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ASNT NDT LEVEL III NDT BASIC

Model Question Bank

1. As per SNT-TC-1A (2006) the near vision acuity exam is to be done for those persons working with NDT A. once in six months B. every two years C. annually D. none of the above. 2. As per CP-189 (2006), if an individual is currently certified in one LT technique, the minimum experience to qualify in another LT technique at the same Level or to the next Level may be reduced up to A. 50% B. 30% C. 40% D. no reduction 3. The number of methods for which certification is recommended by SNT-TC-1A (2006) are A. 13 B. 10 C. 8 D. 6 4. As per CP-189 (2006) the maximum interval for recertification without examination is A. 5 y B. 10 y C. 6 y D. 8 y E. none of the above 5. As per CP-189 (2006) for NDT Level II Practical Examination the minimum number of checkpoints requiring an understanding of NDT variables and the employer's procedural requirements should be included in the practical examination A. 5 B. 8 C. 10 D. 6 E. to be decided by examiner 6. As per CP-189 (2006) for near vision acuity the applicant should be able to read a minimum of A. Jaeger No.2 B. Jaeger No.3 C. Jaeger No. 1 D. none of the above.

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7. As per CP-189, the minimum required experience in the method for direct certification to Level II in UT is A. 840 hr. B. 1000 hr. C. 10 weeks D. 6 months. 8. In accordance with CP-189 (2006) the frequency of color differentiation examinations is A. annually B. once in two years C. at each recertification D. none of the above. 9. The recommendations of CP-189 (2006) are A. general & flexible B. mandatory and minimum requirement C. may be modified D. none of the above. 10. As per SNT-TC-1A (2006), for near vision acuity the applicant should be able to read a minimum of _____ at minimum distance of 12 inches. A. Jaeger No.2 B. Jaeger No.3 C. Jaeger No. 1 D. none of the above. 11. As per SNT-TC-1A (2006), the number of training hours required, if high school graduate or equivalent educational qualification, for direct certification to Level II in UT method is ______ hours. A. 48 hours B. 56 hours C. 30 hours D. 80 hours 12. As per CP-189 (2006) the minimum required work experience in method for Level II limited certification in Radiographic Film Interpretation for non-Radiographer A. 2100 hours B. 1000 hours C. 10 weeks D. six months. 13. As per SNT-TC-1A (2006), NDT method requiring minimum work experience for the Level II certification A. Leak Testing B. Visual Testing C. Magnetic Particle Testing D. Radiographic Testing 14. As per SNT-TC-1A (2006), NDT method requiring maximum initial training hours for .the Level II certification. A. Leak Testing B. Vibration Analysis Testing C. Magnetic Particle Testing D. Radiographic Testing

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15. As per SNT-TC-1A (2006), for near vision acuity the applicant should be able to read a minimum of Jaeger No.2 at minimum distance of ______ inches. A. 12 B. 24 C. 36 D. none of the above. 16. As per CP 189 (2006) for Level II practical examination minimum number of samples recommended per method is A. 1 B. 5 C. 2 D. none of the above. 17. As per SNT-TC-1A (2006), the NDT Level II method requiring the maximum work experience is A. UT B. Leak Testing(LT) C. RT D. Vibration Analysis (VA) & Neutron Radiographic Testing (NR) 18. The recommendations of SNT-TC-1A are A. mandatory B. guidelines C. code D. none of the above 19. As per SNT-TC-1A (2006) for Level I practical examination, minimum number of sample recommended for each technique is A. 5 B. 10 C. 1 D. 6 20. As per CP-189 (2006), limited certification is generally recommended for A. Level I B. Level II C. Level III D. Level I and II 21. As per CP-189 (2006), number of Levels for certification in each method is A. 3 B. 4 C. 9 D. 11

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22. An NDT Level I individual can A. perform specific calibrations B. perform specific evaluations for acceptance or rejection determinations according to written

instructions. C. record test results. D. all of the above. 23. As per SNT-TC-1A (2006), minimum educational-qualification for Level I and II is A. 4 years of Engineering or Science study B. high school graduate or equivalent C. 2 years of Engineering or Science study D. post graduation 24. As per CP-189 (2006) the minimum required work experience in method for Level II limited certification in Ultrasonic Digital Thickness measurements (numeric output only) is A. 78 hours B. 16 hours C. 2 weeks D. 40 hours 25. Qualification of NDT instructor is described in A. CP-189 (2006) B. SNT-TC-1A (2006) C. CP-6-89 and SNT-TC-1A (2006) D. none of the above 26. As per SNT-TC-1A (2006), a persons fails in Level II exam is permitted to take re-exam without undergoing retraining A. only twice B. only thrice C. only once D. none of the above 27. As per CP-189 (2006), experience means except A. formal classroom training B. actual performance of an NDT method conducted C. laboratory and on-the-job training D. none of the above. 28. As per SNT-TC-1A (2006), recertification A. can be accomplished only by reexamination only. B. can be based upon, evidence of continuing satisfactory performance. C. can be at maximum intervals of 7 years D. any of the above.

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29. As per CP-189 (2006), a trainee shall work under direction of an NDT A. Level I B. Level II C. Level III D. senior trainee E. Level II or Level III 30. As per CP-189 (2006), the number of recommended NDT methods for certification are A. 13 B. 11 C. 8 D. 6 31. Of the following personnel, who can administer the near distance visual acuity examination? A. A NDT Level III. B. A physician, licensed nurse C. An ophthalmologist or optometrist D. A personnel approved by the employer’s Level III E. Any of the above 32. As per CP-189 (2006) the employer shall suspend an individual’s certification if A. the vision examination interval exceeds 1 year B. the individual has not performed the duties in the method(s) for which certified during any

consecutive 12 month period C. the individual’s performance is determined to be deficient in the required method or

technique for specific documented reasons D. A or B or C 33. As per CP-189 (2006) the employer shall revoke an individual’s certification when the individual has not performed the duties in the method(s) for which certified during any consecutive A. 12 month period B. 24 month period C. 18 month period D. 20 month period 34. For a person being qualified directly to Level II with no time at Level I, the recommended experience consists of: A. the time recommended for Level I B. the time recommended for Level II C. the sum of the times recommended for Level I and Level II. D. not less than 12 months for any method.

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35. As per CP-189 (2006), candidates who fail in Level I or II examination, must wait at least _____ days for reexamination without any additional training. A. 60 B. 90 C. 30 D. 120 36. In practical usage, the recommendation of SNT-TC-1A A. conform precisely to the requirements of most manufacturers who have NDT personnel. B. conform precisely to the requirements of most independent testing laboratories. C. usually require review and modification to satisfy the particulars needs of any user. D. conform precisely to then requirements of most aircraft manufactures. 37. Who should be responsible to assess whether of an individual should be qualified and certified to NDT jobs? A. ASNT or ISNT. B. The individual's employer. C. The government regulatory agency. D. The customer's auditor 38. As per CP-189 (2006), individual may be recertified by employer, if the individual has at least _____ months (hours) of documented experience using the applicable method over 5 year certification interval. A. 2 (350) B. 4 (700) C. 1 (175) D. none of the above 39. As per SNT-TC-1A, certification is A. the training, and experience required for personnel to perform the duties of a specific NDT job. B. written testimony of qualification. C. intended to be conferred by an organization independent from the employer. D. to be conferred on an any individual personnel by ASNT only. 40. As per SNT-TC-1A (2006), the minimum required work experience in interpretation of radiographs for NDT Level II Limited certification in Radiographic Film Interpretation is A. 11 hours B. 22 hours C. 33 hours D. 44 hours 41. As per SNT-TC-1A, an NDT Level I individual can perform for acceptance or rejection determinations according to written instructions, provided the NDT Level I should receive the necessary instruction and supervision from a certified NDT Level II or III individual. A. specific calibrations B. specific NDT method or technique C. specific evaluations D. all of the above

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42. As per SNT-TC-1A (2006), ASNT PdM Level III is available only in 2 methods. They are A. Infrared/thermal Testing, Laser Testing B. Visual Testing, Infrared/thermal Testing C. Infrared/thermal Testing, Vibration Analysis D. Laser Testing, Vibration Analysis 43. In some cases, the training hours recommended for NDT Level I are greater than for Level II, why? A. In preparing for qualification at Level I, the candidate should always receive more training

than for Level II, regardless of the NDT method. B. Candidates for Level II generally have more formal education than those for Level I. C. Some methods require more initial training at Level I because of differences in complexity

and manipulative skills. D. none of the above 44. The employer is responsible for certification of A. Level I personnel B. Level II. personnel C. Level III personnel D. all of the above 45. With regard to the training of NDT personnel, the employer: A. must conduct all of the training in his premises. B. may engage an outside service who must conduct the training on the employer's premises. C. should not conduct the training in nearby employer’s premises. D. may engage an outside service but is never the less responsible for the certification of his

NDT personnel. 46. According to SNT-TC-1A the recommended training hours in particular method are A. listed according to the candidate's education. B. the same regardless of the candidate's education. C. listed as a function of the candidate's experience. D. increased if the candidate is not working full - time in NDT. 47. According to SNT-TC-1A, an NDT Level III individual should be A. be establishing and approving techniques B. be capable of developing, qualifying, and approving procedures C. be interpreting codes, standards, specifications, and procedures; and designating the

particular NDT methods, techniques, and procedures to be used. D. have general familiarity with other appropriate NDT methods E. all of the above.

48. An NDT Level II individual should be A. thoroughly familiar with the scope and limitations of the methods for which qualified. B. able to organize and report the results of NDT inspections. C. qualified to set up and calibrate equipment and to interpret and evaluate results with respect

to applicable codes, standards, and specifications. D. all of the above.

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49. As per SNT-TC-1A (2006), if an individual is currently certified in an ET technique, minimum training hours to qualify in another ET technique at the same Level may be reduced up to, if so defined in employer’s written practice A. 30% B. 50% C. 40% D. no reduction 50. Weightage factor for grading for Level II examination is A. written 0.5, practical 0.5 B. written 0.6, practical 0.4 C. written 0.4, practical 0.6 D. arithmetic average or graded average of written and practical examinations. 51. According to SNT-TC-1A (2006), the minimum required work experience in the method for direct certification to Level II in PT method is ______ hours. A. 70 B. 140 C. 210 D. 440 52. According to SNT-TC-1A (2006), which of the following is not true for a Level III? A. Shall be capable of assisting in establishment of acceptance criteria. B. Should be familiar with other commonly used NDT methods. C. Must train and examine the Level I and II personnel in his/her organization. D. Shall be capable of establishing techniques and selection of test methods. 53. Which of the following is not within the scope of activities of a Level II individual, as recommended in SNT-TC-1A (2006)? A. Calibrate equipment B. Prepare written instructions C. Establish techniques D. Provide training E. all of the above. 54. For Level III Basic Examinations, it is recommended that Level II questions also be included. These questions should be: A. given only if the candidate is being examined in more than two methods B. based on Level II tasks for the particular Method Examination. C. selected at random from questions previously used on Level II examinations. D. Level II type questions based on other applicable NDT methods. 55. As per SNT-TC-1A (2006), the maximum recertification period for all Levels A. 10 y B. 5 y C. 7 y D. 12 y

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56. In accordance with SNT-TC-1A (2006), who is responsible for establishing a written practice for the control and administration of NDT personnel training, examination, and certification? A. The NDT Level III. B. The employer. C. The quality control department D. Training authority. 57. As per SNT-TC-1A (2006), who should be responsible to assess whether or not an individual should be qualified and certified to perform NDT? A. ASNT. B. The customer's auditor. C. A government regulatory agency. D. The individual's employer. E. Any of the above. 58. What is purpose of maintaining certification records and the written practice? A. For periodic approval by ASNT. B. To determine the effectiveness of outside services. C. To provide documentation for review by customer, clients, and regulatory agencies. D. To protect against product liability claims. E. All of the above. 59. For Level I and II examinations, the recommended minimum composite score is: A. 50%. B. 60%. C. 70%. D. 80%. 60. In accordance with SNT-TC-1A (2006), individuals certified to ASNT NDT Level III are considered to have met the: A. employer's written practice requirements. B. requirements of ANSI/ASNT CP-189. C. requirements of the ASME Boiler and Pressure Vessel Code. D. guidelines of SNT-TC-1A (Basic and Method Examinations). 61. As per SNT-TC-1A (2006), should personnel that operate ultrasonic digital thickness measurement equipment be qualified and certified? A. Yes, because SNT-TC-1A requires that all personnel performing NDT be qualified and certified. B. No, because SNT-TC-1A does not cover that specific operation. C. Only if required by industry standards, and specifications. D. Whether any NDT personnel should be qualified and certified depends solely upon the needs of the employer and the requirements of the employer's customers or clientele. 62. As per SNT-TC-1A (2006) for Level II practical examination, minimum number of sample recommended for each technique is A. 5 B. 10 C. 1 D. 6

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63 According to SNT-TC-1A (2006), high school education is recommended as a minimum requirement for: A. Level III. B. Level II. C. Level I. D. all of the above. E. none of the levels. 64 The employer can consider an individual to be qualified to Level III, but only if he/she: A. takes a comprehensive written examination. B. has in excess of five years experience comparable to a Level II. C. meets the requirements of the employer's written practice. D. has taken the ASNT NDT Level III Basic and at least one of the Method examinations. 65. For the written examinations, tables, graphs and charts may be used during ______ examinations. A. Level I. B. Level II. C. Level III. D. all of the above. 66. According to SNT-TC-1A (2006), whether a Level I independently perform, evaluate, and sign for results of nondestructive tests with supervision and guidance from a Level II or III? A. No. B. Yes, the Level I may perform the above functions provided that they are in accordance with written procedure of a Level III or designee. C. No, the Level I may not sign for test results. D. No, the Level I is not allowed to take any independent action. 67. Which of the following parts of Level I and Level II examinations should be written? A. The General B. The Specific. C. The Practical. D. all of the above. E. both A and B. 68. As recommended in SNT-TC-1A, physical examination requirements are intended to be: A. the same for all employers.. B. the same for all methods C. related to each employer's specific needs. D. none of the above. 69. According to SNT-TC-1A (2006), the recommended training course outline includes: A. technical principles of the method. B. procedures. C. interpretation of indications. D. all of the above. E. both A and C.

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70. According to CP-189 the recommended training hours in particular method are A. listed according to the candidate's education. B. the same regardless of the candidate's education. C. listed as a function of the candidate's experience. D. increased if the candidate is not working full - time in NDT. 71. Material properties as used in design are most frequently determined by A. theoretical analysis. B. material testing. C. the national bureau of standards. D. fracture mechanics testing. 72. The soldering filler material melts A. above 449 ºC (840 ºF) B. below 200 ºC (392 ºF C. below 449 ºC (840 ºF) D. above 600 ºC (1112 ºF) 73. A condition that is caused by unintentional rapid heating of the base metal or weld metal and subsequent rapid cooling of the molten material, which results in extremely high heat input and causes localized hardness and cracking, is called: A. undercut. B. arc strike. C. weld spatter. D. overlap. 74. Stringer is the defect associated with: A. forged product B. rolled bar. C. cast ingot. D. rolled plate. 75. Porosity, misrun and cold shuts are examples of defects encountered in which of the following processes? A. Welding. B. Forging C. Grinding. D. Casting. 76. Which of the following is true? A. Components with discontinuities are not acceptable. B. Defects that affect the product usefulness are called discontinuities. C. All discontinuities that make the products unfit for service are called defects. D. All discontinuities are defects. 77. Cracking under the combined action of corrosion and static tensile stress is referred to as: A. fatigue cracking. B. creep cracking. C. stress corrosion cracking. D. corrosion fatigue cracking.

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78. Change the crystal structure of metals with temperature is known as: A. allotropic transformation. B. phase transformation. C. spheroidal decomposition. D. eutectic transformation. 79. Chromium is a: A. ferrite stabilizer. B. austenitic stabilizer. C. martensite stabilizer. D. none of the above. 80. Full annealing is usually carried out to: A. decrease hardness. B. increase ductility. C. relive stress. D: both A and B above. E. all of the above. 81. Tempering of steels after quenching usually results into: A. reduction in hardness value. B. improved toughness. C. lower strength. D. all of the above. 82. To prevent formation of hot crack in 304 grade austenitic stainless steels welds, one may recommend: A. increasing in preheat temperature. B. slow cooling after welding in asbestos cover. C. welding consumables with minimum 5% ferrite. D. welding consumables with no ferrite. 83. Addition of sulphur in steel: A. improves the notch toughness characteristics at sub-zero temperature. B. improves the crack resistance properties in steel. C. increase the risk of hot cracking suspectability. D. all of the above. 84. Carbon equivalent of steel is primarily worked out to know the: A. consumption of the electrode for the steel material. B. weldability of steel plates to workout the suitable welding procedure prior to welding. C. distortion problem in welded joints. D. none of the above. 85. The process in which moulds are made by dipping wax patterns in ceramic slurries and then firing them is popularly known as: A. centrifugal casting. B. shell moulding. C. investment casting D. gravity die casting.

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86. Hot rolling of steel is carried out at about: A. 1250 ºC. B: 800 ºC. C. 500 ºC. D. room temperatures. 87. Notched bar testing is carried out to find: A. fatigue strength B. creep strength. C. shear strength. D. effect of shock loading. E. both A and C. 88. Which of the following will be more safe approach in design? A. Factor of safety should be 1. B. Factor of safety 4 on ultimate tensile strength. C. Factor of safety 4 on elastic limit. D. Any of the above depending the type of material. 89. Cheapest alloying element for increasing strength and hardness of steel is: A. manganese. B. carbon. C. nickel D. copper 90. To avoid quench cracks during heat treatment of steel, one should use: A. annealing. B. normalizing C. precipitation hardening. D. martempering. 91. Creep of the metal refers to A. plastic deformation B. elastic deformation C. elastic plus plastic deformation. D. none of the above 92. The terms "precipitation hardening" and "solution heat treatment” are often used interchangeably with the term A. age hardening B. recrystallization C. annealing D. work hardening 93. Annealing is usually performed to: A. relieve stress. B. increase ductility C. decrease hardness D. all of the above

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94. A fatigue failure can often be prevented by utilizing NDT to: A. verify the cyclic loading on a component part. B. detect surface discontinuities that could be stress risers. C. determine percent elongation of a material before it is placed in service. D. measure the endurance limit of a part undergoing cyclic stresses. 95. The reduction of iron ore by mixing with coke, limestone, and oxygen for combustion of the coke is accomplished in: A. a bessemer converter. B. a blast furnace. C. an open-hearth furnace. D. a basic oxygen furnace. 96. Highest quality of steel is produced in: A an electric furnace. B. an open-hearth furnace. C. a bessermer furnace D. a basic oxygen furnace. 97. Which of the following may be performed to help prevent corrosion? A. Electroplating. B. Cathodic protection. C. Anodizing. D. All of the above. 98. A particular material has an Ultimate Tensile Strength (UTS) of 45000 psi and an yield strength of 30000 psi. An allowable design stress is l5000 psi. What is the factor of safety based on UTS? A. 1.5 B. l5 C. 3.0 D. None of the above 99. A steel with 28 points of carbon contains A. 2.8% carbon

B. 0.028% carbon. C. 0.28% carbon D. none of the above 100. Another name for investment casting is A. lost wax process B. centrifugal casting C. permanent mould casting D. none of the above 101. Which of the following is a surface hardening heat treatment process that does not

A. Carburising. B. Flame hardening. C. Cyaniding. D. Nitriding.

change surface chemical composition?

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102. Percentage of carbon is found in steel is A. between 3 and 5%. B. between 5 and 10%. C. less than 1%. D. less than 2%. 103. Identify the more severe flaw: A. planar flaw at the surface of a component. B. volumetric surface flaw. C. planar interior flaw. D. volumetric interior flaw. 104. Identify the strain hardening mechanism which also increases flaw tolerance of the material: A. solid solution hardening. B. strain hardening. C. martensite strengthening. D. grain refinement. 105. Identify the most flaw tolerant crystal structure: A. BCC. B. BCT. C. HCP. D. FCC. 106. 'Weld decay' of stainless steel is associated with: A. pitting corrosion. B. crevice corrosion. C. intergranular corrosion. D. uniform corrosion. 107. Which of the following is a refractory material? A. Tantalum B. Molybdenum C. Tungsten D. All of the above. 108. Composites may be made up of which of the following material combinations? A. Combinations of different metals B. Combinations of different metals and non metals C. Combinations of different non metals D. All of the above 109. Austenitic stainless steel is: A. low alloy steel. B. high alloy steel. C. non-magnetic. D. both B and C

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110. Crystal structure, generally exhibiting highest ductility and toughness is: A. BCC. B. BCT. C. FCC. D. HCP. 111. Hardness measured with a maximum test load ______ is called microhardness. A. 100 g B. 1000 g. C. 10000 g. D. none of the above. 112. Spheroidising is carried out A. to reduce the grain size B. for phase change C. for increasing ductility D. for precipitation 113. Which of the following statements best differentiates between a defect and a discontinuity? A. All discontinuities are defects B. All discontinuities will lead to failures if undetected C. Discontinuities can propagate and become defects D. All of the above 114. Which of the following is true relative to the comparison of the properties of aluminum-based alloys and iron based alloys? A. Iron has lower melting point than aluminum. B. Iron can exist in several different crystalline structures, and its properties can be controlled by

heat treatment. C Iron is preferred in load carrying designs, but it should not be used for any deformation type

of manufacturing process D. All of the above. 115. Many metals exhibit an increase in strength caused by plastic flow beyond the elastic limit. This effect is called: A. age hardening. B. work hardening. C. recrystallization. D. plastic deformation. 116. Which of the following statement is true concerning deformation process? A. Hot working usually follows cold working. B. Hot working must be followed by heat treatment. C. Hot worked must be cold worked before they can used. D. Cold working usually follows hot working. E. Cold working renders brittle material more ductile.

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117 Chaplets are the devices used to: A. chill the specific area. B. support and position cores during filling of cost. C. reinforce the casting on solidification. D. to prevent shrinkage of particular locations. 118. Normalising heat treatment of carbon steel gives the ______ microstructure. A. coarse pearlite B. fine pearlite C. martensite D. fine ferrite 119. The welding process using non consumable electrode with the arc maintained in an atmosphere of inert gas is A. submerged arc welding (SAW) B. electroslag welding C. gas metal arc welding (GMAW) D. gas tungsten arc welding (GTAW) 120. Shrinkage cavity existing in ingot is removed by A. subsequent working B. almost non-existent with modern steel making process C. by cropping about one third from the top D. none of the above 121. The welding process capable of very high intensity and rate of heat transfer is A. brazing B. diffusion welding C. soldering D. plasma arc welding 122. The Barkhausen noise or micromagnetic testing instruments measure stress units in A. N/ mm2 B. ksi C. relative magnetoelastic parameter (MP). D. all of the above 123. Heat treatment affects A. conductivity in ferromagnetic parts and permeability in nonferromagnetic parts B. conductivity in nonferromagnetic parts and permeability in ferromagnetic parts C. both conductivity and permeability in nonferromagnetic and ferromagnetic parts D. none of the above 124. The maximum tonnage of steel is produced by ______ process. A. electric arc B. crucible C. high frequency D. basic oxygen

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125. The tensile stress in a bar of 15 in. long and 3 in. wide and 2 in. thick subjected to a tensile load, acting along the length, of 30000 pounds will be equal to A. 1500 psi B. 5000 psi C. 2000 psi D. 10000 psi 126. When steel has been quench-hardened and is reheated to some point below the lower transformation temperature for the purpose, of reducing brittleness, this is called: A. austenitization. B. thermal slip deformation. C. tempering. D. heat treatment 127. Brass is alloy of: A. tin and copper. B. zinc and copper. C. copper and iron. D. nickel and boron. 128. Monel is: A. iron alloy. B. nickel alloy. C. molybdenum alloys D. aluminum alloys 129. An undesirable by-product of steel-making processes is: A. coke. B. slag. C. low carbon steel. D. low alloy steel 130. For steels hot working is performed at temperatures of A. 500 − 750 ºC B. 750 − 950 ºC C. 950 − 1300 ºC D. 1300 − 1500 ºC 131. The letters N/C in machine work stand for A. Numerical control B. Number cycle C. Numerical cutting D. Number counting 132. One type of forging operation uses A. rolling B. casting C. open dies D. extrusion

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133. Which of the following is not a form of case hardening? A. Spheroidising B. Carburing C. Flame hardening D. Nitriding 134. Pipe and tube may be manufactured using which technique? A. Extruding B. Rolling C. Resistance welding D. All of the above 135. Impact forging is more commonly known as A. open die forging B. drop forging C. closed die D. rotary swaging 136. Thermoplastic A. can be melted down and re-used without loss of properties B. can be softened by heat C. will char when heated D. both A and B 137. Which of the following is not a fabrication method of metals? A. Casting B. Forging C. Heat treatment D. Welding 138. Which of the following casting processes is best used for small intricate casting up to 2 kg requiring close tolerances? A. Centrifugal casting B. Investment casting C. Continuous casting D. Permanent mold casting 139. Which of the following metals has very little ductility? A. Copper B. Steel C. Iron D. Aluminum 140. Of these methods listed below which will eliminate the need for an ingot? A. Hot rolling B. Casting C. Extrusion D. None of the above

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141. Directional solidification in castings is helped by the use of A. cores B. feederheaders C. chills D. chaplets 142. In the machining process metal is removed in the form of A. swarf B. chips C. fillings D. turnings 143. Green sand is a mixture of A. sand B. clay C. water D. all of the above E. sand and water 144. During the bending process what stresses are produced within the material? A. Compressive B. Shear C. Tensile D. All of the above E. Both A and C 145. Which of the metals listed below has the highest strength to weight ratio? A. Beryllium B. Titanium C. Aluminium D. Zinc 146. The term used in powder metallurgy for the bonding of the solid particles is A. pressing B. blending C. sintering D. mixing 147. One of the major drawbacks of magnesium alloys is A. poor corrosion resistance B. notch sensitivity C. high density D. more expensive than using beryllium which exhibits similar properties 148. When applying the term annealed to pure aluminum it is interpreted to mean A. work hardening B. re-crystalisation C. stress releasing D. normalising

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149. A typical application of powder metallurgy parts is A. cutting tools B. castings for human implants C. extrusion of thin sections D. metal fabrication of minute welds 150. Which of the following non-ferrous metals is almost exclusively die-cast? A. Aluminium B. Copper C. Magnesium D. Zinc 151. Which of the following has an essentially rectangular cross-section? A. Bar B. Bloom C. Slab D. Billet 152. Of the following, which is considered the most important structural non-ferrous metal? A. Copper B. Zinc C. Tin D. Aluminium 153. Which extrusion process uses less pressure due to lower build ups of friction container and billet? A. Direct hot working B. Indirect cold working C. Indirect hot working D. Direct cold working 154. Powder metallurgy is used to shape produce refractory metals. Which of the following is classed as a refractory material? A. Inconel B. Magnesium C. Tungsten D. Beryllium 155. Splashed metal entrapped by molten metal that does not refuse is called A. hot tear B. chill C. inclusion D. cold shut 156. Which of the following is classified as a non-ferrous light alloy? A. Beryllium base B. Zinc base C. Tin base D. Copper base

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157. The bottom part of the flask is known as the A. cope B. bottom board C. drag D. runner 158. In the casting process what name is given to the part which is used to represent the finished item? A. The mould B. The spruce C. The pattern D. The shell 159. Which of the following is classed as a manufacturing process? A. Casting B. Welding C. Machining D. Rolling E. All of the above 160. Metal is fed into the casting cavity through a ______ system. A. flow system B. gating system C. pouring system D. riser system 161. The casting process which produces bar is known as: A. centrifugal casting B. last wax process C. continuous casting D. plaster mold casting 162. The upper half of a flask is called A. a drag B. a cope C. a draft D. a mould 163. Small metal supports which become part of the casting during pouring are called A. chills B. chaplets C. cores D. risers 164. The casting process which gives improved material density towards the outside of the mold is A. centrifugal casting B. investment casting C. continuous casting D. permanent mold casting

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165. The crystal structure of a casting adjacent to the mould wall will be A. fine equiaxed grains B. core equiaxed grains C. columnar grains D. dendritic 166. In modern manufacturing industries which of the following factors are considered? A. Markets B. Product life C. Design D. Manufacturing process E. All of the above 167. What material is usually used in injection molding? A. Thermosetting plastic B. Thermoplastic C. Ceramics D. Powder metals 168. Cobalt is used as an alloying constituent in A. bearing alloys B. solders C. permanent magnets D. dental alloys 169. Which of the following have approximately square cross sections? A. Slab B. Bloom C. Billet D. All of the above E. both B and C 170. Which of the following is a hole making operation? A. Splitting B. Parting C. Blanking D. Notching 171. Products used in load carrying applications require more careful testing because: A. failure can cause loss of life B. failure can cause loss of use of the product C. failure can be expensive D. failure can cause danger to other structures E. all of the above 172. Loads which are most likely to cause failure are A. single direction B. duo directional C. multi directional D. phase orientated

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173. The general term for a local variation in material continuity is called A. a discontinuity B. a defect C. an indication D. a crack 174. Where an unacceptable condition occurs in a material, due to local variations in material continuity the term given specifically to this is A. a discontinuity B. a flaw C. a defect D. any of the above 175. Which of the following could be considered a discontinuity? A. Crack B. Change of section C. Drilled hole D. All of the above 176. The study and description of a material property related to analytical studies and testing attempts to quantify the toughness of a material is known as A. fracture mechanics B. acceptance standards C. defect reliability D. defect analysis 177. A flaw which is deemed to be unacceptable standards is called A. a discontinuity B. a defect C. an indication D. a blemish 178. Which of the following is not considered a mode of failure? A. Fracture B. Plastic deformation C. Fatigue D. Elastic deformation 179. Brittle fracture is most likely to occur A. at high temperatures B. at low temperatures C. under cyclic loading D. in a corrosive environment 180. NDT is generally not carried out on cast irons because A. cast iron is inherently free from major defects B. due to the high carbon content cast iron can withstand high tensile stresses C. it is generally used in applications where the loads are principally comprehensive D. the low cost of cast iron cannot justify the high cost of NDT

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181. ________ is composed of cavities or pores that form when the weld metal solidifies. A. Porosity B. Slag C. Cracks D. All of the above 182. One or more steps of processing of products would cause change in _______ of products. A. shape B. properties C. chemical composition D. both A and B E. all of the above 183. Changing a material's shape can be accomplished in which of the following states? A. Solid B. Liquid C. Plastic D. Solid and Liquid E. All of the above 184. Which of the following is an example of reshaping? A. Casting B. Forging C. Grinding D. All of the above 185. The process of solidification during casting can be likened to that of the A. forging process B. rolling process C. welding process D. extrusion process 186. Reshaping of a material while in a plastic or semi-solid form is called A. casting B. rolling C. extrusion D. all of the above E. both B and C 187. Which of the following could be referred to as an engineering material? A. Plastic B. Concrete C. Glass D. All of the above 188. Which of the following properties of a material can be used to predict the deflection of a certain size beam under known loads? A. Tensile strength B. Elastic limit C. Young’s modules D. Ductility

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189. Which of the following must be considered when choosing an engineering material for a particular application? A. Cost B. Loading C. Mechanical properties D. Inspection costs E. Any of the above 190. Which of the following could affect the properties of an engineering material? A. Composition B. Heat treated condition C. Crystal structure D. All of the above E. both A and B 191. Which of the following is classed as a chemical property? A. Electrical conductivity B. Thermal conductivity C. Corrosion resistance D. Machine resistance 192. Which of the following is classed as a physical property? A. Density B. Conductivity C. Melting point D. All of the above 193. A test designed to determine a materials castability would be classified as looking for a A. mechanical property B. physical property C. processing property D. chemical property 194. Internal forces acting upon imaginary planes cutting the body being loaded are A. stresses B. pressures C. strain D. fatigues 195. A stress caused by forces at an angle to the plane is known as a A. comprehensive stress B. tensile stress C. normal stress D. shear stress 196. Which of the following may be used as a cutting tool material? A. Diamonds B. Cast iron C. Cemented carbides D. both A and C

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197. If a material is loaded until its elastic limit is exceeded, what condition will occur? A. The material may fracture B. The material may be work hardened C. The material will show no harmful effects D. both A and B 198. The ultimate strength of material is A. lower than the breaking strength for ductile materials B. lower than the rupture strength for ductile materials C. the same as the breaking strength for brittle materials D. none of the above 199. The modulus of elasticity is also known as A. stress's modulus B. Young's modulus C. strain's modulus D. resilience 200. Which of the following materials exhibits better compressive strength than tensile strength? A. Cast iron B. Concrete C. Wood D. All of the above E. Both B and C 201. When a metal is very brittle which test is used to replace the tensile test? A. The shear test B. The transverse rupture test C. The compression test D. The endurance test 202. Fatigue failure may initiate from A. an area of corrosion B. a surface flaw C. a surface notch D. all of the above 203. Which of the following is a Notched Bar test? A. Tensile impact test B. Charphy test C. Izod test D. both B and C E. All of the above 204. Hardness tests can be used to determine material A. hardness B. composition C. heat treated condition D. all of the above

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205. The superficial Rockwell test is carried out on materials that A. only allow very small surface blemishes B. are very ductile C. have very large surface areas D. all of the above 206. Calculate the factor of safety if a material has a working stress of 15000 lbs per square inch and an Ultimate Tensile Stress (UTS) of 60000 lbs per square inch. A. 2 B. 4 C. 6 D. 8 207. In which of the following forms are temperature indicatiing materials available? A. Pellets B. Crayon stick C. Organic liquids D. All of the above 208. To what angle should a bend test be normally bent? A. 180º B. 150º C. 90º D. 45º 209. Which of the following is a hardness test? A. Rockwell B. Creep C. Charpy D. Izod 210. Stresses that act along or parallel to a plane are known as A. shear stresses B. tensile stresses C. compressive stresses D. all of the above 211. Electrons in an atom can exist A. in exact energy levels B. in exact energy shells C. at random throughout the atom D. both A and B E. all of the above 212. A material that has high hardness and good electrical and thermal connectivity is known as A. a plastic material B. a ceramic material C. a metallic material D. a liquid material

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213. What term is used to define the change of state directly from solid to gas? A. Crystallization B. Vaporisation C. Sublimation D. None of the above 214. Which of the following is a crystal lattice that has nine atoms, eight at each corner and one centrally between them? A. Hexagonal close packing B. Body centred cubic C. Face centred cubic D. Body centred tetragonal 215. Which of the following materials is body centred cubic at room temperature? A. Copper B. Gold C. Iron D. Nickel 216. A property of a fine grain material is that it will A. machine more easily than coarse grain B. case harden more easily than coarse grain C. have higher strength than coarse grain D. all the above 217. Permanent deformation can occur in which of the following ways? A. Static deformation B. Twinning deformation C. Elastic deformation D. All of the above 218. Work done to produce plastic deformation below a materials re-crystallisation temperature is known as A. recovery work B. cold work C. twinning D. plasticity work 219. Solution heat treatment requires which of the following? A. To dissolve maximum amount of equilibrium precipitant in the solid solution B. Very high temperatures C. Diffusion times in excess of 2 days D. All of the above 220. Precipitation hardening is most commonly carried out on which of the following materials? A. Carbon steel B. Lead C. Copper D. Aluminium

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221. Allotropic changes occur in the A. liquid state B. solid state C. gaseous state D. both A and B 222. Which of the following is an allotropic material? A. Iron B. Copper C. Lead D. Aluminium 223. A heat treatment process that requires a material to be heated above its critical temperature for some period of time for carbon to unite in solid solution with iron in the gamma or F.C.C. lattice is known as A. spherodizing B. annealing C. austentitization D. normalising 224. A process used to decrease hardness, increase ductility and occasionally improve machinability of high carbon steels is called A. annealing B. austenitization C. spheroidizing D. stress relieving 225. A treatment that is used to give minimum hardness and maximum ductility of steel is A. annealing B. austenitization C. spheroidizing D. normalising 226. Localised corrosion causing deep extend holes is known as A. erosion B. pitting C. worm holes D. none of the above 227. Which of the following is classified as permanent deformation? A. Twinning B. Rotational deformation C. Slip D. Both A and B E. All of the above 228. Annealing will achieve which of the following properties? A. Increase ductility and decrease hardness B. Increase ductility and increase hardness C. Decrease ductility and increase hardness D. Decrease ductility and decrease hardness

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229. Of the following metals which is most susceptible to corrosion by sea water? A. Gold B. Copper C. Zinc D. Lead 230. During the hardening of steel which of the following quenching media will produce the severest quench? A. Water B. Brine C. Oil D. Air 231. Which is the most common metallic element found on earth? A. Iron B. Titanium C. Aluminium D. Magnesium 232. The product of a blast furnace is known as A. iron B. steel C. pig iron D. stainless steel 233. What is the approximate carbon content of pig iron? A. 1 ̶ 2% B. 2 ̶ 3% C. 3 ̶ 4% D. 4 ̶ 5% 234. When the carbon content of iron is reduced below 2% it is called A. steel B. gray iron C. white iron D. ductile iron 235. A Bessemer converter is A. a method of producing cast iron B. a method of producing pig iron C. a method of producing wrought iron D. a method of producing steel 236. Practically all steel is made with the use of A. hydrogen B. oxygen C. nitrogen D. helium

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237. The carbon content of low carbon steel is A. 6 ̶ 25 points of carbon B. 25 ̶ 50 points of carbon C. 0.06% ̶ 0.25% of carbon D. none of the above E. A or C of the above 238. The carbon content of high carbon steel is A. 6 ̶ 25 points of carbon B. 25 ̶ 50 points of carbon C. 50 ̶ 160 points of carbon D. over 160 points of carbon 239. An alloy steel is a steel containing one or more A. elements B. atoms C. mixtures D. components 240. What do the letters AISI? A. American Institute of Steel Industries B. American Iron and Steel Industries C. American Industries of Steel Institutes D. American Iron and Steel Institute 241. Which of the following is a classification of stainless steel? A. Austenitic B. Ferritic C. Martensitic D. All of the above E. Both A and B 242. Austenitic stainless steel most typically contain A. 18% Chromium and 8% Nickel B. 15% Chromium and 10% Nickel C. 10% Chromium and 15% Nickel D. 8% Chromium and 30% Nickel 243. Which of the following metals can be magnetized? A. Martensitic stainless B. Ferritic stainless C. Austenitic stainless D. Both A and B E. None of the above 244. Which of the following may be used as an alloying element of steel? A. Copper B. Nickel C. Aluminium. D. Zinc. E. All of the above

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245. Steel has a carbon content of less than A. 4% B. 3% C. 2% D. 1% 246. Which is the main alloying element of austenitic stainless steels? A. Nickel B. Manganese C. Molybdenum D. Chromium 247. Which of the following furnaces is not used to produce steel? A. Blast furnace B. Bessemer converter C. Basic oxygen furnace D. Open hearth furnace 248. Tool and die steels are classed as A. low carbon steels B. medium carbon steels C. high carbon steels D. alloy steels 249. Which of the following alloying additions are used to produce tool and die steels? A. Nickel B. Chromium C. Manganese D. All of the above E. Both B and C 250. Shrinkage occurring in the casting process can be divided into how many stages? A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 251. Which of the following is classified as a non-ferrous light alloy? A. Beryllium base B. Zinc base C. Tin base D. Copper base 252. Of the following, which is considered the most important structural non-ferrous metal? A. Copper B. Zinc C. Tin D. Aluminium

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253. Aluminium cannot be used in most areas where vibrations combine with high stress. There are special care has to be taken to remove all stress raisers. Which below is considered a stress raiser? A. A notch B. A scratch C. A sudden change of section D. A notch and a scratch E. All of the above 254. When applying the term annealed to pure aluminium it is interpreted to mean A. work hardening B. re-crystallization C. stress releasing D. normalising 255. Which NDT method can be used to give general sorting of aluminium alloys? A. UT B. MT C. RT D. ET 256. Which metal is most used in electrical work, wiring, etc? A. Copper B. Brass C. Aluminium D. Steel 257. It is generally understood that the principal alloying elements of brass are A. copper and tin B. copper and zinc C. bronze and tin D. tin and zinc 258. What materials are required for reinforced plastic molding? A. Filler B. Resin C. Wood Shavings D. All of the above E. both A and B 259. Wrought zinc and its alloys have very little NDT inspection on them, when a material is plated with zinc it is known as A. anodizing B. wrapping C. galvanising D. flashing 260. Which two NDT methods are usually used to inspect Magnesium components? A. UT and MT B. RT and MT C. RT and PT D. UT and PT

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261. Thermosetting plastics are A. rigid B. deteriorated by heat C. charred by heat D. all of the above 262. Which of the following metals is classed as a light metal? A. Beryllium B. Zinc C. Tin D. All of the above 263. Which of the metals listed below has the highest strength to weight ratio? A. Beryllium B. Titanium C. Aluminium D. Zinc 264. During mill rolling major portion of stress is A. compressive B. tensile C. normal D. shear 265. Which of the following non-ferrous metals is almost exclusively die-cast? A. Aluminium B. Copper C. Magnesium D. Zinc 266. Cobalt is used as an alloying constituent in A. bearing alloys B. solders C. permanent magnets D. dental alloys 267. Manufacturing is a term used generally to describe the ______ of a bulk material. A. designing B. production C. shape changing D. casting 268. Which of the following is classed as a manufacturing process? A. Casting B. Welding C. Machining D. Rolling E. All of the above

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269. Which of the following manufacturing processes is the most economical method of producing complex shapes? A. Casting B. Forging C. Rolling D. Welding 270. In modern manufacturing industries which of the following factors are considered? A. Markets B. Product life C. Design D. Manufacturing process E. All of the above 271. Which of the following is required when making a sand casting? A. A mold B. A pattern C. A flask D. All of the above 272. Shrinkage within a casting can occur in which of the following states? A. Liquid state B. Solidification C. Solid state D. All of the above 273. Pattern makers shrinkage occurs in A. liquid state of casting B. solidification state of casting C. solid state of casting D. all of the above 274. When a change of wall thickness is required in a casting what would give the best design results? A. Sudden section change B. Small radii C. Large radii D. All of the above 275. Metal is fed into the casting cavity through a _______ system. A. flow system B. gating system C. pouring system D. riser system 276. Wells outside the normal finished casting are there to allow for A. gas evolution B. sand erosion C. shrinkage D. airlocks

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277. Directional solidification in castings is helped by the use of A. cores B. feeder headers C. chills D. chaplets 278. Where holes or cavities are required in the finished casting a _____ is used in the molding stage. A. chill B. ingate C. riser D. core 279. Green sand is a mixture of sand and A. clay B. silicon C. water D. all of the above E. both A and C 280. The upper half of a flask is called A. a drag B. a cope C. a draft D. a mould 281. Small metal supports which become part of the casting during pouring are called A. chills B. chaplets C. cores D. risers 282. Which of the following casting processes is best used for small intricate casting up to 2kg requiring close tolerances? A. Centrifugal casting B. Investment casting C. Continuous casting D. Permanent mold casting 283. The casting process which gives improved material density towards the outside of the mold is A. centrifugal casting B. investment casting C. continuous casting D. permanent mold casting 284. The casting process which produces bar is known as A. centrifugal casting B. last wax process C. continuous casting D. plaster mold casting

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285. Splashed metal entrapped by molten metal that does not re-fuse is called A. hot tear B. chill C. inclusion D. cold shut 286. The bottom part of the flask is known as the A. cope B. bottom board C. drag D. runner 287. Which of the following is used to give preferential solidification of castings? A. Chills B. Chaplets C. Cores D. None of the above 288. In the casting process what name is given to the part which is used to represent the finished item? A. The mould B. The spruce C. The pattern D. The shell 289. The crystal structure of a casting adjacent to the mould wall will be A. fine equiaxed grains B. core equiaxed grains C. columnar grains D. dendritic 290. Composites may be made up of which of the following material combinations? A. Combinations of different metals B. Combinations of different metals and non metals C. Combinations of different non metals D. All of the above 291. Which of the following is required in theory for two perfectly matched faces? A. Atomic cleanliness B. Atomic closeness C. Atomic Pressure D. All the above E. Both A and C 292. Fusion bonding creates a metallurgical effect similar to A. rolling B. forging C. casting D. sintering

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293. The bonding process giving very high efficiency is A. fusion bonding B. pressure bonding C. flow bonding D. atomic bonding 294. A bonding process where only very small amounts of the base metal is used is called A. fusion bonding B. pressure bonding C. flow bonding D. cold bonding 295. Flow bonding is a particular type of bond, which listed below would be classed as a flow bond? A. Fusion welding B. Braze welding C. Metal arc welding D. None of the above 296. Which of these defects can be found in fusion welds? A. Porosity B. Slag C. Cracks D. All of the above 297. That portion of the base metal affected by the welding process is known as A. weld zone B. heat input zone C. weld affect zone D. heat affected zone 298. Multiple cooling rates can have adverse affects on weld areas. What can be done to offset this problem? A. Use different alloy rods to control temperature B. Using a pre-heat C. Use different alloy rods to control temperature and using a pre-heat D. Nothing can be done to offset the problem 299. Angular distortion may occur in a weld when A. restraints are used B. multipass welds are used C. single pass welds are used D. both B and C 300. Longitudinal stresses in a weld are at a maximum A. along the weld centre line B. on the weld fusion face C. at the heat affected zone D. longitudinal stresses are uniform across the weld

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301. What is required to form a fusion bond? A. Melting of parent metals B. A filler rod C. Pressure D. All of the above 302. Flow bonding is a term used in the welding process which of the following would be classed as flow bonding? A. Brazing B. plasma arc welding C. Soldering D. Both A and C 303. To join two metals which of the following is essential? A. Atomic closeness B. Atomic cleanliness C. Melting D. All the above E. Both A and B 304. In order to produce a fully homogenous material after welding which of the following is required? A. Preheat B. Post heat treatment C. Low heat input welding D. Fillers of different composition 305. In electric arc welding, a metal rod is one electrode, the other is A. the work material B. the rod flux C. the earth D. all the above 306. Stud welding is used primarily to A. bond two dissimilar metals B. attach threaded fasteners to plates C. rivot plates together D. fuse bar ends together 307. A welding electrode coatings provides A. a shield for the arc against the atmosphere B. added heat input C. additional stresses to the weld D. all of the above 308. Where gas is used as a shield for the welding process the gas is commonly? A. Argon B. Helium C. Hydrogen D. All of the above E. Both A and B

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309. When using gas metal arc welding what range of filler wire diameter is available? A. 0.1 ̶ 0.5 mm B. 0.5 ̶ 3 mm C. 0.1 ̶ 30 mm D. 0.5 ̶ 10 mm 310. Automatic welding under a flux is more commonly known as A. TIG welding B. manual metal arc welding C. Submerged Arc Welding (SAW) D. stick welding 311. Spot welding is commonly used in which of the following applications? A. Car manufacturing B. Seam welding C. Ship building D. Fabrication yards 312. Which welding process takes place in a vacuum? A. Plasma arc welding B. Electron beam welding C. Friction welding D. Explosion welding 313. Which welding process is generally used to weld the ends of heavy round bars or tubes? A. Ultrasonic welding B. Electroslag welding C. Plasma arc welding D. Friction welding 314. Explosion welding is generally used to join A. two or more metals of different composition B. butt welds C. very thick titanium sheeting D. plastics 315. Which of the following is classed as a structural defect? A. Undercut B. Slag C. Incomplete fusion D. Slag and incomplete fusion E. All of the above 316. Which of the following defects occur in the base metal? A. Lamination B. Slag inclusion C. Lack of fusion D. Lack of penetration

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317. Welds without preheat are said to have A. very low thermal gradients B. low thermal gradients C. medium thermal gradients D. high thermal gradients 318. Why is it advisable not to do inspection of a weld until complete cooling of weld after welding has finished? A. Because the welds will be too hot to test B. Due to the possibility of distortion C. Due to the possibility of post weld cracking D. All of the above 319. What is the approximate arc column temperature in an electric arc weld? A. 6000 ºC B. 5000 ºC C. 4000 ºC D. 3000 ºC 320. Which of the following is classified as an inert gas? A. Hydrogen B. Helium C. Oxygen D. All of the above E. Both A and B 321. Which weld process has a non-consumable electrode? A. Manual metal arc B. Metal inert gas C. Tungsten inert gas D. Manual metal arc and metal inert gas 322. The weld symbol µ is used to symbolise a A. fillet weld B. U-Groove C. bevel groove D. none of the above 323. ASTM grain size number 4 corresponds to: A. 4 grains in 1 sq. inch at 100X. B. 64 grains in 1 sq. inch at 100X. C. 128 grains in 1 sq. inch at 100X. D. 8 grains in 1 sq. inch at 100X. 324. Which of the following processes could be performed using oxyacetylene equipment? A. Flame cutting B. Brazing C. Soldering D. All of the above E. Both B and C

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325. How might a weld arc be shielded from oxidation? A. Flux powders B. Welding rod coatings C. Inert gases D. All of the above 326. The ease with which a solid union may be made between two parts by welding is known as A. weldability B. joining C. buttering D. soldering 327. A typical temperature range to stress relieve ferrite steel is A. 100-150 ºC B. 250-300 ºC C. 600-650 ºC D. 900-950 ºC 328. Which of the following metals has very little ductility? A. Copper B. Steel C. Iron D. Aluminium 329. Which materials can best be anodised? A. Steel B. Copper C. Aluminium D. Brass 330. Which of the following is not a form of case hardening? A. Spheroidising B. Carburing C. Flame hardening D. Nitriding 331. Which of the following is a common inclusion in welding? A. Metal oxide B. Slag C. Non-metallic solid D. All of the above 332. Grain refinement for metals existing in one crystalline form can be accomplished by A. hot working B. cold working C. recrystallisation D. all the above E. both A and C

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333. How generally is a decarburised layer removed? A. Heat treatment B. Surface removal C. Stress relief D. Annealing E. All of the above 334. Improved properties can be achieved by A. cold rolling B. hot rolling C. extrusion D. all of the above 335. Most materials used in mill work start out as A. cast ingots B. slabs C. billets D. blooms 336. Which listed below have approximately square cross sections? A. Slab B. Bloom C. Billet D. All of the above E. Both B and C 337. One type of forging operation uses A. rolling B. casting C. open dies D. extrusion 338. The principal NDT method to locate internal discontinuities in forgings is A. UT B. RT C. ET D. MT 339. In sintering the solid particles are bonded by application of A. pressure B. heat C. both A and B D. either A or B E. All of the above 340. A typical application of powder metallurgy parts is A. cutting tools B. castings for human implants C. extrusion of thin sections D. metal fabrication of minute welds

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341. Which of the following has an essentially rectangular cross-section? A. Bar B. Bloom C. Slab D. Billet 342. Which of the following may be considered as a flat product of the steel mill? A. Sheet B. Plate C. Strip D. both A and B E. All of the above 343. Powder metallurgy is used to shape produce refractory metals. Which of the following is classed as a refractory material? A. Inconel B. Magnesium C. Tungsten D. Beryllium 344. In explosive forming A. gun powder is used B. high explosive is used C. slow burning propellants are used D. high explosive and slow burning propellants are used 345. In the machining process metal is removed in the form of A. swarf B. chips C. fillings D. turnings 346. Which of the following may be used as a cutting tool material? A. Diamonds B. Cast iron C. Cemented carbides D. Both A and B 347. The letters EDM stands for A. Electronic digital meter B. Electro discharge motor C. Electrical discharge machinery D. Electro dispensing machine 348. Case hardening is accomplished by A. carburizing B. heat treating C. flame hardening D. both A and C

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349. Which of the following is a measuring device? A. Micrometer B. Vernier C. Steel rule D. All of the above 350. Which is the main alloying element of austenitic stainless steels? A. Nickel B. Manganese C. Chromium D. Molybdenum 351. A non-destructive test is usually classified as a A. indirect test B. destructive test C. direct test D. both A and B 352. When using basic symbols for NDT what letters are used to denote liquid penetrant testing? A. LPT B. FPT C. PT D. RPT 353. Written instructions that guide a company or individual to a desired end result, and are acceptable to industry, are the basis of A. standards B. procedures C. specifications D. all of the above 354. Sources of Acoustic Emission (AE) A. plastic deformation/ dislocation motion/ slip formation B. crack growth C. fracture D. earth quakes E. all of the above 355. AE sensors are A. piezoelectric B. capacitive C. optical (laser interferometers) D. all of the above 356. AE Sensors are operated in A. resonant band B. broad band C. narrow band D. both A and B

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357. Commonly operated frequency range of AE sensors is A. 1 kHz to 20 kHz B. 30 kHz to 2 MHz C. 3 MHz to 20 MHz D. above 20 MHz 358. In AET the location of the defect is done by: A. triangulation technique B. the rectangular technique. C. the circular technique. D. none of the above. 359. Eddy current testing relies on the principle of: A. magnetic induction. B. electromagnetic induction. C. piezoelectric effect D. differential energy absorption of radiation. 360. Coatings are often applied to protect a material, their thickness can be often found non destructively by A. acoustic emission testing B. RT C. eddy current testing (ECT) D. VT 361. Electro plated surfaces are usually quite thin. Which common NDT method is used to measure the plate thickness? A. MT B. UT C. ECT D. PT 362. Which of the following test frequencies would produce eddy currents with the largest depth of penetration? A. 100 Hz B. 10 kHz C. 1 MHz D. 10 MHz 363. A term used to define the phenomenon where, at very high frequencies, eddy current flow is restricted to an extremely thin outer layer of the conductor is: A. skin effect. B. high-frequency filtering. C. low-frequency filtering. D. any of the above. 364. In the following, the metal with the highest electrical conductivity is: A. copper B. aluminium C. silver D. iron

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365. Which of the following would normally be considered the best fill factor when testing straight tubing with an encircling coil? A. 0.90 (90%) B. 0.75 (75%) C. 0.40 (45%) D. 0.25 (25%) 366. Eddy Current (EC) test techniques can be used to: A. measure coating thickness B. measure cladding thickness C. gauge the thickness of sheet D. all of the above 367. As the temperature of metal increases, the electrical conductivity: A. increases B. decreases C. does not change D. any of the above may occur depending on the type of metal. 368. To obtain the maximum signal (using a surface coil) from a defect of a given size at a given depth in a flat conductor there is: A. an optimum size coil, but no optimum frequency. B. no absolute optimum, but use the highest frequency and the smallest coil attainable. C. an optimum frequency, but no optimum size coil. D. an optimum frequency and optimum size coil. 369. The quantity actually monitored by an eddy current test coil is: A. resistivity B. resistance C. coil electrical impedance D. specimen thickness 370. Eddy current testing can not be performed in: A. stainless steel. B. brass. C. plastics. D. gold 371. HPF stands for: A. High Pulse Frequency B. High Pass Filter C. High Pulse Factor D. none of the above 372. Ferromagnetic materials may be inspected using the eddy current method while its permeability is A. increasing B. decreasing C. constant D. A or B.

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373. In EC testing, the use of low frequency would: A. provide good detectability B. provide good penetration C. provide poor penetration D: decrease in the phase difference between near and far surface. E. A, B and D 374. Which of the following is not a factor that affects the inductance of an eddy current test coil? A. Shape of the coils B. Diameter of coils C. Test frequency D. Distance from other coils 375. In eddy current testing, the specimen is coupled to the test coil by: A. core coupling B. impedance ratio C. magnetic domains D. the coil’s magnetic field 376. A unit of impedance (Z) of a coil is A. mho B. mho m-1 C. ohm-cm D. ohm 377. Which of the following would normally be considered the least fill factor when testing straight tubing with an encircling coil? A. 0.90 (90 %) B. 0.75 (75 %) C. 0.40 (45 %) D. 0.25 (25 %) 378. Conductivity instruments can be used to sort materials with different: A. magnetic permeability. B. electrical resistivity. C. electrical conductivity. D. all of the above. 379. A unit of inductance of a coil is A. ohm B. mho C. henry (H) D. Hz 380. IACS is a recognized abbreviation for: A. Induced Alternating Current System. B. Inductively-Activated Comparison System. C. Internal Applied Current System. D. International Annealed Copper Standard.

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381. Which of the following statements is incorrect? A. constant amplitude magnetic field exists around a coil carrying a constant current (DC). B. A periodically varying magnetic field exists around a coil carrying a periodically varying current. C. When a coil carrying a constant current is brought near a conductor, DC is induced. D. When a coil carrying a periodically varying current is brought near a conductor, periodically

varying currents are induced. 382. In reference standards used for eddy current testing, EDM notches or saw cuts can simulate: A. wear. B. cracks C. pits. D. none of the above. 383. Which one of the following is the major disadvantage of Infrared/thermal testing? A. Surface emissivity of the component under test should be known. B. Corrections to be applied for long distance use. C. Periodic calibration is required. D. All of the above. 384. An emissivity value of wood is A. 0.09 B. 0.5 C. 0.68 D. 0.98 385. Which of the following would normally affect temperature measurement? A. clouds. B. wind. C. moisture. D. all of the above. 386. The main advantage thermography over other contact temperature measurements methods is: A. it is fast and safe. B. it is non contact and presents an instantaneous view of the entire field covered. C. it can be used for HV lines. D. all of the above. 387. The total emitted radiation by a black body can be obtained from: A. Planck's law. B. Stefan’s law. C. Wein's law. D. None of the above. 388. Infrared measurements for NDT are normally carried out in the wavelength region A. 2 − 5.6 microns B. 0.8 − 20 microns. C. 21 − 50 microns. D. none of the above.

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389. The radio pyrometer is commonly operated above A. 300 ºC B. 500 ºC C. 1000 ºC D. 1200 ºC 390. The sun radiates like a black body at temperature of A. 5850 ºF B. 5850 ºC C. 5850 K. D. none of the above 391. Absolute accuracy of IR radiation thermometers (point sensor) shall be not greater than A. ± 0.5 ºC or 1% of full scale. B. ± 1 ºC or 5% of full scale. C. ± 5 ºC or 10% of full scale. D. none of the above. 392. A unit of radiant power is A. W m-2 B. W m-2 s-1 C. W m-3 s-1 D. W s-1

393. High pass filter passes A. energy only at wavelengths longer than a designated wavelength B. energy only at wavelengths shorter than a designated wavelength C. energy only within a specified spectral band D. none of the above. 394. The response of thermal detector is A. dependent on wavelength B. independent with wavelength. C. dependent on energy D. none of the above. 395. The total emitted radiation from a black is A. proportional to fifth of power of its absolute temperature. B. proportional to fourth of power of its absolute temperature. C. inversely proportional to fourth of power of its absolute temperature. D. inversely proportional to fifth of power of its absolute temperature. 396. The wavelength of infrared radiation from a body can be determined using a A. Planck's law. B. Charles law. C. Wein's law. D. None of the above.

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397. Infrared testing is used to: A. measure the temperature. B. detect the de-bond. C. find out the hot spot D. both A and B E. all of the above. 398. An emissivity value of anodised aluminium is A. 0.02 B. 0.095 C. 0.75 D. 0.95 399. The common term used to denote the 'light amplification by stimulated emission of radiation' is A. laser B. cathode ray tube C. photon gun D. pptical microscope 400. In optical holography the light source being used is (are) A. neodymium laser. B. ruby laser. C. helium - neon laser. D. all of the above. 401. Leaks can be tested by A. bubble leak testing B. radiographic testing C. acoustic emission testing D. helium leak testing E. both A and D 402. The SI unit of pressure is: A. Pa B. torr C. mm of Hg D. psi 403. Which of the following term is used to indicate the difference between absolute pressure and atmospheric pressure? A. Ambient pressure B. Negative pressure C. Air pressure D. Gage pressure 404. A virtual leak is: A. a leak that is small enough to be within the acceptance standards. B. a leak that is so small as to be virtually impossible to detect C. a leak from an isolated pocket within a vacuum system. D. out gassing of the testing object.

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405. In mass spectrometer pumping speed and conductance are A. directly proportional B. different terms for the same function C. different functions with the same unit of measurement D. reciprocal to each other. 406. What are three essential parameters involved in the dynamics of gases? A. Volume, temperature, pressure B. Density, atomic weight, pressure C. Pressure, specific gravity, atomic weight D. Volume, temperature, density 407. When performing a mass spectrometer leak detection test of an ultra high vacuum system: A. a preliminary hydrostatic test should be performed B. a preliminary hydrostatic test should not be performed C. a pressure test should be employed in preference to a vacuum test D. none of the above 408. The pressure of a gas relative to a vacuum and independent of atmosphere pressure is A. partial pressure B. gauge pressure C. absolute pressure D. vapor pressure 409. Total atmospheric pressure at sea level is 100 kPa. Find the partial pressure of helium (He), if helium concentrations is 4 ppm (by volume). A. 0.0004 kPa B. 0.04 kPa C. 0.04% D. 4 Pa 410. The passage of a gas by diffusion through a solid material where there is no physical leak in the sense of an opening or defect, is called: A. permeation B. adsorption C. absorption D. capillary action 411. In the molecular mode, helium will flow through a leak: A. at the same rate as air B. at a faster rate than air C. at a slower rate than air D. in a turbulent flow pattern 412. In lieu of air, which one of the following gases would be the best choice as the pressurizing medium for a pressure change measurement test? A. Nitrogen B. Hydrogen C. Carbon monoxide D. Oxygen

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413. For the flow measurement technique of pressure change measurement testing, the type of flow measurement usually encountered that directly represents a leakage rate is: A. volume flow B. mass flow C. velocity flow D. pressure change flow 414. Zero Kelvin is best defined as the A. temperature at which a gas exerts zero pressure B. temperature at which gases liquefy C. temperature at which nitrogen solidifies D. temperature where ideal gasses become real gases 415. The helium mass spectrometer detector probe pressure test technique is: A. a quantitative test B. a qualitative test C. a semi-automatic test D. none of the above 416. Pressure is best defined as A. total force B. temperature x volume C. volume x density D. force per unit area 417. Tracer gas ions in a helium mass spectrometer leak detector are separated from the remainder of the ion beam by the A. magnetic filed B. ion collector. C. cold trap. D. filament 418. Out gassing is more in A. stainless steel B. aluminum C. brass D. copper 419. To determine the system sensitivity of the leak detectors which standard is the best? A. Reservoir type leak B. Non reservoir type leak C. Porous plug D. Capillary standard 420. The physical hole is represented by the word A. leak B. leakage C. leakage rate D. any of the above

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421. Leak testing is used A. to prevent material loss B. to prevent contamination and hazard C. to distinguish between reliable and non reliable components D. all of the above 422. Increasing the detector probe speed over the area being examined will result in A. an increase in test sensitivity B. a decrease in test sensitivity C. a decrease in response time D. a decrease in instrument sensitivity 423. A sensor that can be used to measure dry bulb temperature in pressure change measurement test systems which consist of a bimetallic junction that produces an electromotive force (emf) that varies with temperature is known as a: A. resistance bridge B. ionization of molecules C. vacuum pump system speed D. thermocouple 424. As the elevation above sea level increases, the barometric pressure: A. remains the same B. decrease C. increases D. none of the above 425. What parameter can directly affect the sensitivity of any vacuum box bubble test? A. Slight residual magnetism in test specimen. B. Amount of pressure differential created with the box. C. Ambient air dew point temperature is more that 25 ºF. D. all of the above 426. Which is the basic type of true defect that would be indicated during a bubble leak test by a continuous flow of bubbles? A. Lack of fusion at root of weld B. A hole or crack through the test boundary C. Slab inclusion in center of weld D. Extended area of surface defects or cracks 427. The term used to indicate pressure above the zero value corresponding to a perfect vacuum is A. gauge pressure B. absolute pressure C. air pressure D. water pressure 428. The general gas law showing the relationship of pressure, temperature and volume of an ideal gas is expressed by which one of the following relationships? A. PT/V = Constant or P1 T1 = P2 T2 (when V1 = V2 ) B. TV/V = nR or T1V1 = T2V2 (when P1 = P2 ) C. PV = nRT or P1T2= P2T1 (when V1 = V2 ) D. PV=nR or P1V1=P2V1 (when T1 = T2 )

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429. The spontaneous evolution of gas and vapor from materials in a vacuum as pressure is reduced is called: A. outgassing B. hydrofoiling C. gasification D. reticulation 430. Which of the following gases is most practical as the pressurizing medium for a pressure change measurement test? A. Argon B. Hydrogen C. Air D. All of the above 431. Which following material can not be tested by MT? A. Carbon steel B. Copper alloys C. Tool steel D. Steel casting 432. Defect detection by magnetic particle testing relies on A. magnetic flux leakage B. uniformity of geometry of a test piece C. the Hall effect D. all of the above 433. The reverse magnetizing force necessary to remove the residual magnetism in a material is called A. induction force B. coercive force C. reverse force D. none of the above 434. Austenitic stainless steels contain large quantities of iron but magnetic particle testing is not recommended for them because A. the magnetic fields weaken the structure B. they are non-magnetic C. the coarse grain structure gives false indications D. arcing sparks may ignite the metal 435. Ferromagnetic material is made up of small polarized regions known as A. protons B. nucleus C. domains D. electrons

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436. The magnetic flux density that remains in the material when the magnetizing force is zero is called: A. retentivity B. coercive force C. residual magnetism D. permeability 437. A break in the magnetic uniformity of a part that is called a magnetic discontinuity is related to a sudden change in A. inductance B. permeability C. eddy current D. capacitance 438. The relative magnetic permeability of a diamagnetic material is A. slightly less than 1. B. slightly more than 1. C. equal to 1. D. negative value 439. Copper is a A. non-conductor. B. ferromagnetic. C. diamagnetic. D. paramagnetic. 440. Aluminum is a A. non-conductor. B. ferromagnetic. C. diamagnetic. D. paramagnetic. 441. The magnetic flux leakage strength decreases with distance (d) from the defect surface, which is approximately proportional to: A. 1/d B. 1/d2 C. 1/d3 D. e-d

442. The largest value of B/H ratio along the virgin hysteresis curve is called the A. maximum permeability B. saturation point C. limiting field D. incremental permissivity 443. What is a magnetically soft material? A. A material with a high retentivity B. A material with a high coercive force. C. A material with a low coercive force. D. A material with low hardness value.

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444. Diamagnetic materials have a permeability _________. A. greater than ferromagnetic materials. B. greater than air. C. less than air. D. none of the above. 445. Magnetic particle testing is preferred over ultrasonic and radiographic testing for locating A. forging bursts B. shallow surface cracks C. porosity D. corrosion 446. Which of the following is a limitation of magnetic particle testing? A. Relative expense to operate B. Paramagnetic and diamagnetic materials can not be tested by MT C. Ability to work through thin coatings of paint D. None of the above 447. Which following converter screen can not

A. Gadolinium B. Dysprosium C. Indium D. Gold 448. A neutron decays into A. proton and electron B. proton and beta particle C. proton, electron or beta particle and neutrino D. none of the above 449. Neutrons interact with the _____ of the atoms. A. protons B. electrons C. neutrons D. all of the above E. both A and C 450. The best high intensity source of thermal neutrons is A. a Cf- 252 source. B. an accelerator. C. a nuclear reactor

be used for indirect technique in neutron radiography?

D. none of the above 451. Conversion screen are used in Neutron Radiography testing (NR): A. to convert neutron into ionizing radiation B. to decrease the exposure time. C. to convert neutron into X-rays D. to convert neutron into light

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452. In NR, it is desirable to have a _______ length/ diameter (L/D) ratio of the collimator. A. small B. large C. medium D. any of the above 453. What is charge value of neutrons? A. 0 B. +1 C. +2 D. -1 454. The energy of thermal neutrons, commonly used for NR, is A. above 0.1 MeV B. 10 keV − 100 keV C. 1 keV − 10 keV D. less than 0.1 MeV E. 0.01 eV − 0.3 eV 455. The energy of fast neutrons A. above 0.1 MeV B. 10 keV − 100 keV C. 1 keV − 10 keV D. less than 0.1 MeV E. above 0.3 eV 456. When using film as the method for neutron personnel monitoring, what filter material is used to produce an (n, γ) reaction, which will increase the film density after neutron exposure? A. Tin B. Polyethylene terephthalate C. Cadmium D. Brass E. Lead 457. Neutron attenuation is greatest in which of the following materials? A. Hydrogenous material. B. Concrete C. Lead. D. Boron 458. All of the following methods are commonly used to clean parts prior to penetrant testing except: A. vapor degreasing B. liquid solvent C. power wire brushing D. alkaline cleaner 459. In PT developer times are usually in the range of A. 30 s B. 10 − 60 min. C. 2 − 40 min. D. 5 − 6 min.

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460. Using a black light lamp with a cracked filter or without the filter in place can cause damage to human eyes because the lamp emits: A. black light B. ultraviolet light C. infrared light D. violet light 461. The term used to define the period of time in which the test part is covered with penetrant is: A. waiting time B. soak time (drain time) C. dwell time D. bleeding time 462. Developers can be applied byA. dipping B. dusting C. spraying D. all of the above 463. From a safety standpoint, penetrant should have A. a low flashpoint B. a high flashpoint C. a negative flashpoint D. none of the above 464. In laser scanned penetrant testing, ultraviolet laser diode operates at _____ to generate the excitation light beam. A. 375 − 405 nm B. 375 − 405 μm C. 375 − 600 nm D. 300 − 405 μm 465. Which or the following surface conditions could have a detrimental effect on a liquid penetrant test? A. A wet surface B. A rough weld C. An oily surface D. All of the above 466. Which level of penetrant is the most sensitive? A. Level 1 B. Level 2 C. Level 3 D. Level 4 467. The highest health hazard associated while using a black light lamp is A. damage to human eyes due to its use with a cracked filter or without the filter B. electrical shock due to improper earthing of the lamp. C. direct viewing of UV light for short time D. direct viewing of UV light alongwith IR light for short time

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468. When performing a liquid penetrant test, the surface of the test part should be: A. slightly wet B. free of oil, grease, water and other contaminants C. clean and smooth D. all of the above 469. Industry and military specifications control a _____ of the penetrant. A. density B. flash point C. corrosiveness D. all of the above 470. Liquid penetrant testing is capable of detecting: A. porosity (subsurface) B. subsurface discontinuities C. discontinuities open to the surface D. lack of fusion (subsurface) 471. PT can be used to test most materials provided the surface of the part is: A. having a temperature above 35 oC B. smooth C. is not extremely porous or rough D. cleaned with acid 472. Post emulsified penetrants: A. are most often used in the field B. should never be used in the field C. require a separate emulsifier to break the penetrant down and make it water washable D. require a separate emulsifier to break down the cleaner and make it solvent removable 473. The relative amount of light reflected or emitted between an indication and its background is termed A. resolution B. sensitivity C. reflection coefficient D. contrast ratio 474. Radiometers should be calibrated every _____ months. A. 2 B. 4 C. 6 D. 12 475. The term used to define the tendency of certain liquids to penetrate into small openings such as cracks is: A. saturation B. capillary action C. blotting D. wetting agent

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476. When fluorescent penetrant inspection is performed, the penetrant materials are formulated to glow brightly and to give off light at a wavelength: A. close to infrared light B. close to the UV light C. in the red spectrum D. that the eye is most sensitive to under dim lighting conditions 477. All of the following parts can be tested by the liquid penetrant method except: A. an iron casting B. an aluminium casting C. a part made from a porous plastic material D. apart made from a nonporous material 478. Good cleaning procedure will: A. remove all contamination from the part and not leave any reside that may interfere with the

inspection process B. remove a small amount of metal from the surface of the part C. should leave the part slightly fluorescent in order to identify any discontinuities D. should etch the part slightly only if it is made from 4041 aluminum 479. What is the optimal temperature of penetrant materials and the part under inspection in order to obtain the best results? A. 10 − 27 oC ( 50 − 80 oF) B. 10 − 49 oC ( 50 − 120 oF) C. 16 − 38 ºC (60 − 100 ºF) D. 27 − 49 oC ( 80 − 120 oF) 480. All of the following basic inspection principles apply to visible penetrant methods except: A. the penetrant must enter the discontinuity in order to form an indication B. indications glow when illuminated with an ultraviolet light C. a longer penetration time is required for smaller discontinuities D. if the penetrant is washed out of the discontinuity, an indication will not be formed by that discontinuity 481. The intensity of fluorescence in relation to the intensity of the ultra violet radiation that excites it is A. inversely proportional to the intensity of the ultra violet radiation. B. directly proportional to the intensity of the ultra violet radiation. C. directly proportional to the square of the intensity of the ultra violet radiation. D. not dependent upon the ultra violet radiation 482. In PT black light (UV light) intensity measurements are made using a: A. radiometer B. photometer C. pie gauge D. spectrometer

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483. The lowest temperature at which a liquid gives off gases sufficient to form an ignitable vapor at the liquid's surface is the A. dew point B. flash point C. lower explosive limit D. upper explosive limit 484. When a permanent record is required which type of developer can be used: A. layered developer B. nonaqueous developer C. lacquer developer D. old developer 485. In PT the minimum accepted intensity of UV lights at 381 mm (15 inch) from test surface is _____ μW/ cm2.

A. 500 B. 800 C. 1000 D. 1500 486. Porlonged exposure to ultra violent radiation can cause A. skin cancer B. kertoconjunctivitis C. cataract formation D. all of the above 487. The term used to describe the action of a particular developer in soaking up the penetrant in a discontinuity, so as to cause the maximum bleedout of the penetrant for increased contrast and sensitivity, is known as: A. blotting B. capillary action C. concentration D. diffraction 488. With which NDT method is surface cleanliness most important? A. UT B. PT C. MT D. RT 489. White light intensity at the surface of the part when using a visible dye penetrant should be A. a minimum of 500 lx (50 foot-candles) B.. a maximum of 500 lx (50 foot-candles) C. a of minimum 1000 lx (100 foot-candles) D. a maximum of 1000 lx (100 foot-candles) 490. Subsurface discontinuities can be best detected by A. the postemulsification penetrant method B. the visible dye penetrant method C. the fluorescent dye penetrant method D. none of the above

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491. Which NDT method is commonly used for inspecting core shift in casting? A. MT B. LT C. RT D. Eddy current testing

492. Which of the following generators would provide the narrowest cone of X-ray radiation? A. 15 MeV B. 1 MeV C. 25 MeV D. 1500 keV 493. The smaller the physical dimensions of a gamma-ray source: A. the greater the penetrating power of the gamma-ray source. B. the less the penetrating power of the gamma-ray source. C. the penetrating power of the gamma-ray source does not depend upon the physical size. D. none of the above are true. 494. For a particular radioisotope, source strength is proportional to which of the following? A. Mass of source B. Physical size C. Atomic weight D. Bq 495. In general, when using the composite film viewing technique, each film should have a minimum density of: A. 1.5 B. 1.8 C. 2.0 D. 1.3 E. none of the above 496. Generally, sources of high specific activity are more desirable because they have ____ self absorption. A. higher B. the same C. lower D. no 497. Radiation particles and photons lose their energy primarily through A. ionization B. scattering C. diffraction D. electron conversion 498. Generally used shielding for gamma rays are A. aluminium, brass B. uranium, lead, concrete C. copper, stainless steel D. plastic, lead

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499. Most of the gamma radiography is performed with A. natural isotopes B. radium C. X-ray machine D. artificial isotopes 500. The normal recording medium for autoradiography is the: A. microdensitometer B. xerographic plate C. radiographic film D. TV screen 501. What thickness of a flat type penetrameter (ASTM) would be used on a 35 mm material thickness for a 2% sensitivity? A. 0.35 mm B. 0.7 mm C. 7 mm D. 14 mm 502. As the development time increases: A. the characteristic curve grows steeper and moves to the left toward the density axis. B. the characteristic curve grows steeper and moves to the right toward the density axis. C. the characteristic curve remains the same in shape but moves to the left toward the density axis. D. there is little effect on the characteristic curve. 503. Radiograph testing is based on the principle of: A. magnetic induction. B. electromagnetic induction. C. piezoelectric effect D. differential energy absorption of radiation and shadow projection. 504. Which of the following human cell categories is the most sensitive to radiation exposure? A. Granulocytes B. Basal cells C. Bile duct cells D. Muscle cells E. Lymphocytes 505. Of the following, which would be most sensitive to injury by excessive exposure to X- or gamma rays? A. Hand B. Lens of the eye C. Fore arm D. Leg 506. The changes in mass and atomic numbers of an source due to alpha particle emission is A. 2, 1 B. 1, 4 C. 4, 2 D. 2, 2 E. none of the above

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507. The metal most commonly used now as shielding material in industrial radiographic camera is A. steel B. depleted uranium C. lead D. copper 508. A person who receives a whole-body dose equivalent of 5 rems in one year: A. may develop radiation sickness B. should not have any medical X-rays C. will be unaffected D. may have an increased risk of cancer 509. Two factors greatly affect the suitability of the target material in an X-ray generator are A. tensile strength and yield strength. B. melting point and magnetic strength. C. electrical resistance and tensile strength. D. atomic number and melting point. 510. Ultrasonic testing of material where the search unit is in direct contact with the material being tested may be A. surface wave testing B. straight beam test C. angle beam testing D. all of the above 511. Which of the following search units would contain the thinnest crystal? A. 1 MHz search unit B. 0.5 MHz search unit C. 15 MHz search unit D. 20 MHz search unit 512. Which is the most efficient generator of ultrasonic wave? A. Lithium sulfate B. Quartz C. Steel D. Ceramic based 513. The amount of beam divergence from a crystal is primarily dependent on the A. type of test B. thickness of crystal backing in the search unit C. frequency and crystal size D. pulse length 514. When an ultrasonic beam passes through the interface between two dissimilar materials at an angle, a new angle of sound travel takes place in the second material due to: A. rarefaction B. attenuation C. compression D. refraction

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515. In contact testing, the entry surface indication is sometimes referred to as: A. the initial pulse B. the main bang C. both A and B D. short pulse 516. When the motion of the particles of a medium is parallel to the direction of propagation, the wave being transmitted is called a: A longitudinal wave B. surface wave C. lamb wave D. shear wave 517. When the motion of the particles of a medium is transverse to the direction of propagation, the wave being transmitted is called a: A. shear wave B. longitudinal wave C. surface wave D. lamb wave 518. The number of complete waves which pass a given point in a given period of time is called as A. amplitude of a wave motion B. frequency of a wave motion C. wavelength of a wave motion D. pulse length of a wave motion 519. Factor which determines the amount of reflection at the interface of two dissimilar materials is A. the index of rarefaction B. the frequency of the ultrasonic wave C. Young's modulus D. the acoustic impedance 520. A point, line, or surface of a vibrating body marked by absolute or relative freedom from vibratory motion is referred to as: A. a node B. an antinode C. rarefaction D. compression 521. Three main elements comprise a Cathode Ray Tube (CRT) are: A. cathode, deflection plates and .fluoresced screen. B. electron gun, deflection plates and .fluoresced screen. C. anode, cathode and .fluoresced screen. D. filament, cathode and .fluoresced screen.

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522. _______ enables the screen to continue to give off light after the electron beam has been removed or has passed over a section of the screen. A. Fluorescence B. Phosphorescence C. Photoelectric effect D. none of the above 523. A quart crystal cut so that its major faces are parallel to the Z and Y axes and perpendicular to the X axis is called: A. a Y-cut crystal B. an X-cut crystal C. a Z-cut crystal D. a ZX-cut crystal 524. Pulse echo technique is based on the principle of A. magnetic induction. B. electromagnetic induction. C. piezoelectric effect D. reflection of ultrasound. 525. The boundary between two different materials which are in contact with each other is called: A. a refractor B. an interface C. a marker D. a diffraction boundary 526. When inspecting coarse-grained material, which of the following frequencies will generate a sound wave that will be most easily scattered by the grain structure? A. 0.5 MHz B. 2.25 MHz C. 13 MHz D. 10 MHz 527. Piezoelectric material can A. covert a mechanical strain to an electrical output B. convert an electrical pulse to a mechanical strain C. be used in the construction of search units D. be all of the above 528. The piezoelectric material in a search unit which vibrates to produce ultrasonic waves is called a: A. backing material B. Lueite wedge C. crystal D. couplant 529. Which of the following search units would contain the thinnest crystal? A. 1 MHz search unit B. 0.5 MHz search unit C. 15 MHz search unit D. 20 MHz search unit

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530. 25 MHz search unit would most likely be used during: A. straight beam contact testing B. immersion testing C. surface wave contact testing D. angle beam contact testing 531. Vibration and sound measurements are used to determine A. absolute bearing vibration B. general bearing condition C. relative shaft vibration. D. all of the above 532. In vibration analysis (VA) the damping factor or damping ratio (z) is A. the ratio of actual damping to critical damping. B. the ratio of final damping to initial damping. C. the ratio of final damping to critical damping. D. none of the above 533. In VA displacement measurements can be dependent on A. temperature B. speed C. pressure D. load E. all of the above 534. The angle between the eye and the test surface for general visual testing should be A. less than 60º B. more than 60º C. less than 30º D. more than 30º E. more than 45º 535. The most common optical instrument is A. borescope B. optical lens C. eye D. microscope 536. The subtractive primary colors are A. violet, magenta and yellow B. cyan, yellow and magenta C. cyan, green and blue D. yellow, green and cyan 537. Which type of light can be more dangerous to human eye? A. Violet light B. Red light C. Laser light D. Filtered light

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538. The lens of the eye focuses A. light waves on the optical nerve B. all wavelengths of light in a single plane of the retina C. each wavelength of light at a different depth in the retina D. none of the above 539. Exposure to high frequency visible light at high intensities and long durations that may damage the retina, and does not elevate retinal temperatures enough to cause thermal hazard is called: A. blue hazard. B. hyper thermia C. thermal shock D. hypo thermia 540. The light from common sources, particularly light from incandescent lamps, is often compared with light from a theoretical source. This theoretical source is called a: A. gray body. B. black body. C. white body. D. spectro photometer. 541. A light source that can be used to study fast moving test objects by making them appear to move slowly is called A. stroboscope B. fluorescent C. boroscope D. microscope 542. The illumination at a point on a surface in relation to the luminous intensity of the source and the distance between the source and the point varies directly with the intensity and: A. inversely with the distance. B. inversely with the square of the distance. C. directly with the square of the distance. D. none of the above 543. The angles for the fore-oblique direction of view borescope are: A. 0 − 45º. B. 0 − 90º. C. 1 − 89º. D. 1 − 60º. 544. During a visual examination, a welding discontinuity that could not be detected would be: A. cracks. B. undercut. C. under fill. D. side wall lack of fusion. 545. Exposure of eye to UV light can be reduced by using A. lead glass B. polarized glass C. ordinary glass D. B or C

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546. Prolonged exposure to infrared radiation can cause A. hypo thermia B. hyper thermia C. iso thermia D. pseudo thermia 547. Magnification of a borescope optical system depends on the A. middle lens and ocular. B. object lens. C. object lens and ocular. D. object lens, middle lens and ocular 548. In flexible boroscope the image remains round and sharp until the tube is bent up to an angle of A. 30º B. 45º C. 60º D. 90º 549. The primary colors are said to be A. red, green, yellow B. red, green, blue C. blue, green, yellow D. red, yellow, orange 550. In fovia centralis of an eye A. the number of rods are more B. the number of light amplifiers are more C. the number of cones are more D. both A and B 551. The pupil of eye is A. opaque to light B. reflect all light C. transparent to light D. diffract all light

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ASNT NDT LEVEL III

NDT BASIC

Answers for Question Bank

1 C 31 E 61 D 91 C 121 D 151 C 181 A 211 D 241 D 271 D 2 A 32 D 62 C 92 A 122 B 152 D 182 D 212 C 242 A 272 D 3 A 33 B 63 E 93 D 123 B 153 C 183 E 213 C 243 D 273 C 4 B 34 C 64 C 94 B 124 D 154 C 184 B 214 B 244 E 274 C 5 C 35 C 65 D 95 B 125 B 155 D 185 C 215 C 245 C 275 B 6 C 36 C 66 B 96 A 126 C 156 A 186 E 216 C 246 D 276 C 7 A 37 B 67 E 97 D 127 B 157 C 187 A 217 B 247 A 277 C 8 C 38 A 68 C 98 C 128 B 158 C 188 C 218 B 248 C 278 D 9 B 39 B 69 E 99 C 129 B 159 E 189 E 219 A 249 E 279 E 10 A 40 B 70 B 100 A 130 C 160 B 190 D 220 D 250 C 280 B 11 D 41 D 71 B 101 B 131 A 161 C 191 C 221 B 251 A 281 A 12 A 42 C 72 C 102 D 132 C 162 B 192 D 222 A 252 D 282 B 13 B 43 C 73 B 103 A 133 A 163 B 193 C 223 C 253 E 283 A 14 A 44 D 74 D 104 D 134 D 164 A 194 A 224 A 254 B 284 C 15 A 45 D 75 D 105 D 135 B 165 A 195 B 225 C 255 D 285 D 16 C 46 A 76 C 106 B 136 D 166 E 196 D 226 B 256 A 286 C 17 D 47 E 77 C 107 D 137 C 167 B 197 D 227 E 257 B 287 A 18 B 48 D 78 B 108 D 138 B 168 C 198 C 228 A 258 E 288 C 19 C 49 C 79 B 109 D 139 C 169 E 199 B 229 C 259 C 289 A 20 B 50 D 80 E 110 D 140 B 170 D 200 D 230 B 260 C 290 D 21 A 51 C 81 D 111 B 141 C 171 E 201 B 231 C 261 D 291 E 22 D 52 C 82 C 112 C 142 B 172 C 202 D 232 C 262 A 292 C 23 B 53 C 83 A 113 C 143 D 173 A 203 D 233 C 263 A 293 B 24 D 54 D 84 B 114 B 144 E 174 B 204 D 234 A 264 A 294 C 25 A 55 B 85 C 115 B 145 A 175 D 205 A 235 D 265 D 295 B 26 C 56 B 86 B 116 D 146 C 176 A 206 B 236 B 266 C 296 D 27 A 57 D 87 D 117 B 147 B 177 B 207 D 237 E 267 C 297 D 28 B 58 C 88 C 118 B 148 B 178 D 208 A 238 C 268 E 298 B 29 E 59 D 89 B 119 D 149 A 179 B 209 A 239 A 269 A 299 D 30 B 60 D 90 B 120 C 150 D 180 C 210 A 240 D 270 E 300 A

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301 A 331 D 361 C 391 A 421 D 451 A 481 B 511 D 541 A 302 D 332 B 362 A 392 B 422 B 452 B 482 A 512 D 542 B 303 E 333 B 363 A 393 A 423 D 453 A 483 B 513 C 543 C 304 B 334 A 364 C 394 B 424 B 454 E 484 C 514 D 544 D 305 A 335 A 365 A 395 B 425 B 455 A 485 C 515 C 545 A 306 B 336 E 366 D 396 C 426 B 456 C 486 D 516 A 546 B 307 D 337 C 367 B 397 E 427 B 457 A 487 A 517 A 547 D 308 E 338 A 368 B 398 D 428 C 458 C 488 B 518 B 548 B 309 B 339 E 369 C 399 A 429 A 459 B 489 C 519 D 549 B 310 C 340 A 370 C 400 D 430 C 460 B 490 D 520 A 550 C 311 A 341 C 371 B 401 E 431 B 461 C 491 C 521 B 551 C 312 B 342 E 372 C 402 A 432 A 462 D 492 C 522 B 552 A 313 D 343 C 373 E 403 D 433 B 463 B 493 C 523 B 553 314 A 344 B 374 C 404 C 434 B 464 A 494 D 524 D 554 315 E 345 B 375 D 405 C 435 C 465 D 495 D 525 B 555 316 A 346 D 376 D 406 A 436 C 466 D 496 C 526 C 556 317 D 347 C 377 D 407 B 437 B 467 B 497 A 527 D 557 318 D 348 D 378 D 408 C 438 D 468 B 498 B 528 C 558 319 A 349 D 379 C 409 A 439 C 469 B 499 D 529 D 559 320 B 350 C 380 D 410 A 440 D 470 C 500 C 530 B 560 321 C 351 A 381 C 411 B 441 B 471 C 501 B 531 D 561 322 D 352 C 382 B 412 A 442 A 472 C 502 A 532 A 562 323 D 353 D 383 A 413 B 443 C 473 D 503 D 533 E 563 324 D 354 E 384 D 414 A 444 C 474 B 504 E 534 D 564 325 D 355 D 385 D 415 B 445 B 475 B 505 B 535 C 565 326 A 356 D 386 D 416 D 446 B 476 D 506 C 536 B 566 327 C 357 B 387 A 417 A 447 A 477 C 507 B 537 C 567 328 A 358 A 388 B 418 B 448 C 478 A 508 D 538 C 568 329 C 359 B 389 A 419 B 449 E 479 C 509 D 539 A 569 330 A 360 C 390 C 420 A 450 C 480 C 510 D 540 B 570