (4) 3 (5) 4 (6) 3 (7) 2 (8) 2 (9) 1 (10) 4 (11) 2 (12) 1 (13) 4 (14) 2(15) 3 (16) 4 (17) 3 (18) 5 (19) 2 (20) 1 (21) 1 (22) 3 (23) 2 (24) 1 (25) 5 (26) 3 (27) 3 (28) 5(29) 2 (30) 1 (31) 1 (32) 3 (33) 4 (34) 2 (35) 3 (36) 1 (37) 2 (38) 4 (39) 3 (40) 5 (41) 5 (42) 2(43) 5 (44) 4 (45) 4 (46) 5 (47) 3 (48) 2 (49) 4 (50) 1 (51) 5 (52) 3 (53) 4 (54) 1 (55) 5 (56) 3(57) 1 (58) 3 (59) 4 (60) 1 (61) 1 (62) 2 (63) 3 (64) 4 (65) 1 (66) 3 (67) 1 (68) 2 (69) 5 (70) 3(71) 5 (72) 5 (73) 5 (74) 4 (75) 2 (76) 2 (77) 1 (78) 2 (79) 4 (80) 4 (81) 3 (82) 4 (83) 2 (84) 2(85) 2 (86) 3 (87) 1 (88) 3 (89) 2 (90) 3 (91) 1 (92) 5 (93) 3 (94) 5 (95) 4 (96) 2 (97) 1 (98) 5(99) 4 (100) 5(101) 5(102) 3 (103) 1(104) 4(105) 3(106) 4(107) 3(108) 4(109) 4(110) 3(111) 4(112) 5(113) 2(114) 3(115) 1(116) 4(117) 3(118) 3(119) 2(120) 5(121) 4(122) 5(123) 4(124) 5(125) 5(126) 4(127) 3(128) 2(129) 3(130) 2(131) 4(132) 4(133) 2(134) 1(135) 2(136) 1(137) 2(138) 1(139) 4(140) 3(141) 1(142) 2(143) 1 (144) 1(145) 3(146) 4(147) 4(148) 2(149) 5(150) 5(151) 3(152) 1(153) 3(154) 2(155) 4(156) 1(157) 5(158) 2(159) 4(160) 5 (161) 3(162) 4(163) 2(164) 2(165) 4(166) 4(167) 5(168) 4


(169) 1(170) 2(171) 1(172) 1(173) 3(174) 2(175) 1(176) 3(177) 3(178) 1(179) 5(180) 3(181) 2(182) 3(183) 5(184) 4(185) 1 (186) 5(187) 1(188) 4(189) 3(190) 1(191) 3(192) 4(193) 5(194) 2(195) 1(196) 1(197) 3(198) 5 (199) 2(200) 2.

BANK Po’s Model Paper

REASONING1. How many such digits are there in the number 5236978 each of which is as far away from the

beginning of the number as when the digits are rearranged in ascending order within the number ?(1) None (2) One (3) Two (4) Three(5) More than three

2. In a certain code language COMPUTER is written as LNBVQSFU. How is BULKHEAD written in that code language ?(1) MVCILEBF (2) KTAILEBF (3) MTAGJEBF (4) KTAGJEBF (5) None

3. How many meaningful English words can be made with the letters IDET using each letter only once in each word ?(1) None (2) One (3) Two (4) Three(5) More than three

4. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group ?(1) HK (2) BD (3) FI (4) MP (5) SV

5. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group ?(1) Tomato (2) Brinjal (3) Radish (4) Pumpkin (5) Gourd

6. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word IMPORTANCE, each of which has as many letters between them in the word as they have between them in the English alphabet ?(1) None (2) One (3) Two (4) Three(5) More than three

7. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is one that does not belong to that group ?(1) Dog (2) Horse (3) Wolf (4) Jackal (5) Cat

8. In a certain code language FIRE is written as # % @ $ and DEAL is written as © $ H ↑. How is FAIL written in that code language ?(1) # * % ↑ (2) # $ % ↑ (3) # * @ $ (4) # * © ↑ (5) None

9. In a certain code language, ‘come again’ is written as ‘ho na’, ‘come over here’ is written as ‘pa na ta’ and ‘over and above’ is written as ‘ki ta ja’. How is here’ written in that code language?(1) pa (2) na (3) ta (4) ja (5) None

10. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group ?(1) 84 (2) 120 (3) 72 (4) 108 (5) 98

Directions (11-15):- In these questions, symbols @, #, %, $ and © are used with different meanings as follows.‘A @ B’ means ‘A is not smaller than B’‘A # B’ means ‘A is neither smaller than nor equal to B’.‘A % B’ means ‘A is not greater than B’‘A $ B’ means ‘A is neither greater than nor equal to B’.


‘A © B’ means ‘A is neither smaller than nor greater than B’11. Statements :

J # H, H © T, T $ R, R % FConclusions :I. J # R II. R # F III. J # T(1) Only I is true (2) Only I and II are true (3) Only III is true (4) All are true(5) None

12. Statements :E $ P, P % H, H @ I, I # KConclusion :I. P © I II. I % E III. H % K(1) Only I is true (2) Only II is true (3) Only III is true(4) Only I and II are true (5) None

13. Statements :L @ K, K # R, R $ H, H % NConclusions :I. L # R II. N # R III. L © N(1) Only I and II are true (2) Only either I or II is true (3) Only II and III are true(4) Only III is true (5) None

14. Statements :T $ V, V % K, K © L, L % HConclusions :I. V % H II. T $ L III. T $ H(1) Only I and II are true (2) Only II and III are true (3) Only I and III are true(4) All are true (5) None

15. Statements:V @ W, W # D, D $ M , M % FConclusions:I. V # D II. F # D III. V © F(1) Only I is true (2) Only II is true (3) Only either I or II is true(4) Both I and II are true (5) None

Directions (16-20) :- In each of the questions below are given four statements followed by three conclusions numbered I, II and III. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facrs. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.

16. Statements:Some plates are spoonsAll spoons are forksAll forks are bowlsSome bowls are utensilsConclusions:I. Some plates are bowls II. All spoons are bowls III. Some forks are utensils(1) Only I follows (2) Only II follows (3) Only I and III follow(4) Only I and II follows (5) None

17. Statements:Some books are filesAll files are discs


Some discs are boardsAll boards are keysConclusions :I. Some books are keys II. No book is key III. Some discs are keys(1) Only III follows (2) Only I and III follows (3) Either I or II and III follows(4) All follow (5) None

18. Statements :All buses are trainsSome trains are carsNo car is scooterAll scooter are jeepsConclusions:I. Some cars are busesII. All jeeps are scooters III. No jeep is train(1) Only I follows (2) Only II follows (3) Only III follows(4) Only either I or III follows (5) None

19. Statements:All curtains are pillowsNo pillow is mattressSome mattresses are bedsAll beds are sofasConclusions:I. No bed is pillow II. Some mattresses are sofas III. Some beds are pillows(1) Only either I or III follows (2) Only II follows (3) Only II and either I or III follow(4) Only I and II follow (5) All follow

20. Statements:Some pulses are grainsSome grains are sproutsAll sprouts are hutsNo fruit is nutConclusion:I. Some nuts are pulses II. Some nuts are grains III. No fruit is sprout(1) Only II and III follow (2) Only I and II follow (3) Only either I or II follows(4) None follows (5) None of these

Directions(21-25):- Study the following information carefully to answer these questions:Seven candidates- Harish, Samir, Nilesh, Shailaja, Nikita, Laxman and Sujatha are – to be

interviewed for selection as Trainee officers by different panels I to VII for different companies A, B, C, D, E, F and G not necessarily in the same order.

Nilesh is interviewed by panel IV for company A. Samir is interviewed by panel III but not for company C or D. Harish is interviewed for company B but not by panel I or II. Nikita is interviewed by panel VI for company E. Panel VII conducts the interview for company. Sailaja is interviewed by panel I but not for company C. Panel II does not interview laxman.

21. Shailaja is interviewed for which company ? (1) A (2) G (3) F (4) D (5) None

22. Panel II conducts interview for which company ?(1) C (2) F (3) G (4) B (5) None

23. Who among the following is interviewed for company G ?


(1) Nikita (2) Samir (3) Shailaja (4) Laxman (5) None

24. Who among the following is interviewed for company F ?(1) Shailaja (2) Sujatha (3) Laxman (4) Cannot be determined(5) None

25. Which candidate is interviewed by panel V ?(1) Harish (2) Laxman (3) Sujata (4) Shailaja (5) None

Directions (26-30):- Study the following arrangement carefully and answer thea questions given below :R 5 M E % 4 W 1 A 2 D # K $ 3 P 9 @ F B © 8 J I 7 * H 6 Q V Y

26. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on their positions in the above arrangement and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group ?(1) K 3 2 (2) J 7 B (3) 4 1 M (4) 6 V 7 (5) P F $

27. If all the symbols in the above arrangement are removed. Which of the following will be the fifth to the right of the eleventh from the left end ?(1) F (2) D (3) 8 (4) B (5) None

28. How amny such numbers are there in the above arrangement, each of which is immediately preceded by a consonant but immediately followed by a consonant ?(1) None (2) One (3) Two (4) Three(5) More than three

29. Which of the following is the eighth to the right of the nineteenth from the right end of the above arrangement ?(1) © (2) % (3) D (4) H (5) None

30. How many such symbols are there in the above arrangement, each of which is immediately preceded by a number and immediately followed by a consonant ?(1) None (2) One (3) Two (4) Three(5) More than three

Directions(31-35):- In each question below is given a statement followed by two courses of action numbered I and II. A course of action is a step or administrative decision to be taken for improvement. Follow-up or further action in regard to the problem, policy, etc. on the basis of the information given in the statement, you have to assume everything in the statement to be true, then decide which of the suggested courses of action logically follow(s) or pursuing.Give answer (1) if only I followGive answer (2) if only II follows.Give answer (3) if either I or II follows.Give answer (4) if neither I nor II follows.Give answer (5) if both I and II follow.

31. Statement:The local college principal has ordered that all the students must strictly adhere to the dress code stipulated by the collage authority in the admission brochure.Courses of action:I. Those students who are found to violate the dress code should be terminated from the collegeII. Those students who are found to violate the dress code for the first time should be reprimanded and be warned against further violation.

32. Statements:The railways have decided to repair the main tracks within the city on the following Sunday and has decided to suspend operations for the whole day.


Courses of action:I. The railway authority should issue public notification well in advance to ease inconvenience to the passengers.II. All the long distance trains entering the city during the repair hours should be terminated outside the city limit.

33. Statements:Many motorists driving on the highway within the city are found to be driving much beyond the permissible speed limit.Course of action:I. The traffic police should personally monitor the movement of vehicles on the highway within the city.II. The government should immediately put in place a mechanism to identify and punish erring drivers.

34. Statements:Majority of the city employees in the renowned BPO company has left their jobs to protest against inhuman treatment meted out to them by the company.Courses of action:I. The government should immediately order the BPO company to close down its operation.II. The BPO company should shift its operations to some other place to continue its operations.

35. Statements:The management of the organization has issued a circular to all its employees stating that each employee must report for duty at 10.00 A.M.. sharp and should remain in his/her place till 5.30 P.M. everyday.Courses of action:I. The management should evolve a mechanism to identify such employees who may not adhere to the time schedule.II. All such employees who are found to be falling to maintain time schedule should be summarily suspended.

Directions(36-40):- Below is given a passage followed by several possible inferences which can be drawn from the facts stated in the passage. You have to examine each inference separately in the context of the passage and decide upon its degree of truth or falsity.

Mark answer (1) if inference is definitely true’, i.e., it properly follows from the statement of facts given.

Mark answer (2) if the inference is ‘probably true’ though not ‘definitely true’ in the light of the facts given.

Mark answer (3) if the ‘data are inadequate’, i.e.. from the facts given you cannot say whether the inference is likely to be true or false.

Mark answer (4) if the inference is ‘probably false’, though not ‘definitely false’ in the light of the facts given.

Mark answer (5) if the inference is ‘definitely false’, i.e., it cannot possibly be drawn from the facts given or its contradicts the given facts.

The latest data to show that the over all power situation has gotten worse, with the ratio for peak-load shortages now the highest in a decade. In absolute terms, the power deficit has hit record levels and seems almost certain to further deteriorate without real reforms on the ground. Even as aggressive technical and commercial losses in the power system remain much high at over a third of total generation, pan-India capacity addition is now well below target. A shortage of equipment and skills is blamed for the marked slow down in augmenting power capacity. But the dearth of resources can only be relative. In fact, the real bane of the sector is continuing revenue leakage in the state power utilities and unacceptably high aggregate technical and commercial losses, much of


it plain theft of electricity. Given the preponderance of state utilities in power supply, the fact that they remain very much in red does affect investor comfort and return funds flow.

36. Indian power generation is largely controlled by private sector.37. Reforms in power sector in India has not yet attained its desired level.38. Indian power sector is yet to attain status comparable to developed countries.39. Power theft is one of the major components of revenue losses in power sector.40. Aggregate technical and commercial loss is much less then thirty per cent of the total power

generation.

Directions(41-45):- In each question below is given a group of digits/symbols followed by four combinations of letters numbered (1), (2), (3) and (4). You have to find out which of the combination correctly represents the group of digits/symbols based on the following coding system and the conditions those follow. If none of the combinations correctly represents the group of letters/digits, give (5) i.e. ‘None of these’ as the answer.Digit/Symbol 1 # $ 9 8 6 % @ © 7 2 4 * 3 5Letter Code B D E N I V R G H K T J P F AConditions:(i) If both the first and the last elements in the group are odd digits then both are to be coded as

‘Y’(ii) If the first element is a symbol and the last element is an even digit, the codes for the first

and the last elements are to be interchanged.(iii) If the first element is an odd digit and the last element is a symbol, both are to be coded as

‘Z’.(iv) If the first element is an even digit and the last element is odd digit, both are to be coded as

the code for the odd digit..41. 3$95#1

(1) FENADB (2) BENADF (3) ZENADZ (4) FENADF (5) None

42. 8%©3#5(1) YRHFDY (2) ARHFDI (3) ARHFDA (4) YRHFDA (5) None

43. ©8143*$(1) EIBJFPH (2) VIBJFPY (3) EIBJFP# (4) HIBJFPE (5) None

44. 6%@9#3(1) VRGNDF (2) FRGNDF (3) YRGNDF (4) ZRGNDZ (5) None

45. *$6724(1) JEVKTP (2) PEVKTJ (3) YEVKTY (4) ZEVKTZ (5) None

Directions(46-50):- Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions:

A word and number arrangement machine when given an input line of words and number rearranges them following a particular rule in each step. The following is an illustration of input and rearrangement.Input : 51 pour 32 start now 23 46 houseStep I : 23 51 pour 32 start now 46 houseStep II : 23 start 51 pour 32 now 46 houseStep III: 23 start 32 51 pour now 46 houseStep IV: 23 start 32 pour 51 now 46 houseStep V : 23 start 32 pour 46 51 now houseStep VI : 23 start 32 pour 46 now 51 house


As per the rules followed in the above steps, find out in each of the following questions the appropriate step for the given input.

46. Step II of an input is : 18 task bear cold dish 81 63 31How many more steps will be required to complete the rearrangement?(1) Three (2) Four (3) Five (4) Six (5) None

47. Input : 72 59 37 go for picnic 24 journeyHow many steps will be required to complete the rearrangement(1) Three (2) Four (3) Five (4) Six (5) None

48. Input : nice flower 34 12 costly height 41 56Which of the following will be step III ?(1) 12 nice 34 height flower costly 41 56 (2) 12 nice 34 height 41 flower costly 56(2) 12 nice 34 flower costly height 41 56 (4) 12 nice flower 34 costly height 41 56(3) None

49. Step II of an input is : 16 victory 19 36 53 store lake townWhich of the following will be step V?(1) 16 victory 19 town store 36 53 lake (2) 16 victory 19 town 36 store 53 lake(3) 16 victory 19 town 36 53 store lake (4) There will be no such step (5) None

50. Step III of an input is : 15 yes 29 ask for soap 42 37Which of the following is definitely the input?(1) ask yes 29 15 for soap 42 37 (2) yes ask 15 29 for soap 42 37(3) 29 15 yes ask for soap 42 37 (4) Cannot be determined (5) None

QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE

Directions(45-55):- What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following questions?

51. (47 × 588) ÷ (28 × 120) = ?(1) 6.284 (2) 7.625 (3) 8.225 (4) 8.285 (5) None

52. 45% of 224 × ?% of 120 = 8104.32(1) 67 (2) 62 (3) 59 (4) 71 (5) None

53. × 51 + 374 = (?)3

(1) 16 (2) 19 (3) 15 (4) 21 (5) None

54. 6573 ÷ 21 × (0.2)2 = ?(1) 7825 (2) 62.6 (3) 1565 (4) 12.52 (5) None

55. 74156 - ? – 321 – 20 + 520 = 69894(1) 3451 (2) 4441 (3) 5401 (4) 4531 (5) None

Directions(56-60):- What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following number series ?

56. 1548 516 129 43 ?(1) 11 (2) 10.75 (3) 9.5 (4) 12 (5) None

57. 949 189.8 ? 22.776 11.388 6.8328


(1) 48.24 (2) 53.86 (3) 74.26 (4) 56.94 (5) None

58. 121 144 190 259 ? 466(1) 351 (2) 349 (3) 374 (4) 328 (5) None

59. 14 43.5 264 ? 76188(1) 3168 (2) 3176 (3) 1587 (4) 1590 (5) None

60. 41 164 2624 ? 6045696(1) 104244 (2) 94644 (3) 94464 (4) 102444 (5) None

61. Two numbers are less than the third number by 50% and 54% respectively. By how much per cent is the second number less than the first number ?(1) 13 (2) 10 (3) 12 (4) Cannot be determined (5) None

62. In how many different ways can the letters of the word ‘BLOATING’ be arranged ?(1) 40320 (2) 5040 (3) 2520 (4) 20160 (5) None

63. The average of 5 numbers is 306.4. The average of the first two numbers is 431 and the average of the last two numbers is 214.5. What is the third number ?(1) 108 (2) 52 (3) 321 (4) Cannot be determined (5) None

64. Fifty six men can complete a piece of work in 24 days. In how many days can 42 men complete the same piece of work ?(1) 18 (2) 32 (3) 98 (4) 48 (5) None

65. A man takes 6 hours 35 minutes in walking to a certain place and riding back. He would have taken 2 hours less by riding both ways. What would be the time he would take to walk both ways?(1) 4 hours 35 minutes (2) 8 hours 35 minutes (3) 10 hours(4) 8 hours 25 minutes (5) NoneDirection(66-70) :- Study the following table carefully and answer the questions given below.

Number of males and females staying in various Societies

Societies Males FemalesA 250 350B 400 150C 300 275D 280 300E 180 250F 325 300

Percentage of children (Males and Females) in the Societies

Societies Children Male Children

Female Children

A 25% 40% 60%B 40% 75% 25%C 16% 25% 75%D 25% 80% 20%E 40% 50% 50%F 24% 46% 54%

66. What is the respective ratio of the number of adult females to the total number of female children staying in all the societies together ?


(1) 243 : 82 (2) 112 : 71 (3) 82 : 243 (4) 71 : 112 (5) None

67. What is the total number of female children staying in all the societies together?(1) 314 (2) 433 (3) 410 (4) 343 (5) None

68. What is the respective ratio of the total number of adult males in societies A and B together to the total number of adult males in societies E and F together?(1) 75 : 79 (2) 14 : 17 (3) 79 : 75 (4) 17 : 14 (5) None

69. What is the total number of members staying in all the societies together ?(1) 3520 (2) 3360 (3) 4100 (4) 3000 (5) None

70. What is the difference between the number of male children in society B and the number of male children in society F ?(1) 84 (2) 14 (3) 96 (4) 26 (5) None

Directions(71-75): Study the following Pie-Chart carefully and answer the questions given below.

Percentage of people in a city working in Night Shifts from various industries (Total number of people- 40250)

Percentage of Females from various industries working in night shiftsIndustries FemalesIT 20%Sports 20%Call Centre 45%Sales 60%Banking 40%Chemical Industries 15%

71. What is the respective ratio of men to the women working in night shifts from the call centre industry?(1) 9 : 11 (2) 7 : 5 (3) 8 : 13 (4) 11 : 7 (5) None

72. What is the approximate average number of females working in night shifts from all the industries together?(1) 2227 (2) 4481 (3) 3326 (4) 2823 (5) 4107

73. What is the total number of men working in night shifts from all the industries together?(1) 28297 (2) 25788 (3) 28978 (4) 26887 (5) None


74. The number of women from the sports industry are what per cent of the total number of people working in the night shifts from all the industries together?(1) 5.6 (2) 3.6 (3) 3.2 (4) 4.4 (5) None

75. What is the difference between the total number of men and the total number of women working in night shifts from all the industries together?(1) 13254 (2) 13542 (3) 13524 (4) 13363 (5) None

Directions(76-80):- Study the following table carefully and answer the questions given below.Number of people working in various departments from various Organisations

Departments OrganisationsA B C D E

HR 1050 1015 976 888 1004Finance 1017 960 786 1025 963Marketing 1382 1384 1275 1300 1290Production 1542 1545 1550 1570 1580Accounts 786 745 801 800 735Legal 48 48 36 30 53

76. The total number of employees working in the legal department are approximately what per cent of the total number of employees working in HR department of all the organisations together?(1) 4 (2) 8 (3) 12 (4) 6 (5) 10

77. What is the approximate difference between the average number of people working in Marketing and production departments from all the organisations together ?(1) 578 (2) 231 (3) 330 (4) 1156 (5) 300

78. What is the respective ratio of the total number of employees working in organisation A to the total number of employees working in organization E?(1) 225 : 233 (2) 71 : 75 (3) 75 : 71 (4) 233 : 215 (5) None

79. What is the total number of employees from all the departments working in all organisations together?(1) 26960 (2) 28910 (3) 28190 (4) 29660 (5) None

80. The number of people working in the finance department from organisation B are approximately what per cent of the total number of employees working in organisation B?(1) 12 (2) 15 (3) 20 (4) 17 (5) 25

Directions(81-85):- Study the following data carefully and answer the questions given below:

Out of a total number of commuters commuting daily in a city, 17, 171 commuters commute only by trains daily. 7359 commuters commute only be bikes and 22,077 commuters commute only by bus. 14,718 commuters commute only by their private cars and 4,906 commuters commute only by autos. 7,359 commuters commute only by taxis. 26,983 commuters commute by bus as well as trains daily. 9,812 commuters commute by autos as well as trains daily. 12,265 commuters commute by bus as well as autos daily.

81. The total number of commuters commuting by trains form what per cent of the total number of commuters commuting daily?(1) 22 (2) 44 (3) 14 (4) 36 (5) None


82. The total number of commuters commuting by autos form what per cent of the total number of commuters commuting daily?(1) 10 (2) 18 (3) 22 (4) 4 (5) None

83. The total number of commuters commuting by bikes and taxis together form what per cent of the total number of commuters commuting daily?(1) 12 (2) 6 (3) 8 (4) 16 (5) None

84. What is the total number of commuters in the city commuting daily ?(1) 122650 (2) 126250 (3) 162250 (4) 15226 (5) None

85. The number of commuters commuting only by bus form what per cent of the total number of commuters commuting daily?(1) 40 (2) 22 (3) 32 (4) 18 (5) None

Directions(86-90):- Study the following Graph carefully and answer the questions given below:Units of Raw Meterial Manufactured and sold by a company over the years (Units in crores)

86. What is the average number of units sold over the years?(1) 440000000 (2) 4400000 (3) 440000 (4) 44000000 (5) None

87. What is the respective ratio of the difference between the number of units manufactured and sold in the year 2005 to the difference between the number of units manufactured and sold in the year 2006?(1) 2 : 3 (2) 1 : 2 (3) 1 : 4 (4) 3 : 5 (5) None

88. What is the respective ratio of the number of units manufactured in the year 2003 to the number of units manufactured in the year 2007?(1) 7 : 11 (2) 9 : 14 (3) 7 : 9 (4) 9 : 11 (5) None

89. What is the approximate per cent increase in the number of units sold in the year 2007 from the previous year?(1) 190 (2) 70 (3) 60 (4) 95 (5) 117

90. What is the difference between the number of units manufactured and the number of units sold over the years?(1) 50000000 (2) 5000000 (3) 500000000 (4) 500000 (5) None

91. If the numerator of a fraction is increased by 200% and the denominator of the fraction is increased by 150%, the resultant fraction is 7/10. What is the original fraction?(1) 3/4 (2) 7/12 (3) 7/11 (4) 9/11 (5) None


92. Shanthi, Meera and Kowsalya rented a set of DVDs at a rent of Rs.578.If they used it for 8 hours, 12 hours and 14 hours respectively, What is Kowsalya’s share of rent to be paid?(1) Rs. 238 (2) Rs. 204 (3) Rs. 192 (4) Rs. 215 (5) None

93. Kamesh bought 65 books for Rs. 1,050 from one shop and 50 books for Rs. 1,020 from another. What is the average price he paid per book?(1) Rs. 36.40 (2) Rs. 18.20 (3) Rs. 24 (4) Rs. 18 (5) None

94. In an election between two candidates, one got 52% of total valid votes. 25% of the total votes were invalid. The total number of votes were 8400. How many valid votes did the other persons get?(1) 3276 (2) 3196 (3) 3024 (4) Cannot be determined (5) None

95. The ratio of length and breadth of a rectangular plot is 8 : 5 respectively. If the breadth is 60 metre less than the length. What is the perimeter of the rectangular plot?(1) 260 metres (2) 1600 metres (3) 500 metres (4) Cannot be determined (5) None

Direction(96-100):- What approximate value should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following question ? (You are not expected to calculate the exact value)

96.

(1) 341 (2) 283 (3) 274 (4) 301 (5) 288

97. 0.008 + 6.009 ÷ (0.7)2 = ?(1) 21 (2) 6 (3) 12 (4) 8 (5) 18

98.(1) 48 (2) 22 (3) 43 (4) 26 (5) 31

99. 98 × 785 ÷ (285)2 =?(1) 0.3 (2) 1.8 (3) 2.2 (4) 0.9 (5) 0.08

100. × 0.56 + 14.38 = ?(1) 30 (2) 35 (3) 42 (4) 25 (5) 45

MARKETING /COMPUTERS&

GENERAL AWARENESS

101. Who among the following international dignitaries paid visit to India in February 2010?a. President of the Federal Republic of Germany, Horst Kohlerb. Palestinian president, Mahmoud Abbasselect the correct answer using the codes given below:(1) Both a and b (2) Neither a nor b (3) Only b (4) Only a (5) None

102. The government, on February 3, 2010, constituted a five-member committee, headed by ___, to hold wide-ranging consultations with all sections of the people and all political parties and groups in Andhra Pradesh on the Telengana Issue.(1) Jawing Singh (2) A.S. Anand (3) B. N. Srikrishna (4) Digvijay Singh (5) none

103. Consider the following statements regarding some major developments in February 2010:


a. S.C. Sinha was appointed Director –General of the National Investigation Agency.b. India signed a “declaration” on civilan nuclear cooperation with the U.K.c. Eminent journalist Annoy Hazarika was awarded the Dr. Jean Mayer Award for Global citizenship by the U.S.- based Tufts University.Which of the statements given above is/are correct? Select the correct answer using the codes given below:(1) Only b (2) Both a and c (3) Only c (4) All of the above (5) none

104. On which data in 2010 was a land mark deal signed between Democratic Unionist and Sinn Fein, removing the last hurdle to granting full autonomy to Northern Ireland?(1) February 5 (2) February 14 (3) February 21 (4) February 1 (5) None

105. Which country, on February 8, 2010, announced migration reforms designed to ensure the selection of “the best and brightest” foreigner-applicants for skilled jobs?

(1) Canada (2) Great Britain (3) Australia (4) Germany (5) None

106. On which data in 2010 did the Iranian President Mahmoud Ahmadinejad declare the country to be a “nuclear state,” claiming to have produced a “first stock” of 20 per cent enriched uranium for its nuclear programme?(1) February 28 (2) February 11 (3) February 19 (4) February 8 (5) None

107. The Centre, in February 2010, decided to garner Rs. ___ crore in 2010-11 from the sale of its equity in public sector undertakings (PSUs) against Rs. 25,000 crore in the current fiscal(1) 10,000 (2) 20,000 (3) 30,000 (4) 40,000 (5) None

108. The union budget 2010-2011 increased the outlay for the defense sector by ___ per cent with a total allocation of Rs. 1,47,344 crore as against the previous allocation of Rs. 1,41,703 crore(1) 3.98 (2) 2.24 (3) 4.50 (4) 5.55 (5) None

109. Consider the following statements regarding the Union Budget 2010-2011 announced in the parliament on February 26,2010. By Finance Minister Pranab Mukherjee:a. The Union budget provided Rs. 1,000-rore hike in allocation for the flagship programme Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Schemeb. The Centre gave a major fillip to its ambitious Unique Identity project for citizens, by proposing a Rs. 1,900 cr. Budgetary allocation for it, a nearly 16-fold increase.Select the correct answer using the codes given below:(1) Only b (2) Only a (3) Both a and b (4) Neither a nor b (5) None

110. The Prime Minister-appointed Kirit Parikh committee, on February 3, 2010. Recommended complete decontrol of the petrol and diesel prices and favored a hike of Rs. 100 a domestic LPG cylinder and an increase of Rs. __ a litre for kerosene.(1) 2 (2) 4 (3) 6 (4) 8 (5) None

111. On which data in 2010 did the Ministries of Health and Family Welfare and Railways sign a Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) for developing health care infrastructure along the railway net work across the country?(1) February 3 (2) February 5 (3) February 11 (4) February 19 (5) None

112. India and ___, in February 2010, agreed to increase the flow of trade and investments, particularly Foreign Direct investment (FDI), in regard to market access for both goods and services.(1) France (2) Germany (3) Japan (4) Britain (5) None

113. The government, on February 6, 2010, decided to set up a high-profile Standing core Group to suggest measures __.


a. to deal with price riseb. propose steps for improving public distribution system, procurement of food grainsc. for increasing production of agriculture produce Select the correct answer using the codes given below:(1) Both b and c (2) Only a (3) All of the above (4) Only c (5) None

114. According to the second advance estimates of food grains production released in New Delhi in February 2010, the total food grains output was expected to be __ million tonnes as against 234.47 million tonnes in 2008-09.(1) 216.85 (2) 254.55 (3) 233.66 (4) 222.45 (5) None

115. The centre, on February 14, 2010, allowed the Delhi State industrial and infrastructure Development Corporation to set up Special Economic Zones for __ sector at Baprola.(1) Gold and Jewellery (2) Information technology (3) Both 1 and 2(4) Only 2 (5) None

116. The union Cabinet, on February 18, 2010, approved Rs. 182 crore for ___, designated as the telecom service provider for the fourth coming Commonwealth Games in Delhi.(1) Vodafone India (2) Bharti Airtel (3) Bharat Sanchar Nigam Limited(4) Mahanagar Telephone Nigam Limited (5) None

117. In the largest cross-border acquisition by an Indian company in the sugar Industry, shree Renuka Sugars, on February 21,2010, entered into definitive agreements with Grip Equipav S.A. of ___ to acquire a 50.8 per cent stake in it for $329 million.(1) Cuba (2) Morocco (3) Brazil (4) Argentina (5) None

118. Presenting the second budget of her current term in the Lok Sabha on February 24, 2010, Railway Minister Mamata Banerjee announced __(a) Five new series of train services (b) 28 pairs of passengers trains (c) 17 suburban trainsSelect the correct answer using the codes given below :(1) Only c (2) Both a and b (3) Only b (4) All of the above (5) None

119. Railway minister Mamata Banerjee, in her budget speech in February 2010, announced Sanskriti Express __ Epar Bangla, Opar Bangla __ in commemoration of the 150th birth anniversary of __(1) Swami Vivekananda (2) Raja Rammohan Raoy (3) Rabindranath Tagore(4) All of the above (5) None

120. The union government, on February 25,2010, announced that it would give __ per cent of its tax revenue to the States, besides Rs. 3.19 lakh crore in grant, in the next five years, as recommended by the 13th Finance Commission.(1) 19.3 (2) 32 (3) 27 (4) 44 (5) None

121. The Economic Survey 2009-10, released in February 2010, argued for a gradual rollback of stimulus measures while projecting a robust GDP expansion of up to __ per cent in 2010-11 on the back of a “remarkable recovery growth expected at 7.2 per cent for the current fiscal.(1) 8.75 (2) 6.50 (3) 9.75 (4) 7.50 (5) None

122. The west Zone, on February 6, 2010, successfully chased the imposing target of 536 in the final against South Zone in Hyderabad-a world record for a victorious chase in First Class cricket. Earlier, this record was held by the Central Province of ___(1) South Africa (2) Australia (3) Sri Lanka (4) Pakistan (5) None

123. Consider the following statements :


a. Sachin Tendulkar, on February 24, 2010, became the first player in the history of cricket to score a double century in a one day international.b. Sachine Tendulkar scored his first double hundred of one day international against South Africa in Gwalior.Select the correct answer using the codes given below:(1) Both a and b (2) Neither a nor b (3) Only a (4) Only b (5 )None

124. Union Minister for Heavy Industries Vilasrao Deshmukh, on February 1, 2010, felicitated renowned singer __ with the Akkineni Nageshwar Rao award in Hyderabad.(1) Manna Dey (2) Asha Bhonsle (3) Lata Mangeshkar(4) Udit Narayan (5) None

125. Consider the following statements:a. Indian American Pilitzer Prize winning author Jhumpa Lahiri was, in February 2010, appointed a member of U.S. president Barack Obama’s Committee on the Arts and Humanities.b. Nobel laureate V.S. Naipaul, in February 2010, joined a select band of living figures when his portrait was unveiled in London’s prestigious National Portrait Gallery.Select the correct answer using the codes given below:(1) Both a and b (2) Neither a nor b (3) Only a (4) Only b (5) None

126. Russian director Alexander Gutman’s ___ won the Golden Conch for the Best Documentary Film Festival of Documentary, Animation and Short Films in February 2010.(1) The Ghost Writer (2) 17 August (3) Couples Retreat(4) Cinderella Man (5) None

127. Which of the following international airports was ranked the fourth best airport in the world at the Airport Council International’s Annual Airport Service Quality Awards in February 2010?(1) Indira Gandhi International Airport (2) Beijing National Airport(3) Manhattan County Airport (4) Heathrow Airport, London (5) None

128. Who among the following famous personalities died in February 2010?a. Marxist leader and west Bengal power minister mrinal banerjee b. S.R.Mani Ayer, a veteran in the advertising field c. K.N. Raj, widely respected development economist d. Professor M.S. Rajan, doyen of international relations in Indiaselect the correct answer using the codes given below:(1) Both a and b (2) Both c and d (3) All of the above (4) Only c (5) None

129. On which of the following dates in 2010 did the safeguard agreement with regard to civilian nuclear facilities between India and the International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA) come into force?(1) February 28 (2) February 21 (3) February 11 (4) February 4 (5) None

130. The Indian Meteorological Department (IMD), in February 2010, declared ___ the warmest year since 1901, the year it started keeping records of temperatures and other weather parameters.(1) 2001 (2) 2006 (3) 2009 (4) 2004 (5) None

131. Consumer information sources are(1) personal source and commercial source (2) public source (3) experiential source(4) All of the three above (5) Only (1) and (2)

132. Zero-Based Budgeting (ZBB) means(1) a tool for marketing cost analysis (2) a tool for financial analysis


(3) each year, budgeting starts from a scratch (4) a certain percentage of sales(5) Only (1) and (2)

133. The advantages of telephone-interview are ___(1) relatively low cost per interview(2) good for reaching important people who are inaccessible(3) securing co-operation which is not always possible(4) All of these (5) Only (1) and (2)

134. The abbreviation ISP stands for__(1) International Spy Project (2) Indian Social Planning (3) Initial Service Provider(4) Internet Service Provider (5) None

135. The best advertisement is ___(1) glow sign boards (2) on internet (3) T.V. Media(4) Print Media (5) a satisfied customer

136. According to product life cycle theory, the profit is maximum in :(1) Developed Stage (2) Early stage (3) Matured Stage (4) Declined Stage (5) None

137. In banks ROA means ___(1) Rate of Allocation (2) Return on Assets (3) Return on Advances(4) Ratio of Assets (5) Only (2) and (3)

138. In the context of globalization BPO means ___(1) British petroleum Organisation (2) British Passport Office(3) Budgeting Process Orientation (4) Business Process Orientation(5) Business Process Outsourcing

139. which of the following expresses Maslow’s Motivation Theary best?(1) Importance of motivation of customer development(2) Why people are driven by particular need at particular times(3) Where human needs are arranged in a hierarchy(4) All of these (5) Only (2) and (3)

140. SWOT analysis refers to ___(1) marketing tool to understand constraints and potentials of self and competitor (2)external environment analysis (3) internal environment analysis (4) strategic planning for selling product(5) south-west organization for trade

141. Which of the following is a web browser?(1) Paint (2)Power Point (3) Fire fix (4) Word (5) None

142. Most of the commonly used personal computers/laptops do not have a command key known as __(1) Turnover (2) Shift (3) Alter (4) Delete (5) Insert

143. What is the full form of USB as used in computer related activities?(1) Universal Security Block (2) Ultra Serial Block (3) United Service Block(4) Universal Serial Bus (5) None


144. The quickest and easiest way in word, to locate a particular word or phrase in a document is to use the ___ command.(1) Replace (2) Find (3) Lookup (4) Search (5) None

145. Which of the following is NOT a computer programming language?(1) C (2) C++ (3) Java (4) COBOL (5) Microsoft

146. To prepare a presentation/slide show which application is commonly used?(1) Photoshop (2) PowerPoint (3) Outlook Express(4) Internet Explorer (5) All correct

147. Which of the following is NOT a hardware of a computer ?(1) Monitor (2) Key Board (3) Windows(4) Central Processing Unit (5) Mouse

148. A program designed to destroy data on your computer which can travel to “infect” other computers is called a ___(1) decease (2) torpedo (3) hurricane (4) virus (5) None

149. Most of the commonly available personal computers. laptops have a keyboard popularly known as (1) QWERTY (2) QOLTY (3) ALTER (4) UCLIF (5) None

150. Whenever we have to give space between the two words while typing on a PC we have to press a key known as ___(1) Back space (2) Shift (3) Control (4) Escape (5) Space Bar

ENGLISH LANGUAGEDirections(151-165):-Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given

below it. Certain words have been printed in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the question.

Political ploys initially hailed as master-strokes often end up as flops. The Rs. 60,000 crore farm loan waiver announced in the budget writes off 100% of over dues of small and marginal farmers holding upto two hectares, and 25% of over dues of larger farmers. While India has enjoyed 8%-9% GDP growth for the past few years, the boom has bypassed many rural areas and farmer distress and suicides have made newspaper headlines. Various attempts to provide relief (employment guarantee scheme, public distribution system) have made little impact, thanks to huge leakages from the government’s lousy delivery systems. So, many economists think the loan waiver is a worthwhile alternative to provide relief.

However the poorest rural folk are landless labourers, who get neither farm loans nor waivers. Half of the small and marginal farmers get no loans from banks and depend entirely on moneylenders, and will not benefit. Besides, rural India is full of the family holdings rather than individual holdings and family holdings will typically be much larger than two hectares even for dirt-poor farmers who will, therefore, be denied the 100% waiver. It will thus fail in both economic and political objectives. IRDP loans to the rural poor in the 1980s demonstrated that crooked bank officials demand bribes amounting to one-third the intended benefits. Very few of the intended beneficiaries who merited relief received it. After the last farm loan waiver will similarly slow down fresh loans to deserving farmers. While over dues to co-operatives may be higher, economist Surjit Bhalla says less than 5% of farmer loans to banks are over due i.e. over dues exist for only 2.25million out of 90 million farmers. If so, then the 95% who have repaid loans will not benefit. They will be angry at being penalised for honesty.


The budget thus grossly overestimates the number of beneficiaries, it also underestimates the negative effects of the waiver-encouraging willful default in the future and discouraging fresh bank lending for some years. Instead of trying to reach the needy, through a plethora of leaky schemes we should transfer cash directly to the needy using new technology like biometic smart cards, which are now being used in many countries, and mobile phones bank accounts. Then benefits can go directly to phone accounts operable only by those with biometic cards, ending the massive leakages of current schemes.

The political benefits of the loan waiver have also been exaggerated since if only a small fraction of farm families benefit, and many of these have to pay bribes to get the actual benefit, will the waiver really be a massive vote winner? Members of joint families will feel aggrieved that, despite having less than one hectare per head, their family holding is too large, to qualify for the 100% waiver. All finance ministers, of central or state governments, give away freebies in their last budgets, hoping to win electroral regards. Yet, four-fifth of all incumbent governments are voted out. This shows that beneficiaries of favours are not notably grateful, while those not so favoured may feel aggrieved, and vote for the opposition. That seems to be why election budgets constantly fail to win elections in India and the loan waiver will not change that pattern.

151. Why do economists feel that loan waivers will benefit farmers in distress?(1) it will improve the standard of living of those farmers who can afford to repay their loans but are exempted.(2)Other government relief measures have proved ineffective(3) Suicide rates of farmers have declined after the announcement of the waiver(4) Farmers will be motivated to increase the size of their family holdings not individual holdings.(5) The government will be forced to reexamine and improve the public distribution system.

152. What message will the loan waiver send to farmers who have repaid loans?(1) The Government will readily provide them with loans in the future(2) As opposed to money lenders banks are a safer and more reliable source of credit(3) Honesty is the best policy(4) It is beneficial to take loans from co-operatives since their rates of interest are lower.(5) They will be angry at being penalised for honesty

153. What is the author’s suggestion to provide aid to farmers?(1) Families should split their joint holding to take advantage of the loan waiver.(2) The government should increase the reach of the employment guarantee scheme(3) Loans should be disbursed directly into bank accounts of the farmers using the latest technology(4) Government should ensure that loans waivers can be implemented over the number of years.(5) Rural infrastructure can be improved using schemes which were successful abroad.

154. What was the outcome of IRDP loans to the rural poor?(1) The percentage of bank loan sanctioned to family owned farms increased.(2) The loans benefited dishonest moneylenders not landless labourers(3) Corrupt bank officials were the unintended beneficiaries of the loans(4) If resulted in the Government sanctioned thrice the amount for the current loan waiver(5) None

155. What are the terms of the loan waiver(A) One-fourth of the overdue loans of landless labourers will be written off(B) The Rs.60,000 crore loan waiver has been sanctioned for 2.25 million marginal farmers.(C) Any farmer with between 26 per cent to 100 per cent of their loan repayments overdue will be penalised.(1) Only (A) (2) Only (B) (3) Both (B) and (C) (4) All (A), (B) and (C) (5) None

156. What is the author’s view of the loan waiver?


(1) It will have an adverse psychological impact on those who cannot avail of the waiver.(2) It is a justified measure in view of the high suicide rate among land less labourers.(3) It makes sound economic and political sense in the existing scenario.(4) It will ensure that the benefits of India’s high GDP are felt by the rural poor.(5) None

157. Which of the following cannot be said about loan waiver?(A) Small and marginal farmers will benefit the most(B) The loan waiver penalises deserving farmers(C) A large percentage i.e. ninety-five per cent of distressed farmers will benefit.(1) Only (C) (2) Both (A) and (C) (3) Only (A) (4) Both (B) and (C) (5) None

158. Which of the following will definitely be an impact of loan waivers?(A) Family holdings will be split into individual holdings not exceeding one hectare(B) The public distribution system will be revamped(c) Opposition will definitely win the election(1) None (2) Only (A) (3) Both (A) and (B) (4) Only (C) (5) All (A), (B) and (C)

159. What impact will the loan waiver have on banks?(1) Banks have to bear the entire brunt of the write off.(2) Loss of trust in banks by big farmers(3) Corruption among bank staff will increase(4) Farmers will make it a habit to default on loans (5) None

160. According to the author what is the government’s motive in sanctioning the loan waiver?(1) To encourage farmers to opt for bank loans from moneylenders.(2) To raise 90 million farmers out of indebtedness(3) To provide relief to those marginal farmers who have the means to but have not repaid their loans (4) To ensure they will be reelected (5) None

Directions(161-163):- Choose the word which is most nearly the SAME in meaning to the word printed in bold as used in the passage.

161. Incumbent(1) mandatory (2) present (3) incapable (4) lazy (5) officious

162. Ploys(1) surveys (2) entreaties (3) ruses (4) sliders (5) assurances

163. aggrieved(1) vindicated (2) intimidated (3) offensive (4) wronged (5) disputed

Directions(164-165):- Choose the word which is most OPPOSITE in meaning to the word printed in bold as used in the passage.

164. Plethora(1) dearth (2) missing (3) superfluous (4) sufficient (5) least

165. merited(1)ranked (2) unqualified for (3) lacked (4) inept at (5) unworthy of

Directions(166-175):- Read each sentence to find out whether there is any error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is (5). (ignore errors of punctuation, if any).

166. Some of the world (1)/ largest water bodies are (2)/ drying up thus threatening (3)/ the livelihoods of millions(4)/ No error (5).


167. Among the many (1)/ challenges facing the country (2)/ in the next decade (3)/ is poverty and unemployment (4)/ No error(5)

168. According to economists (1)/ not more than five percent (2)/ of education loans taken (3) by students are overdue.(4)/ No error.(5)

169. The two candidates share (1)/ a reputation for (2)/ competency as well as (3)/ for good communication skills. (4)/ No error.(5)

170. His main qualification (1)/on the job is (2)/ his extensive experience (3)/ in foreign branches.(4)/ No error.(5)

171. A representative of the (1)/ Reserve Bank will provide students an (2)/ insight into the (3)/ economic future of our country.(4)/ No error.(5)

172. As one of the leader (1)/ insurance companies in (2)/ India they offer (3)/ comprehensive financial services (4)/ No error(5)

173. There is a rumous that (1)/ this multinational company will (2)/ set up its regional headquarters (3)/ in India in short (4)/ No error (5)

174. Despite taking steps to (1)/ encourage foreign investment (2)/ there has been any (3)/ substantial improvement in our economy (4)/ No error (5)

175. We had made every effort (1)/ to ensure that a (2)/ compromise is reached and (3)/ that deal was signed (4)/ No error (5)

Directions(176-180):- Which of the phrases (1), (2), (3) and (4) given below should replace the phrase given in bold in the following sentences to make the sentence grammatically correct ? If the sentence is correct as it is and there is no correction required mark (5) i.e. ‘No correction required’ as the answer.

176. During the recession many companies will be forced to lay off workers.(1) have the force to (2) be forced into (3) forcibly have (4) forcefully (5) No correction required

177. He wanted nothing else expecting to sleep after a stressful day at work(1) nothing better than (2) anything else unless (3) nothing but having(4) nothing else than (5) No correction required

178. Ramesh took charge of the project, within a few days of having appointed?(1) having an appointment (2) being appointed (3) after being appointed(4) appointing (5) No correction required

179. It is difficult to work with him because he is one of those persons who think he is always right.(1) think they are always (2) always thinks he is (3) is always thinking they are(4) always think his (5) No correction required

180. Foreign businesses in developing countries have usually problems with lack of infrastructure and rigid laws.(1) usual problems as (2) usually problems on (3) as usual problems like(4) the usual problems of (5) No correction required

Directions (181-185):- In each of the following questions four words are given of which two words are most nearly the same or opposite in meaning. Find two words which are most nearly


the same or opposite in meaning and indicate the number of the correct letter combination as your answer.

181. (A) waive (B) speculate (C) pursue (D) revise(1) A – B (2) C – B (3) D – C (4) C – A (5) D – B

182. (A) contrary (B) compatible (C) incomparable (D) ambiguous(1) A – B (2) B – C (3) C – D (4) A – C (5) B – D

183. (A) Pliable (B) dependable (C) flexible (D) viable(1) A- D (2) B – C (3) B – D (4) C – D (5) A – C

184. (A) contingent (B) permissive (C) confirmed (D) endorsed(1) B – A (2) C – A (3) C – B (4) B – D (5) D – C

185. (A) repeat (B) reverberate (C) retaliate (D) reciprocate(1) B – D (2) C – D (3) A – C (4) A – B (5) B – C

Directions(186-190):- Rearrange the following six sentences (A), (B), (C), (D), (E) and (F) in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph; then answer the questions given below them.(A) In this early period a good memory was a prerequisite for success and poets like Homer

memorised their work before it was ever written down.(B) If we have to remember everything will it not increase the feeing of stress?(C) Today memory is widely regarded as a useful aid to survival(D)However it is not what we grasp but what we fail to-forgetting a file, key points at an interview

– which causes stress(E) Some people however are of the view that having an exceptional memory in a world of high

pressure working is a disadvantage(F) To our ancestors though, in the absence of the printing press it was much more- it was the slate

on which history was recorded.186. Which of the following will be the THIRD sentence after rearrangement?

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (5) E187. Which of the following will be the FIRST sentence after rearrangement?

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (5) E188. Which of the following will be the SECOND sentence after rearrangement ?

(1) B (2) C (3) D (4) E (5) F189. Which of the following will be the SIXTH (LAST) sentence after rearrangement?

(1) B (2) C (3) D (4) E (5) F190. Which of the following will be the FIFTH sentence after rearrangement?

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (5) E

Directions(191-200):- In the following passage there are blanks each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each, five words/phrases are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.

Mobile banking (M banking) involves the use of a mobile phone or any other mobile device to (191) financial transaction linked to a client’s account. M banking is new in most countries and most mobile payment models even in developed countries, to date operate on a (192) scale. A mobile network offers a (193) available technology platform onto which other services can be provided at low cost with effective results. For example, M banking services which use (194) such as SMS can be carried at a cost of less than one US cent per message. The low cost of using existing infrastructure makes such services more (195) to use by customers with lower purchasing power and opens up access to services which did not reach them earlier due to (196) cost of service delivery. Although M banking is one aspect in the wider (197) of e-banking there are reasons to single it out for focus-especially because there are reasons to single it out for focus-especially because there are a lot more people with mobile phones than bank accounts in India.


M banking could provide a (198) solution to bring more “unbanked” people to the financial mainstream. Without traditional credit, individuals are (199) to exploitation by abusive lenders offering very high interest rates on short term loans. Also of considerable importance are public safety implications for the unbanked- they are often victims of crime because many operate on a cash only basis and end up carrying significant amounts of cash in their (200) or store cash in their homes.

191. (1) disburse (2) undertake (3) subscribe (4) lure (5) amass192. (1) full (2) voluminous (3) substantial (4) limited (5) rapid193. (1) readily (2) tangible (3) routinely (4) securely (5) unique194. (1) process (2) waves (3) deliveries (4) connection (5) channels195. (1) valuable (2) answerable (3) amenable (4) exposed (5) responsible196. (1) waning (2) stable (3) proportionate (4) marginal (5) high197. (1) archive (2) domain (3) purpose (4) component (5) aspect198. (1) law abiding (2) tried (3) reassuring (4) cost effective(5) stopgap199. (1) inclined (2) immune (3) vulnerable (4) surrendered(5) pressured200. (1) person (2) own 3) relatives (4) purses (5) self

ANSWERS

(1) 2 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 2 (5) 3 (6) 5 (7) 2 (8) 1 (9) 1 (10) 5 (11) 3 (12) 5 (13) 1 (14) 4(15) 4 (16) 4 (17) 3 (18) 5 (19) 3 (20) 1 (21) 4 (22) 1 (23) 2 (24) 3 (25) 1 (26) 5 (27) 4 (28) 3(29) 1 (30) 3 (31) 2 (32) 5 (33) 1 (34) 4 (35) 2 (36) 3 (37) 2 (38) 3 (39) 1 (40) 5 (41) 5 (42) 3(43) 4 (44) 2 (45) 1 (46) 3 (47) 4 (48) 1 (49) 4 (50) 4 (51) 3 (52) 1 (53) 5 (54) 4 (55) 2 (56) 2(57) 4 (58) 1 (59) 5 (60) 3 (61) 5 (62) 1 (63) 5 (64) 2 (65) 2 (66) 1 (67) 3 (68) 4 (69) 5 (70) 3(71) 5 (72) 1 (73) 4 (74) 2 (75) 3 (76) 1 (77) 2 (78) 5 (79) 3 (80) 4 (81) 2 (82) 3 (83) 1 (84) 1(85) 4 (86) 4 (87) 3 (88) 2 (89) 5 (90) 1 (91) 2 (92) 1 (93) 4 (94) 3 (95) 5 (96) 2 (97) 3 (98) 5(99) 4 (100) 1(101) 1(102) 3(103) 4(104) 1(105) 3(106) 2(107) 4(108) 1(109) 3(110) 3(111) 2(112) 4(113) 3(114) 1(115) 3(116) 4(117) 3(118) 4(119) 4(120) 2(121) 1(122) 3(123) 1(124) 3(125) 1(126) 2(127) 1(128) 3(129) 4(130) 3(131) 4(132) 3(133) 4(134) 4(135) 5(136) 1(137) 2(138) 5(139) 4(140) 1(141) 3(142) 1(143) 4 (144) 2(145) 5(146) 2(147) 3(148) 4(149) 1(150) 5(151) 2(152) 5(153) 3(154) 3(155) 2(156) 1(157) 2(158) 4(159) 4(160) 4 (161) 5(162) 3(163) 3(164) 1(165) 2(166) 1(167) 4(168) 3(169) 4(170 2 (171) 5(172) 1(173) 4(174) 3(175) 3(176) 5(177) 1(178) 3(179) 1(180) 4(181) 4(182) 1(183) 5(184) 5(185) 2 (186) 1(187) 3(188) 5(189) 3(190) 2(191) 1(192) 4(193) 5(194) 5(195) 3(196) 5(197) 2(198) 4 (199) 3(200) 2


bank pos model papers

Documents