bank clerk model exam - 1

1 BANK CLERK MODEL EXAM - 1

REASONING ABILITY1. Four teams, Team A, B, C and D participated in a tournament. Team C scored the least. Team B scored more than

team D but not as much as Team A. Who amongst the four teams scored third highest ?1. Team A 2. Team B 3. Team C 4. Team D 5. Cannot be determined

2. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word JOURNEY each of which has as many letters betweenthem in the word (in both forward and backward directions) as they have between them in the English alphabeticalorder ?1. None 2. One 3. Two 4. Three 5. More than three

3. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group, which is the one that does not belongto that group ?1. Jute 2. Cotton 3. Wool 4. Silk 5. RayonDirections (Q. 4 and 5) Read the following information carefully and answer the questions which followIf ‘A × B’ means ‘A is to the South of B’.If ‘A + B’ means ‘A is to the North of B’If ‘A % B’ means ‘A is to the East of B’If ‘A – B’ means ‘A is to the West of B’.

4. Which of the following means ‘P is to the East of Q’ ?1. H % P – S + Q 2. Q + R × S – P 3. P % A – Q + B 4. Q – Z % S × P 5. None of these

5. In the equation F % Q + R – S, S is in which direction with respect to Q ?1. East 2. South 3. West 4. South-West 5. South-EastDirections (Q. 6 - 8) The following questions are based on the five four digit numbers given below -3475 2791 6458 1826 7534

6. What will be the resultant if the second digit of the highest number is subtracted from the third digit of the secondlowest number ?1. 1 2. 2 3. 3 4. 6 5. 4

7. If all the digits in each of the numbers are arranged in descending order from left to right within the number, whichof the following will be the sum of all the four digits of the number which is third highest in the new arrangement?1. 19 2. 18 3. 22 4. 17 5. 23

8. If in each number, the first and the last digits are interchanged, which of the following will be the second lowestnumber ?1. 3475 2. 2791 3. 6458 4. 1826 5. 7534Directions - (Q. 9 - 13) In each question/set of questions below are statements followed by two conclusionsnumbered I and II. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variancefrom commonly known facts and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from thestatements disregarding commonly known facts. Give Answers -1. If only conclusion I follows 2. If only conclusion II follows3. If either conclusion I or conclusion II follows 4. If neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follows5. If both conclusions I and II follow

9. Statements :All gems are preciousSome gems are stones.All stones are diamondsConclusions :I. At least some stones are preciousII. All diamonds are precious.

BANK CLERK MODEL EXAM - 1


10. Statements :All dreams are fantasies.Some fantasies are pleasantAll pleasant are everlastingSome everlasting are memoriesConclusions :I. Some dreams are memoriesII. Some fantasies are everlasting

11. Statements :All black are blue.All blue are greenAll green are emeraldConclusions :I. Some emeralds are greenII. All black and blue are greenDirections - (Q. 12 and 13)Statements :No design is fashionAll fashions are temporarySome temporary are permanent

12. Conclusions :I. Some designs are permanentII. No fashion is permanent

13. Conclusions :

I. At least some temporary are fashions.

II. At least some temporary are not designs.

Directions - (Q.14 - 17) Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions -

Seven trees namely mango, lemon, apple, ashoka, banana, guava and papaya are planted in a straight row, notnecessarily in the same order. (Assume as if the trees are facing North)

a. The papaya tree is planted fourth to the right of the lemon tree

b. The Ashoka tree is planted at the extreme right end of the row

c. The mango and guava trees are immediate neighbours of the lemon tree

d. The banana tree is planted immediately next to the mango tree

14. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on their position in the above arrangement and so forma group. Which is the one that does not belong to the group ?

1. lemon, mango 2. banana, apple 3. mango, banana 4. guava, lemon 5. apple, ashoka

15. Which trees are planted at the extreme ends of the row ?

1. guava, apple 2. lemon, ashoka 3. guava, ashoka 4. lemon, papaya 5. guava, papaya

16. Which of the following tree is planted exactly in the middle of the row ?

1. papaya 2. mango 3. banana 4. lemon 5. apple

17. What is the position of the apple tree with respect to the guava tree ?

1. Second to the right 2. Fourth to the right 3. Immediate left 4. Third to the right 5. Third to the left


Directions - ( 18 - 21 ) Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions -A, B, C, D, F, G, H and J are sitting around a circular table facing the centre.a. D sits exactly between J and F.b. J sits second to the left of F and second to the right of B.c. H sits third to the left of G.d. A is not an immediate neighbour of B.

18. How many people sit between G and H when counted in an anti-clockwise direction from G ?1. One 2. Two 3. Three 4. Four 5. Five

19. If H : F then J : ?1. B 2. F 3. H 4. G 5. None of these

20. If all the persons are made to sit in alphabetical order in anticlock-wise direction, starting from A, the positionsof how many (excluding A) will remain unchanged as compared to their original seating positions ?1. None 2. One 3. Two 4. Three 5. Four

21. In which of the following pairs is the second person sitting to the immediate left of the first person ?1. GJ 2. FA 3. CH 4. AH 5. DFDirections (Q. 22 - 26) Study the following arrangement of digits and symbols carefully and answer thequestions given below -

3 4 2 6 8 7 © 5 4 £ 3 2 9 $ 1 6 5 3 7 # 9 8 6 @ 2 1 4 3 9 8 7 2 4 3

22. How many 2’s are there in the above arrangement, each of which is immediately followed by a perfect square ?(1 is also a perfect square)1. None 2. One 3. Two 4. Three 5. Four

23. Which of the following is fifth to the right of the eighteenth from the left end of the above arrangement ?1. $ 2. 9 3. 2 4. @ 5. 6

24. How many symbols are there in the above arrangement, each of which is immediately preceded as well asfollowed by an even number in the above arrangement ?1. One 2. Two 3. Three 4 Four 5. Five

25. If all the digits that are perfect squares are dropped from the above arrangement, which of the following will bethe thirteenth (digit/symbol) from the left end of the above arrangement ?(1 is also a perfect square)1. $ 2. 6 3. # 4. 7 5. 5

26. How many pairs of digits are there in the number highlighted in bold in the above arrangement each of which hasas many digits between them (in both forward and backward directions) as they have between them in thenumerical series ?1. One 2. Two 3. Three 4. Four 5. FiveDirections - (Q. 27 - 30) In each question below is given a group of letters followed by five combinationsof number / symbol codes lettered 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5. You have to find out which of the combinationscorrectly represents the group of letters based on the following coding system and the conditions andmark the letter of that combination as your answer -

Letter P I R S E J L O D N X A B C KNumber Symbol code

:/ : # @ $ 5 4 3 8 7 2 1 6 9

Conditions :(i) If both the first and the fifth elements are vowels, the codes for both these are to be interchanged.(ii) If the group of letters contains no vowel, the codes for the first and the last elements are to be interchanged(iii) If the third element is a vowel and the fourth a consonant, the fourth element is to be coded as the code forthe second element.

27. JDRALS1. 8246@# 2. 8246#@ 3. 8264@# 4. 8@426# 5. 2846@#


28. ORNKEL1. 3147@ 2. 3741@ 3. 7413@ 4. 3417@ 5. 7143@

29. EPBCOK

1. 7 93 2. 3 97 3. 3 9 7 4. 3 79 5. 3 97 30. RXISCN

1. $45$91 2. 4$9$51 3. 4$5$91 4. 4$$951 5. 4$$519Directions - (Q. 31 - 40) In each of the questions given below which one of the five answer figures on theright should come after the problem figures on the left, if the sequence were continued ?

31.

32.

33.

34.

35.

36.

37.

38.

39.

40.


English LanguageDirections—(Q. 41–45) Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it.Certain words/phrases have been printed in bold to help you locate them while answering some of thequestions.

There was a famous temple on a high hill in Assam. The priest of this temple was widely respected and wasknown to be a great scholar. When he grew old, he started searching for a younger priest who could take chargeof the temple after his death. But, much to his dismay, he could not find any suitable person. As the priest layon his deathbed, he called the trustee of the temple and told him, “After my death, make sure that only a ‘humanbeing’ replaces me as the priest of this temple”. As soon as he said these words, he died. Information travelledfar and wide that the head priest of the famous temple had died and now there was an urgent need for areplacement. A day was set for the selection of the successor. That day, starting at dawn, aspirants startedtrekking the steep and torturous climb to the temple. The route to the temple was indeed difficult; it was fullof thorns, and stones. By the time most people managed to reach the temple, they had received minor cuts andbruises on their feet and hands.

After breakfast, the selection process started. The trustee asked all the aspirants to recite difficult shlokas, orverses from the sacred texts, and explain various procedures of priesthood. By afternoon, as the selectionprocess was about to end, one young man walked slowly into the temple. The trustee noticed him and said,“Young man, you are very late. What took you so long ? And what happened to your clothes, why are they torn? Your feet and hands are bleeding so badly.” The man replied, “I know sir, I am late, so I will not participate inthe competition. If I have your permission, I will just get my wounds treated, rest for a while and then go backto my village.” But the trustee was curious to know about this man. He asked again, “But how did you manageto hurt yourself so badly, did you not follow the same route as the others ?” “Yes sir, I did,” replied the man,“But I thought I must remove the thorns and other sharp, stones from the path so that when people come topray in this temple they must not get hurt. That is why I got late and that is how I hurt myself. I apologize forthe delay, but as I said, I know I am late and hence I don’t wish to participate in the competition. It will not befair to the others if I participated.” Hearing this, the trustee smiled and said, “Congratulations, you have beenchosen. I am sure that when our noble priest was dying and he said that he wanted a “human being” to be hissuccessor, he meant that he wanted someone like you. “This statement infuriated the other participants. “Whatdo you mean ?” they demanded. “Are we not humans ? This man just said that he did not wish to participate.How can you choose him as he has not gone through any of the tests ?”

The trustee replied, “Our old priest used to say that even animals know how to watch for their self interest; theyknow how to avoid danger, search food and so on. Only a ‘human being’ knows how to watch for other people’sinterests and well being. All of you climbed the same torturous path. But only this man thought about the othersand cleared the path so that no one would get hurt. By this definition, only he qualifies as a ‘human being’ andhence only he should be the successor of the great old priest.”

41. What happened immediately after the old priest died ?

1. The trustee shut the temple and started mourning for the old priest

2. The trustee took the old priest’s position and appointed a younger trustee

3. Word spread that there was an urgent need for the old priest’s successor

4. Everyone started searching for younger priests

5. Everyone refused to become the old priest’s successor


42. Why was the old priest looking for a younger priest ?1. So that the younger priest became his successor 2. So that the old priest had a student3. So that the younger priest searched for a successor4. Because in those days younger priests were more educated than older priests5. Because the trustee wanted a younger priest to take care of the temple

43. Why was the young man late for the competition ?1. He had forgotten his way and thus had taken a longer route to the temple2. He was removing all the stones and thorns from the path which led to the temple3. He was giving water to the other participants when they were on their way to the temple4. He had some household chores to complete5. He had forgotten all about the competition in the morning

44. What was the trustee’s decision when the young man gave his explanation for being late ?1. He immediately selected the young man as the successor to the old priest2. He scolded him and said that he should have been careful3. He asked the young man to go and get his wounds treated4. He asked the other participants to leave the temple premises5. He gave a huge sum of money to the young man

45. What was the old priest’s definition of a ‘human being’ ?1. Those who succeed in life and earn a lot of money are human beings2. Those who watch for other people’s interests and well being are human beings3. Those who put stones and thorns in other people’s path are human beings4. Those who know how to make other people laugh are human beings5. Those who know how to recite shlokas are human beings

46. How did the other participants react to the trustee’s decision ?1. They took it sportingly and learnt a lesson from the incident2. They congratulated the trustee for being so wise and fair3. They got angry and objected to the trustee's decision4. They decided to get even with the trustee and the young man5. They cursed the trustee and stomped out of the temple premises

47. What did the trustee ask during the selection process ?1. He asked the aspirants to recite shlokas and verses from sacred texts2. He asked the aspirants to explain the various procedures of priesthood3. He asked the aspirants to give an introduction of themselves4. He asked the aspirants to tell him the qualities of an ideal priest 5. Both 1. and 2.

48. What would be an appropriate title for this passage ?1. The famous temple 2. The old priest 3. The torturous path 4. The true successor 5. The unjust trustee

49. Why did the young man say that he didn't wish to participate in the competition ?1. He was scared of losing the competition 2. He was not sure about the duties of priesthood3. His parents forbade him from becoming a priest 4. He wanted to become the priest of some other temple5. He was late and did not want to be unfair to others

50. When did the aspirants get cuts and bruises on their hands and feet ?1. While they were reciting difficult shlokas and verses2. While they were going through the selection process3. While they were talking about the old priest4. While they were climbing the torturous path that led to the temple5. While the trustee was torturing them during the selection process


Directions—(Q. 51–53) Choose the word / group of words which is most similar in the meaning to theword / group of words printed in bold as used in the passage.

51. Qualifies1. Is trained in 2. Meets the criteria 3. Excels in 4. Is impressive 5. Is dynamic

52. Noticed1. Recognised 2. Liked 3. Saw 4. Informed 5. Accepted

53. Demanded1. Claimed 2. Questioned 3. Stated 4. Requested 5. InquiredDirections—(Q. 54–55) Choose the word / group of words which is most similar in the meaning to theword / group of words printed in bold as used in the passage.

54. Minor1. Chief 2. Main 3. Complete 4. Distinct 5. Severe

55. Torturous1. Trouble-free 2. Liberating 3. Exciting 4. Demanding 5. BoringDirections (Q. 56–65)—Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error oridiomatic error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The letter of that part is theanswer. If there is no error the answer is 5.. (Ignore errors of punctuation if any.)

56. They did not follow the 1. / directions properly so 2. / they had difficult 3. / in reaching my house. 4. No Error 5.57. The group members 1. / had to suffer a 2. / lot of problems as 3. / their leader were biased. 4. No Error 5.58. He was supposed 1. / to pick them 2. / up from the airport 3. / but he reaches late. 4. No Error 5.59. He gained admission 1. / to one of the 2. / best commerce colleges 3. / in the city. 4. No Error 5.60. His friends tried 1. / to convince him to 2. / participate in the competition 3. / but he refused. 4. No Error 5.61. The judges were so 1. / impressed by her perform 2. / that they gave her 3. / a standing ovation. 4. No Error 5.62. They win the 1. / match but they 2. / did not play 3. / a fair game. 4. No Error 5.63. The servant not only 1. / robbed them house 2. / but also betrayed 3. / their trust. 4. No Error 5.64. He have to 1. / leave on a very 2. / short notice as 3. / it was an emergency. 4. No Error 5.65. No one is allowed to go 1. / out of the hostel after 9 p.m. 2. / but still some students 3. / sneaks out last night. 4.

No Error 5.Directions—(Q. 66–70) In each question below, four words print in bold type are given. These arelettered 1., 2., 3. and 4.. One of these words printed in bold may either be wrongly spelt or inappropriatein the context of the sentence. Find out the word that is inappropriate or wrongly spelt, if any. The letterof that word is your answer. If all the words printed in bold are correctly spelt and appropriate in thecontext of the sentence then mark 5. i.e. ‘All Correct’ as your answer.

66. All the officers 1. were asked 2. to report to duty 3. at sharp 4. 7 a.m. All Correct 5.67. She fell ill due 1. to anxiety just 2. one week 3. before the ecsam. 4. All Correct 5.68. They requested 1. everyone to take their 2. seats 3. and maintain silence.4. All Correct 5.69. They spoke 1. in such a laud 2. voice that even their neighbours 3. could hear them. 4. All Correct 5.70. Manish accused 1. his rival 2. of steeling 3. his designs. 4. All Correct 5.

Directions—(Q. 71–75) Rearrange the following 6 sentences 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6 in proper sequence toform a meaningful paragraph then answer the questions given below them.1. “I can’t bear it !” he screamed, “I’II pay the fine.”2. After he had received a few strokes he began to turn and twist to avoid the whip.3. So he paid the fine and was let off, but he became the laughing-stock of the city for having taken three

punishments for one crime.4. A man was caught stealing a bag of onions and was taken to the court where the judge gave him a choice of

three punishments : eat the stolen onions in one sitting; submit to a hundred lashes of the whip or pay a fine.5. “I can’t eat the onions so give me the lashes instead,” he said.6. The man said he would eat the onions and began confidently, but after eating a few, his eyes began to burn, his

nose started running and his mouth felt as if it was on fire.71. Which of the following should be the FIFTH sentence in the rearrangement ?

1. 4 2. 2 3. 1 4. 6 5. 5


72. Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence in the rearrangement ?1. 4 2. 2 3. 3 4. 1 5. 6

73. Which of the following should be the LAST (SIXTH) sentence in the rearrangement?1. 2 2. 5 3. 4 4. 1 5.3

74. Which of the following should be the FOURTH sentence in the rearrangement?1. 1 2. 3 3. 2 4. 6 5. 4

75. Which of the following should be the SECOND sentence in the rearrangement?1. 2 2. 6 3. 4 4. 5 5. 1Directions—(Q. 76–80) Each sentence below has a blank/s, each blank indicating that something hasbeen omitted. Choose the word/s that best fit/s the meaning of the sentence as a whole.

76. We……decided……buy a new car.1. have, to 2. has, is 3. are, in 4. is, to 5. can, are

77. Rohan……asleep while watching the film.1. is 2. found 3. fall 4. fell 5. find

78. Priti passed her exams with ………colours.1. falling 2. seeing 3. different 4. flying 5. single

79. She translated an English ……… passage to Hindi without using a………1. meaning 2. dictionary 3. symbols 4. language 5. adjective

80. Tina finds it difficult to talk to people as she…………introvert.1. was a 2. can the 3. is an 4. being a 5. thought an

QUANTITATIVE APTITUDEDirections (Q. 81 - 90) : What should come in place of question mark (?) in the following questions ?

81. 124 02. .4624 ?

1. 1.7024 2. 154.2224 3. 2 4. 1.542 5. None of these

82.256337

10111024

?

1. 43 2.

34 3.

12 4.

23 5. None of these

83.961

1681 ?

1. 2939 2.

3149 3.

3141 4.

2139 5. None of these

84. 302441?6245

72 of

1. 24 2. 756 3. 92.41 4. 29.41 5. 31.5085. 0.006 × 0.2 × 0.35 = ?

1. 0.000042 2. 0.00042 3. 0.0042 4. 0.0000042 5. None of these

86. 7 64 7 9 ?

1. 28 2. 14 3. 17 4. 73 5. None of these

87.800

0 88.4. ?

1. 1125 2. 2000 3. 200 4. 20 5. None of these


88. 0 9. ?

1. 0.3 2. 0.03 3. 0.949 4. 0.992 5. 0.45

89. If 1649 49

?

1. 4 2. 7 3. 16 4. 28 5. 2990. 9 + 99 + 999 + 9999 = ?

1. 111006 2. 11007 3. 12006 4. 11106 5. None of theseDirections (Q. 91 - 95) What approximate value should come in place of the question mark (?) infollowing equations.

91. 35% of 121 + 85% of 230.25 = ?1. 225 2. 230 3. 240 4. 245 5. 228

92. 3.2 × 8.1 + 3185 4.95 = ?1. 670 2. 660 3. 645 4. 690 5. 685

93. 2508 15.02 + ? × 11 = 2001. 13 2. 8 3. 3 4. 4 5. 6

94. 42.07 × 7.998 + (?)2 = 202

1. 6 2. 12 3. 32 4. 64 5. 8

95. 2375.85 18.01 – 4.525 × 8.05 = ?1. 105 2. 96 3. 88 4. 94 5. 112Directions (Q.96 - 100) What should come in place of question mark (?) in the following number series.

96. 21, 24, 33, 48, 69, 96, ?1. 129 2. 126 3. 132 4. 135 5. None of these

97. 540, 316, 204, 148, 120, 106 ?1. 92 2. 89 3. 98 4. 99 5. None of these

98. 135, 124, 111, 96, 79, 60 ?1. 37 2. 41 3. 43 4. 35 5. 39

99. 23, 32, 50, 77, 113, 158 ?1. 213 2. 212 3. 203 4. 221 5. None of these

100. 37, 101, 150, 186, 211, 227, ?1. 235 2. 231 3. 238 4. 236 5. None of these

101. A mixture of 40 litres of milk and water contains 10% water. How much water must be added to make water 20%in the new mixture ?1. 9 ltrs 2. 7 ltrs 3. 5 ltrs 4. 10 ltrs 5. None of these

102. What would be the cost of building a fence around a square plot with area equal to 361 sq.ft. If the price per footof building the fence is Rs. 62?1. Rs.4026 2. Rs. 4712 3. Rs. 3948 4. Cannot be determined 5. None of these

103. When the price of an item was reduced by 15%, the sale of the item increased by 20%. What was the effect onthe sales1. 2% increase 2. 2% decrease 3. 1% increase 4. 1% decrease 5. None of these

104. In how many different ways can the letters of the word ‘TRUST’ be arranged ?1. 240 2. 120 3. 80 4. 25 5. 60

105. Manish travels at the speed of 40 km/hr for 3 hours and the speed of 60 km/hr for 4.5 hours. In this way hecovers three fifths of the total distance. At what average speed should he travel to cover the remaining distancein 4 hours ?1. 60 km/hr 2. 70 km/hr 3. 62 km/hr 4. 65 km/hr 5. None of these

106. An empty pipe can empty 14 of a cistern in 15 minutes. In 5 minutes, what part of the cistern will be emptied?

1. 34 2.

13 3.

12 4.


1 0 BANK CLERK MODEL EXAM - 1

107. Alok, a marine student, has to secure 60% to get first division. He gets 450 marks and misses the first class by30 marks. Find the maximum marks1. 600 2. 650 3. 700 4. 750 5. 800

108. The difference between simple and compound interests on a certain sum for 3 years at 5% is Rs.61/- Find thesum1. Rs.9000 2. Rs.9261 3. Rs. 9200 4. Rs.8000 5. None of these

109. The difference between a two-digit number and the number obtained by interchanging the two digits of thenumber is 9. If the sum of the two digits of the number is 15, then what is the original number?1. 89 2. 67 3. 87 4. 96 5. None of these

110. A man has Rs. 480 in the denomination of one-rupee notes, five rupee notes and ten - rupee notes. The numberof notes are equal. What is the total number of notes ?1. 90 2. 75 3. 60 4. 45 5. 30Directions (Q. 111 - 115) : In each of these questions, two equations numbered I and II are given. Youhave to solve both the equations and - Give Answer if1. x < y 2. x < y 3. x > y 4. x > y5. x = y or the relationship can not be established

111. I. x x2 13 42 0 II. y y2 19 90 0

112. I. x x2 15 56 0 II. y y2 23 132 0

113. I. x x2 7 12 0 II. y y2 6 8 0

114. I. x x2 22 120 0 II. y y2 26 168 0

115. I. x x2 12 32 0 II. y y2 17 72 0

Directions (Q. 116 - 120) : Study the following graph carefully to answer the questions that follow :Number of Females and Males working in five different organisations

0500

100015002000250030003500

A B C D E

Organisation

Num

ber o

f peo

ple

Females Males

116. What is the ratio of the number of females to the number of males from organisation A ?1. 11 : 8 2. 7 : 6 3. 8 : 11 4. 6 : 7 5. None of these

117. The number of males in the Organisation D forms what percent of the total number of employees from thatorganisation ? (rounded off to two digits after decimal)1. 54.17 2. 62.64 3. 52.25 4. 61.47 5. None of these

118. What is the total number of employees working in Organisation C and B together ?1. 8950 2. 9520 3. 8250 4. 9500 5. 9250


119. The number of females from Organisation E forms approximately what percent of the total number of employeesfrom that Organisation ?1. 58 2. 60 3. 52 4. 62 5. 55

120. What is the total number of females from all the Organisations together ?1. 11540 2. 11750 3. 12440 4. 10250 5. None of these

GENERAL AWARENESS(WITH SPECIAL REFERENCE TO BANKING INDUSTRY)

121. Government of India has signed an agreement with which of the following bank for the loan tosupport the provision of reliable, 24-hour electricity to rural households in Madhya Pradesh?1. World Bank 2. International Development Association3. Asian Development Bank 4. Multilateral Investment Guarantee Agency5. International Finance Corporation

122. Which state-run company has won a Rs. 774-crore contract for supplying onshore drilling rigs toupstream oil company ONGC?1. SAIL 2. BHEL 3. HAL 4. Jindal 5. NTPC

123. According to the World Bank report, the number of poor in the developing world declined to howmuch during 2005-08?1. 3.50 billion 2. 1.00 billion 3. 4.90 billion 4. 3.00 billion 5. 1.29 billion

124. Which company has become the first Indian firm to be certified as “Responsible Care Company”under the American Chemistry Council?1. Britannia Industries Ltd 2. Reliance Industries Ltd 3. Apeejay Tea Ltd4. Lotus Chocolate Company Ltd 5. Hindustan Unilever Ltd

125. RCom, in a consortium led by which IT firm, have bagged the Rs. 300 crore network and subscribercontract for government’s national identity card programme, Aadhaar?1. Aplab Ltd 2. Patni Computers Systems Ltd 3. Tata Consultancy Services4. TECH Mahindra 5. HCL Infosystems

126. The theme of which of the following summit in 2012 was “The Great Transformation’ shaping NewModels ?1. BRICS 2. G8 3. G20 4. WEF 5. ASEAN

127. Which company has signed a five-year outsourcing agreement for IT infrastructure services withHelsinki-based UPM?1. TVS Electronics Ltd 2. HCL Technologies Ltd3. Sony Electricals Ltd 4. Dell India 5. Acer Aspire India

128. Who among the following is the new CEO and MD of L & T?1. Natarajan Chandashekaran 2. S. Gopalakrishnan3. K. Venkataraman 4. Malvinder M Singh 5. None of these

129. The market size of Indian Media and Entertainment (M & E) industry is expected to touch Rs. 1,457billion by which year?1. 2012 2. 2013 3. 2014 4. 2015 5. 2016

130. RBI will bring out Rs. 5 coin to commemorate which of the following freedom fighter and martyr?1. Mahatma Gandhi 2. Shahid Bhagat Singh3. Dr. Rajendra Prasad 4. Chandra Shekhar Azad 5. Dadabhai Naoroji


131. Which of the following has announced the formation of a joint venture with the US-based IconixBrand to hawk the latter’s brands?1. Reliance Brands 2. Apgenco 3. Apple India 4. Sony India 5. Toshiba

132. The average annual compensation for a CEO in which of the following country stands at over Rs.two crore as per a new study?1. Libya 2. India 3. United Arab Emirates 4. China 5. Russia

133. CCI has approved the merger of which of the following company with its parent firm ReliancePower?1. GE Power Money 2. Digital Power Infrastructure3. Sasan Power Infrastructure 4. Reliance Energy 5. Reliance Fresh

134. The Indian Army successfully test fired which of the following 290 km range supersonic cruisemissile at the Pokharan range?1. C-803 2. P-270 Poskit 3. Brah Mos 4. P-500 Bazait 5. KD 88

135. Which state Government signed a Memorandum of Understanding with NABARD ConsultancyServices Pvt Ltd?1. Nagaland 2. Arunachal Pradesh 3. Assam 4. Manipur 5. None of these

136. Which bank appointed Madhukant Girdharlal Sanghvi as its new Chairman ?1. Syndicate Bank 2. Bank of Maharashtra 3. Bank of India4. Central Bank of India 5. None of these

137. The Indian Railways proposes to target carrying ----- Million Tonnes of revenue earning trafficduring 2012-13.1. 1025 2. 2025 3. 3025 4. 4025 5. 5025

138. India and Indonesia are set to reach their target of trade worth US $ 25 billion by ----.1. 2015 2. 2020 3. 2025 4. 2030 5. 2035

139. Foreign Tourist Arrivals (FTAs) during the Month of February, 2012 was ------- lakh.1. 2.77 2. 3.77 3. 4.77 4. 5.77 5. 6.77

140. Which country has clinched the first women’s Kabaddi World Cup championship title?1. Iran 2. India 3. Canada 4. Germany 5. None of these

141. Which State Government introduced the Mamoni scheme in the state under the National RuralHealth Mission?1. West Bengal 2. Bihar 3. Assam 4. Uttar Pradesh 5. None of these

142. Who has been elected a judge in the US state of Louisiana?1. Dr. Terence D’Souza 2. Bernadette D’Souza 3. Howard Stern4. Shirley Chisholm 5. None of these

143. The World Environment Day was observed across the globe on 5 June 2012. Theme for the WorldEnvironment Day 2012 was1. Green Economy: Does it include you 2. Forests-Nature At Your Service3. Water- all we need 4. Both 2 & 3 5. None of these

144. Who took over as 28th chief secretary of Madhya Pradesh succeeding Avani Vaish?1. Neela Gangadharan 2. D. S. Poonia 3. S. S. Kapur4. Sanjay Kumar Srivastava 5. R.Parasuram


145. Which state’s Chief Minister has demanded law to deal with cases of discrimination againstnortheastern students?1. Meghalaya 2. Nagaland 3. Gujarat 4. Uttarakhand 5. Assam

146. The Asian Development Bank (ADB) has provided assistance of how many USD aid to India?1. $8.25 billion 2. $5.25 billion 3. $3.25 billion 4. $6.25 billion 5. $7.25 billion

147. Who is the EU Ambassador to India visited Nagaland to interact with chamber of commerce andindustry recently?1. Joao Cravinho 2. Ettore Sequi 3. Franz Jessen 4. Richard Jones 5. Aivo Orav

148. What value of overseas inflow was injected into Indian markets in January 2012?1. Rs.20,000 crore 2. Rs.26,000 crore 3. Rs.32,000 crore 4. Rs.25,000 crore 5. Rs.30,000 crore

149. Who is the Chief of Lashkar e-Taiba, a reward money of $10 million has been announced on him byAmerica?1. Hafiz Saeed 2. Abdullah Azzam 3. Yusuf Muzammil 4. Nasr Javed 5. None of these

150. India’s which board was admitted as the 11th member of Multinational Design Evaluation Programmerecently?1. Nuclear Energy Agency 2. Atomic Energy Regulatory3. Permanent Court of Arbitration 4. East Asia Regulatory Summit 5. None of these

151. Commemorative Postage Stamp of which president was released to mark the birth centenary recently?1. Giani Zail Singh 2. Neelam Sanjiva Reddy 3. K.R.Narayanan4. R.Venkataraman 5. None of these

152. According to the World Economic Outlook report what is the lowered economic growth of India in2012?1.5.25% 2. 6.9% 3. 7.6% 4. 5.8% 5. 7.0%

153. Who had been appointed as UNHCR special envoy recently?1. Kofi Annan 2. Sophia Loren 3. Angelina Jolie 4. Richard Burton 5. Muazzez Ersoy

154. Who had been appointed as the President of World Heart Federation ?1. Srinath Reddy 2. Sidney C Smith 3. Deborah Chen 4. Roberto Ferrari 5. None of these

155. Nomura, the global financial services firm, on 26 June 2012 slashed the country's growth forecastfor the fiscal year 2012-13 to what per cent?1. 5.8% 2. 5% 3. 4.6% 4. 3% 5. None of these

156. Indu Chaudhary and Sakshi Malik won gold Medals in Asian Junior Wrestling Championship 2012.Asian Junior Wrestling Championship 2012 was organised in which of the following country?1. Iran 2. China 3. Kazhakhistan 4. South Korea 5. None of these

157. Which one of the following cities has been slated to host the United Nations Conference onSustainable Development 2012?1. Rio de Janeiro 2. Buenos Aires 3. Hawana 4. Toronto 5. None of these

158 The World Bank on 12 June 2012 released its report on Global Economic Prospect, which of thefollowing given statements are not true according to the World Bank report?A. Indian economy will grow by 6.9 per cent in the financial year 2012-13B. The World Bank predicted India’s growth 7.2 per cent and 7.4 per cent in fiscal years 2012-13C. The World Bank report estimated the global economy to expand 2.5% in the fiscal year 2012-13D. The World Bank report predicted western economy to grow significantly in the fiscal year 2012-131. Only A 2. Only B 3. Only C 4. Only D 5. None of these


159. India’s gross direct tax collections grew by what per cent in April-May 2012?1. 3.62 per cent 2. 3 per cent 3. 2.62 per cent 4. 4.62 per cent 5. None of these

160. The Commerce Ministry of India on 14 June 2012 released the export-import data for the month ofMay 2012. Which of the following given statement are not true according to the data?A. India's export dropped by 4.16 per cent at 25.68 billion dollar in May 2012B. India’s imports also registered a decline of 7.36 per cent at 41.9 billion dollar in May 2012C. The trade deficit figure also shrank to 16.3 billion dollar during the May 2012, from 18.5 billion

dollar in May 2011D. Import of crude oil witnessed a decline1. Only A 2. Both C & D 3. Only D 4. All the statements are true 5. None of these

MARKETING & COMPUTER161. Which concept of marketing is based on ‘customer satisfaction’ key point ?

1. Entity concept of business 2. Old concept of marketing

3. Modern concept of marketing 4. Determination of the marketing objects 5. None of these

162. Marketing is a --

1. quantitative process 2. logical process 3. mathematical process 4. managerial process 5. qualitative process

163. What is Product Line ?

1. Group of different products 2. More than one product

3. Group of different brands 4. Group of markets 5. All of these

164. Marketing Aggregation is ––––

1. Just like segmentation 2. Just opposite of segmentation

3. Target market 4. All of these 5. None of these

165. Marketing is related with ––––

1. exchange 2. transferring 3. selling 4. distribution 5. sending

166. The element of marketing mix is –––

1. selling 2. costing 3. creating 4. product 5. buying

167. What is Marketing Information System ?

1. Gathering information from the market 2. Gathering information related with sale

3. Gathering information related with purchase 4. All of these 5. None of these

168. Which of the following is a survey technique?

1. Personal interview 2. Questionnaire 3. Telephonic interview 4. All of these 5. None of these169. Capital goods market deals with –––

1. non durable goods 2. consumable goods 3. all products 4. durable goods 5. All of these170. Marketing audit helps a business in ––––

1. Identification of challenges 2. marketing research3. marketing planning 4. audit planning 5. All of these

171. Advertising is a part of ––––1. Sales promotion 2. distribution 3. brand image 4. brand equity 5. All of these


172. What is Strategy ?1. Setting a goal 2. Creating a vision 3. Allocation of resources 4. All of these 5. None of these

173. Marketing environment consists of1. a set of interacting forces 2. external forces 3. internal forces4. information about the product 5. None of these

174. Product label is concerned with –––1. monogram 2. information about the product3. information about the market 4. 1 and 2 5. None of these

175. What is Standardisation ?1. standard of living 2. charateristics of product3. pricing of product 4. brand image of product 5. All of these

176. Product life cycle’s third stage is related with ––1. maturity 2. decline 3. introduction 4. growth 5. None of these

177. Marketing techniques include1. good arguing skill 2. observation skill 3. effective negotiation skill 4. watching skill 5. listening skill

178. A prospect means1. newly designed product 2. a team leader 3. a likely buyer 4. ATM usage 5. internet transaction

179. Savings Account can be opened by ––––1. all individuals fulfilling KYC norms 2. all individuals earning more than Rs.1,00,000 per annum3. all individuals above the age of 18 4. all salaried persons 5. all students below the age of 18

180. Marketing is –––––1. a skilled persons job 2. a oneday function 3. a one - time act4. required only when a new product is launched 5. None of these

181. Which of the following is the India’s fastest Super Computer ?

1. K - Computer 2. PARAM 3. SAGA 220 4. Stuxnet 5. None of these

182. Which technology is used to remote login into a computer system ?

1. Telnet 2. Intranet 3. Extranet 4. Internet 5. Ethernet

183. Hard disk drives are considered as –––––– storage.

1. non Volatile 2. flash 3. temporary 4. permanent 5. None of these

184. Speed of super computers can be measured in the unit is known as –––––

1. Gelops 2. MHZ 3. MB 4. HZ 5. None of these

185. The extension name for powerpoint document is

1. .pwrpt 2. .pt 3. .ppt 4. .ppoint 5. .pxpt

186. Printed copy is often called

1. hard copy 2. soft copy 3. true copy 4. printed copy 5. None of these

187. The operations like AND, NOT, OR which can be used while searching for information using any search

engine is ––––––

1. boolean operator 2.operators 3. logical operators 4. relational operators 5. none of these

188. The unauthorised use of computer and network resources is called –––––

1. netiquette 2. hacking 3. pass code 4. phishing 5. none of these

189. Commercially produced first computer

1. IBM 2. EDSAC 3. UNIVAC-1 4. MIPS 5. ENIAC


190. Which of the following can be used to browse the internet ?

1. Amiga OS 2. Perl 3. Foxpro 4. NCSA Mosaic 5. None of these

191. Which menu is selected to cut, copy and paste ?

1. File 2. Tools 3. Edit 4. Help 5. Format

192. The speed at which the monitor accepts data is called

1. band width 2. interfacing 3. maximum speed 4. response time 5. None of these

193. MS Excel is a

1. DOS based spreadsheet Package 2. Windows based accounting package

3. Windows based spreadsheet package 4. Dos based accounting package 5. None of these

194. A magnetic disc is coated by

1. phosphorus penta oride 2. iron oxide 3. magnesium oxide 4. sodium peroxide 5. None of these

195. Punched card system were first introduced by

1. Blaise Pascal 2. James Gosling 3. John Vonn Newmann 4. Herman Hollerith 5. None of these

196. Ellipse motion is a/an

1. colour scheme 2. layout collection 3. design template 4. sound format 5. animation scheme

197. –––––– cells involves creating a single cell by combining two or more selected cells

1. Splitting 2. Formatting 3. Merging 4. Compressing 5. None of these

198. Which of the following is not a special program in MS Office ?

1. Clip art 2. Word art 3. Paint art 4. All of these 5. None of these

199. Which part of system performs the ‘housekeeping’ chores ?

1. Operating system 2. Interpreter 3. Translator 4. Compiler 5. Converter

200. Which of the following is the largest unit of storage ?

1. Giga byte 2. Mega byte 3. Terra byte 4. Kilo byte 5. Peta byte


REASONING ABILITY1. ‘Players’ are related to ‘Team’ in the same way as ‘Books’ are related to

1. Exams 2. Library 3. Reading 4. Writer 5. Chapter2. Shreya started from Point P and walked 2 m towards West. She then took a right turn and walked 3m before

taking a left turn and walking 5m. She finally took a left turn, walked 3m and stopped a Point Q. How far is pointQ from point P?1. 2m 2. 6m 3. 7m 4. 8m 5. 12m

3. In a certain code ‘where have you been’ is written as ‘been 4 have 3 where 2 you 1’ and ‘visiting London thissummer’ is written as ‘London 4 summer 3 this 2 visiting 1’. How will ‘repair may computer yesterday’ bewritten in the same code?1. computer 4 repair 3 may 2 yesterday 1 2. yesterday 4 repair 3 may 2 computer 13. computer 1 may 2 repair 3 yesterday 4 4. yesterday 4 may 3 repair 2 computer 15. computer 4 may 3 repair 2 yesterday 1

4. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on the English alphabetical series and so form a group.Which is the one that does not belong to that group?1. MLJ 2. WVT 3. OMK 4. JIG 5. TSQ

5. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belongto that group?1. Diameter 2. Circumference 3. Centre 4. Circle 5. Radius

Direction (6-10): Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions.A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are sitting around a circular table facing the centre but not necessarily in the same order.a. G sits third to the right of F. b. G sits second to the left of H.c. H is not an immediate neighbour of E and C. d. F and A are immediate neighbours of each other.e. Only one person sits between F and B. f. E and G sit opposite each other.

6. Four of the following five are similar in a certain way based on their position in the seating arrangement. Whichof the following does not belong to that group?1. EH 2. CF 3. AG 4. BD 5. HG

7. Who amongst the following represent immediate neighbours of D?1. E, H 2. C, G 3. F, B 4. H, G 5. C, B

8. What is the position of A with respect to G in the above arrangement?1. Third to the right 2. Second to the left 3. Fifth to the right 4. Immediate right 5. Third to the left

9. What will come in place of the question mark (?) according to the above seating arrangement?EF CG HB FA ?1. GD 2. CG 3. GH 4. BH 5. CD

Directions(10-13): Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the questions given below:6 4 2 5 2 8 5 2 6 4 1 3 9 1 8 1 2 5 8 6 3 5 1 4 9 4 7 3 2 7 2 5 9

10. How many 4s, are there in the above arrangement, each of which is immediately preceded by a digit which hasa numerical value of more than four?1. None 2. One 3. Two 4. Three 5. More than three

11. Which of the following is seventh to the left of the twentieth from the left end of the above arrangement?1. 3 2. 9 3. 2 4. 7 5. 1

12. If all the even digits are deleted from the above arrangement, which of the following will be tenth from the rightend of the arrangement?1. 9 2. 5 3. 1 4. 3 5. 7

BANK CLERK MODEL EXAM - 2


13. How many such 5s are there in the above arrangement each of which is immediately preceded by an odd digit andimmediately followed by an even digit?1. None 2. One 3. Two 4. Three 5. More than three

Directions (14-16): Study the following information to answer the given questions:In a certain code ‘ring a bell’ is written as ‘5 8 2’, ‘did not ring’ is written as ‘3 5 9’ and ‘not a reason’ is writtenas ‘7 2 9’.

14. Which of the following represents ‘did not’?1. 2 3 2. 2 9 3. 3 5 4. 5 2 5. 9 3

15. What is the code for ‘bell’?1. 5 2. 8 3. 2 4. 7 5. Cannot be determined

16. What does ‘2’ stand for?1. ring 2. a 3. bell 4. reason 5. not

Directions (17-20): Following questions are based on the five three digit numbers given below:219 742 936 587 853

17. If all the numbers are arranged in descending order from left to right, which of the following will be the productof the first and the second digits of the number which is exactly in the middle of the new arrangement?1. 18 2. 28 3. 54 4. 21 5. 45

18. One is subtracted from the first digit and two is subtracted from third the digit of each of the numbers. What willbe the difference between the first digit of the highest number and the third digit of the lowest number?1. 3 2. 4 3. 5 4. 2 5. 1

19. What will be the resultant if the third digit of the highest number is divided by the first digit of the lowestnumber?1. 3 2. 4 3. 5 4. 2 5. 1

20. If the positions of the first and the third digits of each of the numbers are interchanged, what will be sum of allthe digits of the second highest number thus formed?1. 20 2. 16 3. 18 4. 13 5. 12

Directions (21-23): Read the information given in each question carefully and answer the questions.21. Which of the following expressions will not be true if the expression 'A C B D' is definitely true?

1. B > A 2. D < C 3. A B 4. D < A 5. All are true22. In which of the following expressions will the expression ‘L > M’ be definitely true?

1. M N P > L 2. L > N M > P 3. M N = P L 4. L > N M < P 5. None of these23. Which of the following expressions will be true if the expression ‘Z < Y W = V’ is definitely true?

1. V > Y 2. Z < W 3. V Z 4. W Z 5. None is trueDirections (24-25) Read the following information carefully and answer the questions which follow:

‘A × B’ means ‘A is the son of B’.‘A + B’ means ‘A is the daughter of B’.‘A ÷ B’ means ‘A is the brother of B’.‘A - B’ means ‘A is the wife of B’.

24. How is C related to F if ‘C + D - E × F’?1. Daughter - in - law 2. Father - in - law 3. Grand daughter 4. Grandson 5. Mother

25. Which of the following means ‘P is the father of K’?1. K × L ÷ P - R 2. K ÷ L + R - P 3. K + R - L × P 4. R - P ÷ L + K 5. None of these

Directions (26-30): In the following questions, the symbol , $, © and % are used with the followingmeanings as illustrated below:

‘P Q’ means ‘P is neither greater than nor equal to Q’.‘P % Q’ means ‘P is neither smaller nor greater than Q’.‘P Q’ means ‘P is not greater than Q’.‘P $ Q’ means ‘P is greter than Q’.‘P © Q’ means ‘P is either greater or equal to Q’.


Now, in each of the following questions, assuming the given statements to be true, find which of the twoconclusions I and II given below them is / are definitely true. Give answer.

1. if only conclusion I is true.2. if only conclusion II is true.3. if either conclusion I or II is true.4. if neither conclusion I nor II is true.5. if both conclusions I and II are true.

26. Statements : H K, K N, N $ WConclusions : I. N $ H

II. W H27. Statements : H © K, K % R, R N

Conclusions : I. N © KII. R % H

28. Statements : R $ T, T © M, M % JConclusions : I. J % T

II. J T29. Statements : B A, A M, W © M

Conclusions : I. W $ BII. A W

30. Statements : B % T, T © M, M DConclusions : I. D © B

II. M BDirections (31-40): In each of the questions given below, which one of the five Answer Figures on the rightshould come after the Problem Figures on the left, if the sequence were continued?


English LanguageDirections—(Q. 41–45) Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it.Certain words/phrases have been printed in bold to help you locate them while answering some of thequestions.

Princess Chandravati was very beautiful. She loved all kinds of ornaments and always wanted to wearthe most precious and lovely jewels. Once, a jeweller came to the palace and gifted the king a wonderfuldiamond necklace. It glittered with big and small diamonds. It was certainly a very expensive necklace. Theprincess fell in love with it as soon as she saw it. So the king presented it to her. From that day on, the princessalways wore that necklace, wherever she went. One day before going for a swim in the pond, she took thenecklace off and put in the hands of her oldest and the most trustworthy servant. “Hold this and be careful.Thisis the most precious necklace in the whole world,” she said. The servant was an old woman. She sat under atree, holding, the ornament lightly and waited for the princess. It was a hot afternoon and the servant was verytired so she dozed off under the tree. Suddenly the servant felt that someone was tugging at the necklace andShe woke up with a start. She looked around but no one was there and the necklace was gone. Scared out of herwits, the old servant started screaming. On hearing her scream the royal guards rushed to her. She pointedtowards the direction in which the thief may have gone and the guards ran off that way.

There was a poor and dim - witted farmer walking on the same road. As soon as he saw the royal guardsrunning towards him, he thought that they wanted to catch him and started running. But he was not a strongman and could not outrun the hefty guards. The royal guards caught him in no time “Where is it?” theydemanded, shaking him. “Where is what ?” the poor farmer stammered back. The necklace you stole !”thundered one of the royal guards. The farmer had no idea what they were talking about. He only understoodthat some precious necklace was lost and he was supposed to have it .He quickly replied, “I don’t knowwhere it is now. I gave it to my landlord.”The guards ran towards the landlord’s house. “Give us the necklaceright new !” the guards demanded of the fat landlord. “Necklace’? I don’t have any!” the stunned landlordreplied. “Then tell us quickly who does,” demanded the soldiers. In order to get the royal guards off his back,the landlord pointed towards a priest who was walking by his house and said, “He does.” The guards nowcaught hold of the priest who was walking towards the temple and thinking about the lunch he had just eaten.


The priest was stunned when one of the burly guards jumped on him and asked about the necklace. Heremembered that the minister, Bhupati, was at the temple. He took the guards to the temple and pointedtowards the praying minister, “I gave it to him” he said. Bhupati too was caught and all four men were thrownin jail. The chief minister of the kingdom knew Bhupati well and was sure that Bhupati would never steal. Hedecided to find out who the culprit was. He hid near the jail.where all four men were put and heard themtalking. First, Bhupati asked the priest, “Panditji, why did you say that you gave the necklace to me? I wasquietly praying at the temple and now you have landed me in jail for no fault of mine.” The priest lookedapologetic. He pointed towards the landlord and said “I didn‘t know what to say. He set the guards on me.I was simply passing by his house and was on my way to the temple.” The land lord looked at the priestsheepishly. Then he turned towards the poor farmer and yelled, “You lazy good-for-nothing man! Why didyou say that I had the necklace?” The farmer, trembling under the angry gaze of all three men, said, “I wasjust walking home. The guards caught me and I did not know what to say.” On hearing this conve rsation, thechief minister understood that all the four men were innocent. He immediately ordered the royal guards tosearch thoroughly, near the pond. The guards searched high and low till they saw something glinting on thetree. On the tree sat a monkey with the princess’ favourite necklace around his neck. It took a lot of coaxingand bananas before the monkey threw the necklace on the ground. The king apologised to all the four men andgave them gold coins as compensation. He requested his daughter to wear the necklace only indoors.

41. Why did the king present the diamond necklace to his daughter?1. She liked ornaments and had grown very fond of the diamond necklace2. The king did not like ornaments and had no use of the necklace3. She had demanded the necklace from him4. The king liked to give expensive gifts to his daughter5. The king wanted to test the princess’ ability of handling expensive things

42. What did the old servant realize when she woke up?1. That there were monkeys in the palace garden2. That the princess’ necklace was missing from her hands3. That a poor farmer had stolen the necklace4. That the princess had snatched the necklace from her hands

5. That the princess had already left43. Why did the poor farmer run?

1. He was in a hurry to reach home and hide the stolen necklace2. He was worried that the guards would reach his house before him3. He had stolen the necklace and did not want to be interrogated by the guards4. He wanted to reach the landlord’s house before the guards reached there.5. He saw the royal guards running after him and thought they would arrest him

44. Why did the landlord lie about the necklace?1. He wanted to prove that the old servant was lying2. It was a conspiracy between him and the poor farmer3. He did not like the priest and wanted to get him punished4. Bhupati had ordered him to lie about the necklace5. He didn’t know anything about it and wanted to get rid of the guards

45. Why did the chief minister decide to intervene in the case of the stolen necklace?1. He suspected that the old servant was the actual culprit2. He knew that the poor farmer was dim-witted and that he had created all the confusion3. He knew that Bhupati was an honest minister and would never do such a thing4. He suspected that the landlord was the actual culprit and wanted to get him punished5. He already knew that all four men were innocent


46. What did the chief minister do in order to find out who the actual culprit was?1. He sent a spy and asked him to find out the actual culprit2. He directly asked Bhupati if he had stolen the princess’ necklace3. He asked the soldiers to keep a thorough watch on the old servant4. He hid near the jail and overheard the conversation among the four men5. He interrogated all the four men

47. Who among the following was the actual culprit?1. The monkey 2. Bhupati, the minister 3. The poor dimwitted farmer4. The old and trusted servant 5. One of the royal guards

48. Which of the following is true according to the passage?1. The necklace was made of big and small rubies2. The royal guards did not hear the old servant scream3. The royal guards were polite to all four men4. The priest was on his way to the temple 5. None is true

49. Arrange the following incidents in a chronological order as they occurred in the passage.1 The landlord pointed towards the priest 2 The old servant dozed off3 The monkeys were offered bananas 4 A jeweller visited the king1. DBCA 2. DBAC 3. BDAC 4. DABC 5.BDCA

50. What did the king do after the necklace was found?1. He rewarded the chief minister and thanked him 2. He rewarded the guards3. He took the necklace away from the princess 4. He apologised to all the four men5. Not mentioned in the passage

Directions (51-53): Choose the word/group of words which is most similar in the meaning to theword/group of words printed in bold as used in the passage.51. Dozed off

1. Waited 2. Dreamt 3. Slept 4. Nodded 5. Sat52. Tugging

1. Tearing 2. Stealing 3. Cheating 4. Pushing 5. Pulling53. Precious

1. Valuable 2. Best 3. Biggest 4. Ordinary 5. WorthlessDirections (54-55) ; Choose the word/group of words which is most opposite in meaning to the word/groupof words printed in bold as used in the passage.54. Caught hold

1. Nabbed 2.Picked up 3. Let go 4.Plunged 5. Slipped off55. Trembling

1. Scared 2. Tensed 3. Calm 4.Quite 5. ShakingDirections (56-60) : Each sentence below has two blanks, each blank indicating that something has beenomitted. Choose the set of words for each blank which best fits the meaning of the sentence as a whole.56. They ......... invited all the members of the association ......... the inauguration.

1. had, by 2. has, at 3. can, in 4. have, for 5. want, by57. They ......... their best, but were ......... to retrieve any data from that computer.

1. gave, sorry 2. showed, able 3. thought, happy 4. sent ,unsuccessful 5. tried, unable58. The ......... of rural schools is poor as ......... to their urban counterparts.

1. functions, like 2. progress, unlike 3. condition, compared 4. state, matched 5. situation, contrast59. She would prefer ......... travel early rather .........during peak hours.

1. for, to 2. to, than 3. in, so 4.not , if 5. at, about


60. Her purse was ......... at the bus stop so she ......... a complaint at the nearest police station.1. taken, did 2. stolen, filed 3. given, gave 4. left, register 5. sneaked, put

Directions (61-65) : Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error or idiomaticerror in it. The error, if any, vill be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. Ifthere is ‘No error’ the answer is 5.. (Ignore errors of punctuation if any.)61. He have started/l. making a note of/2. his appointments as /3. he tends to forget them/4. No error5.62. Ajay was adamant/l. on finishing the/2. work before leaving/3. by the day/4. No Error 5.63. His teacher was pleasantly/l. surprised when she Iearned/2. that despite the all problems/3. he participated/

4. No Error 5.64. His brother is/l. not only a good/2. guitarist but also/4. a good singer/4. No Error 5.65. The priest then request/l. all the wealthy men to/2. donate atleast some money for building a new temple./4.

No Error 5.Directions (66-70): Which of the phrases 1., 2., 3. and 4. given below should replace the phrase given in boldin the following sentence to make the sentence grammatically meaningful and correct? If the sentence iscorrect as it is and ‘No correction is required’ mark 5. as the answer66. The painter never let anyone sneaks a peek at his work before it was finished.

1. sneak a peeks 2. sneak a peek 3. sneak and peek 4. sneaking and peeking 5. No correction required

67. Came what may, she never missed a single sermon.1. Come whatever may 2. Come what may 3. Come what maybe4. Came what maybe 5. No correction required

68. Peter won the race fair and square.1. fare and square 2. fairly and square 3. fair square 4. fair not square 5. No correction required

69. He decided to play in time in the hope that the prices would decrease.1. play the time 2. played for time 3. play for time 4. play the timing 5. No correction recuired

70. Instead of going through the preliminaries we must get to the heart in the matter.1. heart for the matter 2. heart that mattered 3. heart of matters4. heart of the matter 5. No correction required

Directions (71-80): In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. Thesenumbers are printed below the passage, against each, five words are suggested, one of which fits the blankappropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.

Once upon a time a foolish brahmin (71) to Birbal with a strange request. He wanted to be (72) as‘pandit’. Now, the term ‘pandit’ (73) to a man of knowledge. But unfortunately this poor brahmin wasuneducated. Birbal tried to explain the difference to him saying that it was not correct to call an uneducatedman a pandit and because of this very reason it would be improper to call him so.But the silly brahmin had hisheart (74) on this title. Birbal came up with a brilliant solution and said that as the brahmin was an uneducatedman he should (75) abuses and stones at anyone who dared to address him by the very, same title. Then Birbalcalled all his servants and ordered them to call this brahmin a pandit. The brahmin was very pleased. But themoment the servants started calling out to him as ‘pandit’ he pretended to be very angry and (76) abusing themloudly. Then he picked up a few stones and hurled them in their direction. All this shouting and screaming (77)a crowd. When people realised that this brahmin was erupting every time someone called him ‘pandit’, theyall started to (78) him. Over the next couple of days, he would constantly hear the word ‘pandit’ wherever hewent. Very soon the whole town started referring to him as ‘pandit’ much to his (79). The foolish brahminnever realised why people were calling him a pandit. He was extremely pleased with the result. He (80) Birbalfrom the bottom of his heart.

71. 1. came 2. got 3. reached 4. visited 5. asked72. 1. call 2. referring 3. addressed 4. knows 5. written73. 1. is 2. given 3. told 4. refers 5. said


74. 1. give 2. set 3. put 4. steal 5. broken75. 1. hurl 2. give 3. stick 4. keep 5. say76. 1. telling 2. finish 3. hit 4. push 5. started77. 1. drew 2. selected 3. get 4. saw 5. scared78. 1. remember 2. help 3. watch 4. tease 5. hurl79. 1. plight 2. delight 3. happiness 4. sadness 5. indifference80. 1.yelled 2.cursed 3. called 4. smiled 5. thanked

QUANTITATIVE APTITUDEDirections (81 - 90) : What should come in place of question mark (?) in the following questions ?

81. ?)23()510(2)816(2)520( 1. 7 2. 6 3. 8 4. 9 5. None of these

82.17

79

39

29

29

equals

1. 17 2.

19 3.

29 4.

37 5. None of these

83. The value of 9 18

3

2 4

16

is

1. 8181 2.

8181 3.

818

4. 8118 5.

1681

84. 53 7 4 38 256 16. . . . . ? 1. 98.04 2. 96.08 3. 100.02 4. 108.2 5. None of these

85. 10 15 ?

1. 56

2. 5 6 3. 6 5 4. 5 × 6 5. None of these

86. 456342 ?1. 673.8 2. 674 3. 675.5 4. 682.2 5. None of these

87. 3.9% of 250-2.6% of 350 = ?1. 1.65 2. 1.6 3. 0.65 4. 0.64 5. None of these

88.15435

405 ?

1. 38.11 2. 39.11 3. 38.22 4. 39.22 5. 37.11

89. ?83

89

65

32

53

1. 34 2.

14 3.

320 4.

524

5. 3

25

90. 36.4 + 2.8 × 9.2 ÷ 0.4 = ? + 22.961. 86.44 2. 68.48 3. 77.84 4. 72.84 5. None of these


Directions (91-95) Find out the approximate value which should replace the question mark (?) in thefollowing questions. (You are not expected to find out the exact value)

91. 343?)7.2937.2937.293()7.3007.3007.300(

1. 1852200 2. 1842900 3. 1863200 4. 1891000 5. 1889200

92. ?0012.301.58.4 119119119119 1. 7.3 2. 6.8 3. 5.2 4. 4.9 5. 3

93. 2808 9997 3 76. . ? 1. 17 2. 54 3. 16 4. 14 5. 15

94. 37% of 5009 15

of 6666 = ?

1. 52000 2. 52 3. 500 4. 150 5. 52095. 4168 + 372 × 37 = ?

1. 18000 2. 17900 3. 17800 4. 17750 5. 17850Directions (96-100): What should come in the place of question mark (?) in the following number series?96. 2 10 30 68 ?

1. 128 2. 130 3. 136 4. 140 5. None of these97. 4 18 46 98 ?

1. 196 2. 192 3. 290 4. 194 5. None of these98. 6 9 18 45 ?

1. 135 2. 99 3. 115 4. 138 5. None of these99. 18 11 24 14 ?

1. 32 2. 26 3. 30 4. 34 5. None of these100. 8 9 13 32 ?

1. 31 2. 36 3. 47 4. 38 5. None of these101. The area of a triangle is 126 square metres and its base is 28 metres. Find the height?

1. 18 metres 2. 12 metres 3. 9 metres 4. 6 metres 5. None of these102. A grocer mixes 26 kg of tea which costs him Rs.200 a kig with 30 kg of tea which costs Rs.360 a kg and sells the

mixture at Rs.300 a kg. What is the total percentage of gain?1. 8% 2. 5% 3. 10% 4. No gain, no loss 5. None of these

103. 45 men complete a piece of work in 30 days working 12 hours a day. In how many days will 60 men completethat work working 10 hours a day?1. 31 2. 29 3. 27 4. 33 5. None of these

104. What is twice the difference between the biggest and smallest 5 digit numbers formed with digits 0, 2, 3, 6, 7?1. 101906 2. 71816 3. 111906 4. 116226 5. None of these

105. Two pipes can separately fill up a cistern in 2 hours and 3 hours respectively. If both the pipes are opensimultaneously, in how many minutes will the cistern be filled?1. 60 2. 80 3. 72 4. 51 5. None of these

106. 16 men can complete a piece of work in 8 days. 20 women take 16 days to complete the same piece of work. 12men and 10 women work together for 6 days. How many more days would 10 women alone require to completethe remaining piece of work?1. 8 2. 10 3. 4 4. 16 5. None of these

107. An urn contains 4 green and 7 blue marbles. If three marbles are picked at random, what is the probability thatonly two of them are blue?

1. 4955 2.

711 3.

2855 4.



108. In how many different ways can the letters of the word FORMULATE be arranged?1. 81000 2. 40320 3. 362880 4. 153420 5. None of these

109. A certain sum of money was deposited in a bank and it got doubled in 10 years. What is the rate of simple interest?1. 8% 2. 15% 3. 12% 4. 10% 5. 14%

110. A 150 metre long train moving at a speed of 30 m/sec passes a man moving in opposite direction with a speed of5 m/sec. How many seconds will it take to cross the man?

1. 3 2. 427

3. 4 4. 6 5. None of these

Directions (111-115): These questions are based on the following data. Study it carefully and answer thequestions that follow:

In a school having 400 students, boys and girls are in the ratio of 3 : 5. The students speak Hindi, English or boththe languages. 12% of the boys speak only Hindi. 22% of the girls speak only English. 24% of the total students speakonly Hindi and the number of boys speaking both the languages is six times the number of boys speaking only Hindi.111. How many boys speak Hindi?

1. 18 2. 126 3. 108 4. 26 5. None of these112. How many girls speak only Hindi?

1. 55 2. 117 3. 96 4. 78 5. None of these113. How many students speak English?

1. 304 2. 79 3. 225 4. 117 5. None of these114. The number of girls speaking only Hindi is what percent of the total number of students speaking only Hindi?

1. 38.2% 2. 71.8% 3. 31.2% 4. 78% 5. 81.25%115. What is the ratio of the number of boys to the number of girls speaking both the languages?

1. 23 : 25 2. 12 : 25 3. 12 : 13 4. 25 : 13 5. None of theseDirections (116-120): Study the graph towards helping Tsunami victims from different cities.

Cities

4000

5500

5000

3500

4500

2500

0

1000

2000

3000

4000

5000

6000

P Q R S T U

116. The number of people contributing from cities Q and U together forms what percent of the total number ofpeople contributing from all the given cities?1. 30 2. 36 3. 32 4. 38 5. None of these


117. Approximately by what percent of the number of people contributing from city ‘T’ is more in comparison to thenumber of people contributing from city S?1. 38 2. 18 3. 22 4. 29 5. 34

118. What is the ratio of the number of people contributing from city ‘P’ to that from city ‘R’?1. 5 : 4 2. 4 : 7 3. 7 : 4 4. 5 : 9 5. 4 : 5

119. The number of people contributing from how many cities forms less than 18% of the total number of peoplecontributing from all the cities together?1. 3 2. 4 3. 2 4. 1 5. None of these

120. How many more people from city ‘S’ would have made the ratio 11 : 9 for the number of people contributingfrom city ‘S’ to that from city ‘T’.1. 1500 2. 2000 3. 5500 4. 3500 5. None of these

GENERAL AWARENESS(WITH SPECIAL REFERENCE TO BANKING INDUSTRY)

121. What is the theme of this year’s World Health Day which is celebrated on 7th April worldwide?1. Good health adds life to years 2. No action today, no cure tomorrow3. Save lives, make hospitals safe in emergencies 4. Make every mother and child count5. Make cities healthier

122. What is not true in rollback decisions of Finance Minister regarding budget proposals 2012-13 ?1. Deferred GAAR for one year 2. 1% levy on all branded jewellery reduced to 0•5%3. Long-term capital gains tax on PE investors reduced to 10%4. Withdrawal of 1% TDS on transfer of immovable property 5. None of these

123. Who has been appointed as commerce secretary in India?1. Rahul Khullar 2. Zafar Mahmood 3. S.R.Rao 4. Anand Sharma 5. None of these

124. Government has constituted a study group for Common Tax Code (CTC) headed by M. K. Gupta will cover—1. Custom Duty and Excise Duty 2. Excise Duty and Service Tax3. Excise Duty, Custom Duty and Service Tax 4. All Indirect Taxes 5. None of these

125. Which Asian country was invited by NATO to Chicago summit 2nd day of which will focus on Afghanistan?1. Pakistan 2.Thailand 3. Philippines 4. Kuwait 5. Nepal

126. Which of the following days was proclaimed ‘International Literacy Day’ by UNESCO?1. 8th September 2.18th September 3.18th October 4. 8th October5. 28th November

127. South Sudan has become a member of International Monetary Fund (IMF). It became IMF’s—1. 186th Member 2. 187th Member 3. 188th Member 4. 189th Member 5. None of these

128. India’s industrial growth during 2011-12 (base 2004-05 = 100) stood at 2•8% for March 2012 IIP growth stood at1. 2•9% 2. 1•3% 3. – 1•3% 4. – 3•5% 5. None of these

129. 6 MMTPA pellet making plant in Odisha has been commissioned by—1. Essar Steels 2. Tata Steels 3. Steel Authority of India Ltd.4. Jindal Steels 5. None of these

130. Non performing assets mean .................1. the assets have stopped giving losses to a bank2. the assets have stopped giving capital to a bank3. the assets have stopped giving income to a bank4. the assets have stopped giving income and expenses to a bank5. the assets have stopped giving expenses to a bank


131. If a cheque is post dated bank on whom it is drawn1. will not honour the cheque before the date of the cheque2. has to honour the cheque before the date of the cheque3. has the option to honour the cheque before the date of the cheque or not4. has to refer to RBI to honour the cheque before the date of the cheque5. has to reer to the court to honour the cheque before the date of the cheque

132. Who among the following is the Prime Minister of Japan at present ?1. Mr. Yoshihiko Noda 2. Mr. Naoto Kan 3. Mr. Abe Shinzo 4. Mr. Yasuo Fukuda 5. None of these

133. Mobile banking requires :1. account with a bank with mobile phone linked to interbank mobile payment service2. account with mobile post office3. account with bank along with mobile phone linked to international mobile payment service4. account with bank and mobile phone linked to interstate mobile payment service5. account with bank along with mobile phone linked to interdistrict mobile payment service

134. 20th Summit of ASEAN was held on April 3-4, 2012 in—1. Singapore 2. Jakarta (Indonesia) 3. Phnom Penh (Cambodia)4. Bangkok (Thailand) 5. None of these

135. As per the third advance estimates of foodgrains released by Ministry of Agriculture on April 23, 2012, the totalfoodgrain production stood at—1. 244•77 MT 2. 248•73 MT 3. 250•42 MT 4. 252•56 MT 5. None of these

136. The new President of the World Bank to take charge w.e.f. July 2012 is—1. Obiageli Katryn Ezekwesili 2. Robert Zoellick 3. Jim Yong Kim 4. Christine Lagarde 5. None of these

137. The 'Shillong Declaration', in news recently, was on1. Food Security Act 2. Right to Information Act 3. Right to Education Act4. Prevention of Corruption Act 5. None of these

138. What is the target of the Millennium Development Goal of the United Nations with respect to Universa lPrimary Education?1. All children both boys and girls would complete a full course primary schooling by 20152. All children both boys and girls are to be literate by 20503. All boys should go to school to complete a full course of primary schooling, by 20254. All girls should be enrolled in primary school by 2015 5. None of these

139. ‘Environment Excellency’ award under SCOPE Meritorious Awards 2010-11 has been given to—1. ONGC 2. EIL 3. SAIL 4. IOC 5. None of these

140. India has opened an ‘Integrated Check Post’ in Indian territory for promoting bilateral trade with—1. Bangladesh 2. Pakistan 3. Nepal 4. China 5. None of these

141. On April 17, 2012, RBI has made a sharp 50 bps reduction in Repo Rate which reduced Repo Rate from—1. 8•75% to 8•25% 2. 8•5% to 8•0% 3. 8•0% to 7•5% 4. 8•25% to 7•75% 5. None of these

142. A Savings Bank Account opened with a commercial bank with zero balance or very minimal balance is known as1. Savings Bank - Ordinary Account 2. Student Savings Bank Account 3. No Frill Account4. Current Account 5. Call Deposit

143. 'Sensitive Sector' as defined by RBI includes—1. Capital Market 2. Real Estate 3. Commodities 4. All of the above 5. None of these


144. Asian Development Outlook 2012 (released by Asian Development Bank) has projected India’s GDP growthfor 2012-13 at—1. 6•5% 2. 6•75% 3. 7•0% 4. 7•5% 5. None of these

145. Mr. Salva Kur Mayardit has taken over as the President of :1. Republic of South Sudan 2. Vietnam 3. Myanmar4. Libya 5. Iraq

146. NEFT means1.National Electronic Funds Transfer system 2.Negotiated Efficient Fund Transfer system3.National Efficient Fund Transfer solution 4.Non Effective Fund Transfer system5.Negotiated Electronic Foreign Transfer system

147. Which one of the following is the current Nasscom President?1. Bijoy Ghosh 2. Som Mittal 3. Anil Ambani 4. Krishnakumar Natarajan 5. None of these

148. Money lend for 15 days or more in Inter-bank market is called1. call money 2. notice money 3.term money 4. All of these 5. None of these

149. Name the Indian origin British civil servant who was chosen as president of European Bank for Reconstructionand Development.1. Thomas Mirow 2. Jean Lemierre 3. Suma Chakrabarti 4. Horst Kohler 5. None of these

150. Narsimham Committee recommended to reduce the Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR) and Cash Reserve Ratio(CRR) to:1. 25% and 3.5% respectively 2. 24% and 3.5% respectively 3. 25% and 3% respectively4. 20% and 5% respectively 5. 25% and 5% respectively

151. Which agricultural arm would setup over 20 rural Gurukuls across Indian states including Jharkhand?1. Andhra Bank 2. NABARD 3. Dena Bank 4. PN Bank 5. Axis Bank

152. Which country will host the 46th annual meeting of the Asian Development Bank in 2013?1. Tashkent, Uzbekistan 2. Manila, Philippines 3. Ha Noi, Vietnam4. New Delhi, India 5. None of these

153. Consumer banks are usually found in1. India and Pakistan 2. India and UK. 3. USA and Germany 4. China and Russia 5. India and China

154. Who won the silver medal at the 3rd International ‘Republic of Kazakhstan President’s Cup’ held in Almaty,Kazakhstan?1. Devendro Singh 2. Hawa Singh 3. Mohammed Ali Qamar 4. Pu Zoramthanga 5. None of these

155. Raag Darbar is a famous book written in Hindi by1. Amarkant 2. Shrilal Shukla 3. Nirmal Verma4. H.R.Bachchan 5. Malti Joshi

156. Helle Thorning Schmidt is the first woman Prime Minister of1. Norway 2. Brazil 3. Denmark 4. Argentina 5. None of these

157. “Scheduled bank” means a bank1. incorporated under the Companies Act, 19562. authorized to transact Government business3. governed by the Banking Regulation Act, l9494. included in the Second Schedule to the Reserve Bank of India Act, 19345. All of the above


158. What value of bailout did Spain receive recently from European finance ministers?1. $155 billion 2. $145 billion 3. $1325 billion 4. $125 billion 5. $25 billion

159. What is the full form of Nasscom?1. National Association of Services and Software Companies2. National Association of Software and Services Companies3. National Association of Safety and Services Companies4. National Association of Services and Safety Companies 5. None of these

160. Who is named as Event Ambassador for 2012 World Twenty 20?

1. Brett Lee 2. Chaminda Vaas 3. Malinga 4. Waqar Younis 5. Shaun Pollock

MARKETING & COMPUTER161. Good marketing strategy envisages good and proper

1. production development 2. promotion and distribution 3. pricing4. relationship management 5. All of these

162. Marketing channel means1. outlets where sales take place 2. channel financing 3. focusing sales on one single group4. home delivery 5. courier service

163. Cross-selling means1. selling to enemies 2. selling new products 3. reversal of a sale4. selling other products to existing customers 5. public relations

164. The target group for tractor loan is1. cold storage plants 2. farmers with large landholdings 3. farm labourers4. agriculture colleges 5. vegetable vendors

165. Brand image is concerned with the1. materials 2. buyer 3. seller 4. particular manufacturer 5. All of these

166. ‘Buyer Resistance’ means1. buyers interest in the product being sold 2. buyer fighting with the seller3. buyer’s hesitation in buying the product 4. buyer becoming a seller 5. one who buys the product

167. Effective selling skills depend on1. effective lead generation 2. sales call planning 3. territory allocation4. effective communication skills 5. All of these

168. The best promotional tool in any marketing is1. e - promotion 2. public relations 3. virtual marketing 4. word-of-mouth publicity 5. advertisements

169. Lead generation can be resorted to by browsing1. telephone directories 2. yellow pages 3. internet sites4. list of existing customers 5. All of these

170. A DSA means1. direct service agency 2. direct selling agent 3. double selling agent4. distribution agency 5. None of these

171. Market segmentation helps to determine1. target groups 2. sale price 3. profit levels 4. Product Life Cycle 5. All of these

172. Customisation results in1. customer freedom 2. customer retention 3. customer complaints4. All of these 5. None of these


173. Situation Analysis is useful for1. SWOT Analysis 2. analysis of sales person’s performance3. analysis of capital market 4. All of these 5. None of these

174. Find the correct sentence1. Higher the price, higher are the sales 2. More sales persons to more sales3. Mission statement is a part of market plan 4. Better sales incentives mean better performance5. All customers are profitable

175. Advertisements are not required in1. public sector banks 2. private sector banks 3. government concerns4. profit making companies 5. None of these

176. A savings account with insurance benefit is1. a long term loan account 2. a running overdraft facility 3. a non-fund facility4. a type of remittance facility 5. a value - added deposit account

177. Market space means1. place where goods are sold 2. trade fairs and melas 3. road shows4. scope available for selling 5. competition

178. Marketing function includes1. designing new products 2. advertisements 3. publicity 4. after - sales service 5. All of these

179. Transaction marketing involves selling of1. more goods 2. more services 3. ideas and thoughts 4. repair works 5. After-sales service

180. Market information means1. knowledge level of marketing staff 2. information regarding marketing staff3. information regarding share market 4. knowledge of related markets 5. All of these

181. The process of writing computer instruction is called1. fetching 2. coding 3. executing 4. programming 5. testing

182. SAN stands for1. Share Area Network 2. Storage Area Network 3. Share And Networking4. Store and Networking 5. None of these

183. India’s fastest super computer SAGA 220 was built by1. ISRO 2. C-Dit 3. C-DAC 4. VSNL 5. None of these

184. The OSI model is divided into _____ processes called layers.1. Five 2. Six 3. Seven 4. Eight 5. None of these

185. Which of the following is the best known NVRAM memory used today?1. Flash memory 2. Cache memory 3. ROM 4. RAM 5. None of these

186. Identify the wrong pair1. 4 bits : 1 nibble 2. 1024zb : yottabyte 3. 1024tb : 1 Exabyte 4. 1024eb : 1 zetabyte 5. None of these

187. Newly appointed CEO of yahoo.1. Karan kinsley 2. Marissa Mayor 3. Dian craig 4. Shelly Broser 5. None of these

188. In a word document colour can applied to1. only graphics 2. only the first word 3. only text4. all elements 5. all elements, if you have a colour printer

189. Surfing is related with1. robotics 2. motherboard 3. artificial intelligence 4. internet 5. All of these


190. Which of the following has the smallest storage capacity?1. Floppy Disk 2. Zip Disk 3. Hard Disk 4. Data Cartridge 5. CD

191. Which of the following is the first Palm Top Computer?1. LOGO 2. Newton 3. PDP-8 4. Microm 5. None of these

192. In Excel, Sheet tabs are appear at the _____ of window.1. top 2. right 3. bottom 4. title bar 5. None of these

193. HP stands for1. High Speed Processor 2. Hewlett Packard 3. Highly Packard 4. Hewlett processor 5. None of these

194. A letter, memo, proposal or other file that is created using microsoft word is called a1. document 2. worksheet 3. slide 4. master 5. None of these

195. Folders are used to store1. graphs only 2. images only 3. diagrams only 4. files 5. None of these

196. Home key is used to move the insertion point to the _____ in Excel.1. first cell in row 2. required cell 3. last cell in row 4. first cell in a column 5. None of these

197. Which type of network would use phone lines?1. LAN 2. WAN 3. Wireless 4. MAN 5. None of these

198. ‘Finacle’ is a (n)1. Core banking software by sun microsystem 2. Core system by infosys3. Core banking software by infosys 4. Core hardware component by intel 5. None of these

199. To move down a page in a document is called1. sorting 2. scrolling 3. dragging 4. clicking 5. None of these

200. PDA stands for1. Programming Device Accessories 2. Personal Directory Access3. Programmable Document Assistant 4. Personal Digital Assistant 5. None of these

1 BANK CLERK MODEL EXAM NO. 3

BANK CLERK MODEL EXAM NO-3Time: 120 minutes Marks: 200

REASONING ABILITY

1. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word BEHAVIOUR each of which has as many letters between them in the wordas in the English alphabet?1. None 2. One 3. Two 4. Three 5. More than three

2. How many such digits are there in the number 764528 each of which is as far away from the beginning of the number as whenthe digits are arranged in descending order within the number?1. None 2. One 3. Two 4. Three 5. More than three

3. What should come next in the letter series given below?A B A B C A B C D A B C D E A B C D E F A B C D E F G A B C1. D 2. E 3. F 4. H 5. None of these

4. How many meaningful English words can be made with the letters EPRY using each letter only once in each word?1. None 2. One 3. Two 4. Three 5. More than three

5. J.D.L.H and F each travelling to station, each one reaches at a different time. L reaches only after J and D reaches only before F. Who amongst them is third to reach?1. F 2. L 3. D 4. Cannot be determined 5. None of these

6. If HIPLM is a code for Delhi, QEHVEW is a code for ?1. Mumbai 2. Nagpur 3.Kanpur 4.Madras 5. None of these

7. If a meaningful word can be formed from APSG, by using each letter only once, then the third letter of that word is your answer.If more than one such word can be formed, your answer is ‘Y’ and if no such word is formed then answer is ‘Z’?1. Z 2. Y 3. P 4. G 5. S

8. The letters in the word DANGEROUS are changed in such a way that the consonants are replaced by the previous letter in theEnglish alphabet and the vowels are replaced by the next letter in the English alphabet. Which of the following will be the third letterfrom the left end of the new set of letters?1. B 2. M 3. O 4. L 5. None of these

9. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?1. Table 2. Desk 3. Wardrobe 4. Computer 5. Chair

10. In a certain language ‘ne ri so’ means ‘good rainy day’, ‘si ne po’ means ‘day is wonderful and ‘ri jo’ means ‘good boy’. Whichof the following means ‘rainy’ in that code?1. ne 2. ri 3. si 4. so 5. None of these

Directions (11-15): In each of the questions below are given three statements followed by two conclusions numbered I andII. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be a variance from commonly known facts. Readall the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregard-ing commonly known facts.

Give answer (1) if only conclusion I follows.Give answer (2) if only conclusion II follows.Give answer (3) if either conclusion I or II follows.Give answer (4) if neither conclusion I nor II follows.Give answer (5) if both conclusions I and II follows.

11. Statements : Some doors are windows.All windows are floors.All floors are ceilings.

Conclusions : I. Some doors are floors.II. All windows are ceilings.


12. Statements : Some computers are books.Some books are pens.All pens are notebooks.

Conclusions : I. Some books are notebooks.II. Some notebooks are computers.

13. Statements : All fruits are flowers.No flower is sweet.Some sweets are desserts.

Conclusions : I. Some desserts are flowers.II. No dessert is flower.

14. Statements : All bottles are jars.Some jars are bowls.Some bowls are buckets.

Conclusions : I. Some bottles are bowls.II. Some buckets are jars.

15. Statements : Some shoes are socks.All socks are sandals.All sandals are trousers.

Conclusions : I. All trousers are socks.II. Some sandals are shoes.

Directions (16-20):Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the questions given below:H T 7 L E $ 2 Y # W 4 1 F @ V 3 A 8 % K 1 M © 5 G U 6 C16. Which of the following is the fifth to the left of the fourteenth from the left end of the above arrangement?

1. # 2. W 3. Y 4. K 5. None of these17. How many such vowels are there in the above arrangement, each of which is immediately preceded by a number but not

immediately followed by a symbol?1. None 2. One 3. Two 4. Three 5. More than three

18. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on their positions in the above arrangement and so form a group. Whichis the one that does not belong to that group?1. H E 7 2. 2 4 # 3. K 5 M 4. 3 K 8 5. F V A

19. How many such consonants are there in the above arrangement, each of which is immediately preceded by a number and alsoimmediately followed by a symbol?1. None 2. One 3. Two 4. Three 5. More than three

20. What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following series based on the above arrangement?T 7 E Y # 4 @ V A ?1. K M © 2. % K M 3. % 1 M 4. K 1 © 5. None of these

Directions (21-25): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:M, D, J, Q, T, F, H and N are sitting around a circle facing at the centre. T is third to the right of F who is secondto the left of M. Q is not a neighbour of T or F and is third to the left of H. J is second to the right of N.

21. Who is second to the left of H?1. T 2. F 3. Q 4. Data inadequate5. None of these

22. Who is to the immediate left of M?1. H 2. T 3. Q 4. J 5. None of these


23. In which of the following pairs the second person is to the immediate left of the first person?1. MT 2. NQ 3. HF 4. DN 5. None of these

24. What is Q’s position with respect of M?A. Fourth to the right B. Fourth to the left C. Fifth to the left D. Fifth to the right1. (A) only 2. (B) only 3. Either (C) or (D) 4. (A) and (B) only5. None of these

25. Who is second to the right of T?1. M 2. H 3. Q 4. Data inadequate 5. None of theseDirections (26-30): In each question below is given a group of letters followed by four combinations of digits/symbols

numbered (1), (2), (3) and (4). You have to find out which of the combinations correctly represents the group of letters basedon the following coding system and mark the number of that combination as the answer. If none of the four combinations correctlyrepresents the group of letters, mark (5) i.e. ‘None of these’ as the answer.Letter : J H Q A R L E G T U M B C I PDigit/ : 5 @ 2 8 1 9 % # © 4 6 $ « 3 7SymbolConditions:

(i) If both the first and the last letters of the group are vowels, their codes are to be interchanged.(ii) If the first letter is a consonant and the last letter is a vowel, both are to be coded by the code for the consonant.

26. JQGALI1. 32#893 2. 52#893 3. 52#895 4. 32#895 5. None of these

27. EBHRMT1. %@$16© 2. %$@16© 3. 6$@1©% 4.©$@16% 5. None of these

28. IGCHRE1. %#«@13 2. 3#«@1% 3. 3#«@13 4.%#«@1% 5. None of these

29. BQRLHA1. $219@8 2. 8219@$ 3. 8219@8 4. $219@$ 5. None of these

30. QRLGHM1. 219#@2 2. 619#@6 3. 619#@2 4. 619@#2 5. None of these

Directions (31-35): In the following questions, the symbols @, #, ©, $ and % are used with the following meaning as illustrated below.

‘P © Q’ means ‘P is neither greater than nor smaller than Q’.‘P # Q’ means ‘P is either ‘smaller than or equal to Q’.‘P @ Q’means ‘P is either greater than or equal to Q’.‘P % Q’ means ‘P is greater than Q’.‘P $ Q’ means ‘P is smaller than Q’.Now in each of the following questions assuming the given statements to be true, find which of the two conclusions I and II given

below them is /are definitely true?Give answer (1) if only Conclusion I is true.Give answer (2) if only Conclusion II is trueGive answer (3) if either Conclusion I or II is trueGive answer (4) if neither Conclusion I nor II is trueGive answer (5) if both Conclusions I and II are true.

31. Statements : M % T, R @ T, R © KConclusions : I. K $ M II. T @ K


32. Statements : D # J, J $ N, N @ WConclusions : I. W $ J II. D $ N

33. Statements : B © K, K @ T, T $ FConclusions : I. T # B II. F % B

34. Statements : H @ M, M # R, R $ NConclusions : I. R @ H II. N % M

35. Statements : F % B, B @ D, D # KConclusions : I. K @ B II. D # F

Directions (36-40): In each of the questions given below which one of the five answer figures on the right should come afterthe problem figures on the left, if the sequence were continued?

36.

37.

38.

39.

40.

GENERAL ENGLISHDirections (41-50): Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words have beenprinted in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.

There was a girl who sang beautifully at the temple every morning. The music master used to happily recall, “One day when I wentinto the woods to pluck flowers, I found this baby under a pipal tree”. He picked her up carefully, raised her lovingly as if she were hisdaughter and taught her to sing before she spoke her first word.

The music master grew old and didn’t see too well. The girl tended to him caringly. Many people including young men travelled fromfar and wide to hear her sing. This made the music master’s heart quake with fear. “You will choose one of them as your husband. Whatis to become of me?” The girl replied, I shall not be apart from you”. But on a full moon night during the harvest festival, the master’s chiefdisciple touched his feet reverently and said, “Master, grant me your permission for your daughter has agreed to marry me.” The master’stears flowed freely. “She has chosen well. Go and fetch her let me hear you sing the first of many melodies that you will sing together.The two began to sing in harmony. But the song was interrupted by the arrival of the royal messenger. “Your daughter is very fortunatethe king has sent for her,” the messenger said. At the palace the queen summoned the girl to her and said. “I place upon you the honourof making sure my daughter is never unhappy at her husband’s home.” There wasn’t a single tear in the girl’s eyes but she thought of themaster and her heart was heavy.


That very night the princess began her journey to Kambhoj. The princess’s royal chariot led the procession and the girl’s palanquinfollowed close behind carrying trunks of silk, jewellery and precious stones. It was covered with a velvet sheet and had soldiers on theboth sides. As the procession passed, the master and his disciple Kumarasen stood still by wayside. A collective sigh escaped thecrowd gathered there wishing that the princess wouldn’t feel homesick in her far away home.41. Which of the following can be said about the girl?

A. She was brought up by her father as her mother had died when she was a baby.B. She was a talented singer who had learnt to sing at an early age.C. She was only allowed to sing with the master’s permission.1. Only (A) 2. Both (A) and (B) 3. Only (B) 4. All (A), (B) and (C) 5. None of these

42. What was the girl’s reaction to leaving home?1. She was honoured to be serving the princess. 2. Sadness at leaving the master.3. She entrusted the task of looking after the music master to Kumarasen 4. She was thrilled to be living in luxury.5. None of these

43. What task was entrusted to the girl by the queen?1. Seeing that her daughter reached Kambhoj safely.2. Entertaining the princess on her journey to Kambhoj.3. Protecting the princess and reporting to the queen if she was unhappy.4. Entrusting the princess’ happiness. 5. None of these

44. What was the master’s reaction to the girl’s decision to marry his disciple?1. He was upset and cried.2. He promised to give his permission if the couple sang well together.3. He was sad because she would be going to Kambhoj which was far away.4. He was pleased with her choice of husband. 5. None of these

45. Which of the following is not true in the context of the passage?A. The girl was leaving the master and going to Kambhoj once she was married.B. The king sent for the girl because she was a good singer.C. The master did not let the girl study any other subject except music.1. Only (A) 2. Both (A) and (B) 3. All (A), (B) and (C) 4. Both (A) and (C) 5. None of these

46. Why was the princess going on a journey?A. She was going to her prospective husband’s home to get engaged.B. Her parents wanted her to visit the kingdom of which she would be the future queen.C. To take expensive gifts for the rulers of the Kambhoj who were well known to her parents.1. None 2.Only (B) 3. Only (A) 4. Both (A) and (B) 5. Both (B) and (C).

47. Why was the master afraid?1. He felt the princess would treat the young girl unkindly.2. He would be all alone after the girl’s marriage.3. The girl may not be able to adapt to her new home.4. He was slowly going blind. 5. None of these

Directions (48-49): Choose the word which is most nearly the SAME in meaning to the word printed in bold as used in thepassage.48. Fortunate

1. rich 2. liked 3. happy 4. successful 5. lucky49. Raised

1. nurtured 2. lifted 3. grew 4. built 5. high50. Choose the word which is most OPPOSITE in meaning to the word collective as used in the passage.

1. alone 2. separately 3. united 4. partial 5. singleDirections (51-55): Read each sentence to find out if there is any error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If there is no error the answer is (5).(Ignore errors of punctuation, if any).51. In present the (1)/prices of food grains (2) / are high all (3) / over the world. (4) / No error (5).52. Majority of the banks (1)/today uses technology (2)/ to reach out to those (3)/living in rural areas.

(4)/ No error (5).53. I will give (1) / you the advance (2)/if you repay it as (3)/soon as possibly. (4)/No error (5).54. Though he is very (1) / wealthy and powerful (2)/ he has any (3)/ concern for the poor. (4)/No error (5).55. Mala has the (1)/ability to handle (2)/many tasks at (3)/the same time (4)/ No error (5)Directions (56-60): Which of the phrases (1), (2), (3) and (4) given below should replace the phrase given in bold in thefollowing sentence to make the sentence grammatically meaningful and correct. If the sentence is correct as it is and ‘Nocorrection is required’, mark (5)as the answer.56. Finding himself in financial difficulty, he came forward me for help and advice.

1. come across 2. is come upto 3. came to 4. come with 5. No correction required


57. Deepak having been over eighteen years of age, is entitled to vote.1. has been of 2. being over 3. who is having over 4. who is been 5. No correction required

58. The magazine that we subscribed to is published monthly.1. which is subscribed 2.we are subscribed 3. whom we subscribe4. whichever we subscribe 5. No correction required

59. Among of his many good qualities, that I remember is his honesty.1. All of his 2. Some of the 3. Only of his 4. One of his 5. No correction required

60. Many of our clients have deposit of this foreign bank.1. have deposits in 2. had deposited 3. with deposits 4. have deposited 5. No correction required

Directions (61-65): Rearrange the following six sentences (A), (B), (C), (D), (E) and (F) in the proper sequence to form ameaningful paragraph; then answer the questions given below them.

(A) The sailor was told it was placed there as a warning signal to sailors to warn them of danger.(B) He returned to the spot a few years later as captain of his own ship.(C) The ship was at sea for many days and finally anchored near the coastline.(D) The night was stormy and without a warning signal his ship was wrecked on that very rock.(E) One of the sailors on board saw a bell tied to a dangerous submerged rock.(F) As a joke the sailor decided to steal the bell and hide it despite being informed of this.

61. Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence after rearrangement?1. A 2. B 3. C 4. D 5. E

62. Which of the following should be the SECOND sentence after rearrangement?1. A 2. B 3. C 4. D 5. E

63. Which of the following should be the THIRD sentence after rearrangement?1. A 2. B 3. C 4. D 5. E

64. Which of the following should be the FIFTH sentence after rearrangement?1. A 2. B 3. C 4. D 5. E

65. Which of the following should be the SIXTH (LAST) sentence after rearrangement?1. A 2. B 3. C 4. D 5. E

Directions (66-70): In each question below a sentence with four words printed in bold type is given. These are numberedas (1), (2), (3) and (4). One of these four words printed in bold may be either wrongly spelt or inappropriate in the contextof the sentence. Find out the word, which is wrongly spelt or inappropriate, if any. The number of the word is your answer.If all the words printed in bold are correctly spelt and also appropriate in the context of the sentence, mark (5) i.e. ‘Allcorrect’ as your answer.66. We have incurred (1)/an expense (2)/of over fifty thousands (3)/this year alone. (4)/All correct (5)67. World Earth Day is celeberated (1)/as a means (2)/to make people aware (3)/about the environment. (4)/ All correct (5).68. The key issue (1) / discused (2)/at the meeting was how to resolve (3)/ the food crisis. (4)/All correct (5).69. He deserves (1)/some recognition (2) / for working diligently (3)/ for the passed (4)/five years. All correct (5).70. There are many employment (1)/opportunities (2)/for fresh graduates (3)/ in the market (4)/today.

All correct (5).Directions (71-80): In the following passage there are blanks each of which has been numbered. These numbers are

printed below the passage and against each five words are suggested one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find outthe appropriate word in each case.

I had (71) to become a multipurpose manager. I took three steps to accomplish this. First, I took very (72) part in professionalassociations. I (73) the National President of the Indian Society for Training and Development - one of the (74) organisations for HRprofessionals. This helped me to grow professionally. My communication skills (75). It also taught me (76) to conduct meetings in aneffective manner. My job (77) me to different parts of the country and (78) believe that (79) provided me with an education. I also wrotea lot. Newspaper editors often approached me with (80) to write articles for their publications.71. 1. achieved 2. aim 3. try 4. dreamed 5. wanted72. 1. selected 2. active 3. interesting 4. often 5. joint73. 1. elected 2. voted 3. became 4. applied 5. decided74. 1. respected 2. status 3. impressed 4. aged 5. common75. 1. lacked 2. grown 3. learnt 4. improved 5. earned76. 1. that 2. why 3. how 4. never 5. anyhow77. 1. saw 2. showed 3. posted 4. discovered 5. took78. 1. quiet 2. firmly 3. strong 4. first 5. not79. 1. travelling 2. journey 3. visit 4. migrating 5. shift80. 1. wish 2. offer 3. appointments 4. requests 5. commands


QUANTITATIVE APTITUDEDirections: (81-100): What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following questions?

81. ?30913451115

1. 512 2. 7

13 3. 1035 4. 17

83 5. None of these

82. 39852 ? = 81 × 121. 41 2. 1849 3. 1681 4. 43 5. None of these

83. 54679 + 34521 = ? + 436681. 45352 2. 45232 3. 42455 4. 45552 5. None of these

84. 44% of 766 + ? = 9001. 498.48 2. 562.96 3. 574.80 4. 444.64 5. None of these

85. 67% of (?) = 5287.641. 7080 2. 6442 3. 6938 4. 6739 5. None of these

86. ?17956 1. 134 2. 144 3. 124 4. 104 5. None of these

87. 30% of 200 + ? = 48% of 550-10% of 1501. 600 2. 21 3. 189 4. 35721 5. None of these

88. 11.6 × 8.9 ×5.1 = ?1. 398.264 2. 664.358 3. 468.428 4. 526.524 5. None of these

89. 2637 36 = ?1. 73.25 2. 68 3. 66.5 4. 71 5. None of these

90. 11160 45 8 = ?1. 29 2. 31 3. 43 4. 47 5. None of these

91. 18 × 8 + (?)2 = (15)2

1. 9 2. 81 3. 18 4. 27 5. None of these92. A car completes a journey in 11 hrs. It covers the first half of the journey at the rate of 50 km/hr and the second half at the rate of

60 km/hr. The distance of total journey is1. 605 km 2. 300 km 3. 500 km 4. 600 km 5. None of these

93. In how many different ways we can the letters of the word ‘NUMBER’ be arranged?1. 690 2. 750 3. 720 4. 840 5. None of these

94. ? 40 × 9 = 3781. 1616 2. 1648 3. 1696 4. 1680 5. None of these

95. 45% of 1200 = 54% of ?1. 1080 2. 1320 3. 1240 4. 720 5. None of these

96. 1354 + 1184 = ? % of 56401. 36 2. 42 3. 45 4. 52 5. None of these

97. 815 of 208 + 786 = 2000 - ?

1. 112 2. 148 3. 184 4. 124 5. None of these98. The difference between 56% of a number and 41% of the same number is 660. What is 8% of that number?

1. 321 2. 336 3. 345 4. 358 5. None of these99. The simple interest accrued on an amount of Rs. 12,450 at the end of 6 years is Rs. 8,964. What is the rate of interest p.c.p.a.?

1. 8 2. 14 3. 10 4. 12 5. None of these100. A plot of 575 square feet is available at the rate of Rs. 5,500 per square feet. If 25% of the total cost of the plot is to

be paid for booking the plot, how much is the booking amount?1. Rs. 825750 2. Rs. 790625 3. Rs. 875250 4. Rs.735500 5. None of these

101. If the product of two successive positive integers is 7482, which is the greater integer?1. 87 2. 82 3. 84 4. 89 5. None of these

102. One-seventh of a number is 51. What will be 64% of that number?1. 248.12 2. 228.48 3. 238.24 4. 198.36 5. None of these


103. Of the two numbers, 48 per cent of first number is 60 per cent of the second number. What is the respective ratio of the first numberto the second number?1. 4 : 7 2. 3 : 4 3. 5 : 4 4. Cannot be determined 5. None of these

104. The owner of a Television shop charges his customer 16% more than the cost price. If a customer paid Rs. 16588 for a Television,then what was the cost price of the Television?1. Rs. 14300 2. Rs. 15500 3. Rs. 13800 4. Rs. 12000 5. None of these

105. The average age of a man and his son is 48 years. The ratio of their ages is 11:5 respectively. What will be ratio of their ages after6 years?1. 6 : 5 2. 5 : 3 3. 4 : 3 4. 2 : 1 5. None of these

Directions: What should come in place of question mark (?) in the following number series?106. 15, 17, 20, 25, 32, ?

1. 64 2. 33 3. 17 4. 43 5. None of these107. 108, 54, 60, ?, 36, 18, 24

1. 44 2. 30 3. 23 4. 46 5. None of these108. 2, 9, 28, 65, ?, 217

1. 117 2. 126 3. 78 4. 216 5. None of these109. 8, 9, 7, 8, 6, 7, ?

1. 8 2. 5 3. 9 4. 10 5. None of these

110.2

5,

35 ,

4

5 5,

525

, ?

1. 7

252.

6

1253.

6

25 54.

6

5 55. None of these

Study the following table carefully to answer the questions given below it.

Subjects(Max.Marks)

Student

English(60)

History(40)

Computers(130)

Maths(150)

Science(120)

Economics(80)

Meera 100 80 50 90 90 60

Subodh 80 70 80 100 80 40

Kunal 90 70 60 90 70 70

Soni 60 60 65 80 80 80

Richu 50 90 62 80 85 95

Irene 40 60 64 70 65 85

Vijay 80 80 35 65 50 75

111. What are the total marks obtained by Meera in all subjects?1. 448 2. 580 3. 470 4. 74.67 5. None of these

112. What are the average marks obtained by these seven students in History? (rounded off to two digits)1. 72.86 2. 27.32 3. 24.86 4. 29.14 5. None of these

113. How many students have got 60% or more marks in all the subjects?1. One 2. Two 3. Three 4. None 5. None of these

114. What is the overall percentage of Kunal?1. 64 2. 65 3. 75 4. 64.24 5. None of these

115. In which subject is the overall percentage the best?1. Maths 2. Economics 3. History 4. Science 5. None of these


Directions: Study the following graph and answer the questions given below it.

800

700

600

500

400

300

200

100

0 A B C D E

Amount of Rice, Wheat and sugar consumed by various Restaurants over ayear (amount consumed in kilograms)

Rice Wheat Sugar

116. What is the respective ratio of the amount of rice, wheat and sugar consumed by Restaurant B to the same consumed byRestaurant E?1. 18 : 17 2. 29 : 27 3. 33 : 28 4. 39 : 38 5. None of these

117. What is the average amount of rice, wheat and sugar consumed by all the restaurants?1. 1800 kgs 2. 1790 kgs 3. 1900 kgs 4. 1950 kgs 5. None of these

118. Sugar consumed by Restaurant D is approximately what per cent of rice and wheat consumed by the same restaurant?1. 32 2. 25 3. 38 4. 42 5. 29

119. Rice consumed by Restaurant C is approximately what per cent of the rice consumed by all the Restaurants together?1. 12 2. 18 3. 21 4. 24 5. 16

120. What is the difference between the average amount of wheat and the average amount of sugar consumed by all the Restaruantstogether?1. 145 kgs 2. 160 kgs 3. 155 kgs 4. 150 kgs 5. None of these

GENERAL AWARENESS121. Who is the new President of European Union?

1. Martin Schulz 2. Donald Tusk 3. Vladimir Putin 4. Tony Blair 5. None of these122. When is the ‘International Youth Day’ (UNO) celebrated?

1. July 11 2. August 12 3. Sep.21 4. October 5 5. None of these123. The current President of ASSOCHAM is -----.

1. Harsh Pati Singhania 2. Robert B. Zoellick 3. Rajkumar Dhoot4. Dominique Strauss 5. None of these

124. Who is the new Defence Secretary of India?1. Sashikant Sharma 2. Raj Kumar Singh 3. G.K.Pillai 4. G.E.Vahanvati 5. None of these

125. Who has been conferred Mahatma Gandhi International Award for peace and reconciliation in 2012?1. Dalai Lama 2. Nelson Mandela 3. Aung San Suukyi 4. Nicolas Sarkozy 5. None of these

126. Asian Development Fund was created by1. SAARC 2. World Bank 3. IMF 4. ADB 5. None of these

127. Indian Banks have the Maximum Foreign Branches in -1. Bangladesh 2. Britain 3. America 4. Sri Lanka 5. None of these

128. Income Tax in India was introduced by1. Sir Charles Wood 2. Lord Macaule 3. James Wilson 4. William Jones 5. None of these

129. The Head office of UCO Bank is situated in1. Bangaluru 2. Chennai 3. Kolkata 4. Mumbai 5. None of these

1 0 BANK CLERK MODEL EXAM NO. 3

130. Reserve Bank of India was established on ------.1. April 1, 1934 2. April 1, 1935 3. April 1, 1949 4. April 1, 1950 5. None of these

131. Which of the following countries celebrate Bastil day as a National Day?1. France 2. Russia 3. Thailand 4. China 5. None of these

132. How many moon probes were blasted by NASA on a Land Mark Lunar Mission?1. 4 2. 2 3. 3 4. 1 5. None of these

133. Which of the following statements is / are TRUE about G-8?A. It is an informal organisation of developed countries.B. Russia joins the G-8 group in 1998C. It contributes 14% in world’s population and 61% in world’s GDP.D. In this year G-8 summit will be hosted by Italy.1. Only A 2. A, B and C 3. B, C and D 4. All are true 5. None of these

134. Which of the following statements is/are TRUE about izzat scheme?1. This scheme is launched for organised sector2. This scheme is launched for unorganised sector in which the poor travel upto 150 kms at a monthly ticket of Rs. 253. This scheme is launched for unorganised sector in which the poor travel upto 100 km of distance at a monthly ticket of 25.4. 1 and 2 5. None of these

135. Daniel Hillel won the World Food Prize for 2012. He is from which of the following countries?1. UK 2. USA 3. Norway 4. Israel 5. Australia

136. Which country got membership of European Union?1. USA 2. Rumania 3. Japan 4. Russia 5. None of these

137. Which of the following countries has launched the World Largest Commercial Satellite?1. Russia 2. USA 3. N.Korea 4. India 5. None of these

138. As a member which countries joins International Monetary Funds (IMF) recently?1. China 2. Bangladesh 3. Tuvalu 4. North Korea 5. None of these

139. How many Indian focussed mutual funds are on Global Top 100 list?1. 56 2. 51 3. 54 4. 50 5. None of these

140. Who has won the Wimbledon Men’s singles title 2012?1. Leander Paes 2. Any Roddick 3. Roger Federer 4. Rafael Nadal 5. None of these

141. Andrew Flintoff has announced his retirement from ------.1. Twenty-20 Cricket 2. Test Cricket 3. One day Cricket 4. 1 and 2 5. None of these

142. Who is the new Chief Minister of Uttarakhand?1. B.L.Joshi 2. Vijay Bahuguna 3. Sudershan Agarwal 4. Ramesh Pokhriyal 5. None of these

143. Who is the author of the book “The Idea of Justice”?1. R.S.Sharma 2. Ruskin Bond 3. Jaswant Singh 4. Amartya Sen 5. None of these

144. Who is the new Director - General of Border Security Force?1. Raman Srivastava 2. M.L.Kumawat 3. Prakash Singh 4. J.A.Chowdhury 5. None of these

145. Who has become the first Indian to be appointed a Privy Councillor?1. Indira Nooyi 2. Lord Swaraj Paul 3. Lakshmi Mittal 4. Anil Ambani 5. None of these

146. State Bank of India announced to cut its retail term deposit rates by –––– for tanors upto 240 days.1. 0.5 percent 2. 0.6 percent 3. 1 percent 4. 0.25 percent 5. 0.75 percent

147. Shahrukh Khan has been awarded honorary doctorate from University of Bedfordshire. This university belong to which country?1. Britain 2. Malaysia 3. China 4. Japan 5. None of these

148. Who is the Chairman of the Unique Identification (UID) Authority of India?1. Sunderlal Bahuguna 2. Nandan M. Nilekani 3. G. Madhavan Nair 4. Jasbir Singh Bajaj 5. None of these

149. Who has been appointed first woman additional solicitor-general of India?1. Elena Kagan 2. Sonia Sotomayor 3. Jennifer Granholm 4. Indira Jaisingh 5. None of these

150. What is the position of India in Cyber Crime according to report given by SDA?1. Second 2. Third 3. Fourth 4. Fifth 5. None of these

151. Hillary Clinton who was on a visit to India in recent past is the1. US Foreign Secretary 2. US Envoy to India 3. Vice President of US 4. President of Turkey 5. None of these

152. What is the revised economic GDP growth rate for 2011-2012 financial year?1. 9.3% 2. 6.2% 3. 8.4% 4. 5.3% 5. None of these

153. Which is the largest state in North East in terms of area?1.Sikkim 2. Assam 3. Manipur 4. Arunachal Pradesh 5. Meghalaya


154. Which of the following statements is / are TRUE about G-5 outreach group?A. It is a group of five developing countries which can be invited to attend the G-8 summit.B. It contribute 42% in the world’s population and 11% in the world GDP.C. Russia is one of the member of G-5 group.1. Only A 2. Only B 3. A and B 4. All are true 5. None of these

155. Who amongst the following is the winner of Saraswati Samman 2012?1. Gulzar 2. Nida Fazli 3. Srilal Shukla4. A.A.Manavalan 5. Lakshmi Nandan Bora

156. Which of the following has now became the Third largest economy of the World?1. India 2. China 3. Japan 4. Russia 5. Brazil

157. In relation with Banking terms, what is PCR stands for?1. Provision Credit Ratio 2. Profit Coverage Ratio 3. Provisioning Coverage Ratio4. Profit Credit Ratio 5. None of these

158. Which of the following countries is not a member of Gulf Co-operation Council?1.Yemen 2. Oman 3. Kuwait 4. Bahrain 5. Qatar

159. The Author of the book “ A Better India: A Better World”1. Anil Kakodkar 2. N R Narayana Murthi 3. C. Rangarajan 4. G. Madhavan Nair 5. None of these

160. The first e-court of the country was launched in which of the following places recently?1. Mumbai 2. Jaipur 3. New Delhi 4. Hyderabad 5. Ahmedabad

MARKETING APTITUDE AND COMPUTER KNOWLEDGE161. Bank Marketing means

1. selling of banks 2. buying of banks 3. merger of banks4. selling bank’s products and services 5. selling various items in banks

162. Proper pricing is needed for1. extra charges for extra services 2. levy of VAT 3. good customer service4. putting burden on the customer 5. service with extra facilities

163. A lead means1. a Bank’s marketing staff 2. a religious leader 3. bank’s chairman 4. target customer 5. leash tied to a dog

164. A good salesman should be1. aggressive 2. pushy 3. fierce 4. polite, but firm 5. talkative

165. Relationship Selling means1. preparing a list of relatives 2. cross-selling 3.selling to relatives 4. selling to strangers 5. telemarketing

166. Find the incorrect statement1. Marketing has no relevance in Public Sector Banks 2. Marketing has no relevance in Private Sector Banks3. Marketing has no relevance in Foreign Banks 4. All of these 5. None of these

167. Marketing is not required in one of the following products. That is1. sale of Credit/Debit cards 2. sale of net banking3. sale of corporate loans 4. sale of retail loans 5. None of these

168. HNI means1. Highly Negative Individual 2. High Networth Individual3. High Neutral Individual 4. Highly Necessary Individual 5. All of these

169. Digital Banking means1. banking with calculators 2. banking with digital instruments3. internet Banking and Telebanking 4. export finance 5. None of these

170. Home Loans are granted to1. individuals 2. institutions 3. builders 4. All of these 5. None of these

171. Credit Cards are used for1. cash withdrawals 2. purchase of air tickets3. purchase of consumable items from retail outlets 4. All of these 5. None of these

172. The ATMS are1. branches of banks 2. manned counters of banks3. unmanned, cash dispensers 4. All of these 5. None of these

173. Internet Banking means1. meeting of banks on the net 2. net practice 3. banking transactions through internet4. transactions with foreign countries 5. All of these

174. Customer Loyalty means1. shifting of customers from one bank to another2. customers banking with one bank exclusively3. customers returning lost items 4. customer giving gifts to banks 5. None of these

175. A Marketing Plan is necessary for1. having a focussed approach to marketing 2. to decide marketing strategies 3. to decide product strategy4. to decide advertising strategy 5. All of these


176. Public relation is required for1. improving customer service in the company2. improving marketing functions in the company3. better atmosphere in the company 4. All of these 5. None of these

177. One of the following qualities is not required for effective marketing. That is1. self-motivation 2. effective communication skills 3. team work4. perseverance 5. sympathy

178. Gift of the gab means1. distributing gifts 2. collecting garbage 3. multi-linguist 4. good communication skills 5. short-tempered

179. Rural Marketing involves1. selling to farmers and agriculturists 2. selling to rural households 3. selling to rural industries4. arranging exhibitions in rural area 5. All of these

180. Find the incorrect statement1. Marketing is redundant in computerised banks2. Marketing is redundant in foreign banks3. Marketing is redundant in private establishments4. Marketing is redundant in Government establishments5. All of these

181. Windows is popular because of its1. GUI Features 2. multitasking capacity 3. desktop technology 4. being inexpensive 5. None of these

182. The most important or powerful computer in a typical network is1. desktop 2. network client 3. network server 4. network station 5. None of these

183. ––––– transforms one interface into another interface1. Program 2.Software 3. Data 4. Information 5. None of these

184. The ability to find an individual item in a file immediately ––– is used.1. file allocation table 2. directory 3. sequential access 4. direct access 5. None of these

185. To make a notebook act as a desktop model, the notebook can be connected to a –––– which is connected to amonitor and other devices.1. bay 2. docking station 3. port 4. network 5. None of these

186. You can use the tab key to1. move a cursor across the screen 2. indent a paragraph3. move the cursor down the screen 4. only (1) and (2) 5.None of these

187. A collection of related files is called a1. character 2. field 3. database 4. record 5. None of these

188. Storage that retains its data after the power is turned off is referred to as1. volatile storage 2. non-volatile storage 3. sequential storage 4. direct storage5. none of these

189. Which of the following is an example of connectivity?1. internet 2. floppy disk 3. power cord 4. data 5. None of these

190. –––– is the process of finding errors in software code.1. Compiling 2. Testing 3. Running 4. Debugging 5. None of these

191. A––– contains specific rules and words that express the logical steps of an algorithm.1. syntax 2. programming structure 3. programming language4. logic chart 5. None of these

192. Changing an existing document is called –––– the document.1. creating 2. editing 3. modifying 4. adjusting 5. None of these

193. Virtual memory is1. memory on the hard disk that the CPU uses as an extended RAM2. an External Memory device3. only necessary if you do not have any RAM in your computer4. back up device for floppy disks 5. None of these

194. Computers use the ––– number system to store data and perform calculations.1. decimal 2. hexadecimal 3. octal 4. binary 5. None of these

195. The ––– key will launch the start buttons.1.esc 2. shift 3.windows 4. shortcut 5. None of these

196. To move the beginning of the line of text, press the –––key.1. home 2. page down 3. page up 4. enter 5. None of these

197. When sending an e-mail, the ––– line describes the contents of the message.1. to 2. subject 3. contents 4. CC 5. None of these

198. Which groupings do you work with when formatting text in Word?1. Tables, paragraphs and indexes 2. Paragraphs, indexes and sections3. Characters, sections and paragraphs 4. Indexes, characters and tables5. None of these

199. Which of the following is the largest unit of storage?1. GB 2. KB 3. MB 4. TB 5. None of these

200. The ––– tells the computer how to use its components.1. utility 2. network 3. operating system 4. application program5. None of these



REASONING ABILITY1. In a certain code DROWN is written as MXNSC. How is BREAK written in that code?

1. LBFSC 2. JBDSA 3. JZDQA 4. LZFQC 5. None of these2. Among M, N, T, R and D each having a different height, T is taller than D but shorter than M. R is taller than N but shorter than

D. Who among them is the tallest?1. D 2. T 3. M 4. R 5. N

3. How many such digits are there in the number 5436182 each of which is as far away from the beginning of the number as whenthe digits are arranged in ascending order within the number?1. None 2. One 3. Two 4. Three 5. More than three

4. What should come next in the letter series given below?D D E D E F D E F G D E F G HD E F G H I D E F G H I J D1. D 2. E 3. F 4.J 5. None of these

5. The letters in the word MORTIFY are changed in such a way that the vowels are replaced by the previous letter in the Englishalphabet and the consonants are replaced by the next letter in the English alphabet. Which of the following will be the fourth letterfrom the right end of the new set of letters?1. S 2. H 3. G 4. N 5. None of these

6. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that doesnot belong to that group?1. Leaf 2. Flower 3. Petal 4. Fruit 5. Tree

7. If it is possible to make only one meaningful English word with the first, the fifth, the seventh and the eightth letters of the wordORGANISED. Which of the following will be the third of that word? If no such word can be made give ‘X’ as the answer andif, more than one such word can be made, give ‘Y’ as the answer.1. N 2. D 3. S 4. X 5. Y

8. How many meaningful English words can be made with the letters ALPE using each letter only once in each word?1. None 2. One 3. Two 4. Three 5. More than three

9. If ‘grey’ means ‘yellow’; ‘yellow’ means ‘white’; ‘white’ means ‘blue’; ‘blue’ means ‘red’; ‘red’ means ‘black’; and ‘black’ means‘violet’; then what is the colour of clear sky?1. red 2. white 3. violet 4. black 5. yellow

10. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word CHAMBERS each of which has as many letters between them in theword as in the English alphabet?1. None 2. One 3. Two 4. Three 5. More than three

Directions: (Q. 11-15): In each of the questions below are given three statements followed by two conclusions numberedI and II. You have to take the given statments to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts.Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given statements disregarding commonly known facts. Give theanswer.

1. If only Conclusion I follows. 2. If only Conclusion II follows.3. If either Conclusion I or II follows. 4. If neither Conclusion I nor II follows.5. If both Conclusions I and II follow.

11. Statements : Some toys are desks. Some desks are pens. All pens are rods.Conclusions : I. Some rods are toys.

II. Some pens are toys.12. Statements : Some tables are huts. No hut is ring. All rings are bangles.

Conclusions : I. Some bangles are tables.II. No bangle is table.

13. Statements : All stars are clouds. All clouds are rains. All rains are stones.Conclusions : I. All rains are stars.

II. All clouds are stones.14. Statements : All windows are doors. Some doors are buildings. All buildings are cages.

Conclusions : I. Some cages are doors.II. Some buildings are windows.


15. Statements : Some chairs are rooms. All rooms are trees. All trees are poles.Conclusions : I. Some poles are chairs.

II. Some trees are chairs.Directions (Q. 16-20): Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the questions given below:

G M 5 I D # J K E 2 P T 4 W % A F 3 U 8 $ N V 6 Q @ 7 H 1 © B 9« Z16. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on their positions in the above arrangement and so form a group. Which

is the one that does not belong to that group?1. DJI 2. FUA 3. H @ 1 4. B «© 5. I # 5

17. What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following series based on the above arrangement?D J K 2 T 4 % F 3 ?1. U $ V 2. U $ N 3. 8 N V 4. 8 N I 5. None of these

18. How many such numbers are there in the above arrangement, each of which is immediately preceded by a vowel and alsoimmediately followed by a symbol?1. None 2. One 3. Two 4. Three 5. More than three

19. How many such consonants are there in the above arrangement, each of which is immediately preceded by a number but notimmediately followed by a consonant?1. None 2. One 3. Two 4. Three 5. More than three

20. Which of the following is the fourth to the right of the twelfth from the right end of the above arrangement?1. 8 2. 7 3. K 4. A 5. None of these

Directions (Q. 21-25): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are sitting around a circle facing at the centre. F is third to the right of B who is third to the right of

H. A is third to the left of H. C is fourth to the left of A. E is third to the right of D who is not a neighbour of A.21. In which of the following pairs the second person is to the immediate right of the first person?

1. HC 2. BE 3. GB 4. FA 5. None of these22. Who is second to the right of D?

1. F 2. G C. A D. Data inadequate E. None of these23. Who is third to the left of G?

1. H 2. D 3. C 4. F 5. None of these24. Who is fourth to the left of C?

1. F 2. A 3. E 4. Data inadequate 5. None of these25. What is B’s position with respect to D?

1. Fourth to the right 2. Fourth to the left 3. Fifth to the left4. Fifth to the right1. 1 only 2. 2 only 3. 1 and 2 only 4. 3 and 4 only 5. None of these

Directions (Q. 26-30): In each question below is given a group of letters followed by four combinations of digits /symbols lettered (A), (B), (C) and (D). You have to find out which of the combinations correctly represents the group ofletters based on the following coding system and mark the number of that combination as the answer. If none of the fourcombinations correctly represents the group of letters, mark (E) i.e. ‘None of these’ as the answer.Letter:

P M A K T I J E R N D F U W BDigit / Symbol:

7 # 8 % 1 9 2 @ 3 © $ 4 « 5 6Conditions:

(i) If both the first and the last letters of the group are consonants, both are to be coded as the code for the last letter.(ii) If the first letter is a consonant and the last letter is a vowel, the codes are to be interchanged.

26. BDATFE1. 6$8146 2. 6$814@ 3. @$814@ 4. @$8146 5. None of these

27. AWBRND1. $563©8 2. 8563©$ 3. 8365©$ 4. 8536©$ 5. None of these

28. EMNTKU1.« # ©1 % @ 2. @#©14« 3. @#©1%« 4. #@©1%« 5. None of these

29. MDEAJI1. 1$@82# 2. #$@821 3. 1$@821 4. #$@82# 5. None of these

30. RKUMFP1. 7%«#43 2. 3«%#47 3. 3%«#43 4. 3%«#47 5. None of these

Directions (Q. 31-35): In the following questions, the symbols $, @, ©, %and « are used with the following means asillustrated below:‘P @ Q’ means ‘P is not greater than Q’.‘P % Q’ means ‘P is not smaller than Q’.‘P « Q’ means ‘P is neither greater than nor smaller than Q’.‘P © Q’ means ‘P is neither greater than nor equal to Q’.‘P $ Q’ means ‘P is neither smaller than nor equal to Q’.


Now in each of the following questions assuming the given statements to be true, find which of the two conclusions I and II givenbelow them is / are definitely true? Give the answer-

1. If only Conclusion I is true. 2. If only Conclusion II is true3. If either Conclusion I nor II is true 4. If both Conclusions I and II are true

31. Statements : R $ M, M ©F, F%JConclusions : I. R $ J

II. F © R32. Statements : M ©D, D@K, K«N

Conclusions : I. N $ DII. K $ M

33. Statements : B @ D, D $ M, M« NConclusions : I. N @D

II. D$N34. Statements : F $ W, W%J, J@N

Conclusions : I. J@FII. N% W

35. Statements : F©T, T%R, R$WConclusions : I. W©T

II. R©TDirection (36-40): In each of the questions given below which one of the five answer figures on the right should comeafter the problem figures on the left, if the sequence were continued?

36.

37.

38.

39.

40.

GENERAL ENGLISHDirections (41-50): Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words/phrases have beenprinted in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.

In order to better understand conservation in China, it is essential that one has a grasp of what the term ‘Chinese conservatism’means. Chinese conservatism is markedly different from the conservatism of the modern West. The political term ‘conservative’ cameabout during the French Revolution and inspired men who were determined to preserve Christian and aristocratic elements inEuropean society.Chinese conservatism began around the time of the Taiping rebellion and had as its primary objectives thepreservation of both Confucian society and nonfeudal strains of pre-Opium War Chinese society. While western conservatismbelieves in sacredness of private property and distrust of cosmopolitan order. Thus, the only common area of agreement betweenEuropean and Chinese conservatism is the intent to conserve.

During the Tung-chin Restoration the great aim was the revival of Confucian values and institutions. But these aims had to bemodified so that they might endure. Restoration statesmen had no desire to create a new society - they wanted to restore a societythat they believed had been based on truth. The statesmen of the Restoration stretched the traditional ideology, to its limits in an effortto make the Confucian system under new conditions. They were true conservatives in a great tradition, living in an age whenrevolutionary change was unavoidable. The aim of the Restoration was to restore to their original vitality, the best of the ancient

(1) (2) (3) (4) (5)

(1) (2) (3) (4) (5)

(1) (2) (3) (4) (5)

(1) (2) (3) (4) (5)

(1) (2) (3) (4) (5)


institutions. During the Restoration, the two immediate problems were the suppression of rebellion and the stabilization of foreignrelations. In addition, the people were striving for a restoration of the system of government by superior civil officials.

The men in the hierarchy of the Restoration rose to prominence through proven ability in both civil and military affairs. Theyemphasized human and social training - that is indoctrination, morality and the art of leadership through the cultivation of character. Thegreat majority of the officials rose through the examination system.

During the chaos of this period, the examination system had lost much of its effectiveness. This is important and must be notedbecause the examination system was the traditional avenue for selecting officials. The senior officials of Restoration realized that theirpolicies would be ineffective unless the quality of the junior official was improved, so it was their duty to weed out the officials who hadattained office in irregular ways and to promote the examination system as the only way to high position. But these men of theRestoration had enough foresight to determine that it was impossible to select officials automatically on the basis of the objectivetype test alone. As a result, the system of recommendation was ushered in, whereby a high official sponsored the career of a promisingyoung man. This acted as an important supplement to the examination system.41. The most significant Chinese philosopher mentioned in the passage is

1. Tung-Chin 2. Ching 3. Taiping 4. Buddha 5. None of these42. The major similarity between Chinese and Western conservatism is

1. that Chinese conservatism developed during the Taiping revolution.2. that both attempted to preserve tradition.3. that Chinese conservation is primarily land-oriented.4. the cosmopolitan nature of western conservatism.5. that western conservatism believes in the sacredness of private property.

43. A primary objective in the development of restoration thought was1. to create a new society based on modern values.2. the knowledge that Chinese conservatism is superior to western conservatism.3. to restore traditional Chinese society under new conditions.4. to restore the system of government by superior civil officials.5. to restore modern ideology.

44. The western conservatives intended to preserve all the following except1. Christianity 2. Private property 3. Cosmopolitanism4. Aristocratic elements 5. None of these

45. Chinese conservatism began around the time of1. French Revolution 2. Pre-opium war 3. Tung-chin Restoration4. Taiping Rebellion 5. Not clear from the passage

46. Choose the word which is most SIMILAR in meaning as the word printed in bold as used in the passage.Endure1. Mature 2. Weather 3. Fade 4. Cease 5. Persist

47. The traditional method for selecting officials was1. by the civil government. 2. through a western testing system.3. through a subjective testing system 4. sponsorship by a high government official.5. the examination system.

48. During restoration, ancient institutions were1. responsible for bringing out a revolutionary change in China.2. no longer accepted as a viable alternative to western technology.3. considered as a primary reason for the decline of traditional China.4. to be the cornerstone of a changing but traditional society.5. not clear from the passage

49. Choose the word which is most OPPOSITE in meaning of the word printed in bold as used in the passage.Promote.1. Oppose 2. Support 3. Ignore 4. Wrong 5. Continue

50. The most appropriate title for this passage will be1. The Chinese Examination system 2. Impact of the western conservatism3. Chinese conservatism 4. Revival of Confucian values and Institutions5. How the officials Rose


Directions (51-60): Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it or the word is inappropriate in the context. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The letter of that part is the answer. Ifthere is no error, the answer is (E). (Ignore errors of punctuations, if any.)51. He slipped on/the break-even floor/and looked around /for support./ No error

(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)52. Each in the office/ including Prakash / knew who had / made the mistake./No error

(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)53. You cannot force me / to do all your jobs / unless you do not / give advance notice./ No error

(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)54. We must try / to reach college early / because the students / must waiting for us there./No error

(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)55. To my surprise / I find that students / with low ability were / learning mathematics with ease./No error

(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)56. They have supported / Dr. Das and I/for the proposal to be / presented in the meeting./No error

(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)57. The director, along with all his officers / were welcomed / with due respect / by the union leaders./No error

(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)58. Mrs. Dixit is / one of the / best Professor / in this institute./No error

(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)59. The servant who was giving / description of / her earlier jobs was / speaking fluently Tamil. /No error

(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)60. She was accused for /various lapses/committed by her/ in the earlier project. / No error

(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)Directions (61-70): Which of the phrases (1), (2), (3) and (4) given below should replace the phrase given in bold in thefollowing sentence to make the sentence grammatically meaningful and correct. If the sentence is correct as it is and nocorrection is required, mark (5) as the answer.61. People tend to believe what they intend to believe.

1. intended to believe 2. intend to be believed 3. intend believing4. are intended to believe 5. No correction required

62. With however knowledge I have, I can say that your argument is not correct.1. By whatever knowledge I have 2. With whatever knowledge I have3. With whatsoever knowledge I do 4. For however my knowledge5. No correction required

63. If you are ascertained of the fact that you are ignorant, you can improve1. are certain of 2. have ascertained from 3. have been ascertained of4. were ascertaining of 5. No correction required

64. We have been given up our ancient ways of living1. had been given up 2. have given off 3. have been giving off 4. have given up 5. No correction required

65. If you can visualize a problem, you can be able to solve it.1. are being able to solve 2. can be solving 3. can solve 4. are able and solve5. No correction required

66. Good bridges and roads help saved commuting time.1. helped and save commute 2. helped to be saving commute3. help save commuting 4. help for saved commuting 5. No correction required

67. Love and affection does not have any boundary.1. do not have 2. does not need 3. will not be 4. don’t be 5. No correction required

68. The intake of clean, simple food assisted by maintaining a steady flow of psychic energy.1. assisted to maintaining 2. assisting in maintaining 3. assistance for maintenance4. assists in maintaining 5. No correction required


69. Your thoughts must transform actions to yield desired results.1. must transform with actions 2. must transform into actions 3. must be transforming actions4. ought to transform actions 5. No correction required

70. He has currently been visiting the earthquake affected areas.1. has been currently visited 2. is currently visit 3. currently has been visited4. has been is current visit 5. No correction required

Directions (Q.71-75): Rearrange the following six sentences (1), (2), (3), (4), (5) and (6) in the proper sequence to form ameaningful paragraph; then answer the questions given below them.

1. It gives peace of mind that counters stress well. 2. It was there before and it is there now3. This can be achieved through meditation.4. Stress is definitely present in everybody’s life.5. And, it is very likely, that it will be there in future too.6. In such a situation, what best we can do is control the stress.

71. Which of the following would be the FIRST statement after rearrangement?1. 1 2. 2 3. 3 4. 4 5. 5

72. Which of the following would be the LAST (SIXTH) statement after rearrangement?1. 1 2. 2 3. 3 4. 4 5. 5

73. Which of the following would be the SECOND statement after rearrangement?1. 1 2. 2 3. 3 4. 4 5. 5

74. Which of the following would be the THIRD statement after rearrangement?1. 1 2. 2 3. 3 4. 4 5. 5

75. Which of the following would be the FIFTH statement after rearrangement?1. 1 2. 2 3. 3 4. 4 5. 5

Directions (Q. 76-80) Pick out the most effective word / phrase from among the given wordes / phrase from among thegiven words / phrases to fill in the blanks to make the sentence meaningfully complete.76. My grandfather ....... his wealth among his five children.

1. given 2. paid 3. divided 4. offered 5. contributed77. The principal was kind enough to ....... me leave.

1. allow 2. grant 3. permit 4. assign 5. gave78. Our teacher told us that the earth ........ on its own axis.

1. moves 2. retains 3. passes 4. rotates 5. shakes79. People who put on weight ....... have to be careful of what they eat.

1. easily 2. hardly 3. rarely 4.knowingly 5. must80. Indian families...... their love only through food.

1. impose 2. shows 3. represent 4. carry 5. expressQUANTITATIVE APTITUDE

Directions - (Q.81-95): What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following questions?81. 3.8 × 5.6 × 11.5 - 31.653 = ?

1. 234.880 2. 265.404 3. 213.067 4. 256.072 5. None of these

82. ?1218of65of

74of

54

1. 415 2. 384 3. 492 4. 346 5. None of these83. 93% of 456 = ?

1. 435.06 2. 419.02 3. 443.04 4. 424.08 5.None of these84. 8.2 × ? = 465.76

1. 56.8 2. 48.6 3. 62.4 4. 74.2 5. None of these85. 1485 (44×0.75) = ?

1. 33 2. 56 3. 45 4. 67 5. None of these86. 128 8 0.4 = ?

1. 36 2. 42 3. 48 4. 54 5. None of these


87. 56064 ? = 48 ×161. 768 2. 1168 3. 73 4. 5329 5. None of these

88. 63% of 781 + ? = 6661. 164.85 2. 173.97 3. 181.63 4. 195.79 5. None of these

89. 1587 + 2277 = ? × 691. 49 2. 64 3. 73 4. 56 5. None of these

90. 220924? 1. 23 2. 529 3. 729 4. 27 5. None of these

91. 10531 + 4813 - 728 = ? × 871. 168 2. 172 3. 186 4. 212 5. None of these

92. 956.38 - 532.96 + 108.82 = ?1. 356.78 2. 472.64 3. 532.24 4. 694.98 5. None of these

93. 3705 25 = ?1. 152.6 2. 136.8 3. 148.2 4. 124.4 5. None of these

94. 65963 + 78430 = ? + 499071. 94468 2. 96448 3. 94648 4. 98446 5. None of these

95. ? 36 × 12 = 2761. 828 2. 838 3. 818 4. 848 5. None of these

96. What would be the compound interest obtained on an amount of Rs. 4,000 at the rate of 5 p.c.p.a. after 3 years?1. Rs. 612 2. Rs. 578 3. Rs. 525.5 4. Rs. 630.5 5. None of these

97. A car covers a distance of 1450 km in 25 hours. What is the speed of the car?1. 58 km/hr 2. 66 km/hr 3. 72 km/hr 4. Can not be determined5. None of these

98. The average age of a man and his son is 40 year. The ratio of their ages is 7 : 3 respectively. What is the man’s age?1. 70 year 2. 63 year 3. 56 year 4. 49 year 5. None of these

99. The product of two consecutive odd numbers is 6399. What is the smaller number?1. 83 2. 79 3. 81 4. 77 5. None of these

100. The average of 5 consecutive even numbers A, B, C, D and E is 106. What is the product of B and D?1. 11440 2. 11024 3. 10608 4. 11232 5. None of these

101. The owner of a cell phone shop charges his customer 23% more than the cost price. If a customer paid Rs. 7,011 for a cellphone, then what was the cost price of the cell phone?1. Rs. 5,845 2. Rs. 6,750 3. Rs. 5,900 4. Rs. 6,925 5.None of these

102. If the fractions 65,

53,

72,

51

and 311

are arranged in descending order of their values, which one will be the fourth?

1. 311

2. 72

3. 65

4. 51

5. None of these

103. The total number of students in a school is 5050. If the number of girls in the school is 2450, then what is the respective ratioof the total number of boys to the total number of girls in the school?1. 49 : 52 2. 51 : 50 3. 50 : 51 4. 52 : 49 5. None of these

104. In an examination it is required to get 441 of the aggregate marks to pass. A student gets 392 marks and is declared failed by5% marks. What are the maximum aggregate marks a student can get?1. 890 2. 980 3. 1140 4. Cannot be determined5. None of these

105. What is the least number to be added to 7700 to make it a perfect square?1. 131 2. 221 3. 77 4. 98 5. None of these

Direction (106-110): What should come in place of question mark (?) in the following number series?106. 2 3 5 9 ? 33 65

1. 10 2. 17 3. 22 4. 27 5. None of these107. 2 5 11 23 ? 95

1. 46 2. 83 3. 84 4. 47 5. None of these


108. 16 26 ? 49 62 761. 36 2. 28 3. 37 4. 27 5. None of these

109. 81 ? 49 36 25 161. 56 2. 57 3. 67 4. 64 5. None of these

110. 2 10 40 120 240 ?1. 480 2. 240 3. 360 4. 120 5. None of these

Directions (111-115): Study the following table carefully to answer the questions given below it.Number of pencil for sale and percentage of pencils actually sold in 6 different stores over the years.

S to re R S T U V W

Ye a rN o .o fp e nc ilsfo r sa le

%so ld

N o .o fp e nc ilsfo r sa le

%s o ld

N o .o fp e nc ilsfo r s a le

%so ld


%so ld


%so ld


%so ld

1 9 9 7 8 9 5 0 4 2 4 9 5 0 5 4 8 6 2 0 7 5 6 0 0 0 7 7 8 9 8 0 4 5 5 1 5 0 8 4

1 9 9 8 9 7 4 0 5 5 6 5 0 0 8 7 4 2 3 0 5 0 7 5 0 0 6 8 8 5 0 0 8 8 4 8 0 0 6 3

1 9 9 9 8 7 6 0 2 5 7 9 4 0 3 5 6 1 2 0 6 5 7 8 5 0 8 4 8 1 2 0 9 0 6 2 4 0 8 5

2 0 0 0 7 4 7 0 7 0 7 5 5 0 6 4 8 4 2 0 9 5 8 2 6 0 7 5 9 6 8 0 6 5 7 8 6 0 5 5

111. What is the total number of pencils that store W did not manage to sell in the years 1997 and 1998 together?1. 1860 2. 2542 3. 2190 4. 3759 5. None of these

112. The total number of pencils actually sold by store R over the years is approximately what per cent of the total number of pencilsfor sale in those years?1. 42 2. 35 3. 38 4. 47 5. 52

113. What is the ratio of number of pencils sold by store U in 2000 to the number of pencils sold by store W in the same year?1. 111 : 131 2. 2065 : 1441 3. 1447 : 2152 4. 1013 : 2613 5. None of these

114. What is the number of pencils sold by store. T in 1999?1. 4248 2. 3526 3. 3215 4. 4501 5. None of these

115. What is the approximate average number of pencils sold by store S over the years?1. 5145 2. 4324 3. 3985 4. 4260 5. 2498

Directions (116-120): Study the following graph and answer the questions given below it.Number of Televisions and DVD players produced by a company over the years.


116. What is the ratio of number of Televisions produced in the year 1996 to the number of DVD players produced in the year 2001?1. 5 : 9 2. 8 : 5 3. 6 : 7 4. 5 : 7 5. None of these

117. Number of DVD players produced in the year 2000 form approximately what percent of total number of items produced in thatyear?1. 37 2. 48 3. 52 4. 58 5. 42

118. Number of Televisions and DVD players produced in the year 1996 are in the ratio 5 : 9 respectively. How many moreTelevisions are required so that the ratio gets reversed?1. 4600 2. 5600 3. 2000 4. 3500 5. None of these

119. What is the approximate average number of DVD players produced over the years?1. 3520 2. 3184 3. 4083 4. 3998 5. 4872

120. The percentage increase / decrease in production of televisions from the previous year was the highest for which year?1. 1997 2. 1998 3. 1999 4. 2000 5. 2001

GENERAL AWARENESS121. Which of the following statements is / are TRUE about “KIOSC Banking”?

A. Providing Banking facilities to rural sector through e-governance.B. The state government of Madhya Pradesh open approximately 9000 KIOSC centre under State Wide Area Network(SWAN).C. State Bank of India and some NBFCs participate with state government to provide such facilities in rural areas.1. Only A 2. Only B 3. All 4. B and C 5. None of these

122. RBI, the central bank put an overall cap of –––– for raising of capital through IDRs by foreign companies in Indian markets1. 10 billion dollar 2. 6 billion dollar 3. 4 billion dollar 4. 5 billion dollar 5. None of these

123. Who is the new Disinvestment Secretary of India?1. Mohammad Haleem Khan 2. Rahul Khullar 3. G.K.Pillai4. S.N.Menon 5. None of these

124. SBI Life Insurance launches ------- plan for middle class person?1. Maha Anand 2. Seva Shruti Yojana 3. Maha Kamal 4. Kalindi Yojana 5. None of these

125. Which Indian company signed a pact with a French Energy company GDF Suez to import LNG (Liquefied Natural Gas)?1. GAIL 2. Indian Oil corporation 3. ONGC (oil and natural gas corporation)4. Reliance petroleum limited 5. None of these

126. Which Indian bank is to open five new branches in abroad?1. Bank of Baroda 2. Indian Bank 3. Union Bank of India 4. Central Bank of India 5. None of these

127. Chief economic adviser to Finance Minister P. Chidambaram?1.Raghuram Rajan 2. Harish Khare 3. Deepak Sandhu 4. K.K.Paul 5. None of these

128. The government has approved –––– crore for the rehabilitation of internally displaced persons (Tamils) of Sri Lanka.1. Rs. 100 cr. 2. Rs. 250 cr. 3. Rs. 500 cr. 4. Rs. 750 cr. 5. None of these

129. Bank of Baroda, Indian Overseas Bank and ------- signed a joint venture agreement for setting up a subsidiary in Malaysia.1. Central Bank of India 2. State Bank of India 3. Canara Bank4. Andhra Bank 5. None of these

130. Which bank has won the Celent Model Bank award for 2011?1. Indian Bank 2. Punjab National Bank 3. Bank of Baroda 4. Canara Bank 5. HDFC Bank

131. Name the Indian telecom service company which had acquired US firm WPCS International.1. Tata teleservices 2. MTNL 3. Kavveri telecom 4. Shyam Telecom 5. None of these

132. Which personality is appointed as the new Group Chief Executive of Barclay’s?1. Antony Jenkins 2. Bob Diamond 3. Marcus Agius 4. David Walker 5. None of these

133. Which of the following statements is/are TRUE about “Magnetic Super Atom”?(A) Magnetic super atom has been invented by the combined corporation of Allahabad Harishchandra Research institute andAmerican Navy Research Laboratory.(B) This invention can be used to reduce the size of computer and increase the speed of computer.(C) It is the molecule of Vanadium and Sansium atoms which have magnetic property and having Sensing image, Drugdelivery qualities.1. Only A 2. Only B 3. A and B 4. All are true 5. None of these

134. Which of the following Indian company can launch its own “National Power Exchange”?1. National Thermal Power Corporation Ltd. 2. Gas Authority of India Limited3. Steel Authority of India Limited 4. Bharat Petrol Corporation Limited 5. None of these

135. Which of the following Bank can introduce “Mini Bank Scheme” in Rajasthan?1. State Bank of India 2. Bank of Maharashtra 3. Gramin Bank4. Punjab National Bank 5. None of these

136. Who is the author of the book ‘Angela’s Ashes’?1. Ruskin Bond 2. Frank McCourt 3. R.S.Sharma 4. Barack Obama 5. None of these

137. Who has been presented the 7th Shah Waliullah Award?1. Iqbal Shaheen 2. Mahmud Ahmad 3. Tahir Mahmood 4. Zafar Iqbal 5. None of these


138. Which of the following Indian cricketer will get Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna Award?1. Sachin Tendulkar 2. Mahendra Singh Dhoni 3. Gautam Gambhir4. Yuvraj Singh 5. None of these

139. Classical –––– Gangubhai Hangal passed away.1. Dancer 2. Musician 3. Vocalist 4. Tabla Maestro 5. None of these

140. What is debt?1. Stock-Flow Hypothesis 2. Flow Hypothesis 3. Stock Hypothesis 4. Share Market5. None of these

141. “Bombay Plan” is related to -------1. Social Development 2. Economic Development3. Socio-Economic Development 4. Human Welfare 5. None of these

142. Central Statistical Organisation is set up during-1. 1950-51 2. 1951-52 3. 1952-53 4. 1942-43 5. None of these

143. Who is the Chairman of National Planning Council?1. Dr. Manmohan Singh 2. C. Rangarajan 3. Montek Singh Ahluwalia4. K.C. Niyogi 5. None of these

144. Which of the following statements is / are TRUE about “Green Power 2009” conference organised by CII?A. This session is organised in Chennai.B. The Theme of the conference is “Main Streaming renewable energy into India’s electricity sector for achieving energysecurity”.C. In the total installed power generation capacity renewable power installed capacity accounted for 9% which has 24367 MWof renewable energy.D. The renewable energy comprised mainly of wind power, hydroelectric power, bio power etc.1. Only A 2. B and C 3. A, B and C 4. A, B and D 5. None of these

145. Which of the following statements is/are TRUE about FTA agreement of India?A. India will sign Free Trade Agreement (FTA) agreement with ASEAN in August during Economic Minister Conference to beheld in Thailand.B. This agreement mainly emphasies on automobile sector, agriculture, farm industry, telecom etc.C. The economic zone of Thailand and India generates a total GDP of more than $6 trillion.1. Only A 2. Only B 3. A and B 4. All are true 5. None of these

146. Which of the following taxes have been abolished from union budget 2009-10?1. Fringe Benefit Tax 2. Goods and Service Tax 3. Commodity Transaction Tax4. Both 1 and 3 5. None of these

147. Which of the following countries has got place in the National Security Council of America?1. India 2. Russia 3. China 4. 1 and 2 5. None of these

148. With which country India signed a Comprehensive Economic Partnership Agreement (CEPA)?1. America 2. South Korea 3. Japan 4. Russia 5. None of these

149. Which of the following statements is/are TRUE about “National Rural Health Mission”?A. Rs. 13930 crore have been allocated for this project.B. This scheme covers all families living below poverty lineC. Currently this scheme give benefit to 46 lakhs families of 18 states.1. Only A 2. Only B 3. A and B 4. All 5. None of these

150. About 100 crore rupees can be approved by the Central Government to which state to improve the condition of RailwayNetwork?1. Haryana 2. Bihar 3. Uttarakhand 4. West Bengal 5. None of these

151. Who is the author of the book “Development as Freedom”1. Dr.C.Rangarajan 2. Dr.Y.V.Reddy 3. Dr. Amartya Sen 4. Aung San Suu kyi 5. None of these

152. Which of the following awards is given for excellence in Films?1. Kalidas Samman 2. Arjuna Award 3. Saraswathi Samman 4. Kabir Samman 5. None of these

153. Which Sri Lankan player announced his retirement from Test Cricket?1. Chaminda Vaas 2. M. Murlidharan 3. S. Jayasurya 4. M. Jayavardhana 5. None of these

154. Who is the new ATS chief of Maharashtra ?1. Rakesh Maria 2. M. Nath 3. R. Thakre 4. S.S.Malik 5. None of these

155. Who is the Chief Minister of Orissa?1. D.D.Lapang 2. Navin Patnaik 3. P.K.Lama 4. Y.S.Rajasekhara Reddy 5. None of these

156. World Population Day is observed on1. July 7 2. July 8 3. July 9 4. July 10 5. None of these

157. Name the steel plant of India which has won the Prime Minister trophy for the 10th Time.1. Bhilai steel plant, Chattisgarh 2. Bokaro steel plant, Jharkhand3. Durgapur steel plant, West Bengal 4. Salem steel plant, Tamil Nadu 5. None of these


158. What is Cassini?1. Space Craft 2. Tank 3. Missile 4. Book 5. None of these

159. Who is the president of North Kerea?1. Hu Jintao 2. Kim Jong Un 3. Dmitry Medvedev 4. Ahmadi Nejad 5. Tara Aso

160. Which company was directed by the Supreme Court to refund an amount of 17400 crore of rupees to their Investors?1. Sahara group of company 2. Reliance industries limited 3. Maruti Suzuki4. Air India 5.None of these

MARKETING AND COMPUTER161. The marketing process involves -

1. human needs 2. demand flow 3. product 4.utility 5. All of these162. The promotion mix involves

1. advertising 2. personal selling 3. sales promotion 4. public relation 5. All of these163. In Marketing it is necessary to identify

1. potential sellers 2. selling employees 3. potential products and services4. key existing and potential customers 5. All of these

164. Marketing is required for1. boosting production 2. boosting sales 3. boosting profits 4. improving customer service5. All of these

165. A cold call is1. best way to do marketing 2. a last resort for marketers 3. marketing at random4. All of these 5. None of these

166. A call can be made effective by1. making a phone call 2. sending an e-mail3. calling on friends 4. service with several facilities5. personally calling on prospective customers

167. A prospect means1. a person likely to work in a bank 2. college syllabus 3. a religious head4. a likely buyer 5. None of these

168. Marketing is successful when1. demand exceeds supply 2. supply exceeds demand 3. exports are heavy and costly4. salesmen are effectively trained 5. All the above situations

169. In marketing, market penetration means1. entering likely purchaser’s houses 2. entering stores and shops3. covering a wide area of the market 4. All of these 5. None of these

170. Innovation helps in1. designing new products 2. improving market functions 3. increasing sales4. attracting new customers 5. All of these

171. Marketing strategy means1. new ideas to lure more customers 2. new methods to retain the customers3. new ways to contact the new customers 4. new marketing techniques 5. All of these

172. Successful marketing strategies need1. knowledge of customer’s tastes 2. good leadership 3. proper direction and guidance4. knowledge of peers 5. All of these

173. Promotion means1. additional responsibility 2. doing research in marketing3. advertisement and publicity for marketing 4. going up the ladder in Government establishment 5.None of these

174. Diversification means1. marketing in diverse countries 2. marketing in diverse companies3. making new, diverse products 4. used only for transactions with foreign countries 5. All of these

175. Marketing refers to1. sale of product 2. goods and services are exchanged each other3. goods distribution 4. All of these 5. None of these

176. Which of the following function is involved ‘under’ marketing management’s functions?1. marketing co-ordination 2. marketing direction 3. marketing evaluation4. marketing planning 5. All of these


177. Which of the following steps are covered under the process of marketing programme?1. setting objectives 2. developing marketing mix 3. physical and human resources4. mobilization of resources 5. All of these

178. Which one of the following is not an element of marketing mix?1. promotion 2. place 3. product 4. service 5. None of these

179. Values of society involves1. family 2. religious institutions 3. educational institutes 4. All of these 5. None of these

180. Product plays a –––– role in the activities of a business.1. central 2. secondary 3. collateral 4. All of these 5. None of these

181. Which menu is selected to print?1. Edit 2. View 3. File 4. Tools 5. None of these

182. The name of user assigns to a document is called a (n)1. file name 2. program 3. record 4. data 5. None of these

183. Which of the following is not an advantage dynamic RAMS?1. High Density 2. High Speed 3. Low Cost4. No need for memory refresh 5. All of the above

184. FDDI is a1. mesh network2. star network 3. bus network 4. ring network 5. None of these

185. What are the two types of output devices?1. Monitor and printer 2. Storage disks (floppy, CD) and touch screen.3. Keyboard and mouse 4. Windows 2000, Windows NT 5. None of these

186. To access properties of an object, the mouse technique to use is1. dragging 2.dropping 3. right-clicking 4. shift-clicking 5. None of these

187. A(n) ––– is a program that makes the computer easier to use.1. system software 2. application 3. utility 4. network 5. None of these

188. Connections to the Internet using a phone line and a modem are called ––– connections.1. digital 2. dial-up 3. broadband 4. dish 5. None of these

189. To access a mainframe or super computer, users often use a1. terminal 2. node 3. desktop 4. handheld 5. None of these

190. Which of the following person should be made responsible for reporting maintenance problems in LAN?1. Users 2. Network Administration 3. Government 4. All of these 5. None of these

191. A Network which issued for sharing data, software and hardware among several users owning microcomputers is called.1. WAN 2. MAN 3. WWAN 4. VAN 5. LAN

192. Every component of your computer is either1. Hardware or software 2. Software or CPU3. Application software or system software 4. Input devices or output devices5. None of these

193. To make the number pad act as directional arrows, you press the ––– key.1. Num lock 2. Caps lock 3. Arrow key 4. Shift 5. None of these

194. When creating a word-processed document, this step involves the user changing how words on the page appear, both on thescreen and in printed form?1. Editing text 2. Inserting tables and indexes 3. Formating text4. Proofing documents 5. None of these

195. The instructions are decoded in the CPU by1. control unit 2. ALU 3. instruction pointer 4. address decoder 5. None of these

196. A file is often reflerred to as a (n)1. wizard 2. document 3. device 4. documentation 5. None of these

197. ––– is processed by the computer into information.1. Numbers 2. Processor 3. Input 4. Data 5. None of these

198. Personal computers can be connected together to form a1. server 2. supercomputer 3. enterprise 4. network 5. None of these

199. A word in a web page that when clicked, opens another document is called1. anchor 2. hyperlink 3. reference 4.URL 5.None of these

200. The ––– of software contains lists of commands and options.1. title bar 2. menu bar 3. formula bar 4. tool bar 5. None of these



REASONING ABILITY1. In a certain code DATE is written as #%$@ and STYLE is written as «$© @. How is DELAY written in that code?

1. #@ %© 2. #©$%@ 3. #@$%© 4. #$ %© 5. None of these2. In a certain code DETAIL is written as BJMUFE. How is SUBMIT written in that code?

1. UJWCVT 2. NJUCVT 3. NJUTVC 4. UJNTVC 5. None of these3. If it is possible to make only one meaningful word from the second, the fourth, the sixth and the ninth letters of the word

PROACTIVE using each letter only once, second letter of that word is your answer If more than one word can be formed youranswer is M and if no such word can be formed your answer is N.1. A 2. E 3. T 4. M 5. N

4. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word FOREHAND each of which have as many letters between them in the wordas they have in the English alphabet?1. None 2. One 3. Two 4. Three 5. More than three

5. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to the group?1. 17 2. 31 3. 23 4. 13 5. 21

Directions (Q. 6 - 10): These questions are based on the following arrangement. Study it carefully andanswer these questions.

T 6 # I J 1 % L E 3 K 9 @A H 7 B © D 2 U $ R 4 « 8

6. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way on the basis of their position in the above arrangement and so form a group.Whichis the one that does not belong to the group?1. JI1 2. EL3 3. @9A 4. 7HB 5. R4$

7. What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following series based on the above arrangement?61J %E3 9AH ?1. B ©2 2. 7 ©D 3. 7BD 4. BD2 5. None of these

8. If all the vowels are removed from the above arrangement which element will be sixth to the right of fourth element from the left?1. 9 2. K 3. 3 4. @ 5. None of these

9. How many such symbols are there in the above arrangement each of which is immediately preceded by a number?1. None 2. One 3. Two 4. Three 5. More than three

10. Which element is fifth to the right of eleventh from the right end?1. $ 2. U 3. 1 4. 3 5. None of these

Directions (Q. 11 - 15): In each of these questions below are three statements followed by two conclusions numbered I andII. You have to take the three given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known factsand then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the three statements disregarding commonlyknown facts. Give answer

1. if only conclusion I follows 2. if only conclusion II follows3. if either conclusion I or conclusion II follows 4. if neither conclusions I nor conclusion II follows5. if both conclusions I and II follow.

11. Statements : All taps are wellsSome wells are canalsAll canals are rivers

Conclusions : I. Some rivers are tapsII. Some wells are rivers

12. Statements : Some files are papersSome papers are booksAll books are journals

Conclusions : I. Some papers are journalsII. Some files are journals


13. Statements : Some apples are grapesSome grapes are mangoesNo mango is guava

Conclusions : I. Some guavas are applesII. No guava is apple

14. Statements : Some computers are screensSome screens are moviesSome movies are scripts

Conclusions : I. Some computers are moviesII. Some screens are scripts

15. Statements : All pearls are gemsAll gems are diamondsAll corals are gems

Conclusions : I. All pearls are diamondsII. All corals are diamonds

Directions (Q. 16 - 20): In the following questions, the symbols @, ©, %,and $ are used with the following meaning asillustrated below.

‘P © Q’ means ‘P is either smaller than or equal to Q’‘P $ Q’ means ‘P is neither greater than nor smaller than Q’‘P @ Q’ means ‘P is either greater than or equal to Q’‘P % Q’ means ‘P is greater than Q’‘PQ’ means ‘P is smaller than Q’Now in each of the following questions assuming the given statements to be true, find which of the two conclusions I and II givenbelow them is / are definitely true?Give answer (1) if only conclusion I is trueGive answer (2) if only conclusion II is trueGive answer (3) if either conclusion I or II is trueGive answer (4) if neither conclusion I nor II is trueGive answer (5) if both conclusion I and II are true.

16. Statements : M @ R, R % T, T $ KConclusions : I. K M II. TM

17. Statements : H % J, B ©J, B @ FConclusions : I. F $ J II. J % F

18. Statements : D $ M, M%W, W@RConclusions : I. RD II. W©D

19. Statements : A ©N, N V, V $ JConclusions : I. J @ N II. A©V

20. Statements : KT, T @ B, B ©MConclusions : I. M % T II. K © MDirections (Q. 21 - 25): In each of these questions, a group of letters is given followed by four combinations of digits

and symbols numbered (1), (2), (3) & (4). The letters are to be coded as per the scheme and conditions given below. Theserial number of the combination that correctly represents the group of letters is your answer. If none of the combinationsis correct your answer is (5) i.e. None of theseLetters :

H I T K R F A L E M J B Q UDigit / Symbol code:

3 7 % ‘#’ #’ 4 $ 6 9 @ 2 5 © 8Conditions:

(i) If the first letter in the group is a vowel and the last letter is a consonant their codes are to be interchanged.(ii) If the first letter in the group is a consonant and the last letter is a vowel both are to be coded by the code for vowel.(iii) If the first as well as the last letter is a vowel both are to be coded by the code for first letter.

21. IRHMEJ1. 743 @2 2. 243 @2 3. 743 @7 4. 243 @7 5. None of these


22. TFIKAR1. 4$7#6% 2. 4$7#64 3. %$7#6% 4. %$6#74 5. None of these

23. MHEJKQ1. ©3@2# 2. 3@2# 3. 3@2# © 4. © 3@2 #@ 5. None of these

24. FIKLRU1. $7#948 2. $7#94$ 3. 87#948 4. 87#94$ 5. None of these

25. ALFJHE1. @9$236 2. 69$236 3. @9$23@ 4. 69$23@ 5. None of these

Directions (Q. 26 - 30): Study the following information carefully to answer these questions.Seven friends K, M, L, H, F, D & C are sitting around a circle facing the centre. L is second to the right of H who is to the immediate

right of C.M is third to the left of D and to the immediate right of F.26. Who is third to the left of ‘C’?

1. L 2. K 3. F 4. K or F 5. None of these27. Which of the following pairs of persons represents the neighbours of K?

1. LD 2. FM 3. ML 4. CH 5. None of these28. Who is to the immediate right of L?

1. K 2. D 3. H 4. M 5. None of these29. Who is second to the right of ‘C’?

1. M 2. L 3. D 4. F 5. None of these30. Which of the following pairs of persons has the first person sitting to the immediate right of second person?

1. DL 2. KF 3. CH 4. DH 5.None of theseDirections (Q. 31 - 35) : Study the following information carefully to answer these questions.

Seven friends P, Q, R, S, T, U & V are teaching different subjects Maths, Physics, Biology, English, History, Psychology andFrench not necessarily in the same order. Each one of them has liking for a different colour Pink, Green, Blue, Red, Yellow, White andOrange again not necessarily in the same order.

T teaches Biology and likes Green colour. Q teaches History and he does not like Yellow or Orange. The one who likes Redteaches Physics. P teaches French and like Blue. The one who teaches English like Pink. R teaches Maths and V teachesPsychology. U does not like Red. Maths teacher does not like Yellow.31. Which colour is liked by V?

1. Pink 2. White 3. Orange 4. Yellow 5. None of these32. Who teaches English?

1. U 2. S 3. R 4. Cannot be determined5. None of these

33. Who likes White?1. R 2. S 3. U 4. V 5. None of these

34. Who likes Orange?1. V 2. S 3. R 4. Cannot be determined5.None of these

35. Which of the following combinations is definitely correct?1. Red-T-Physics 2. Pink-U-English 3. Red-S-Psychology 4. Yellow-U-Biology 5. None of these

Directions (Q. 36 - 40): In each of these questions, which one of the five answer figures should come after the problemfigures, if the sequence were continued?

Problem Figures Answer Figures

36.

37.


38.

39.

40.

GENERAL ENGLISHDirections (41 to 50): Read the following passage carefully and answer these questions. Certain words are given in boldto help you to locate them while answering some of the questions.

The yearly festival was close at hand. The store room was packed with silk fabrics, gold ornaments, clay bowls full of sweet curdand platefuls of sweetmeats. The orders had been placed with shops well in advance. The mother was sending out gifts to everyone.

The eldest son, a government servant, lived with his wife and children in far off lands. The second son had left home at an earlyage. As a merchant he travelled all over the world. The other sons had split up over petty squabbles, and they now lived in homes of theirown. The relatives were spread all across the world. They rarely visited. The youngest son, left in the company of a servant, was soonbored, left her and stood at the door all day long, waiting and watching. His mother, thrilled and excited, loaded the presents on trays andplates, covered them with colourful kerchiefs, and sent them off with maids and servants. The neighbours looked on.

The day came to an end. All the presents had been sent off.The child came back into the house and dejectedly said to his mother, “Maa, you gave a present to everyone, but you didn’t give

me anything.!”His mother laughed, “I have given all the gifts away to everyone, now see what’s left for you.” She kissed him on the forehead.The child said in a tearful voice, “Don’t I get a gift?”“You’ll get it when you go far away.”“But when I am close to you, don’t I get something from your own hands?”His mother reached out her arms and drew him to her. “This is all I have in my own hands. It is the most precious of all.”

41. Why did the woman’s second son travel?1. He was restless by nature 2. He did not want to stay at home3. He was rich and could afford to travel 4. His job was such that he had to travel5. None of these

42. Why did the woman’s eldest son not attend the festival?1. He was not on good terms with his youngest brother who lived at home 2. He had quarrelled with his mother3. His wife did not allow him to return home 4. His job prevented him from taking leave5. None of these

43. How did the woman prepare for the festival?A. She bought expensive gifts for her children and neighbours.B. She ordered her servants to prepare sweets and food well in advanceC. She made sure that her youngest child was looked after so that he wouldn’t be bored.1. None 2. Only A 3. Only B 4. Both A & B 5. All A, B & C

44. What did the youngest child do while his mother was busy?A. He waited for a chance to steal some sweetmeats. B. He pestered his mother to give him a present.C. He stood at the door with the servants1. Only A 2. Only B 3. Both A & C 4. Only C 5. None of these

45. Which of the following can be said about the woman?1. She was a widow who had brought up her children single handedly2. She was not a good mother since her children had left home at an early age3.She enjoyed sending her family gifts at festival time4. She gave expensive presents to show that she was wealthy5. She rarely visited her grand children because they all lived abroad


46. What did the boy receive from his mother?1. She taught him the value of patience2. She encouraged him to grow up and live independently like his brothers3. She showed him the importance of giving expensive gifts4. She gave him a hug to express her love5. None of these

47. Which of the following is true in the context of the passage?1. The woman usually ignored her youngest son2. The woman’s eldest son lived abroad3. The members of the woman’s family did not care about her4. The woman made all the preparations herself since she did not want to burden the servants5. The woman sent gifts to her children to ensure that they visited her.

Directions (Qs.48 to 49): Choose the word which is most nearly the same in meaning as the word printed in bold as usedin the passage.48. Left

1. gone 2. quit 3. remaining 4. disappeared 5. forgot49. Packed

1. filled 2. squeezed 3. crowd 4. collected 5. untidy50. Choose the word which is most opposite in meaning of the word dejectedly as used in the passage.

1. calmly 2. happily 3. willingly 4. fortunately 5. softlyDirections (Qs. 51 to 55):Read each sentence to find out whether there is any error in it.The error, if any, will be in one partof the sentence.The number of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is (5). (Ignore errors of punctuation,if any).51. Many multinational companies (1) / have not been as (2) / successful in India (3) / than we expected. (4)/ No error (5).52. He has ruined (1) / his eyesight (2)/by not using (3) / his spectacles regularly . (4) / No error (5).53. Mostly of the (1)/newly recruited officers (2) / have no experience (3) /in the banking sector (4)/No error (5)54. The resignation of (1)/one of our directors (2)/have caused the price (3)/ of shares to fall. (4) / No error (5).55. There are many (1)/ ways of which (2) / inflation can (3) / be measured (4) / No error (5).Directions (Qs. 56 to 60): In each of these questions, which of the phrases (1),(2), (3) and (4) given below should replace thephrase given in bold in the sentence to make the sentence grammatically meaningful and correct. If the sentence is correctas it is and ‘No correction is required’ mark (5) as the answer.56. Each of the loan must be approved by the Branch Manager.

1.Every loan 2. Each one of the loan 3. Any of the loan 4. All of the loans 5.No correction required57. The issue was taken before the Municipal Corporation meeting last week.

1. taking place at 2. taken after 3. being taken in 4. taken up at 5. No correction required58. He has asked for the names of those employees involved in the project

1. had asked 2. having asked about 3. was asked that 4. is asking 5. No correction required59. Considerate the traffic, it is better to leave for the airport an hour early.

1. While considering 2. Consideration of 3. Considering 4. Being considerate to5. No correction required

60. He is a good leader, knowing that to motivate his employees to achieve.1. that known when 2. who knows how 3. which knows how 4. knowing what 5. No correction required

Directions (Qs. 61 to 65):Rearrange the following six sentences (A), (B), (C), (D), (E) and (F) in the proper sequence to forma meaningful paragraph; then answer the questions given below them.

1. The able bodied men of the tribe gathered to discuss how to climb the mountain.2. As part of their plundering they kidnapped a baby of one of the families.3. One day the mountain tribe invaded those living in the valley.4. “We couldn’t climb the mountain. How could you?” they asked. “It wasn’t your baby!” she replied.5. There were two tribes in the Andes - one lived in the valley and the other high up in the mountains.6. Two days later they noticed the child’s mother coming down the mountain that they hadn’t yet figured out how to climb.

61. Which of the following should be the SECOND sentence after rearrangement?1. A 2. B 3. C 4.D 5. E

62. Which of the following should be the FIFTH sentence after rearrangement?1. F 2. E 3. D 4. C 5. B

63. Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence after rearrangement?1. A 2. B 3. C 4. D 5. E


64. Which of the following should be the SIXTH (LAST) sentence after rearrangement?1. A 2. B 3. C 4. D 5. E

65. Which of the following should be the THIRD sentence after rearrangement?1. A 2. B 3. C 4. D 5. EDirections (Qs. 66 to 70): In each of these questions a sentence with four words printed in bold type is given. These

are numbered as (1), (2), (3) and (4). One of these four words printed in bold may be either wrongly spelt or inappropriate,if any. The number of that word is your answer. If all the words printed in bold are correctly spelt and also accurate in thecontext of the sentence choose (5) i.e. All correct as answer.66. The income (1)/ of many people in rural (2) / India is not adequate (3) / to satisfy (4)/ their basic needs. All correct (5).67. She is always (1)/prompt (2)/in caring (3)/ out instructions. (4)/All correct (5).68. The revized (1) / rates (2) / of interest will be effective (3) / immediately. (4) / All Correct (5)69. Such transactions (1) / are quiet (2) / expensive (3)/ and time consuming (4) / for customers. /Allcorrect (5).70. The guidelines (1) / of the new scheme (2) / are expected (3) / to be finally (4) / soon./ All correct (5)

Directions (Qs. 71 to 80): In the following passage there are blanks each of which has been numbered. Thesenumbers are printed below the passage and against each five words/ phrases are suggested one of which fits the blankappropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.

I used to look ..... (71) ... to the holidays. I was usually.... (72)... to my uncle’s house where I....(73).... his children did not getpaid a salary for ....(74).... What I received in return however, was far more....(75).... My uncle was an avid reader. During the timeI spent with his family I had an... (76).... to read the vast amount of books and magazines that he possessed. This improved my Englishto some .... (77).... Reading became my new ... (78)..... (79)..... spending my pocket money on a ticket to the cinema I began to......(80)..... books. This has benefited me greatly.71. 1. forward 2. towards 3. backward 4. up 5. around72. 1. went 2. sent 3. visited 4. travelled 5. gone73. 1. cared 2. occupy 3. guarded 4. taught 5. played74. 1. them 2. whom 3. this 4. now 5. which75. 1. expensive 2. deserving 3. helping 4. demanding 5. valuable76. 1. opportunity 2. ability 3. use 4. encouragement 5. achievement77. 1. distance 2. extent 3. time 4. limits 5. degrees78. 1. activity 2. hope 3. hobby 4. duty 5. worship79. 1. despite 2. though 3. by 4. instead of 5.while80. 1. sell 2. read 3. exchange 4. invest 5. buy

QUANTITATIVE APTITUDEDirections (Q. 81 - 100): What should come in place of the questions mark (?) in the following questions?81. 963 + 560 35 = ?

1. 45 2. 981 3. 870 4. 43 5. 97982. 14400 64 9 = ?

1. 27 2. 23 3. 29 4. 21 5. 2583. 14.8 × 12.3 × 86 = ?

1. 1555.454 2. 1535.445 3. 1545.545 4. 15655.44 5.None of these84. 45% of 720 = 30% of ?

1. 960 2. 1080 3. 1240 4. 820 5. None of these

85. ?411

324

613

1. 614 2. 9

26 3. 1276 4. 9

15 5. None of these

86. 727 of 189 + 452 = 2000 - ?

1. 183 2. 164 3. 170 4. 198 5. 171

87. 75% of ? 576 151. 500 2. 490 3. 480 4. 680 5.None of these


88. (45)2 + (21)2 = (?)2 + 2571. 51 2. 49 3. 45 4. 47 5. None of these

89. 90780 1285? 1. 89 2. 7921 3. 7569 4. 87 5. None of these

90. 63% of 962 + ? = 9991. 346.92 2. 368.64 3. 392.94 4. 402.68 5. None of these

91. 743 + 958 = ? % of 56701. 34 2. 26 3. 30 4. 22 5. None of these

92. 5929 = ?1. 77 2. 83 3. 87 4. 93 5. None of these

93. 638 + 254 8 × 4 = ?1. 646 2. 545 3. 446 4. 765 5. None of these

94. ?231016461418

1. 211 2. 137

242 3. 138374 4. 173

323 5.None of these

95. 8 × 5 + (?)2 = (11)2

1. 81 2. 6561 3. 9 4. 27 5.None of these96. 38 percent of first number is 52 percent of the second number. What is the respective ratio of the first number to the second number?

1. 5 : 4 2. 16 : 9 3. 26 : 19 4. Cannot be determined 5. None of these97. The average age of a man and his son is 54 years. The ratio of their age is 23 : 13 respectively.What will be ratio

of their ages after 6 years?1.10 : 7 2. 5 : 3 3. 4 : 3 4. 3 : 2 5. None of these

98. A single person takes 3 minutes to write a letter. If from 10 a.m. to 12.00 noon, 1960 letters are to be written, how many personsshould be employed on this job?1. 53 2. 47 3.51 4. 49 5. None of these

99. The simple interest accrued on an amount of Rs. 9,530 at the end of 6 years is Rs.2,859. What is the rate of interest p.c.p.a.?1. 5 2. 7 3. 9 4. 11 5. None of these

100. The cost of 10 Chairs and 15 Tables is Rs. 15,525. What is the cost of 8 Chairs and 12 Tables?1. Rs. 13,560 2. Rs. 12,420 3. Rs. 14,840 4. Cannot be determined5. None of these

101. The owner of a Gift shop charges his customer 28% more than the cost price. If a customer paid Rs. 1,408 for some Soft toys,then what was the cost price of those Soft toys?1. Rs. 1300 2. Rs. 1.000 3. Rs. 1200 4. Rs. 1,400 5. 1100

102. If the product of two successive positive integers is 3192, which is the smaller integer?1. 52 2. 58 3. 54 4. 56 5.None of these

103. A sum of money is divided among A, B, C and D in the ratio of 4 : 5 : 7 : 11 respectively . If the share of C is Rs. 1,351, thenwhat is the total amount of money of A& D together?1. Rs. 2,123 2. Rs. 2,316 3.Rs. 2,565 4. Rs. 2,895 5. None of these

104. The difference between 73% of a number and 58% of the same number is 960. What is 22% of that number?1. 1408 2. 1232 3. 1324 4. 1536 5. None of these

105. Two numbers are less than a third number by 30% and 37% respectively. What percent is the second number less than the first?1. 8% 2. 30% 3. 37% 4. 10% 5. None of these

Directions (Q. 106-110) : What should come in place of question mark (?) in the following number series?

106. 3 12 4 11 5 10 ? 91. 5 2. 6 3. 4 4. 2 5. None of these

107. 1, 5, ?, 13, 171. 6 2. 8 3. 9 4. 12 5. None of these

108. -1, 0, 1, ?, 27, 641. 2 2. 3 3. 4 4. 8 5. None of these


109.2

3

4

7

7

13

11

21, , , , ?

1. 13

252.

15

293.

17

334.

16

315. None of these

110. 2, 15, 41, ?, 1321. 92 2. 72 3. 80 4. 81 5. None of these

Directions (111-115): Study the following table carefully to answer the questions given below it.Percentage of marks obtained by different students in different subjects.

SUBJECTS(Maximum marks)

Students Maths(150)

Physics(150)

Biology(100)

Chemistry(150)

SocialScience(125)

Hindi(75)

English(75)

Marathi(50)

A 84 82 77 70 84 64 66 78

B 90 84 63 62 70 60 86 70

C 74 90 81 64 64 62 74 84

D 62 64 79 76 90 70 82 86

E 82 70 69 72 70 80 60 78

F 70 80 87 86 80 66 74 68

111. How many students have scored the highest in more than one subject?1. One 2. Two 3. Three 4. Four 5. None of these

112. Marks obtained by student E in chemistry are what per cent of marks obtained by student F in the same subject?(rounded off to two digits after decimal)1. 83.72 2. 79.14 3. 89.64 4. 74.81 5. None of these

113. How many marks did student A get in all the subjects together?1. 636.5 2. 685 3. 647.5 4. 659 5. 605

114. Who has scored the highest marks in all the subjects together?1. A 2. B 3. D 4. F 5. None of these

115. What are the total marks obtained by all students together in Physics?1. 350 2. 470 3. 550 4. 160 5. None of these

Directions (Q. 116-120): Study the following graph and answer the questions given below it.Number (in thousands) of Hotels in different States

States

116. What is the approximate average number of hotels from all the states together?1. 2500 2. 3000 3. 2200 4. 2010 5. 3100


117. Number of hotels in state J is what per cent of the total number of hotels from all the states together?1. 15.12 2. 17.24 3. 9.36 4. 11.22 5. None of these

118. Total number of hotels from states B, D and F together form approximately what per cent of the total number of hotels from all statestogether?1. 19 2. 23 3. 40 4. 32 5. 36

119. The respective ratio between number of hotels in state E to those in state I is 11 : 10. How many more hotels in state I would makethe ratio between state E and state I, 11 : 13 respectively?1. 750 2. 550 3. 300 4. 800 5. None of these

120. What is the respective ratio of number of hotels from states A, D and G together to the number of hotels from states C, H and Ktogether?1. 5 : 2 2. 4 : 1 3. 6 : 5 4. 3 : 4 5. None of these

GENERAL AWARENESS121. Where was the 25th meeting of International Congress for Conservation Biology (ICCB) held in.

1. Auckland 2. Shanghai 3. Guanddong 4. Xinxicing 5. None of these122. The Pension Fund Regulatory and Development Authority (PFRDA) Bill that will be re-introduced in parliament hold up to ––––

percent stake in Indian pension fund companies, similar to the quantum allowed in insurance companies.1. 10 2. 26 3. 49 4. 74 5. None of these

123. As we all know, the Govt. gives enough emphasis on the development of Small Scale Industry (SSI) Sector. What is the role ofthe SSI sector in a developing economy like India?A. SSI sector plays an important role in development of economy as around 40 percent of the GDP comes from this sector.B. SSI absorbs surplus labour and helps in equitable distribution of incomeC. Approximately 35% of total exports of India comes from SSI sector.1. Only A 2. Only B 3. Only C 4. All A, B & C 5. None of these

124. Who is the president if Asian Development Bank.1. Donald Kaberuka 2. Haruhiko Kuroda 3. Harsh Vardhana Singh 4. Kamalesh Sharma 5. None of these

125. Who amongst the following crossed 5000 runs milestone in Test Cricket recently1. Irfan Pathan 2. Harbhajan Singh 3. Anil Kumble 4. M.S.Dhoni 5. Virender Sehwag

126. Which of the following is not a subsidiary of the SBI?1. State Bank of Patiala 2. State Bank of Indore3. State Bank of Travancore 4. State Bank of Hyderabad 5. Bank of Maharashtra

127. Who among the following was the author of “Common Sense”, the revolutionary pamphlet of the American Revolution?1. Thomas Paine 2. Thomas Jefferson 3. George Washington 4. Samuel Adams 5. None of these

128. According to the retail inflation data released by Central Statistics Office (CSO), on 21 August 2012, India’s Consumer PriceIndex (CPI) based retail inflation came down to _________ in July 2012.1. 9.86% 2. 2.34% 3. 7.33% 4.14.88% 5. None of these

129. John Key, whose name was in the news is the Prime Minister of1. Australia 2. United Kingdom 3. Canada 4. France 5. New Zealand

130. Who amongst the following is the winner of Ramon Magsaysay Award 2012?1. Kulandei Francis 2. Dr. Amartya Sen 3. Ms. Barkha Dutt4. Dr.M.S. Ahluwalia 5. None of these

131. In which year was the Imperial Bank of India renamed as the State Bank of India?1. 1921 2. 1935 3. 1949 4. 1955 5. None of these

132. The IAAF World Athletic Championship 2011 was organized in1. Beijing 2. New Delhi 3. South Korea 4. Dhaka 5. London

133. Which of the following banks has taken over the centurion Bank of Punjab recently?1. IDBI Bank 2. ICICI Bank 3. HDFC Bank 4. Axis Bank 5. None of these

134. Leila Lopes who was adjudged Miss Universe 2011 is a citizen of1. Britain 2. China 3. Russia 4. Angola 5. India

135. Who amongst the following writers is the winner of the 2011 Man Booker International Prize?1. Mahasweta Devi 2. Mario Vargas Liosa 3. Philip Roth 4. Ismael Kadare 5. None of these

136. ‘Merdeka Cup’ is associated with the game of1. Badminton 2. Football 3. Hockey 4. Golf 5. Tennis

137. Name the Indian telecom service company which had acquired US firm WPCS International.1. Tata teleservices 2. MTNL 3. Kavveri telecom 4. Shyam Telecom 5. None of these

138. Recently which of following Indian banks have been allowed to operate in Pakistan?1. Punjab National Bank and IDBI Bank 2. State Bank of India (SBI) and Bank of India (BoI)3. State Bank of India (SBI) and Punjab National Bank 4. Bank of India (BoI) and IDBI Bank 5. None of these


139. The headquarters of the World Bank is situated at1. Washington DC 2. Geneva 3. Newyork 4. Paris 5. None of these

140. H1N1 virus causing swine flu is medically called which influenza1. influenza A 2. influenza B 3. influenza C 4. influenza D 5. None of these

141. By which Article of the Indian Constitution was untouchability abolished?1. Article 14 2. Article 16 3. Article 15 4. Article 17 5. None of these

142. What is the official language of the Argentina?1. Portuguese 2. Spanish 3. Italian 4. German 5. None of these

143. World Ozone Day is observed on –––––1. March 20 2. June 5 3. September 16 4. October 3 5. None of these

144. Which Asian country is planning to set up anti-terror joint working groups with Britain and the US among several countries to tackleterrorism through exchange of information?1. Pakistan 2. Bangladesh 3. India 4. Malaysia 5. None of these

145. Which market regulator in August 2012 permitted seven Alternative Investment Funds (AIFs) to start operation in India under anewly formulated route that enable pooling of funds for investments in areas such as real estate, private equity and hedge funds.1. RBI 2. SEBI 3. Ministry of Finance4. Ministry of Corporate Affairs 5. None of these

146. Recently UNDP and Indian Institute of Advance Study (IIAS) have signed the MoU to set up an international centre for humandevelopment at ___________?1.Jaipur 2.Shimla 3.Dehradun 4.Kanpur 5. None of these

147. The high-level committee on external commercial borrowings (EC2.,chaired by secretary, department of economic affairsArvind Mayaram on ____________ decided to further liberalise the foreign borrowing norms.1. 22 Aug 2012 2. 13 Aug 2012 3. 04 Aug 2012 4. 14 Aug 2012 5. None of these

148. Who among the following has been recently appointed as new chairperson of the Central Board of Direct Taxes (CBDT)?1.Sudha Sharma 2.Poonam Kishore Saxena 3.Shobha L.Chary 4.Laxman Das 5. None of these

149. Who among the following is the Director-General of International Rice Research Institute, Manila?1.Seong-Hee Lee 2.Peter Stephen Baenziger 3.Robert S.Zeigler 4.Emerlinda R. Roman 5. None of these

150. “Abhinava Bharat”, a secret society of revolutionaries, was organised by1. Khudiram Bose 2. V.D.Savarkar 3. Prafulla Chaki 4. Bhagat Singh 5. None of these

151. Who is the Chief Election Commissioner (CEO) of India?1. N. Gopalasami 2. V.S. Sampath 3. Wajahat Habibullah 4. Aravind Kajriwal 5. None of these

152. Name the renowned Hindustani classical vocalist who has been presented with Bharat Ratna, the country’s highest civilianaward.1. Pandic Jasraj 2. Pandit Bhimsen Joshi 3. Pandit Omkarnath 4. Bhupen Hazarika 5. None of these

153. “Open Market Operation’ is a part of1. Income policy 2. Fiscal policy 3. Credit policy 4. Labour policy 5. None of these

154. Which programme was launched to provide housing to rural people?1. Indira Awas Yojana 2. Slum Development Yojana3. Adarsh Basti Programme 4. Valmiki Ambedkar Awas Yojana5. None of these

155. Who has been appointed as the new chief of the RAW?1. Sanjeev Thripathi 2. K.C. Verma 3. A.S. Gill 4. R.V. Raju 5. None of these

156. Who became the first Indian to get three Oscar nominations?1. Aamir Khan 2. Satyajit Ray 3. AR Rahman 4. Shyam Banegal 5. None of these

157. In a move aimed at encouraging investment sentiment in the country, the Union Finance Ministry on 22 August 2012 approvedwhat percent foreign direct investment in insurance and pension sector.1. 52% 2. 33% 3. 49% 4. 37% 5. None of these

158. Who among the following is elected as new Prime Minister of Libya?1.Moussa Koussa 2.Mustafa Abdul Jalil 3.Mahmoud Jibril 4.Mustafa Abu Shagour 5. None of these

159. Which among the following Indian IT major has featured in Carbon Disclosure Project (CDP)’s ‘Carbon Disclosure LeadershipIndex’ for 2012?1.Wipro 2.Tata Consultancy Services 3.Infosys 4.HCL 5. None of these

160. The 52nd National Open Athletics Championships was recently held in __________?1.Kolkata 2.Chennai 3.Bhopal 4.Mumbai 5. None of these


MARKETING AND COMPUTER161. Proper Marketing requires

1. planning 2. sympathy 3. knowledge of products 4. 1 and 2 both 5. 1 and 3 both162. Market information means

1. knowledge of companies 2. cross-country information 3. knowledge of related markets4. selling to existing customers 5. None of these

163. Which of the following does not represent a stage of ‘Product Life Cycle’?1. Introduction 2. Growth 3. Recycling 4.Saturation 5. Marketing

164. Qualities of a good Salesman are1. patience and politeness 2. empathy and perseverance3. steadfast and committed 4. (1) and (2) both 5. All (1), (2) & (3)

165. A lead is useful for1. a marketing staff 2. a team leader 3. bank’s chairman4. an industry making lead products 5. not useful, as it is poisonous

166. Market research is needed1. for extra service charges 2. for levy of VAT 3. for good customer service4. for effective selling 5. there is no need for market research

167. Marketing and Selling are1. not required if profit is high 2. not required if sales are high3. not required in monopolistic conditions 4. All of the above 5. None of these

168. 4 P’s of Marketing means1. primary marketing techniques 2. person, place, product and promotion3. promoting authority 4. purpose, place, passion and product 5. None of these

169. Market Segmentation means1. dividing the market into various groups 2. segmenting by age3. segmenting by tastes 4. segmenting geographically 5. None of these

170. Digital Marketing means (find the correct option)1. selling with calculators 2. marketing of digital instruments3. marketing through internet and telephone 4. export finance 5. None of these

171. Customer Database means1. customer’s biodata 2. customer’s loyalty3. customers’ loans details 4. information on customers needs 5. None of these

172. Bank marketing is necessary due to1. globalisation 2. recession 3. merger of banks 4. shortage of resources5. selling various items in banks

173. Marketing plans are used for -1. doing research by marketing students 2. planning departments3. purchase of consumable items from retail outlets 4.All of the above 5. None of these

174. Customer Database is used by1. individuals 2. institutions 3. builders4. marketing experts 5. None of these

175. Customisation means1. designing products to suit the company 2. designing strategies to suit the company3. designing products to suit individual customers 4. All of the above 5. None of these

176. Product mix means1. distributing a mix of products 2. collecting ideas to sell better3. satisfying the customers 4. bundle of products required by the customer5. various products designed by the company

177. Selling skills are judged by1. number of goods sold 2. amount of profit earned3. number of customers converted 4. All of the above 5. None of these

178. Which of the following is an element of Market Segmentation?1. Company resources 2. Products characteristics3. Position of the product in Product Life Cycle 4. Homogeneous nature of the market 5. All of these


179. Direct marketing is necessary for1. having a focussed approach to marketing 2. boosting sales 3. better customer contacts4. All of the above 5. None of these

180. Marketing of Internet Banking means-1. meeting of banks on the net 2. net practice3. marketing the usuage of banking transactions through internet4. transactions with foreign countries 5. All of the above

181. In modems,1. digital signal is amplified 2. several digital signals are multiplied3. a digital signal changes some characteristic of a carrier wave 4. Both 2 and 3 5. Both 1 and 2

182. Which of the following is a part of system unit?1. Floppy disk 2. CPU 3. Monitor 4. CD-ROM 5. Printer

183. In windows ME, ME stands for1. Macro-Expert 2. Micro-Expert 3. Millennium 4. Macro-Expert 5. None of these

184. In Excel, contents of the active cell is displayed in the1. Footer bar 2. Tool bar 3. Formula bar 4. Menu bar 5. Task bar

185. The server on the internet is also known as1. hub 2. host 3. router 4. connector 5. gateway

186. Mail merge cannot be used to create1. letters 2. E-mail message 3. envelops 4. faxes 5. None of these

187. Technology available to everyone is considered to be1. experimental 2. in the public domain 3. open-source 4. All of these 5. None of these

188. Documentation of computer programs is important so that1. other programmers can know how to maintain the program 2. users can learn how to use the program3. the programmer can see why the code is written that way while identify the sources of errors 4. All of these 5. None of these

189. ‘EBCDIC’ code consists of _____ bits.1. 8 2. 128 3. 16 4. 256 5. 32

190. Which of the following part of a computer add and compare the data?1. Memory 2. Scanner 3. Keyboard 4. CPU 5. Light pen

191. Arranging data in a logical sequence is called1. searching 2. sorting 3. reproducing 4. classifying 5. partitioning

192. Which of the following controls the manner of interaction between the user and the operating system?1. Language translator 2. Platform 3. User interface 4. Icon 5. None of these

193. Which of the font sizes are not supported by word?1. 15 2. 72.5 3. 544 4. 100.89 5. None of these

194. All of the parts in a computer talk to each other by sending1. analog signals 2. digital signals 3. varying signal waves 4. Both (1) and (3) 5. None of these

195. Which of the network topology is having hierarchical arrangement?1. Ring 2. Mesh 3. Bus 4. Tree 5. Star

196. What is the order for choosing the font in Word document?1. insert font 2. edit font 3. format font 4. tools font 5. view font

197. In terms of processing power, which of the following class of computers come between mini computers and micro computers?1. Super computer 2. Personal computer 3. Main frame computer 4. workstation 5. None of these

198. Which of the following security threat does not require any particular conditions to harm a computer system?1. Spam 2. Virus 3. Logic Bomb 4. Trojan horse 5. None of these

199. The system file of an operating system,1. .exe 2. .com 3. .gov 4. .in 5. .doc

200. ______ consists of volatile chips that temporarly store data.1. RAM 2. ROM 3. CPU 4. All of these 5. None of these

BANK CLERK MODEL EXAM

ANSWER KEY BANK CLERK MODEL EXAM - 11. 4 2. 4 3. 5 4. 3 5. 5 6. 5 7. 4 8. 5 9. 1 10.211.5 12. 4 13.5 14. 5 15.3 16.3 17. 2 18.4 19. 1 20. 221.3 22. 3 23.5 24. 2 25.5 26. 4 27. 1 28.4 29. 1 30. 331.5 32. 4 33. 2 34. 3 35. 4 36. 1 37. 1 38.3 39. 2 40. 541. 3 42. 5 43. 2 44. 1 45. 2 46. 3 47. 5 48. 4 49. 5 50. 451. 2 52. 3 53. 2 54. 5 55. 1 56. 3 57. 4 58. 4 59. 2 60. 561. 2 62. 1 63. 2 64. 1 65. 4 66. 5 67. 4 68. 3 69. 2 70. 371. 3 72. 1 73. 5 74. 2 75. 2 76. 1 77. 4 78. 4 79. 2 80. 381.2 82.2 83.3 84. 5 85. 2 86. 2 87. 2 88. 3 89. 4 90. 491. 3 92. 2 93. 3 94. 5 95. 4 96. 1 97. 4 98. 5 99. 2 100.4101.3 102.2 103.1 104.5 105.4 106.4 107.5 108.4 109.3 110.1111.3 112.1 113.5 114.2 115.4 116.4 117.1 118.5 119.3 120.2121.3 122.2 123.5 124.2 125.5 126.4 127.2 128.3 129.5 130.2131.1 132.2 133.3 134.3 135.1 136.1 137.1 138.1 139.5 140.2141.3 142.2 143.1 144.5 145.1 146.4 147.1 148.2 149.1 150.2151.4 152.2 153.3 154.1 155.1 156.3 157.1 158.4 159.1 160.3161.3 162.4 163.1 164.2 165.3 166.4 167.1 168.4 169.4 170.1171.1 172.3 173.1 174.4 175.2 176.1 177.3 178.3 179.1 180.1181.3 182.1 183.1 184.1 185.3 186.1 187.3 188.2 189.3 190.4191.3 192.1 193.3 194.2 195.4 196.5 197.3 198.3 199.1 200.5

ANSWER KEY BANK CLERK MODEL EXAM - 2

1. 2 2. 3 3. 5 4. 3 5. 4 6. 3 7. 4 8. 2 9. 110. 4 11. 2 12. 2 13. 1 14. 5 15. 2 16. 2 17. 2 18. 519. 1 20. 1 21. 1 22. 4 23. 5 24. 3 25. 2 26. 1 27. 428. 3 29. 5 30. 2 31. 5 32. 1 33. 4 34. 4 35. 3 36. 237. 1 38. 5 39. 4 40. 5 41. 1 42. 2 43. 5 44. 5 45. 346. 4 47. 1 48. 4 49. 2 50. 4 51. 3 52. 5 53. 1 54. 155. 1 56. 4 57. 5 58. 3 59. 2 60. 2 61. 1 62. 4 63. 364. 5 65. 1 66. 3 67. 4 68. 5 69. 5 70. 4 71. 1 72. 373. 2 74. 2 75. 1 76. 5 77. 5 78. 4 79. 3 80. 5 81. 482. 1 83. 5 84. 3 85. 2 86. 3 87. 3 88. 1 89. 2 90. 391. 1 92. 2 93. 4 94. 5 95. 2 96. 2 97. 3 98. 1 99. 3100. 4 101. 3 102. 2 103. 3 104. 3 105. 3 106. 1 107. 3 108. 3109. 4 110. 2 111. 2 112. 4 113. 1 114. 5 115. 3 116. 3 117. 4118. 5 119. 1 120. 2 121. 1 122. 2 123. 3 124. 2 125. 1 126. 1127. 3 128. 4 129.1 130. 3 131. 1 132. 1 133. 1 134. 3 135. 4136. 3 137. 2 138. 1 139. 1 140. 2 141. 2 142. 3 143. 4 144. 3145. 1 146. 1 147. 2 148. 3 149. 3 150. 1 151. 2 152. 4 153. 3154. 1 155. 2 156. 3 157. 4 158. 4 159. 2 160. 3 161. 5 162. 1163. 4 164. 2 165. 4 166. 3 167. 5 168. 4 169. 4 170. 2 171. 1172. 2 173. 1 174. 4 175. 5 176. 5 177. 4 178. 5 179. 1 180. 4181. 2 182. 2 183. 1 184. 3 185. 1 186. 3 187. 2 188. 4 189. 4190. 1 191. 2 192. 3 193. 2 194. 1 195. 4 196. 1 197. 2 198. 3199. 2 200. 4

ANSWER KEY- 3

1. 3 2. 2 3.1 4. 3 5. 5 6. 4 7. 3 8. 2 9. 4 10. 4 11. 5 12. 1 13. 3

14. 4 15. 2 16. 1 17. 3 18. 5 19.4 20. 4 21. 5 22. 1 23. 5 24. 4 25. 5 26. 3

27. 2 28. 1 29. 4 30. 5 31. 4 32. 2 33. 1 34. 2 35. 4 36. 2 37. 5 38. 3 39. 3

40. 1 41.3 42. 2 43. 4 44. 4 45. 1 46. 1 47. 2 48. 5 49. 1 50. 5 51. 1 52. 2

53. 4 54. 3 55. 4 56. 3 57. 4 58. 1 59. 4 60. 1 61. 3 62. 5 63. 1 64. 2 65. 4

66. 3 67. 1 68. 2 69. 4 70. 5 71. 5 72. 2 73. 3 74. 1 75. 4 76. 3 77. 5 78. 2

79. 1 80. 4 81. 5 82. 3 83. 5 84. 2 85. 5 86. 1 87. 4 88. 4 89. 1 90. 2 91. 1

92. 4 93. 3 94. 4 95. 5 96. 3 97. 2 98. 5 99. 4 100. 2 101. 1 102. 2 103. 3 104. 1

105. 4 106. 4 107. 2 108. 2 109. 2 110. 3 111. 1 112. 4 113. 2 114. 3 115. 1 116. 4 117. 1

118. 3 119. 5 120. 2 121. 1 122. 2 123. 3 124. 1 125. 1 126. 4 127. 2 128.3 129. 3 130. 2

131. 1 132. 2 133. 4 134. 2 135.4 136. 2 137. 2 138. 3 139. 2 140. 3 141. 2 142. 2 143. 4

144. 1 145. 2 146. 4 147. 1 148. 2 149. 4 150. 4 151. 1 152. 3 153. 4 154. 4 155. 4 156. 3

157. 3 158. 1 159. 2 160. 5 161. 4 162. 3 163. 4 164. 4 165. 3 166. 4 167. 5 168. 2 169. 3

170. 1 171. 4 172. 3 173. 3 174. 2 175. 5 176. 4 177. 5 178. 4 179. 5 180.5 181. 1 182. 3

183. 2 184. 3 185. 2 186. 4 187. 4 188. 2 189. 1 190. 2 191. 1 192. 2 193. 1 194. 4 195. 3

196. 1 197. 2 198. 1 199. 4 200. 3

ANSWER KEY- 41. 2 2. 3 3. 2 4. 2 5. 5 6. 5 7. 5 8. 5 9. 1 10. 3 11. 4 12. 3 13. 2

14. 1 15. 5 16.3 17. 3 18.2 19. 4 20. 2 21. 1 22. 5 23. 3 24. 2 25. 3 26. 4

27. 2 28. 3 29. 5 30. 5 31. 4 32. 2 33. 2 34. 4 35. 1 36. 3 37. 1 38. 1 39. 3

40. 5 41. 5 42. 2 43. 4 44. 3 45. 4 46. 5 47. 5 48. 4 49. 1 50. 3 51.1 52. 1

53. 3 54. 4 55. 2 56. 2 57. 2 58. 3 59. 4 60. 1 61. 5 62. 2 63. 1 64. 4 65. 3

66. 3 67. 1 68. 4 69. 2 70. 5 71. 4 72. 1 73. 2 74. 5 75. 3 76. 3 77.2 78. 4

79. 5 80. 5 81. 3 82. 5 83. 4 84. 1 85. 3 86. 5 87. 4 88. 2 89. 4 90.2 91. 1

92. 3 93. 3 94. 5 95. 1 96. 4 97. 1 98. 3 99. 2 100. 4 101. 5 102. 2 103. 1 104. 2

105. 5 106. 2 107. 4 108. 3 109. 4 110. 2 111. 5 112. 4 113. 2 114. 5 115. 3 116. 5 117. 4

118. 2 119. 3 120. 1 121. 3 122. 4 123. 1 124. 1 125. 1 126. 1 127. 1 128.3 129. 4 130. 5

131. 3 132. 1 133. 4 134. 1 135. 3 136. 2 137. 3 138. 3 139. 3 140. 3 141. 2 142. 2 143. 1

144. 4 145. 4 146. 4 147. 1 148. 2 149. 4 150. 3 151. 3 152. 5 153. 1 154. 1 155. 2 156. 1

157. 1 158. 1 159. 2 160. 1 161. 5 162. 5 163. 4 164. 5 165. 1 166. 5 167. 4 168. 4 169. 4

170. 5 171. 5 172. 5 173. 3 174. 3 175. 4 176. 5 177. 5 178. 5 179. 4 180.1 181. 3 182. 1

183. 2 184. 4 185. 1 186. 3 187.3 188. 2 189. 1 190. 1 191. 5 192. 1 193. 1 194. 3 195. 1

196. 2 197. 4 198. 4 199. 2 200. 2

ANSWER KEY BANK CLERK MODEL EXAM -5

1. 1 2. 2 3. 4 4. 2 5. 5 6. 5 7. 4 8. 2 9. 510. 2 11. 2 12. 1 13. 3 14. 4 15. 5 16. 5 17. 3 18. 119. 4 20. 4 21. 4 22. 5 23. 3 24. 3 25. 2 26. 2 27. 528. 1 29. 3 30. 4 31. 4 32. 1 33. 5 34. 3 35. 2 36. 137. 2 38. 1 39. 2 40. 1 41. 4 42. 5 43. 2 44. 5 45. 346. 4 47. 2 48. 3 49. 1 50. 2 51. 4 52. 5 53. 1 54. 355. 2 56. 1 57. 4 58. 5 59. 3 60. 2 61. 3 62. 1 63. 564. 4 65. 2 66. 4 67. 3 68. 1 69. 2 70. 4 71. 1 72. 273. 4 74. 3 75. 5 76. 1 77. 2 78. 3 79. 4 80. 5 81. 582. 5 83. 4 84. 2 85. 3 86. 5 87. 3 88. 4 89.1 90. 391. 3 92. 1 93. 4 94. 2 95. 3 96. 3 97. 2 98. 4 99. 1100. 2 101. 5 102. 4 103. 4 104. 1 105. 4 106. 2 107. 3 108. 4109. 4 110. 3 111. 3 112. 1 113. 5 114. 4 115. 2 116. 3 117. 4118. 2 119. 1 120. 5 121. 1 122. 2 123. 3 124. 2 125. 2 126. 5127. 1 128. 1 129. 5 130. 1 131. 4 132. 3 133. 3 134. 4 135. 3136. 2 137. 3 138. 2 139. 1 140. 1 141. 4 142. 2 143. 3 144. 2145. 2 146. 2 147. 1 148. 2 149. 3 150. 2 151. 2 152. 2 153. 2154. 1 155. 1 156. 3 157. 3 158. 4 159. 1 160. 2 161. 5 162. 3163. 3 164. 5 165. 1 166. 4 167. 3 168. 5 169. 1 170. 3 171. 5172. 5 173. 5 174. 4 175. 3 176. 5 177. 4 178. 5 179. 3 180. 3181. 3 182. 2 183. 3 184. 3 185. 1 186. 4 187. 3 188. 4 189. 4190. 1 191. 2 192. 3 193. 4 194. 2 195. 3 196. 3 197. 4 198. 2199. 1 200. 1

bank clerk model exam - 1

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