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Prelim IAS Test Series (2019) – CSAT Test 1 (27.01.2019)

Answer Key & Exp for CSAT Test-1 held on 27th Jan’ 2019

Directions for the following eight (8) items: Read the following six passages and answer the items that follow each passage. Your answers to these items should be based on the passages only.

PASSAGE – 1 Urbanisation is now a global phenomenon and presents its own set of challenges as well as opportunities. It is estimated that an additional 2.5 billion people will live in the world’s cities by 2050, and hence it is critical that cities and their suburbs as well as large towns start preparing now to provide sustainable living conditions to their future citizens. Over the next 40 years, as historic urban migration leads to as much as 150% more energy being consumed, the world needs to cut carbon dioxide emissions to half to mitigate the climate change. This means that we need to rapidly transition to a world at least three times more energy-efficient. The outlook is no different for India, where millions are already migrating to cities and towns in search of employment and better living standards. In fact, India has more than 50% of its population below the age of 25 and it is expected that, by 2020, the average age of an Indian will be 29 years. It is, therefore, imperative that the world’s largest democracy creates adequate opportunities for gainful employment for its aspirational youth that is backed by technologically-robust and efficient infrastructure. The decision to create 100 citizen-friendly Smart Cities is a visionary step in that direction. Already, work has begun in right earnest for some of these modern-day cities. 1. With reference to the passage, consider the following statements:

(1) As we plan to develop urban cities the pressure on the energy grid is expected to increase.

(2) Energy consumption will require radical adaptation to meet the demographic and economic growth.

(3) Smart cities are an engine for job creation and economic growth. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 3 only (c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (d) Explanation: The passage clearly mentions that as more and more people migrate to cities and as cities and towns develop, the consumption of energy is expected to go up by atleast 150%. Thus, the pressure on the energy grid will definitely increase. Hence, statement 1 is correct. The passage also states that the world will need to migrate to a system that is thrice as

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efficient to be sustainable with the expected energy requirements. Thus, energy consumption will need to adapt. Hence, statement 2 is correct. The passage mentions that Smart cities are a way to ensure that there is enough employment for youth along with good infrastructure. Hence, smart cities can be considered an engine for job creation and economic growth. Hence, statement 3 is correct. Hence, the correct answer is option (d).

PASSAGE – 2 While the uptick in global growth is an opportunity, unfortunately, so far, India hasn’t been able to take advantage of it, not only because the currency has been strong but also because there’s inadequate infrastructure and India’s wages are uncompetitive. Reforms in the area of labour, critical for growth, remain slow as are reforms related to land. While a stable interest rate regime no doubt helps, businessmen invest if they are confident of the demand outlook. In the current context, consumer demand, while growing at a reasonable pace, isn’t exactly surging because not enough jobs are being created. The government’s rural push should boost rural incomes in 2018-19 and a third consecutive good monsoon would also help. But with the real estate and construction sectors in a slump, and urban India not generating that much employment, it’s hard to see consumption grow at a very fast pace. Also unless labour productivity improves and production becomes more efficient, growth cannot sustain at 8%-plus. 2. Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?

(a) An increasing number of skilled workers raises the potential growth of India’s economy.

(b) Monsoon has a major influence on rural demand in India. (c) Both a and b (d) Neither a nor b

Answer: (c) Explanation: According to the passage, labour productivity has to go up for India to grow at least at 8%. So, if the number of skilled workers goes up, the chances of productivity going up, and consequently the chances of the growth potential of the Indian economy improving become higher. Hence, statement (a) can be inferred. In the context of rural income and consumer demand, the passage mentions that a third consecutive good monsoon should help the situation. Hence, it is clearly inferred that monsoon has a major influence on rural demand in India. Hence, statement (b) can be inferred. Hence, the correct answer is option (c). 3. Which of the following can be concluded from the passage?

(a) A weak Rupee may help the Indian economy grow. (b) India needs to introduce reforms relating to land and labour. (c) Both a and b

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(d) Neither a nor b Answer: (a) Explanation: One of the reasons why India has been unable to take advantage of the global growth is the “strong” Indian rupee, according to the passage. Hence, statement (a) can be concluded. The passage mentions that reforms related to land and labour are slow, which implies that they are already implemented. Hence, statement (b) cannot be concluded. Hence, the correct answer is option (a).

PASSAGE – 3

Economic development is often conceived of as increasing output per person. Development is also conceived of, more broadly, as building individuals’ capabilities, and directly enhancing their welfare. The missing link in these concepts is often a focus on the process of creating jobs in which workers are more productive, so that they earn more, and the economy as a whole can afford to keep enhancing human capabilities. And, of course, higher output per worker also depends on having more and better jobs in the economy, which requires someone to create these jobs in a sustainable manner. Put this way, it is trivial to say that development means creating good jobs, where workers can increase their income (and ultimately have more satisfaction and less drudgery, at least for many). Economists are understanding this process in great depth now, and policymakers can leverage this knowledge in designing Coastal Economic Zones (CEZs) as well as other drivers of growth. 4. With reference to the passage, consider the following statements:

(1) A worker lower in the hierarchy is undervalued. (2) Productivity is important to the continued economic development of the world. (3) A country must focus on creating jobs conducive to high levels of employee

job satisfaction. Which of the statements given above can be correctly concluded? (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (c) Explanation: The passage does mention that development includes improving the capabilities of individuals. However, it does not compare the relative value of people in a hierarchy within a society or organisation. Hence, statement 1 cannot be concluded. The passage says that in order to enhance human capabilities, the economy needs to create jobs that are more productive so that the workers can earn more which will directly benefit the economy itself. This makes both statements 2 and 3 valid conclusions.

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Hence, the correct answer is option (c).

PASSAGE – 4 The Taj Mahal in Agra is one of the most beautiful monuments on Earth. It was built by the Mughal ruler Shah Jahan in memory of his deceased wife Mumtaz Mahal. Recently, there have been concerns over the condition of the Taj. NEERI submitted regarding sulphur dioxide emission control measures at Mathura Refinery and suggested the use of natural gas, setting up of hydrocracking unit, improved sulphur recovery unit, biochemical sulphur recovery and the setting up of green belt around the Taj. It also suggested the shifting of polluting industries outside the Taj Trapezium Zone. The report also examined in detail the decay mechanism and status of The Taj marble. It stated that the deterioration occurs in two modes. In the process crusts are formed. The crusts are formed due to sulphur dioxide, but the cumulative effects of all pollutants are more damaging. It was observed that trace metals present in fly ash and suspended particulate matter, as catalyst for oxidation of sulphur dioxide, and in turn enhance degradation of marble calcite to gypsum. As a result of the report, the Court passed an order to shut the foundries in the Taj Trapezium Zone. 5. The passage is trying to:

(a) draw attention to the deterioration of important geographical monuments in the country.

(b) attribute reasons for the vitiation of the Taj Mahal. (c) only understand the scientific process behind the decay in the marble of the

Taj Mahal. (d) discuss the issue of air pollution around the Taj Mahal.

Answer: (b) Explanation: Statement (a) goes far beyond the scope of the passage by generalizing the discussion w.r.t. important geographical monuments in the country. Hence, statement (a) is invalid. The passage only concerns itself with the deterioration in the condition of the Taj Mahal due to various polluting factors around it and then touches upon efforts taken to contain this deterioration. This is best described in statement (b). The scientific process that explains this decay is treated as one aspect of the overall deterioration but not the only aspect. Hence, statement (c) is invalid. As explained, the passage tries to discuss the reasons behind the air pollution that is deteriorating the condition of the Taj Mahal. Hence, statement (d) is not valid. Hence, the correct answer is option (b).

PASSAGE – 5 The Great Pacific Garbage Patch—an 80,000 tonne flotilla of plastic jetsam drifting in the ocean—has now been estimated to be bigger than France, Germany and Spain combined. Humans have dumped enough bottles, bags, containers, fishing nets and microparticles

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into the ocean for the resulting waste hulk to span over 1.6 million square kilometres, researchers based in the Netherlands, whose findings were published in the journal, Scientific Reports, say. This is 16 times the previous estimate of the area covered by the waste patch. As per the researchers mapping effort, this particular instance of plastic pollution is increasing exponentially, at a much faster beat than earlier. Marine life now faces a dual threat to life—large animals risk getting caught in the larger debris, especially fishing nets, which make up 90% of the Patch while microplastics (less than 5 mm in size) enter the food chain via fish eaten by larger predators, with toxins getting passed along the chain. It is poor consolation, but the fact that the bulk is larger debris means it is easier to remove most of the waste from the ocean. However, there is no salvage for plastic that would have sunk to the ocean-floor from the Patch. The Patch, however, is just a symptom—albeit the most pronounced one—of the larger plastic waste problem the planet faces. Global plastic production stood at 322 million tonnes in 2015 alone, as per data from the International Organization for Standardization. While most of the waste plastic accumulates terrestrially or is burnt, passing on the pollution to air, nearly 20 million tonnes of plastic enters the oceans every year. 6. With reference to the passage, consider the following statements:

(1) It is necessary to invest in waste management infrastructure, especially in those countries with rapidly developing economies.

(2) It is mainly human activities that are responsible for a major decline of the world’s biological diversity.

(3) Some of the compounds found in plastic have been found to alter hormones or have other potential human health effects.

Which of the statements given above can be assumed to be correct? (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only (c) 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (c) Explanation: Though the passage touches upon some aspects of waste management, especially in the context of plastic waste and marine waste, it does not compare the waste management infrastructure of developing and developed countries. Hence, statement 1 cannot be assumed. The passage mentions that humans have dumped large debris into the ocean which directly impacts larger species. Also, microparticles dumped by humans end up affecting the entire food chain in terms of marine biodiversity. Hence, it is a safe assumption that mainly human activities have affected and reduced the world’s biological diversity. Hence, statement 2 can be assumed. The impact of plastic on human health is not discussed in the passage. Hence, statement 3 cannot be assumed. Hence, the correct answer is option (c).

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7. Which of the following can be concluded from the passage?

(a) The global distribution of plastics is a result of the fragmentation and transportation by wind and currents to the aquatic environment.

(b) Ocean garbage in the form of plastic also leads to invasion of non-indigenous species and organisms in naturally occurring marine colonies.

(c) Plastic waste in the oceans also threatens the life of birds and other beings that depend on the oceanic life-forms for their food requirements.

(d) None of the above Answer: (c) Explanation: The passage mentions that nearly 20 million tonnes of plastic enters the oceans every year through human actions. Hence, the global distribution of plastic cannot be attributed to the wind and currents. Hence, statement (a) cannot be concluded. The correlation between ocean garbage and non-indigenous species in marine colonies is not discussed in the passage. Hence, statement (b) cannot be concluded. The passage clearly mentions that micro-plastics affect all organisms in the small-fish-to-large-fish food chain. Hence, statement (c) can be concluded. Hence, the correct answer is option (c).

PASSAGE–6

India has been the largest importer of defence equipment for several years. It spends about 2.5% of GDP on defence, slightly above the world average for such expenditure. Yet, the army is short of men, especially officers, and of material. The army’s testimony before the parliamentary panel on defence and the panel’s own recommendations, ranging from making a five- year stint in the armed forces mandatory for would-be civil servants to invoking the intervention of the Prime Minister’s Office, are tinged with a sense of desperation, but lack a systemic approach. Action is required on multiple fronts. At 2.5% of GDP, defence spending is 2.5 times what the government spends on healthcare and 23% of the Centre’s tax collections. It is neither feasible nor desirable to step up the defence outlay. The goal should be to get more bang out of every defence buck. To raise the share of spending on the equipment needed for modern war fighting, it is necessary to rationalise manpower costs. This can go two ways. Defence pensions should go the way of civil service pensions, and be linked to contributions made while in service rather than to a defined benefit. 8. Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?

(a) If India is looking at self-reliance through manufacturing in any defence sector, the government needs to invest much more than usual to achieve it.

(b) Heavy military spending in India has been detrimental to its citizens. (c) Balanced expenditure on growth and defence will sustain India and ensure its

continued growth and advancement. (d) None of the above

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Answer: (d) Explanation: Although the passage says that the Indian government is the largest importer of defence equipment, it criticizes defence spending in general. It definitely does not advocate greater defence spending in order to make defence a self-reliant sector. Hence, statement (a) cannot be inferred. The passage mentions that the defence outlay is 2.5 times the healthcare outlay. However, it does not claim that the healthcare outlay is inadequate to meet healthcare requirements. Hence, there is no evidence to show the detrimental effect. Hence, statement (b) cannot be inferred. The passage calls for the need to balance defence expenditure by rationalising manpower costs. But it does not talk about balanced expenditure growth and defence. Hence, statement (c) cannot be inferred. Hence, the correct answer is option (d). 9. Consider the following statements:

(1) Only Governors use a beacon and Ram uses a beacon. Thus, Ram is a Governor.

(2) All Governors use a beacon and Ram does not use a beacon. Thus, Ram is not a Governor.

Which of the statements given above is/are logically consistent? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) 10. Consider the following statements:

(1) All pens are blue. All pencils are blue. Thus, all pens are pencils. (2) No pen is a pencil. All pens are blue. Thus, no pencil is blue. Which of the statements given above is/are logically consistent? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (d) 11. In UPSC Mains 2018 examination, 52% students failed in compulsory Hindi paper

and 42% in compulsory English. If 17% failed in both the subjects, what percentage of students passed in both the subjects? (a) 38% (b) 33%

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(c) 23% (d) 18%

Answer: (c) Explanation: Total percent of failed students = 52+42-17=77

Formula: n(A∪B) = n(A) + n(B) – n(A∩B)

Therefore, percentage of passed students = 100-77=23%. 12. A work to dig up a pond on community land was planned by Karur Gram Sabha

under the MGNREGA scheme. The work was done by certain number of workers in 60 days. If there were 8 more workers, it could have been completed in 10 days less. How many workers were there in the beginning? (a) 70 (b) 55 (c) 45 (d) 40

Answer: (d) Explanation: Lets assume that there were x workers. From the question; 60x = 50(x+8)

60x = 50x + 400 10x = 400

Therefore, x = 40 13. Hindustan Aeronautics Limited (HAL) and Dassault Aviation came into a business

partnership. HAL contributes 1/4 of the capital for 15 months and Dassault received 2/3 of the profit. Find for how long Dassault’s money was used? (a) 6 months (b) 8 months (c) 10 months (d) 12 months

Answer: (c) Explanation: HAL’s Profit: Dassault’s Profit (1/3)/(2/3) = 1:2 Therefore, HAL’s equivalent capital/Dassault’s equivalent capital = 1/2

(x/4 * 15)/(3x/4 * n) = 1/2 15/3n = 1/2 n = 10 months

14. The average age of a constitutional bench of 5 judges of the Supreme Court of India

is 58. If a judge aged 60 recuses himself from the case due to conflict of interest and

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a new judge aged 55 comes to the bench, then the average age of the new bench is – (a) 57 (b) 56 (c) 55 (d) 54

Answer: (a) Explanation: Total age of the old bench = 58 * 5 = 290 Total age of new bench = (290-60) + 55 = 285 Average age of the new bench = 285/5 = 57 15. The monthly income of two ASHA workers is in the ratio 2:3 and their monthly

expenses are in the ratio 5:9. If each of them saves Rs. 6000 per month, then their monthly incomes are – (a) Rs. 15000: Rs. 22500 (b) Rs. 12000: Rs. 18000 (c) Rs. 16000: Rs. 24000 (d) Rs. 14000: Rs. 21000

Answer: (c) Explanation: Let their monthly incomes be 2x and 3x, while monthly expenses be 5y and 9y Therefore, 2x - 5y = 6000………(i) and 3x – 9y = 6000……….(ii) Multiplying the equations by 3 and 2 respectively and subtracting eq. (ii) from (i) We get, 3y = 6000, therefore, y = 2000 Putting the value of y in eq. (i) 2x = 6000 + 5 * 2000

2x = 16000, therefore x = 8000 Therefore, monthly incomes

2x = 2 * 8000 = Rs. 16000 3x = 3 * 8000 = Rs. 24000

16. During its trial run, Train 18 crossed Agra station’s platform in 1 minute. Train 18

was running at a speed of 90 km/hr and length of the train and the platform was same. Find the length of the train (in metres) – (a) 500 (b) 750 (c) 600 (d) 900

Answer: (b) Explanation:

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Let the train be x metres long Therefore, Platform = x metres Speed of the train per second = 90 * (5/18) = 25m/s

2x = 60 * 25 x = (60 * 25)/2 = 750 metres.

Directions: Answer the following questions (Q. No. 17 to 20) based on the bar diagram given below:

17. Approximately, what is the average population of State A for all the given years?

(a) 65 lakhs (b) 50 lakhs (c) 48 lakhs (d) 58 lakhs

Answer: (d) Explanation: Total population of State A = 40+45+60+50+70+65+80 = 410 lakhs Average population of State A = Total population of State A / Number of Years By substituting the values in the formula, 410/ 7 = 58.7 Therefore, the approximate average population of State A is 58 lakhs. 18. What is the ratio of the total population of State A for the years 2001, 2002 and 2003

together to the population of State B for 2005, 2006 and 2007 together? (a) 29:53 (b) 54:29 (c) 27:56 (d) 56:27

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20

40

60

80

100

120

2001 2002 2003 2004 2005 2006 2007

Population of two states (in lakhs) over the years

State A State B

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Answer: (a) Explanation: As we need to find ratio, State A (2001 + 2002 + 2003) : State B (2005 + 2006 + 2007) By substituting the values in the above formula, (40 + 45 + 60) : (80+ 85 +100) (Substituting the values in the formulas) By simplification, = 145:265 = 29:53 Therefore the ratio of number of people in the state A (2001 + 2002 + 2003) to the number of people in the state B( 2005 + 2006+ 2007) is 29 : 53. 19. What is the percentage rise in population of State B from the year 2003 to 2004?

(a) 15.66% (b) 16.66% (c) 16% (d) 17.33%

Answer: (b) Explanation: As we need to find the percentage rise in the population, we use Percentage Increase = [(final – Initial) /Initial] x 100 =Difference/Initial x 100 Percentage Increase = (Population of state B during 2004 – 2003/ 2003) x 100 By substituting the values in the formulas, = [(70 – 60)/60 x 100] =10/60 x 100 = 1/6 x 100 = 16.66% Therefore, there has been a rise in 16.66% of the population during the year 2003 and 2004 in State B. 20. For which State and in which year, the percent rise in population from the previous

year was the highest? (a) State B – 2003 (b) State B – 2002 (c) State A – 2004 (d) State A – 2005

Answer: (a) Explanation: Percent rise = Difference/Initial x 100 For State B in 2003 = (60 – 40)/40 x 100 = 20/40 x 100 = 50%. 21. Severe floods have affected the south Indian state of Kerala. For National Disaster

Response Force mobilisation, there are six roads leading to the Wayanad district affected by heavy rains. The roads may be indicated by digits 1, 2, 3 and alphabets

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A, B, C. When there are floods; A, 1 and 2 will be affected. When there is storm, road B is blocked. When road 1 is blocked, C is also blocked. At a time, when there are floods and a storm also blows, which road(s) can be used? (a) 3 only (b) B only (c) C only (d) 2 and 3

Answer: (a) Explanation: When there are floods; roads A, 1 and 2 will be affected. When there is storm, road B is blocked. When there are both floods and storm: Roads A, B and 1, 2 cannot be used. Also, When road 1 is blocked, C is also blocked. Thus, in the condition when there are floods and a storm also blows, only road 3 can be used by National Disaster Response Force for mobilisation in the Wayanad district of Kerala. 22. After declaration of Sadiya-Dhubri stretch in Brahmaputra river as a National

Waterway, Assam Tourism Department decides to do a survey of landscape surrounding the stretch of the river. A boat of Assam Tourism Department has a speed of 5 km/hr in still water; crosses Brahmaputra river of width 30 km in Sadiya-Dhubri stretch along the shortest possible path in 15 hours. The speed of the river is? (a) 3 km/hr (b) 4 km/hr (c) 2 km/hr (d) 6 km/hr

Answer: (a) Explanation: Speed of the boat in river of width 30 km in Sadiya-Dhubri stretch = Distance/Time Taken = 30/15 = 2 km/hr Speed of the boat in still water is = 5 km/hr As the river Brahmaputra's water is opposing the boat, speed of the river = 5-2 = 3 km/hr 23. A rathole mine operating illegally was flooded by water from the adjacent Lytein river

in Meghalaya. To rescue people trapped inside the mine, pumping out of water is necessary. If 15 pumps of equal capacity can pump out all of the water from the rat hole mine in 7 days, then how many extra pumps will be required to pump out all of the water from the rat hole mine in 5 days? (a) 7 (b) 14 (c) 21 (d) 6

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Answer: (d) Explanation: 15 pumps of equal capacity can pump out all of the water from a rat hole mine in Meghalaya in 7 days. In order to pump out all of the water from a rat hole mine in one day, it will take 15 * 7 = 105 days. Hence, in order to pump out all of the water from a rat hole in 5 days, it takes = 105/5 = 21 pumps. Extra pumps = 21-16 = 5. 24. A and B are senior citizens; decided to adopt healthy lifestyle practices after

retirement, to keep diseases like Obesity and Diabetes at bay. Next morning, A and B started walking around a rectangular park. They started at 7 a.m. from the same point in opposite directions. A and B walked at a speed of 4 rounds per hour and 6 rounds per hour respectively. How many times shall they cross each other after 7 a.m. and before 8 a.m.? (a) 5 (b) 10 (c) 7 (d) 12

Answer: (b) Explanation: Relative speed of A & B = (4+6) rounds per hour = 10 rounds per hour Time taken by A & B to cross each other = 1/10 hours = 60/10 minutes = 6 mins Thus, after every 6 minutes, they will meet each other. Hence, in 1 hour i.e. 60 mins, they will meet/cross each other 60/6 = 10 times 25. Appointments are to be made to the Higher Judiciary in India, one to the office of

Chief Justice of India and two to the Judges of the Supreme Courts. Among the six candidates selected by the Collegium of Judges, only two are approved as eligible by the Government of India for the office of Chief Justice of India while all are eligible for appointment as the Judges of the Supreme Court of India. The number of possible combination of appointees is? (a) 4 (b) 20 (c) 18 (d) 12

Answer: (b) Explanation: Out of the appointments of the 2 Judges of the Supreme Court, one can be appointed in 2C1 = 2 ways.

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Out of the remaining 5 Judges identified by the Collegium, 2 Judges to the Supreme Court can be appointed in 5C2 ways = (5 x 4)/2 = 10 ways Hence, number of possible combination of appointees = 2 x 10 = 20 ways. Directions for the following five (5) items: Read the following three passages and answer the items that follow each passage. Your answers to these items should be based on the passages only.

PASSAGE – 1 Britain is a world leader on the environment and has played a pivotal role in the European Union on this issue Yet the impact that leaving the EU would have on the UK’s environmental standards rarely features in discussions. The evidence so far is clear: families in Britain, rivers and beaches would pay the price if UK voted to leave. In 1995, the UK was dirty man of Europe. Some 83% of the household waste went to landfill and just 7% was recycled or composted. By 2014, thanks to a series of EU directives, the UK’s recycling rate had reached 45%. The UK currently recycles 90% of construction materials, well ahead of other countries. Renewable energy capacity is growing, thanks to national targets set by the EU Renewable Energy Directive. EU environmental legislation allows the phasing out of inefficient light bulbs on an EU- wide basis. Such strong regulations allow monitoring of environmental standards and tracking deviations. All this progress is at risk if the UK votes to leave. Anyone who thinks the environment will be better off if UK left the EU should take a long hard look at the Tory record. The Tories have talked green but acted blue. The Chinese and Indian governments have invited the European Commission to help them to clean up their water and air. The EU now has global expertise in the environment. The evidence is clear. As an EU member, UK has more influence globally. UK’s voice in the Paris climate change talks was amplified because it is a part of a club of 28 countries. Leaving would mean implementing EU environment law without a seat at the table and a vote in decisions. When the UK can lead from the inside, why would it walk away? Ensuring the UK has a cleaner, greener future relies on the EU membership. Anyone who argues otherwise will be on the wrong side of history. 26. Which of the following is true in regard to UK’s exit from the EU?

(a) The EU is more dependent on UK and might lose credibility if UK exits. (b) UK is dependent on the EU to effectively tackle the environmental challenges

it has been facing and shouldn’t exit. (c) The EU & the UK are interdependent and both will have be impacted equally if

UK leaves the EU. (d) The EU doesn’t lose with UK’s exit, since it still has the support of 27 countries

which jointly form the EU. Answer: (b) Explanation:

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Though the passage mentions that the global influence of both, the UK and EU, increases if the UK is part of the EU, it seems to indicate overall that it is the UK that stands to lose more if it exits from the EU. It clearly mentions that UK’s progress on the environmental issue is at risk if it leaves the EU. It also indicates that the EU gains from the UK being a member. Hence, statements (a), (c) and (d) become false. The passage does not state that the EU is more dependent on UK. The passage says that ensuring a clean and green future for the UK is dependent on EU membership. This validates statement (b). Hence, the correct answer is option (b).

PASSAGE–2 Untreated sewage and industrial waste are dumped into the waters without remorse. Reduced flow and rampant underground water withdrawals affect millions of people who depend on the river’s water. Further, floods and droughts, which endanger lives and cause serious damage to crops, livestock and infrastructure, are a common phenomenon in the river basin. There is now clear evidence that climate change is already affecting the Himalayan ice cover. However, all is not lost yet. Recent initiatives by the Indian government such as including ‘River Development’ and ‘Ganga Rejuvenation’ to the portfolio of the Minister of Water Resources, and the establishment of the National Ganga River Basin Authority and the National Mission for Clean Ganga, show a commitment to address some of these pressing concerns with special attention given to pollution control. The Ganga is a complex transboundary basin which flows across different jurisdictions. Therefore, a basin-scale approach would help manage the water resources better. This would require close coordination with all the countries sharing the Ganga, such as Nepal and Bangladesh, so that the interests of both upstream and downstream users are taken into consideration. The existing treaties on “sharing water resources” could be renegotiated as “shared management of water resources.” 27. Which of the following can be concluded from the above passage?

(a) Deteriorating water quality in the Ganga is a major threat to riverine ecosystems and to people whose livelihoods depend on water.

(b) Urban waste offers a significant nutrient resource for farming, if safely treated and applied.

(c) Recent initiatives by the Indian government were unsuccessful in addressing the issue of water pollution.

(d) None of the above Answer: (a) Explanation: The passage mentions that dumping of untreated sewage and industrial waste have reduced the flow of the Ganga, caused floods and droughts endangered lives and caused damage to crops, livestock and infrastructure. Thus, the deteriorating water quality is a risk to the riverine ecosystem and the people dependent on it. Hence, statement (a) can be concluded.

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Urban waste has not been discussed in the passage. Hence, statement (b) cannot be concluded. The passage just shows the Government has realized the seriousness of cleaning up the Ganga and has taken steps to do so. It does not discuss the success or failure of such steps. Hence, statement (c) cannot be concluded. Hence, the correct answer is option (a). 28. Which of the following recommendations does the author put forth for better

management of the water of the river Ganga? (a) The development of cleanliness plans which can be implemented at a national

level. (b) An accommodating approach among the countries that share the Ganga. (c) Preventing the dumping of untreated sewage and industrial waste in the river

basin. (d) Counteracting the effects of climate change and global warming, so as to

prevent the melting of the Himalayan peaks. Answer: (b) Explanation: The passage mentions that better management of the water resources of the Ganga would require a basin-scale approach and that would need a lot of co-ordination between the countries that share the Ganga. This is not possible without an accommodating approach between these countries. Hence, statement (b) is the most suitable recommendation. Statement (c) is a valid plan to clean up the Ganga, rather than manage its resources. Hence, statement (c) is not the most suitable recommendation. Implementation of cleanliness plans at a national level will not help manage the water resources of the Ganga. Hence, statement (a) is also not a suitable recommendation. Statement (d) (while possible factually true) is not discussed in the passage. Hence, the correct answer is option (b).

PASSAGE–3 In a significant step for higher education in the country, the government has unveiled its plan for granting more autonomy to better performing central, state and private universities. Accordingly, the University Grants Commission is giving 60 institutions special status that will allow them to start new courses, offer competitive salaries and set up off-campus centres without approvals. They will also be able to hire foreign faculty, enrol foreign students, provide incentive-based emoluments to faculty, enter into academic collaborations and run distance learning programmes. All of this is welcome as universities in India are tied down in excessive red tape and restrictive regulations. Myriad restrictions placed on them have resulted in poor quality as reflected every year in global university rankings – no Indian varsity makes it into the top 250, shocking for a country of India’s size. Higher education in India has been treated, for far too long, as a tool to disburse political patronage rather than to educate, equip young people for today’s high skilled jobs and

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pursue high-end research. Meaningful autonomy can change this by getting universities to think for themselves and compete to attract the best talents for students, faculty and administration. 29. Which of the following can be critically inferred from the passage?

(a) The government aims at stimulating economic growth and inward investment by removing red tape from universities.

(b) Sheer volume of bureaucratic requirements in universities make it exceedingly difficult for them to focus on their core mission to educate.

(c) Both a and b (d) Neither a nor b

Answer: (b) Explanation: Removal of red-tape has been mentioned in the context of improving the quality of universities, thereby enabling them to give a high quality of education and equip students to tackle high skill- based jobs. However, its link w.r.t. economic growth has not been provided. Hence, statement (a) cannot be inferred. The passage mentions that universities in India are stuck in too much bureaucracy and regulations, and that these regulations have resulted in poor quality. Thus, it can be clearly inferred that the volume of bureaucratic requirements makes it difficult for universities to focus on quality. Hence, statement (b) can be inferred. Hence, the correct answer is option (b). 30. With reference to the passage, consider the following statements:

(1) The bureaucracy has robbed teachers and principals of the opportunity to be creative and innovative.

(2) Autonomy will receive further credence if universities are given the freedom to select their own heads through a transparent process.

(3) The ultimate aim of government should be to give universities the freedom to compete and collaborate among themselves.

Which of the statements given above can be assumed using the code given below? (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only (c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (c) Explanation: The passage makes no mention of creativity being stifled. Hence, statement 1 cannot be assumed. Similarly, the passage makes no mention of choosing the head of a university. Hence, statement 2 cannot be assumed. The third sentence of the first paragraph mentions the need to encourage collaborations while last sentence of the passage mentions the need for universities to compete. Hence,

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statement 3 is correct. Directions for the following 4 items (Q.31-Q.34): Consider the following information and answer the four items that follow: There are five persons in a family living in National Capital Territory of Delhi - A, B, C, D and E. The family has one IAS Officer, one IPS Officer and one Engineer. A and D are unmarried college students. E is a man married to one of the group members. B is the brother of A and is neither an IAS Officer nor an Engineer. C is not an IAS Officer. 31. Who is the IAS Officer?

(a) A (b) B (c) C (d) E

Answer: (d) 32. Who is the Engineer?

(a) A (b) B (c) C (d) D

Answer: (c) 33. Who is the IPS Officer?

(a) A (b) B (c) D (d) E

Answer: (b) 34. Which of the following is definitely a male?

(a) A (b) B (c) D (d) None of the above

Answer: (b) Explanations for Q31 to Q34.: As B is the brother of A, so B must be a man. Now, B and E (a married man, as given in the question) are males. A and D are unmarried students, hence E must be married to C. Thus, C is a female.

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B is neither an IAS Officer nor an Engineer. C is not an IAS Officer. Therefore, E must be an IAS Officer. Now, out of B and C, one is an IPS Officer and other is an Engineer. And, as B is not an Engineer, he must be an IPS Officer. Hence, C is an Engineer. 35. Following item consists of four statements. Of these four statements, two cannot

both be true, but both can be false. Study the statements carefully and identify the two that satisfy the above condition. Examine the following statements: (1) All cars are run by diesel engine. (2) Some cars are run by diesel engine. (3) No car is run by diesel engine. (4) Some cars are not run by diesel engine. Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1 and 4 only

Answer: (c) Explanation: As Statements 1st and 3rd are complimentary statements, both these statements together cannot be true but both can be false. 36. Nearly, 20,000 farmers have decided to march from Thane to Mumbai's Azad

Maidan for demanding 'Drought Compensation.' There is no direct route from Thane to Azad Maidan. So the farmers need to pass through multiple routes in order to reach their final destination. The time (in hours) required along each route is as shown in the figure given below. If the farmers begin their march at 10:00 PM on a Sunday night then find out the least possible time they can take to reach Azad Maidan on Monday morning? (a) 4:00 AM (b) 5:00 AM (c) 6:00 AM (d) 7:00 AM


Route ABGEF = 5+1+1+1 = 8 hours

Route ABCDF = 5+2+2+2 = 11 hours

Route ACDF = 5+2+2 = 9 hours

Route ABEF = 5+1+1 = 7 hours

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Hence, via ABEF it will take 7 hours and farmers can reach by 5: 00 AM (as they start at 10:00 PM on Sunday) at the earliest on Monday morning. 37. Under the Swachh Bharat Mission, 10 public toilets were built at a block level. The contract for building such toilets was given to

a private contractor. The contractor employed 600 men and 400 women. But to make quick profit, he paid less ‘per hour wages’ to women than men. Each woman got Rs. 5 (per hour) less than a man. If the average wage of both – men and women combined was Rs. 25.50 per hour, what were the wages (per hour) of a man and a woman separately? (a) Man Rs. 30, Woman Rs. 25 (b) Man Rs. 25, Woman Rs. 20 (c) Man Rs. 27.50, Woman Rs. 22.50 (d) Man Rs. 32.50, Woman Rs. 27.50

Answer: (c) Explanation: Let a man's wage per hour be Rs. x. So, a woman's wage per hour is Rs. (x - ½). Average wage of both a man and woman is Rs. 25.50 Hence,

600𝑥 + 400(𝑥 − 5)

1000= 25.5

The value of x = 27.50 i.e Wages per hour for Man = x = Rs. 27.50 And wages per hour for a woman = x – 5 = Rs. 27.50 - 5 = Rs. 22.50 Hence, option (c) is the correct answer. Wages (per hour) of a man is Rs 27.50, and a woman is Rs 22.50. 38. In Thailand's Chiang Rai province during the early morning hours of Christmas eve,

5 trekkers and their trekking coach went to explore a cave but ended getting trapped deep inside it due to the cave being flooded by torrential downpour and no exit in sight except swimming underwater for half an hour. Now, the Thai disaster management team is all set to begin their rescue operation. Under the current situation, only one person from the rescue team can get to the spot where the trekkers are stranded. It takes 1 hour to get to the spot and 1 and half hour to come back safely with one rescued trekker. Also, after each trip, it takes 20 minutes to refill the oxygen tank being used for rescue operation. For how many hours, the rescue operation will continue if it is carried out without any break in between? (a) 13 hours 10 minutes (b) 14 hours 40 minutes (c) 15 hours 10 minutes (d) 16 hours 40 minutes

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Answer: (d) Explanation: Total trekkers to be rescued = 5 trekkers and 1 coach = 6 trekkers

Time needed to rescue 1 trekker = 60 mins + 90 mins = 150 mins

Time needed to rescue 6 trekker = 6 X 150 mins = 900 mins = 15 hours But we need to include time taken to refill the oxygen tank also i.e extra 20 mins after each trip. The tank should be refilled with oxygen for 5 times during the rescue operation (as no need to refill it once the 6th trekker) is rescued. Also, at the beginning of the operation the tank is already filled with oxygen. The need to refill the tank comes up only after the completion of one trip inside the cave.

So, 5 trips * 20 mins = 100 mins extra for refilling the oxygen tank.

100 mins = 1 hour and 40 mins Total rescue operation time period = 900 mins + 100 mins = 16 hours and 40 minutes Hence, option (d) is the correct answer. 39. The monsoon season is a month away. At the Panchayat level, it has been decided

to harvest rainwater by digging a pond at the centre of each village. In village Palampur three persons A, B and C have volunteered for the job. A can do the job in 24 days, B in 9 days and C in 12 days. B and C together start digging the pond but leave after 3 days. The remaining job will be finished by A in _________? (a) 5 days (b) 10 days (c) 15 days (d) 20 days

Answer: (b) Explanation: B's one day work = 1/9 C's one day work = 1/12 (B+C)'s 1 day work = (1/9) + (1/12) (B+C)'s 3 days work = 3 [(1/9) + (1/12)] = 7/12 Remaining work = 1 - (7/12) = 5/12 A can finish the remaining work in = (5/12) * 24 = 10 days. 40. The Government of India (GOI) is in the process of deciding how to spend its

leftover revenue. It has Rs. 905 crores left in its budget and there are eight programs to choose among. As a standard rule, GOI will not provide surplus funds to any program. Each program needs a certain minimum amount for its implementation and no program must be partially funded. The programs and their funding requests are as follows: 1. Disaster Management: Rs. 145 crores 2. Ports Improvement: Rs. 85 crores 3. Education Sector Schemes: Rs. 165 crores

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4. Health Sector Schemes: Rs. 135 crores 5. Agricultural Subsidy program: Rs. 225 crores 6. Swachh Bharat Abhiyan: Rs. 175 crores 7. MSME sector incentives: Rs. 265 crores 8. International Airport’s Renovation: Rs. 340 crores Chief Ministers of industrialized states of India are very much concerned about the funding for International Airport’s Renovation. The Union Minister of Agriculture is demanding money for agricultural subsidies to address the distress in agriculture sector. If the Government of India funds these two programs, then the rest of the revenue can be spent to the last dime on which of the following two programs? (a) Port Improvement and MSME sector incentives (b) Disaster Management and Swachh Bharat Abhiyan (c) Swachh Bharat Abhiyan and Education Sector Schemes (d) Education Sector Scheme and Health Sector Scheme

Answer: (c) Explanation: International Airport + Agricultural subsidy program = Rs. 340 crores + Rs. 225 crores = Rs. 565 crores. The amount left after the International Airport and agricultural subsidies are funded = Rs. 905 crores - Rs. 565 crores = Rs. 340 crores.

Ports Improvement (Rs. 85 crores) and MSME sector incentives (Rs. 265 crores) = Rs. 350 crores

Disaster Management (Rs. 145 crores) and MSME sector incentives (Rs. 265 crores) = Rs. 410 crores

Swachh Bharat Abhiyan (Rs. 175 crores) and Education sector schemes (Rs. 165 crores) = Rs. 340 crores

Education sector schemes (Rs. 165 crores) and Health sector schemes (Rs. 135 crores) = Rs. 300 crores

So only for Swachh Bharat Abhiyan (Rs. 175 crores) and Education sector schemes (Rs. 165 crores) remaining Rs. 340 crores can be allotted. Hence, option (c) is the correct answer. DIRECTIONS for the following 7 (seven) items: Read the following four passages and answer the items that follow each passage. Your answers to these items should be based on the passages only.

PASSAGE – 1 India’s mining sector today stands at an inflexion point, and the time is ripe to realise its full potential that will not only boost the overall economic growth, but also generate huge employment opportunities in the downstream sectors. Development of natural resources is vital for overall socio-economic development of the country. The import of natural resources makes up for $200 billion, or over 50%, of India’s total import bill of $400 billion. With greater development of India’s natural resources sector, import dependency can be

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reduced by more than 50%, resulting in the savings of $100 billion that will help create more than 20 million jobs, alleviate poverty and save precious foreign exchange. Only 10% of area with mining potential has been explored in India, against 95% in Australia. A vibrant mining sector will create an entire eco-system of SMEs. The contribution of India’s mining sector to its GDP is just 2%, while it could contribute as much as 10%. Given India has one of the best geologies in the world, it must increase production on a massive scale, may be up to five times from the current production. This requires a simple and transparent policy, one that peels off layers from the current stack of approvals needed, to attract firms to invest, explore and produce. 41. Which of the following can be critically inferred from the passage?

(a) Concerns over environmental issues must be addressed with utmost priority in context of mining activities.

(b) The government’s intention should be to maximise production. (c) Both (a) and (b) (d) Neither (a) nor (b)

Answer: (b) Explanation: The passage discusses the impact of developing the mining sector on the economy and employment, not on the environment. Hence, concerns over environmental issues are irrelevant to the passage. Hence, statement (a) cannot be inferred. The passage quotes various statistics to show the importance of mining to India’s economy and then goes on to say that India needs to increase production on a massive scale, possibly up to five times the current value. Hence, statement (b) can be inferred. Hence, the correct answer is option (b). 42. The passage says that:

(a) Government should take concrete steps to encourage private investment in the mining sector.

(b) There exists untapped potential in the Indian mining equipment sector. (c) Both (a) and (b) (d) Neither (a) nor (b)

Answer: (c) Explanation: The passage pushes towards greater development of the mining sector and concludes by stating that the government has to create policies that encourage companies to invest in this sector. Hence, statement (a) is valid. The passage mentions that India has only 10% of its area being mined, whereas a country like Australia has 95%. It also shows how the development of this sector can reduce import dependency and the import bill. Thus, there is clear untapped potential in this sector. Hence, statement (b) is valid. Hence, the correct answer is option (c).

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43. Which of the following is true as per the passage? (a) While demand continues to create the ground for a robust mining sector, it is

not supported with requisite supply. (b) India lacks advanced technology to mine resources that are difficult to access. (c) India’s mining sector contribution to GDP is below par. (d) Both (a) and (c) above

Answer: (d) Explanation: According to the passage, India’s outflow on importing natural resources is nearly half its total import bill. Thus, there is very clearly a lot of demand in India but the supply lacks the capacity to meet this demand. Hence, statement a is true. The passage also mentions that India’s mining sector contribution to GDP is only 2%, and can go up to 10%. Hence, statement (c) is correct. The inability to explore land areas for mining activities, and not technology, is mentioned as the reason for the stagnant mining sector of India. Hence, statement (b) is not correct. Hence, the correct answer is option (d).

PASSAGE – 2 India must take a leaf from China’s book on improving healthcare. China, which, in 2015, had 3.6 physicians for every 1,000 population is deploying artificial intelligence (AI) in a big way to make up with automation what it lacks in manpower in healthcare. An article in the MIT Technology Review (MTR) talks of how it is easing work in many areas of healthcare, from diagnostics to dentistry - in fact, the Chinese government has made computerised medical diagnosis one of the cornerstones of its grand plan to embrace AI by 2020. While over 130 companies are already working on AI applications in the country’s healthcare sector, the IDC estimate of a $930-million market in China for AI-led healthcare services by 2022 means more of such companies are expected to come online. China’s home grown tech giants, Alibaba and Tencent, have also placed significant bets on AI diagnostic tools. The MTR report talks about how cancer- radiologists in more than 20 Chinese hospitals are using a neural network that helps them identify potential malignancies, drawing from thousands of reports, images and conclusions drawn by medical professionals. While it makes the doctors’ job easier, the latter also help refine it by correcting any mistakes it throws up; the start-up that created the software has netted over 180 hospitals so far as research collaborators. India, in 2016, had just 0.75 physicians per 1,000 population. Public spending on health, per capita, in 2015 stood at a mere $16.2 compared with China’s $254.4 and the US’s whopping $4,810. This meant the government expenditure on health in India, as proportion of the country’s overall health spending, was just 25% compared with China’s 60%. While improving the density of physicians, diagnostic facilities, hospitals and health centres, and other indicators of healthcare adequacy are an important goal, India could definitely benefit from taking a cue from China on deploying AI.

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44. With reference to the passage, consider the following statements:

(1) In India, the healthcare infrastructure is inadequate on many fronts. (2) China is looking at AI and machine-learning from a perspective of productivity

gains. (3) Providing health services to a widely-dispersed population can be solved by

AI. Which of the statements given above can be assumed? (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only (c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (d) Explanation: The last paragraph points to the shortcomings of Indian healthcare system on every parameter such as physicians per population, public spending on health as well as healthcare infrastructure. Hence, it can be assumed that healthcare infrastructure is inadequate on many fronts i.e. statement 1 can be assumed. The passage mentions how AI is making the work of Chinese doctors easier and is also refining and errors made. Thus it can be assumed that productivity is improving. Hence, statement 2 can be assumed. The passage states that what China lacks in terms of healthcare manpower gets covered by AI. This gives credence to the assumption that AI helps reach out to a much larger and dispersed population set compared to actual doctors. Hence, statement 3 can be assumed. Hence, the correct answer is option (d).

PASSAGE – 3 While toilets can be constructed on a mission mode, using them and becoming conscious of cleanliness is a different matter. None of that can happen without a mindset change as even the Ministry of Drinking Water and Sanitation has acknowledged. This is the most difficult job. Nor has the presence of toilets, even when readymade and handed out on a pan, created an atmosphere that encourages cleanliness. It is often said that India is dirty because everything associated with pollution and filth is for the so-called lower castes to clean. Yet, if the subaltern people were meant to do all the dirty work, why then are their habitations unclean as well? Assuming that in the next four years all, or nearly all, Indian households will have toilets, will that make this country noticeably clean? Chances are that it will not. According to a conservative government figure, post-Swachh Bharat there is piped water in 1.5 lakh out of 2.45 lakh villages that have indoor toilets. Further, the National Sample Survey Organisation (NSSO) also shows that over 80% of rural households in 2014 reported that they had improved sources of drinking water since

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2012. That, however, has not changed the fact that only 6.4% of villagers dump garbage in a designated dumping spot. 45. With reference to the passage, consider the following statements:

(1) The so-called lower castes are indifferent towards health and cleanliness as their habitations are unclean.

(2) Merely building toilets is not a panacea to India’s manifold health problems. (3) Open defecation will be importantly reduced if the government builds more

latrines. Which of the statements given above can be assumed? (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only (c) 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (b) Explanation: The passage clearly says that construction of toilets will not help unless the mindset of the people changes. The passage also says that the so-called lower castes are associated with pollution and cleaning filth and since their habitations are also unclean it can be implied that they are indifferent to health and cleanliness. The passage also states that building toilets alone is not a solution to India’s health problems. Hence, statements 1 and 2 can be assumed. By the same logic as above, only building more latrines will not convince people to avoid open defecation. Hence, statement 3 cannot be assumed. Hence, the correct answer is option (b). 46. Which of the following can be critically inferred from the passage?

(a) The burden of maintenance of toilets rests on communities that have been assigned this job for centuries.

(b) India’s much poorer neighbours have done better than India in reducing open defecation.

(c) Both a and b (d) Neither a nor b

Answer: (a) Explanation: The passage says that one reason why India is unclean is that work related to cleaning filth, toilets etc is the work of certain castes and communities alone. Hence, the burden of maintaining toilets currently rests on certain communities that have been historically doing this work. Hence, statement (a) can be inferred. The passage does not discuss India’s record in tackling open defecation w.r.t. other countries. Hence, statement (b) cannot be inferred. Hence, the correct answer is option (a).

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PASSAGE – 4 Even after nine months of unveiling the GST, the system continues to be unsettled, and there is a palpable sense of uneasiness among the governments as well as businesses. The “good and simple tax” has ceased to be so, and the “one nation, one tax” is yet to materialise in proper shape. The revenue collections have not been according to expectations and the governments are worried on that front. The central government is seriously concerned with the issue not only because it poses serious difficulties in conforming to even the revised estimate of fiscal deficit, but also because it has to give generous compensation to the states for a shortfall in revenues. Although the states are not immediately concerned on this front, as the Centre has promised to give compensation for the loss of revenue computed at 14% increase over the previous year’s collection of the taxes included in the levy, there are long-term concerns that matter. Furthermore, it has not been possible to apportion the IGST, as it has not been possible to finalise the returns and the ad hoc allocations have not helped many state governments to overcome their liquidity problems. Businesses are seriously concerned about the complication in the structure, the high-compliance cost it has imposed on them and the fear of e-way bills. Exporters are faced with the serious problem of not getting refunds on the tax paid due to the difficulty in finalising the returns. 47. Which of the following can be critically inferred from the passage?

(1) The government has not been able to address the structural issues of GST reform.

(2) The GST has helped widen the government's tax net to incorporate the previously un-taxed business enterprises.

(3) The Central and State governments will share 50% of the tax amount collected as IGST.

Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) None of the above

Answer: (d) Explanation: According to the passage, GST revenue collections are lower than expectations, the central and state governments have been facing issues and businesses have problems due to structural complications, high compliance costs and difficulty in filing of returns. All these point to the inference that the government has been unable to address structural issues within GST. Hence, statement 1 can be inferred. According to the passage, revenue collections from GST have been lower than expected. There is no evidence to show that previously untaxed businesses have been brought into the net. Hence, statement 2 cannot be inferred. The passage states that one of the problems being faced is that the Centre has not been able to apportion the IGST i.e. decide the division of the tax amount collected as IGST.

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Hence, statement 3 cannot be inferred. Hence, the correct answer is option d. 48. Consider the following statement and the two statements that follow from it:

None but astronauts use teflon. (1) Sita is an astronaut and thus, she uses teflon. (2) Gita does not use teflon and thus, she is not an astronaut. Which of these statements follows from the main statement? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (d) 49. Consider the following statements:

(1) All plants are organic and all trees are organic. Therefore, all plants are trees. (2) Only phones are cellular. Mobiles are cellular and so, mobiles are phones. Which of the statements given above is/are logically consistent? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (b) Directions for Q. 50: The following item consists of four statements. Of these four statements, two cannot both be true, but both can be false. Study the statements carefully and identify the two that satisfy the above condition. Select the correct answer using the code given below: 50. Examine the following statements:

(1) All cups are white. (2) Some cups are not white. (3) No cups are white. (4) Some cups are white. Codes (a) 1 and 3 only (b) 1 and 2 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 3 and 4 only

Answer: (a) Directions for Questions 51 to 54 (4 items)

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Study the chart given below and answer the questions based on the information provided: The Midday Meal Scheme is a school meal programme of the Government of India

designed to better the nutritional standing of school-age children nationwide. It was launched in 1995. This scheme has helped in improving the enrolment rate of students in primary schools at pan India level. But during initial years due to poor implementation of the scheme, few village schools didn't see any satisfactory check on dropout rate of students. In this context, consider the line chart which gives the number of students who joined and left the schools of a village 'Wani' in Maharashtra. 51. For which year, the percentage rise/fall in the number of students who left the schools compared to the previous year is maximum?

(a) 1998 (b) 1999 (c) 2000 (d) 2001

Answer: (c) Explanation: The percentage rise/fall in the number of students who left the schools compared to the previous year is as follows:

The maximum percentage rise/fall among the given options is for the year 2000. Hence, option (c) is the correct answer.

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52. The ratio of the least number of students who joined the schools to the maximum number of students who left the schools in any of the years during the given period is? (a) 7 : 9 (b) 4 : 5 (c) 3 : 4 (d) 2 : 3

Answer: (d) Explanation: Important data noted from the given line chart:

In 1997: Number of students joined = 300 (least).

In 1997: Number of students left = 450 (maximum) or

in 2000: Number of students left = 450 (maximum) Required ratio = 300/450= 2/3. Hence, option is (d) is correct answer. 53. The number of students studying in the schools in 1998 was what percent of the

number of students studying in the schools in 2001? (a) 92.13% (b) 93.75% (c) 96.88% (d) 97.25%

Answer: (b) Explanation: Important data noted from the given line chart:

In 1996: Number of students left = 250 and number of students joined = 350.





In 2001: Number of students left = 450 and number of students joined = 550. Therefore, the numbers of students studying in the schools (i.e., strength of the schools) in various years:

In 1995 = 3000 (given).

In 1996 = 3000 - 250 + 350 = 3100.

In 1997 = 3100 - 450 + 300 = 2950.

In 1998 = 2950 - 400 + 450 = 3000.

In 1999 = 3000 - 350 + 500 = 3150.

In 2000 = 3150 - 450 + 400 = 3100.

In 2001 = 3100 - 450 + 550 = 3200. The numbers of students studying in the schools in 1998 is 3000 and in 2001 is 3200. Required percentage = ((3000/3200) x 100 ) % = 93.75%. Hence, option is (b) is correct answer.

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54. During which of the following pairs of years, the strength of the schools was same?

(a) 1999 and 2001 (b) 1998 and 2000 (c) 1997 and 1998 (d) 1996 and 2000

Answer: (d) Explanation: As calculated in above solution, in the years 1996 and 2000 the strength of the schools was same i.e., 3100.

In 1996 = 3000 - 250 + 350 = 3100.

In 2000 = 3150 - 450 + 400 = 3100. 55. Find the number of triangles in the given figure:

(a) 22 (b) 24 (c) 28 (d) 32

Answer: (c) Explanation:

The simplest triangles are AGH, GFO, LFO, DJK, EKP, PEL and IMN (Total 7 in

number).

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The triangles having 2 parts each are GFL, KEL, AMO, NDP, BHN, CMJ, NEJ and HFM (Total 8 in number).

The triangles having 3 parts each are IOE, IFP, BIF and CEI (Total 4 in number).

The triangles having 4 parts each are ANE and DMF (Total 2 in number).

The triangle having 5 parts each are FCK, BGE and ADL (Total 3 in number).

The triangle having 6 parts each are BPF, COE, DHF and AJE (Total 4 in number) Hence, the total number of triangles in the figure = 7+8+4+2+3+4 = 28 56. A Motor Biker started travelling towards north. After travelling 50m, he turned right

and travelled 40m. He again turned right and travelled 45m. He again turned right and travelled a distance of 100m straight. After taking rest for about 10 min, he turned left and travelled 5m and then finally he turned right. In which direction was he moving finally? (a) North-east (b) East (c) West (d) South-West

Answer: (c) 57. When all the students of standard X of Modern school were made to stand in

ascending order of their heights, Mukesh was standing at 17th position. When they were standing in decreasing order of their height, Mukesh was standing at the 26th position. How many students are there in the class? (no two students have the same height) (a) 42 (b) 41 (c) 40 (d) Cannot be determined

Answer: (a) Explanation: If ‘n’ people are standing in a row, then the sum of the ranks from left and from the right is always equal to n+1. Here in this case, n + 1 = 17+26. Therefore n = 42. Option (a). DIRECTIONS for Ques 58 to 61 (4 items): The following table gives the Fund allocation of different schemes by Government of India over the years. (in Rs crores)

Years

Schemes

A B C D E Total

2011 75 144 114 102 108 543

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2012 90 126 102 84 126 528

2013 96 114 75 105 135 525

2014 105 90 150 90 75 510

2015 90 75 135 75 90 465

2016 105 60 165 45 120 495

2017 115 85 160 100 145 605

58. What was the approximate percentage increase in the fund allocation of scheme A

in 2016 compared to that in 2011? (a) 20% (b) 40% (c) 56% (d) Cannot be determined

Answer: (b) Explanation: 105−75

75× 100% = 40%

59. The total fund allocation of all the seven years is the maximum for which scheme?

(a) Scheme (A) (b) Scheme (B) (c) Scheme (C) (d) Scheme (D)

Answer: (c) Explanation: Scheme A – 676 crore Scheme B – 694 crore Scheme C – 901 crore Scheme D – 601 crore 60. In which year, there has been a maximum percentage increase in the value of fund

allocation for scheme C as compared to previous year? (a) 2016 (b) 2014 (c) 2013 (d) 2012


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150−75

75× 100% = 100% Increase

61. In case of which scheme there was a continuous decrease in fund allocation from

2013 to 2016? (a) Scheme A (b) Scheme B (c) Scheme C (d) Scheme E

Answer: (b) 62. An alphabet series is given with two term missing. Choose the correct alternative

that will continue the same pattern and replace the question marks in the given series: Z, S, W, O, T, K, Q, ?, ? (a) K, C (b) G, N (c) J, C (d) C, J

Answer: (b) Explanation: In this question we are having alternate pattern: S, O, K, G Z, W, T, Q, N So answer is GN 63. How many dots will be on the face opposite to the face which contains 4 dots?

(a) 1

(b) 5 (c) 3 (d) 6

Answer: (c) Explanation: Face with 4 dots is having face with 1, 5 and 6 dots adjacent. By eliminating answer options (a), (b) and (d), we get correct answer (c). 64. Which of the options will replace the question mark?

(a) 25 (b) 34 (c) 29 (d) 47

Answer: (b)

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Explanation: Pattern is:

5 × 4 + 3 = 23 7 × 6 + 5 = 47 6 × 5 + 4 = 34

65. Delhi is to the east of Lucknow which is to the north of Srinagar. Kabul is to the

south of Srinagar. Compared to Delhi which direction is Kabul located? (a) West (b) South (c) South-East (d) None of these

Answer: (d) Explanation: Correct answer is South-west Directions for Ques no. 66: Monu and Sonu are good in Archery and Swimming. Anjali and Monu are good in Swimming and Cooking. Anjali, Poonam and Nisha are good in Cooking and Driving. Poonam and Sonu are good in Riding and Archery. 66. Who is good in Riding, Cooking, Swimming and Driving?

(a) Poonam (b) Nisha (c) Sonu (d) Data Inadequate

Answer: (d) Explanation:

Monu Archery Swimming Cooking

Sonu Archery Swimming Riding

Anjali Swimming Cooking Driving

Poonam Archery Cooking Driving Riding

Nisha Cooking Driving

67. Two trains of equal length are running on parallel lines in the same direction at 45

km/hr and 36 km/hr. The faster train passes the slower train in 36 seconds. The length of each train is: (a) 80 m (b) 72 m (c) 45 m (d) 90 m

36


Answer: (c) Explanation: Let length of the train is x. Relative speed = 45-36=9 km/hr = 2.5 m/s

2𝑋

2.5 = 36

2x = 90 m x = 45 m

68. Present ages of Ajay and Vijay are in the ratio of 5:4 respectively. Three years

hence, the ratio of their ages will become 11:9 respectively. What is Ajay’s present age in years? (a) 24 (b) 30 (c) 40 (d) Cannot be determined


𝐴𝑗𝑎𝑦

𝑉𝑖𝑗𝑎𝑦 =

5

4

𝐴𝑗𝑎𝑦+3

𝑉𝑖𝑗𝑎𝑦+3 =

11

9

By solving these two equations we will get Ajay's age = 30 years

69. A goldsmith has 500 gms of gold, part of which he sells at 8% profit and the rest at 18% profit. He gains 14% on the whole. The quantity sold at 18% profit is: (a) 200 gm (b) 280 gm (c) 300 gm (d) 320 gm

Answer: (c) Explanation:

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3

5× 500= 300 Gms

70. In a garden, there are 13 rows and 11 columns of trees. The distance between two

trees is 4 metres and a distance of two metres is left from all sides of the boundary of the garden. The area of the garden is: (a) 543 sq meters (b) 2288 sq meters (c) 1144 sq meters (d) 960 sq meters

Answer: (b) Explanation: Dimensions of the garden are 52 x 44 = 2288 sq. meter (area). Directions for the following 5 (five) items: Read the following three passages and answer the items that follow each passage. Your answers to these items should be based on the passages only.

PASSAGE – 1 To begin with, in the pre-independence period, labour rights, trade unions, and freedom of association were all suppressed. As a result, labour activism became part of the civil disobedience and unrest. Post-independence Indian labour law was so closely linked to the Indian independence movement, that the then newly framed Constitution of India in 1950, included fundamental labour rights, such as the right to join and take action in a trade union, the principle of equality at work and the aspiration of creating a living wage with decent working conditions. Despite several decades of economic progress, labour laws enshrined in the Constitution have not largely been amended nor reformed over the years, making them archaic to contemporary businesses and ways of working in a technology-centric world. Apparently, political ideologies and mindsets are also to be blamed. Studies have indicated that regional mindset has impaired domestic industry and economic growth. For example, in Kerala alone there were nearly 363 “hartals” called by different political parties, between 2005 and 2012, making them days of unproductive labour. Moreover, a political climate dominated by the socialist ideology during the 70’s and 80’s contributed to a mindset which perceived profit making and enterprise a taboo, thereby also laying extra emphasis on worker-centric labour policies. Nevertheless, the current union government is taking an industry-friendly attitude and hopes to transform India into a manufacturing hub over the next years. 71. Which of the following can be concluded from the passage?

(a) Laws alone don't result in a productive workforce; governments, organisations and people themselves need to bring about a change in mindsets.

(b) Private companies did not set up business in India in 70’s and 80’s owing to lax labour laws

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(c) Formulation of worker-centric labour policies will accelerate India’s dream of improving its manufacturing sector.

(d) Prior to independence, India did not have any labour laws. Answer: (a) Explanation: The passage mentions that political ideologies and mindsets have also hampered domestic industry and economic growth. This also contributed in maligning concepts like profit- making and enterprise and framing policies and laws accordingly. Hence, it can be validly concluded that governments, organisations like trade unions and workers themselves need a mindset change, along with laws, to improve productivity. Hence, statement (a) can be concluded. The passage just mentions that labour policies were exceedingly worker-centric in the 70s and 80s but this cannot be used to conclude that private companies did not set up business in India in this period. Hence, statement (b) cannot be concluded. The whole gist of the passage is that worker- centric labour policies have hindered India’s goal of improving its manufacturing sector. Hence, statement (c) cannot be concluded. The passage mentions that before independence, concepts such as labour rights, trade unions and freedom of association were suppressed. This implies that there were labour laws in place, but they were oppressive. Hence, statement (d) cannot be concluded. Hence, the correct answer is option (a). 72. Which of the following is true according to the passage?

(a) Labour laws in India are adaptive to contemporary businesses. (b) India suffered from weak bureaucracy but boasted high labour productivity. (c) Labour activism interfered with civil- disobedience movement. (d) None of the above

Answer: (d) Explanation: The passage mentions that labour laws have not been amended or reformed, thereby making them obsolete w.r.t. contemporary business. Hence, statement (a) is not true. The passage gives multiple examples of low labour productivity due to archaic labour laws. Hence, statement (b) is not true. According to the passage, labour activism became a part of the civil disobedience movement, rather than interfering with it. Hence, statement (c) is not true. Hence, the correct answer is option (d).

PASSAGE–2

The biggest bottleneck where India’s agri-exports are concerned has been the arbitrary policy framework; governments have been prone to clamping down on exports of one product or another depending on what is politically expedient at the time. So, it is unfortunate that the blueprint for doubling India’s agri-exports promises free exports only for processed agri- products and all organic products. Exports of other products would be

39


restricted. The draft policy paper notes that those products considered to be “essential from a food security perspective” will be subject to restrictions. One assumes, therefore, commodities such as rice, wheat, sugar, pulses and vegetables would all be considered essential. If India wants to boost exports, the policy needs to be a more liberal one. One of the case studies highlighted reveals how the country could have saved some $7.5 billion between 2008 and 2011 had the exports of non- Basmati rice not been banned. Over the three years, nearly 15 million tonnes of non-Basmati rice could have been exported because stocks were overflowing; instead, the farmers earned lower realisations for their crop because the government wanted to control consumer inflation. A policy that bans exports of too many products can’t help; in that case, the bulk of India’s exports will continue to comprise meat and marine foods. What is unfortunate is that India is importing products that are already grown here—among them, wheat, apples, tea, raw cashew and almonds—and whose production can be increased with some minimal investment. 73. Which of the following can be concluded from the passage?

(a) Exports are an important driver of economic growth and will also help create much needed jobs for India's growing workforce.

(b) India’s farm exports face prohibitive import duties in overseas markets. (c) Both (a) and (b) (d) Neither (a) nor (b)

Answer: (d) Explanation: The relation between India’s exports and its labour force is not elaborated upon in the passage. As such, it cannot be said whether exports will help create jobs. Hence, statement (a) cannot be concluded. The passage mentions that India’s farm exports face constraints due to political considerations and interference. Hence, statement (b) cannot be concluded. Hence, the correct answer is option (d). 74. With reference to the passage, consider the following statements:

(1) There is big potential to increase exports in products such as rice. (2) It’s time India stopped over-promotion of cereals, and let demand and supply

forces guide production and trade decisions. (3) India needs to remove quantitative restrictions on exports so that farmers get

best prices for their produce. Select which of the statements given above is/are correct using the codes given below: (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only (c) 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (a) Explanation:

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The passage mentions that rice might be one of the products that is not allowed to be exported under the consideration of being essential. Since the passage argues against this practice, there is a lot of potential to increase rice exports if such artificial tags such as “essential commodity” are removed. Hence, statement 1 is correct. The passage does not claim that cereals are over- promoted. It just states that certain products are restricted in terms of exports. Hence, statement 2 is not correct. The passage gives the example of rice to show farmers got lower value for their crops due to quantitative restriction on export of rice. Hence, it argues for removal of such restrictions. Hence, statement 3 is not correct. Hence, the correct answer is option (a).

PASSAGE – 3 We all know that India is an energy-deficit country and our per-capita power consumption is a third of China's and a fifth of the US'. There is a lot of latent demand and as India grows, our deficit — currently estimated at 10% on an installed base of 200 GW — will likely go up, if no new investment is made in power capacity and in improving distribution. Renewables can play a critical role in plugging the energy shortfall. Solar can be set up on a disaggregated basis as well. It does not need to be set up in large utility scale, grid-connected situations only. It is just as amenable to rooftops. With net metering, and given the solar resource all over the country, we have the clear possibility of using our residential and commercial rooftops for power generation on a distributed basis. The issue is of climate change. The case for renewables in India is mostly made on the basis of energy access and energy deficit — seldom on the basis that climate change is real and we in India must, as all countries must, put our best efforts towards combating climate change. At a national level, the government did indeed enunciate a National

Action Plan for Climate Change with a game plan out to 2022. The 12th Five-Year Plan too sets out modest targets in renewable energy capacity. 75. With reference to the passage, consider the following statements:

(1) India needs to improve its grid capacity and make renewables mandatory. (2) The world will soon begin to run out of conventional fuels and prices will rise. (3) The renewable sector needs financial support in order to fulfil the energy

needs of the world. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 2 only (b) 1 and 2 only (c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (a) Explanation: While the passage mentions that India needs to focus more on utilising its natural

41


strengths in renewables, it also says that solar need not be setup in large scale, grid-connected situations only. Thus, India may be able to tackle the problem even without improving its grid capacity. Hence, statement 1 is not correct. The passage mentions that there is already energy shortfall and this is expected to increase if no new energy is produced. Also, since the passage emphasises on “renewable” energy, it implies that the conventional fuel sources are not renewable and may go out of stock sooner or later. Hence, statement 2 is correct. Though the passage focuses on the need and benefit of renewable energy sources, it does not discuss the financial aspects of the same. Hence, statement 3 is not correct. Hence, the correct answer is option (a). 76. The L.C.M. of two numbers is 24. The numbers are in the ratio 2:3. Then sum of the

numbers is: (a) 20 (b) 32 (c) 24 (d) None of the above

Answer: (a) Explanation: Numbers are 8 and 12 Directions for the following 4 (four) items: Four students of XYZ college: Harry, Pali, Sattu and Baba went to Taj hotel. Each ordered different food items. Food items available that time were Masala Dosa, Idly Sambhar, Noodles and Manchurian. However none ate what any of the others ate. When they returned to their college they asked their college mates to guess what they had eaten at hotel. Each makes two false statements and one true statement. Read their statements and answer the questions that follow: Harry: I ate Masala Dosa Pali ate Idly Sambhar. Sattu did not eat Manchurian. Sattu: Harry ate Masala Dosa. Pali did not eat Masala Dosa I ate Manchurian. Pali: Sattu ate Manchurian I did not eat Idly Sambhar Baba did not eat noodles. Baba: I ate idly Sambhar Pali ate Manchurian Harry ate noodles.

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77. What did Harry eat? (a) Noodles (b) Manchurian (c) Idly Sambhar (d) Masala Dosa

Ans: (c) 78. What did Pali eat?

(a) Noodles (b) Manchurian (c) Idly Sambhar (d) Masala Dosa

Ans: (b) 79. What did Sattu eat?


Ans: (d) 80. What did Baba eat?


Ans: (a) Explanation: By hit-and-trial approach, following is the distribution of food-items:

Harry Idly Sambhar

Pali Manchurian

Sattu Masala Dosa

Baba Noodles

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