anytse-2014 class ix model question papers

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Space for Rough Work

Sample Paper (IX Studying) Aakash National Young Talent Search Exam 2014

1

1. The velocity-time graph of a body is given below.What is the displacement of body from time t = 0to t = 2 seconds?

t (s)0 1 2

1

2

v (m/s)

(1) 1 m (2) 3 m

(3) 4 m (4) 5 m

2. A body describing circular path at uniform speed of2 m/s takes 33 seconds to complete 3.5 revolutions.The radius of the circular path is

(1) 3 m (2) 5 m

(3) 2 m (4) 1 m

3. The mass of a planet is 4 times while its radius is8 times that of the earth. If the weight of an objectis 640 N on earth, what will be its weight on theplanet?

(1) 40 N (2) 80 N

(3) 160 N (4) 120 N

4. A car accelerates uniformly from rest to attain aspeed of 20 m/s after covering a distance of 80 m.It then decelerates uniformly and comes to rest aftercovering further a distance of 160 m. The total timetaken for this journey is

(1) 8 s (2) 16 s

(3) 24 s (4) 12 s

Aakash National Young Talent Search Exam 2014(For IX Studying)

Time : 2 Hours MM : 320

SECTION-A : SCIENCE

5. The direction of momentum of an object is alwaysalong the direction of

(1) Its velocity (2) Its acceleration

(3) Force acting on it (4) Its weight

6. If two bodies A and B of masses m and 2m aremoving with velocities 2v and v respectively, then

(1) A requires more force to stop in a given time

(2) B requires more force to stop in a given time

(3) Both require same force to stop in a given time

(4) Same force will accelerate them equally

7. A block of mass 750 g occupies a volume of250 cm3. The relative density of the block is

(1) 3 (2) 3.5

(3) 1.5 (4) 2.5

8. A bullet stops after travelling a distance of x m, underthe action of a uniform retarding force. How far willit go before being stopped by the same force if itsvelocity is doubled?

(1) x (2) 3 x

(3) 4 x (4) 2.5 x

9. A box is moving with constant velocity towards right.The net force acting on the box is

(1) Rightwards

(2) Zero

(3) Towards the centre of gravity

(4) Leftwards

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Aakash National Young Talent Search Exam 2014 Sample Paper (IX Studying)

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10. Which of the following graphs correctly shows the

variation of universal gravitational constant G with the

acceleration due to gravity g ?

(1)

g

G(2)

g

G

(3)

G

g

(4)

G

g

11. A solution is prepared by addition of 10 g salt in

100 g water. To make the concentration of the

solution 15% (w/w), the amount of salt added to the

solution is approximately

(1) 5.8 g (2) 5.0 g

(3) 6.9 g (4) 7.6 g

12. Which of the following colloids does not have the

same dispersion medium as that in the remaining

three?

(1) Milk of Magnesia (2) Mud

(3) Butter (4) Milk

13. A gas jar contains 10 g of oxygen gas. In which

condition, the interparticle space between oxygen

molecules would decrease?

(1) Removal of 5 g gas from gas jar

(2) Decreasing pressure

(3) Addition of more oxygen gas to the same gas jar

(4) Transferring gas to another gas jar having double

volume

14. Which of the following is not an element?

(1) Diamond (2) Brass

(3) Mercury (4) Sulphur

15. The correct molecular formula of sodium sulphite is

(1) Na2SO

4(2) Na

2S

(3) Na2SO

3(4) Na

2S2O3

16. The ratio by mass of carbon to oxygen in carbon

monoxide is

(1) 3 : 8 (2) 8 : 3

(3) 1 : 4 (4) 3 : 4

17. Match the following :

Element Valency

a. Nitrogen (i) 1

b. Sodium (ii) 2

c. Carbon (iii) 3

d. Calcium (iv) 4

(1) a(iii), b(i), c(iv), d(ii) (2) a(iii), b(iv), c(i), d(ii)

(3) a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i) (4) a(ii), b(iii), c(iv), d(i)

18. The rate of evaporation does not increase with

increasing

(1) Surface area (2) Temperature

(3) Humidity (4) Wind speed

19. Consider the following process :

X

YLiquid Gas���⇀

↽���

X and Y are respectively

(1) Vaporisation and sublimation

(2) Vaporisation and condensation

(3) Condensation and sublimation

(4) Fusion and vaporisation

20. Which of the following statements is incorrect?

(1) Formula unit mass of sodium chloride is 58.5 u

(2) Ammonium ion is a polyatomic anion

(3) Sulphur molecule is octa-atomic

(4) The smallest constituent of matter with

independent existence is a molecule

Space for Rough Work

Sample Paper (IX Studying) Aakash National Young Talent Search Exam 2014

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21. Which of the following taxa comes before family and

after class?

(1) Order (2) Genus

(3) Phylum (4) Division

22. The rod like structure visible during cell division is

made up of

(1) RNA and lipids

(2) DNA and proteins

(3) DNA and phospholipids

(4) Proteins and phospholipids

23. Which of the following is true for the elements

depicted in the given diagram?

(i) Dead

(ii) Contain pits

(iii) Transport water in both directions

(1) Only (iii) (2) (i) & (ii)

(3) (i), (ii) & (iii) (4) (i) & (iii)

24. Which of the following is incorrectly matched?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

Animal Class Characteristic

Ostrich

Hyla

Exocoetus

Draco

Aves

Amphibia

Pisces

Reptilia

Exoskeleton of feathers

Shiny skin

Breathing through gills

Exoskeleton of hair

25. Statement 1 – Mitochondria and chloroplasts can

produce their own proteins as they contain

ribosome.

Statement 2 – Energy currency of the cell is

produced by RER.

(1) Both the statements are true

(2) Both the statements are false

(3) Statement 1 is true and statement 2 is false

(4) Statement 1 is false and statement 2 is true

26. What is common to both Marsilea and Ipomoea?

(1) Both are aquatic plants

(2) Both are cryptogamae

(3) Both produce naked seeds

(4) Both are vascular plants

27. Which of the following organisms possess jointed

legs and blood filled coelomic cavity?

(1) Nereis, Leech, Antedon and Asterias

(2) Scolopendra, Musca, Nereis and Leech

(3) Musca, Chiton, Pila and Echinus

(4) Scolopendra, Musca, Aranea and Butterfly

28. Which of the following are egg laying mammals?

(1) Anabas and Draco

(2) Whale and Ostrich

(3) Kangaroo and Pigeon

(4) Platypus and Echidna

29. The term protoplasm was coined by

(1) Purkinje (2) Leeuwenhoek

(3) Schwann (4) Virchow

30. __________provides flexibility to plants.

(1) Chlorenchyma (2) Sclerenchyma

(3) Parenchyma (4) Collenchyma

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Aakash National Young Talent Search Exam 2014 Sample Paper (IX Studying)

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SECTION-B : MATHEMATICS

31. The decimal representation of 2

11 is

(1) 0.1 (2) 0.17

(3) 0.18 (4) 0.19

32. The expression 27x3 – 125y3 on factorisation gives

(1) (3x – 5y)3

(2) (3x – 5y)(9x2 + 25y2 + 15xy)

(3) (3x – 5y) (9x2 + 25y2 – 15xy)

(4) (3x + 5y)3

33. In ABC and PQR, if B = Q and C = R,

then for ABC to be congruent to PQR by ASA

congruence rule, we must have

(1) BC = PQ (2) AB = PR

(3) AC = PQ (4) BC = QR

34. A quadrilateral ABCD is a parallelogram if and only

if

(1) Its diagonals are perpendicular

(2) Its diagonals bisect each other

(3) One pair of its opposite sides is parallel

(4) One pair of its opposite angles is equal

35. If in ABC, E is the mid-point of median AD, then

area of BEC is equal to

(1)1

ar ( )4

ABC (2)1

ar ( )2

ABC

(3)1

ar ( )3

ABC (4)1

ar ( )5

ABC

36. If 2

2 256x , then the value of x is

(1)7

2(2) 8

(3) 4 (4) 2

37. If P(x) = 3x2 + 2x – 4, then P(–1) is equal to

(1) –3 (2) 3

(3) 1 (4) 0

38. In parallelogram PQRS, T and U are any two points

on the sides QR and PQ respectively. The ratio of

ar(PST) to ar(RSU) is

P Q

RS

T

U

(1) 1 : 2 (2) 2 : 3

(3) 1 : 1 (4) 3 : 2

39. If 9 4 5a , then the value of a is

(1) 3 2 5−

(2) 5 5

(3) 5 2 (4) 2 5

40. The expression (2a – 3b)3 + (3b – 5c)3 + (5c – 2a)3

is equal to

(1) 3(2a – 3b) (3b – 5c) (2a – 5c)

(2) 3(2a – 5c) (5c – 3b) (3b – 2a)

(3) –3(2a – 3b) (3b – 5c) (2a – 5c)

(4) 3(a – 3b) (3b – 2c) (2c – a)

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Sample Paper (IX Studying) Aakash National Young Talent Search Exam 2014

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41. A quadrilateral in which diagonals are equal and

bisect each other at right angles is a

(1) Rectangle (2) Square

(3) Rhombus (4) Kite

42. The decimal 0.27 can be expressed in the form

p

q, where p and q are integers and q 0, as

(1)27

100(2)

5

18

(3)25

99(4)

3

11

43. The expression

2 2 22 3 2 6 2 3 2 2 x y z xy yz xz

can be factorised as

(1)2( 2 3 ) x y z (2)

2( 2 3 ) x y z

(3)2( 3 2 ) x y z (4)

2( 2 3 6 ) x y z

44. In the given figure, quadrilateral PQRS is formed by

the angle bisectors of interior angles of a

parallelogram ABCD. If PS = 6 cm and QS = 10 cm,

then area of quadrilateral PQRS is

P

Q

R

S

D C

BA

(1) 80 cm2 (2) 60 cm2

(3) 48 cm2 (4) 40 cm2

45. A rational number between 1

3 and

1

2 can be

(1)1

5(2)

2

5

(3)3

5(4)

4

5

46. The expression 343x3 – 64y3 – 588x2y + 336xy2 is

equivalent to

(1) (4y – 7x)3 (2) (4x – 7y)3

(3) (7x – 4y)3 (4) (7y – 4x)3

47. If area of a parallelogram with sides m and n is P

and that of a rectange with sides m and n is R, then

(1) P > R (2) P < R

(3) P R (4) P = R

48. If ABC PQR and A = 60º, then Q + R is

equal to

(1) 30º (2) 120º

(3) 60º (4) 300º

49. For a square ABCD, BAC + ACD is equal to

(1) 45º (2) 60º

(3) 90º (4) 130º

50. ABCD is a parallelogram in which BAC = 30° and

DOC = 110°. The measure of ODC is

110°

30°

A B

CD

O

(1) 35° (2) 30°

(3) 60° (4) 40°

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Aakash National Young Talent Search Exam 2014 Sample Paper (IX Studying)

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51. The expression

2 2(2 3 ) (2 3 ) (2 3 )(2 3 )x y x y x y x y

is equal to

(1)2 2

27 4x y (2)2 2

4 27x y

(3)2 2

12 9x y (4)2 2

4 27x y

52. In the given figure, if PT = VR, RTP = RVP and

SPT = QRV, then SP is equal to

P Q

RST

V

(1) VR (2) QR

(3) TR (4) PV

53. ABCD is a parallelogram and E is the mid-point of

AD. CE and BA are produced to meet at F. If

ar(ABCD) = 36 cm2, then ar(AEF) is equal to

(1) 12 cm2 (2) 9 cm2

(3) 36 cm2 (4) 18 cm2

54. If AD is the median on side BC of an equilateral

ABC, then ADB is equal to

(1) 90º (2) 45º

(3) 30º (4) 60º

55. The expression 2 (3 2) 3 2 x x can be

factorized as

(1) ( 3)( 2) x x (2) ( 3)( 2) x x

(3) ( 3)( 2) x x (4) ( 3)( 2) x x

56. In ABC, if B > A, then which of the following is

always true?

(1) BC > AC (2) AB > AC

(3) AC > BC (4) BC > AB

57. The figure formed by joining the mid-points of the

sides of a quadrilateral, taken in order, must be a

(1) Square (2) Rhombus

(3) Parallelogram (4) Rectangle

58. In the given figure, E is the mid-point of DF and

AD = DB. If AB = 10 cm, then CF is equal to

A

F

CB

DE

10 c

m

(1) 2.5 cm (2)10

cm3

(3) 5 cm (4) 7.5 cm

59. In the given figure, if ABCD is a parallelogram, then

the length of CD is

D

E

A

B CM

6 cm

8 cm

10 cm

(1) 6 cm (2) 13.3 cm

(3) 5.5 cm (4) 7.5 cm

60. ( )( ) a b a b is equal to

(1) 3 3 a b ab

(2)3/2 1/2 3/2( ) a ab ab b

(3)3/2 3/2 3/2( ) a b ab

(4)1/2 1/2 1/2( ) a b ab ab

Space for Rough Work

Sample Paper (IX Studying) Aakash National Young Talent Search Exam 2014

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SECTION-C : MENTAL ABILITY

61. Look carefully for the number patterns given below

and then choose the number that comes at last.

2, 5, 11, 23, 47, ?

(1) 95 (2) 90

(3) 97 (4) 82

62. Find the mirror image of the following figure as given

below.

P

R

S

TUV

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

Directions for Q. 63 : In the following question arrange

the words in a meaningful logical order and thereby select

the appropriate answer option.

63. A. Fly B. Elephant

C. Cat D. Whale

E. Lion

(1) ADCEB (2) ACEBD

(3) ABCED (4) AECBD

Directions for Q.64 & Q.65 : If '+' means '×' , '–' means

'+', '×' means '÷', '÷' means '–' then find the solution of the

following questions.

64. 16 – 21 × 7 ÷ 10 + 2 = ?

(1) 1 (2) –1

(3) 0 (4) 10

65. 222 – 22 + 5 ÷ 32 × 1

4 = ?

(1) 204 (2) 12

(3) 1 (4) 198

66. Five boys took part in a race. Roshan finished before

Zafar but behind Saurav, Devesh finished before

Sohan but behind Zafar. Who won the race?

(1) Roshan (2) Zafar

(3) Saurav (4) Devesh

Directions for Q.67 & Q.68 : The figure (Q) given as the

question figure in each of these problems is folded to

form a cube. Choose from the given alternatives (1), (2),

(3) and (4) the correct answer for these questions.

67. 4 2

1

6

3 5

(Q)

Find the number contained in the face opposite to

the face containing 3.

(1) 1 (2) 5

(3) 4 (4) None of these

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Aakash National Young Talent Search Exam 2014 Sample Paper (IX Studying)

8

68. Find the number contained in the face opposite to

the face containing 6.

(1) 1 (2) 4

(3) 2 (4) 3

69. Find the missing term from the given sequence.

AC, EG, IK, ?

(1) MO (2) OM

(3) NP (4) PN

Directions for Q.70 & Q.71 :

A

L

G

O

C

N

I

Q

F

Q

L

T

J

x

P

y

70. x = ?

(1) T (2) M

(3) U (4) V

71. y = ?

(1) W (2) X

(3) R (4) S

72. Find the missing term.

GFH : EGG : : ? : FSS

(1) GHF (2) HGF

(3) HRT (4) GEF

Directions for Q.73 to 75 : Five girls Sheela, Sarla, Shalini,

Vini and Usha are serving in Yorkshire, Abu Dhabi, Jakarta,

Paris and Bangkok. The places of service are not in the

serial order as the names are mentioned. Sheela and Usha

do not serve in Jakarta or Bangkok. Sarla and Shalini are

not serving in Abu Dhabi or Paris. Vini has nothing to do

with Jakarta or Abu Dhabi. Shalini is not in Jakarta and

Vini is neither in Bangkok nor in Paris.

73. Where is Sheela serving?

(1) Yorkshire (2) Abu Dhabi or Paris

(3) Jakarta (4) Bangkok

74. Where is Sarla serving?

(1) Yorkshire (2) Abu Dhabi or Paris

(3) Jakarta (4) Bangkok

75. Where is Shalini working?

(1) Yorkshire (2) Abu Dhabi or Paris

(3) Jakarta (4) Bangkok

Directions for Q.76 & Q.77 : In the following figure, the

smaller triangle represents doctors, the bigger triangle

represents teachers, the circle represents females and

the rectangle represents citizens of Delhi.

A BD E

F G

H

C

I

On the basis of the above diagram, answer the following

questions :

76. Who among the following are doctors but not

females?

(1) D, E (2) F, G

(3) A, B (4) C, H

77. Who among the following teachers are neither

females nor doctors?

(1) C, H (2) F, I

(3) E, G (4) A, I

78. How many squares are there in the given figure?

(1) 20 (2) 22

(3) 30 (4) 34

Space for Rough Work

Sample Paper (IX Studying) Aakash National Young Talent Search Exam 2014

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79. If animals that live on land and the animals that live

in water are represented by two circles and there are

animals that live on land and in water both. The

relationship between all the three classes of animals

can be best represented in figure as

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

80. Find the correct option that best completes the figure.

?

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

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