Included on this page are micrographs that were selected to illustrate the features most often used to identify the various blood cells. Not every cell you see in the lab will look exactly like these, but if you look for the features pointed out with each micrograph, you should be able to make proper identifications during differential white blood cell counts or during a lab exam.

GRANULOCYTES: NEUTROPHIL - EOSINOPHIL - BASOPHIL AGRANULOCYTES: LYMPHOCYTE - MONOCYTE

ERYTHROCYTE THROMBOCYTES - PLATELETS

[HOME] [ENDOCRINE HISTOLOGY] [UNIT 1 TEST]

NEUTROPHIL

This granulocyte has very tiny light staining granules (the granules are very difficult to see). The nucleus is frequently multi-lobed with lobes connected by thin strands of nuclear material. These cells are capable of phagocytizing foreign cells, toxins, and viruses.

When taking a Differential WBC Count of normal blood, this type of cell would be the most numerous. Normally, neutrophils account for 50-70%

of all leukocytes. If the count exceeds this amount, the cause is usually due to an acute infection such as appendicitis, smallpox or rheumatic fever. If the count is considerably less, it may be due to a viral infection such as influenza, hepatitis, or rubella.

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EOSINOPHIL

This granulocyte has large granules (A) which are acidophilic and appear pink (or red) in a stained preparation. This micrograph was color enhanced to illustrate this feature. The nucleus often has two lobes connected by a band of nuclear material. (Does it looks like a telephone receiver?) The granules contain digestive enzymes that are particularly effective against parasitic worms in their larval form. These cells also phagocytize antigen - antibody complexes.

These cells account for less than 5% of the WBC's. Increases beyond this amount may be due to parasitic diseases, bronchial asthma or hay fever. Eosinopenia may occur when the body is severely stressed.

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BASOPHIL

The basophilic granules in this cell are large, stain deep blue to purple, and are often so numerous they mask the nucleus. These granules contain histamines (cause vasodilation) and heparin (anticoagulant).

In a Differential WBC Count we rarely see these as they represent less than 1% of all leukocytes. If the count showed an abnormally high number of these cells, hemolytic anemia or chicken pox may be the cause.

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LYMPHOCYTE

The lymphocyte is an agranular cell with very clear cytoplasm which stains pale blue. Its nucleus is very large for the size of the cell and stains dark purple. (Notice that the nucleus almost fills the cell leaving a very thin rim of cytoplasm.) This cell is much smaller than the three granulocytes (which are all about the same size). These cells play an important role in our immune response. The T-lymphocytes act against virus infected cells and tumor cells. The B-lymphocytes produce antibodies.

This is the second most numerous leukocyte, accounting for 25-35% of the cells counted in a Differential WBC Count. When the number of these cells exceeds the normal amount, one would suspect infectious mononucleosis or a chronic infection. Patients with AIDS keep a careful watch on their T-cell level, an indicator of the AIDS virus' activity.

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MONOCYTE

This cell is the largest of the leukocytes and is agranular. The nucleus is most often "U" or kidney bean shaped; the cytoplasm is abundant and light blue (more blue than this micrograph illustrates). These cells leave

the blood stream (diapedesis) to become macrophages. As a monocyte or macrophage, these cells are phagocytic and defend the body against viruses and bacteria.

These cells account for 3-9% of all leukocytes. In people with malaria, endocarditis, typhoid fever, and Rocky Mountain spotted fever, monocytes increase in number.

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ERYTHROCYTE

The background cells in this micrograph are erythrocytes (red blood cells). These cells are non-nucleated, biconcave discs that are filled with hemoglobin. The primary function of these cells is to carry oxygen from the lungs to the body cells.

Woman usually have 4-5 million erythrocytes per cubic millimeter of blood, men have 5-6 million. If this number is considerably higher, polycythemia may be the cause. If the number is considerably less, the person has anemia.

Sickle cell anemia is an inherited condition which results in some erythrocytes being malformed. The gene for this condition causes the hemoglobin to be incorrectly formed, which in turn causes some erythrocytes to take on a crescent shape. These cells are not able to carry

adequate amounts of oxygen to cells.

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THROMBOCYTES - PLATELETS

Platelets, which are cell fragments, are seen next to the "t's" above. (Many of the other micrographs on this page contain them as well.) Platelets are important for proper blood clotting.

Each cubic millimeter of blood should contain 250,000 to 500,000 of these. If the number is too high, spontaneous clotting may occur. If the number is too low, clotting may not occur when necessary.

BIOLOGY 2740 - HUMAN PHYSIOLOGY AND ANATOMYPRACTICE TEST 3

MULTIPLE CHOICE: Choose the best answer.

1. When the membrane potential (i.e. -70 mV) becomes less negative or in other words, approaches zero, the membrane is said to be:

A. polarizing B. hyperpolarizing C. prepolarizing D. autopolarizing E. depolarizing.

2. An all-or-none nerve fiber impulse, may be triggered by:

A. a weak below threshold stimulusB. a weak but threshold stimulusC. a strong well-above threshold stimulusD. either, A or BE. either, B or C.

3. Resting membrane potential, is defined as:

A. The movement of sodium ions outside the membrane and the movement of potassium ions inside the membraneB. the difference in electrical charges between the inside and outside of a resting nerve membraneC. the movement of action potentials along a resting axonD. the movement of ions along the external surface of a resting membrane.

4. During an infection of the CNS, you might expect to find an increase in:

A.Schwann cells B. microglia C. astrocytes D. oligodendrocytes E. ependymal cells.

5. Bipolar neurons are located in the:

A. olfactory mucosa B. retina of the eye C. inner ear D. all of the preceding E. answers A and B only.

6. Destruction of which cranial nerve would result in the inability to smile?

A. V; B. VI; C. VII; D. IX; E. X.

7. Nerve fibers that carry sensory impulses from skeletal muscles to the brain and spinal cord are called:

A. somatic efferentB. visceral efferentC. visceral afferentD. somatic afferentE. none of the preceding.

8. Destruction of which cranial nerve would result in the inability to masticate food?

A. V; B. VI; C. VII; D. IX; E. X.

MATCH THE MAJOR BRAIN REGION WITH THE APPROPRIATE STRUCTURE. (Note: Items A through E may be used more than once.)

A. Myelencephalon B. mesencephalon C. metencephalon D. telencephalon E. diencephalon.

9. Vasomotor center10. Occipital lobe11. Cerebral aqueduct12. Pons13. Pineal gland (body)14. Third ventricle15. Superior colliculus16. Lateral ventricles17. Hypothalamus18. Cerebellum19. Medulla oblongata20. Frontal lobe21. Epithalamus

MULTIPLE CHOICE. CHOOSE THE BEST ANSWER.

22. The layer of connective tissue surrounding a nerve, is called the:

A. epimysium B. apomysium C. endoneurium D. epineurium E. perimysium.

23. The central sulcus in the cerebrum, separates the ----- from the ----- lobe.

A. temporal / occipitalB. frontal / parietalC. parietal occipital

D. temporal / frontalE. frontal/occipital.

24. Bundles of axons or nerve fibers are known as tracts, except in the PNS, where they are known as:

A. ganglia B. interneurons C. nuclei D. nerves E. postsynaptic neurons.

25. The two principal divisions of the nervous system are the:

A. afferent nervous system and the efferent nervous systemB. autonomic nervous system and the somatic nervous systemC. parasympathetic and sympathetic nervous systemsD. saltatory conduction and continuous conduction systemsE. peripheral nervous system and central nervous system

26. Destruction of which cranial nerve would result in the inability to smell?

A. X; B. VII; C. V; D.II; E. I.

MATCHING. (Items A through E may be used more than once. Only one letter per answer.)

A. frontal lobes B. parietal lobes C. temporal lobes D. occipital lobes E. cerebellum.

27. Broca's area that makes speech possible28. Reflex center for coordination of skeletal muscle movements29. Functions involve responses related to memory, emotions, reasoning, judgment, planning and verbal communication30. Area responsible for vision31. Location of sensory area responsible for hearing32. Controls muscular movements of the hands and fingers that make skills, such as writing possible (precentral gyrus)33. The tracts of white matter have a distinctive branching matter called the arbor vitae34. The two hemispheres of this structure are joined together by the vermis35. Contains the location for the sensations of touch, temperature, and pressure (postcentral gyrus)

MATCHING. Innervation of the extrinsic ocular muscles. (Note: Items A through C may be used more than once.)

A. Trochlear B. oculomotor C. abducens

36. Medial rectus muscle37. Inferior rectus muscle38. Superior oblique muscle39. Inferior oblique muscle

40. Superior rectus muscle41. Lateral rectus muscle

TRUE OR FALSE TRUE = A; FALSE = B

42. All spinal nerves are mixed nerve.43. The hormone oxytocin is produced by cells in the pineal gland44. A multipolar neuron has several axons and one dendrite45. The term aphasia refers to speech and language disorders46. Dopamine, epinephrine and norepinephrine are classified as catecholamines47. The cerebral cortex is composed of gray matter48. The endoneurium is composed of fine delicate nerve fibers49. Osmoreceptors in the hypothalamus are responsible for monitoring the osmotic concentration of the blood50. The pituitary gland is attached to the epithalamus by the infundibulum51. In the spinal cord the columns of white matter are called fascicles52. Brain waves may be recorded as an electrocardiogram

MATCHING CRANIAL NERVES: (Note: Items A through E may be used more than once.)

A. trigeminal B. glossopharyngeal C. facial D. accessory E. hypoglossal

53. Muscles of the tongue54. Buccinator muscle55. Temporalis muscle56. Masseter muscle57. Ophthalmic region of the head58. Taste buds on the anterior two-thirds of the tongue59. Frontalis muscle60. Medial and lateral pterygoids61. Mandibular region of the head62. Trapezius muscle63. Sternocleidomastoid muscle64. Also known as number VII65. Also known as number IX66.Also known as number V

MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the best answer.

67. The part of the brain responsible for the regulation of body temperature and hunger is the:

A. superior colliculus B. parietal lobe C. epithalamus D. medulla oblongata E. hypothalamus

68. The region of the brain stem located between the midbrain and medulla oblongata is the:

A. pons B. hypothalamus C. corpus callosum D. intermediate mass E. cerebral peduncles

69. Which of the following statements about the spinal cord is true?

A. it extends from the foramen magnum to the level of S1B. it is located in the central canalC. both ascending and descending fiber tracts are presentD. it consists of a central area of white matter, surrounded by gray matterE. two of the above

70. Which one of the following structures allows CSF to pass from the subarachnoid space to the dural sinus?

A. inter-vertebral foraminaB. choroid plexusesC. corpus callosumD. arachnoid villiE. spinal central canal.

71. Which of the following is not a catecholamine?

A. epinephrine B. acetylcholine C. norepinephrine C. corpus callosum D. dopamine

MATCH THE SPINAL NERVE WITH ITS APPROPRIATE PLEXUS. (Note: Items A through D may be used more than once.)

A. cervical plexus B. sacral plexus C. lumbar plexus D. brachial plexus.

72. Sciatic nerve73. Phrenic nerve74. Obturator nerve75. Axillary nerve76. Musculocutaneous77. Tibial nerve78. Femoral nerve

MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the best answer.

79. Which of the following is located in the PNS?

A. Astrocytes B. ependyma C. oligodendrocytes D. Schwann cells E. all of the preceding.

80. The crossed extensor reflex:

A. involves five neuronsB. has its reflex center in the frontal lobesC. is a contralateral reflex

D. is a polysynaptic reflexE. two of the preceding.

81. The autonomic system:

A. operates reflexlyB. contains somatic motor fibers;C. contains gangliaD. all of the preceding;E. answers A and C.

82. The cell bodies of postganglionic autonomic fibers are located in:

A. the lateral horn of the spinal cordB. the effector organC. the ventral horn of the spinal cordD. the medulla oblongataE. ganglia.

83. What type of effector is not under autonomic regulation ?

A. glands B. skeletal muscle C. cardiac muscles D. smooth muscles E. two of the preceding.

84. Which of the following cranial nerves contains motor nerve fibers?

A. abducens B. optic C. olfactory D. vestibulocochlear E. none of the preceding.

85. The cell bodies of preganglionic parasympathetic neurons are located in the:

A. cervical and thoracic spinal cordB. brain and lumbar spinal cordC. thoracic and lumbar spinal cordD. brain and sacral spinal cord.

86. There are ------ segments in the spinal cord.

A. 11 B. 2 C. 31 D. 41 E. 30.

87. Repolarization of an axon during an action potential is produced by:

A. inward diffusion of sodium ionsB. extrusion of potassium from the cell by active transportC. outward diffusion of potassium ionsD. inward diffusion of calcium ionsE. none of the above

88. The hormone melatonin is produced by the:

A. pituitary gland B. hypothalamus C. epithalamus D. medulla oblongata E. none of the preceding.

89. Which cranial nerves contain parasympathetic fibers?

A. III, V, IV, and VIIB. VII, IX, VIII, and XC. III, VII, IX, and XD. VII, V, VIII, and X.

MATCHING: SPINAL NERVE AND MUSCLES. (Note Items A through D may be used more than once.)

A. Obturator nerve B. femoral nerve C. axillary nerve D. radial nerve.

90. Triceps brachii91. Gacilis92. Psoas major93. Sartorius94. Deltoid95. Biceps femoris96. Vastus lateralis.97. Adductor longus98. Semitendinosus99. Rectus femoris100. Fill in the A circle

This site provides the correct answers for the Unit 3 test questions. To fully take advantage of this practice test we recommendthat you look carefully at the incorrect answers as well. Determining why answers are incorrect will increase your understanding of the material - often as much as finding the information that supports the correct answer.

Question# Answer Question# Answer Question# Answer Question # Answer

1 E 26 E 51 B 76 D

2 E 27 A 52 B 77 B

3 B 28 E 53 E 78 C

4 B 29 A 54 C 79 D

5 D 30 D 55 A 80 E

6 C 31 C 56 A 81 E

7 D 32 A 57 A 82 E

8 A 33 E 58 C 83 B

9 A 34 E 59 C 84 A

10 D 35 B 60 A 85 D

11 B 36 B 61 A 86 C

12 C 37 B 62 D 87 C

13 E 38 A 63 D 88 E

14 E 39 B 64 C 89 C

15 B 40 B 65 B 90 D

16 D 41 C 66 A 91 A

17 E 42 A 67 E 92 B

18 C 43 B 68 A 93 B

19 A 44 B 69 C 94 C

20 D 45 A 70 D 95 E

21 E 46 A 71 B 96 B

22 D 47 A 72 B 97 A

23 B 48 B 73 A 98 E

24 D 49 A 74 C 99 B

25 E 50 B 75 D 100 A

MULTIPLE CHOICE: Choose the best answer.

1.The science or study of joints is called:

A. sarcoloy B. osteology C. myology D. dermatology E. none of the preceding.

2. Which of the following parts of the upper limb or extremity is not correctly matched with the number of bones in that part?

A. brachium - 1 B. antebrachium - 2 C. carpus - 8 D. metacarpus - 5. phalanges - 12.

3. The largest ankle bone is the:

A. metatarsal B. navicular C. talus D. calcaneus E. first cuneiform.

4. Which of the following is an amphiarthrotic joint?

A. synchondrosis B. condyloid joint C. saddle joint D. symphysis E.answers A and D

5. The hinge joint at elbow is an example of a:

A. first-class lever B. second-class lever C. third-class lever D.. fourth-class lever.

6. Which of the following joints is freely movable?

A. ball and socket joint B. condyloid joint C. saddle joint D. pivot joint E. all of the preceding.

7. The inability to produce the fluid which keeps most diarthrodial joints moist would most likely be due to a disorder of the:

A. cruciate ligaments B. synovial membrane C. articular cartilage D. bursae E. answers B and D.

8. The sequence of parts in a first-class lever is:

A. effort-fulcrum-resistanceB. fulcrum-effort-resistanceC. fulcrum-effort-resistanceD. none of the preceding.

9. A rotational movement of the forearm that results in the palm of the hand being, directed backward (posteriorly) is called:

A.pronation B. eversion C. circumduction D. lateral flexion E. supination

MATCHING: FROM THE LIST OF BONES MATCH THE CORRECT STRUCTURE OR FOSSA THAT IS ASSOCIATED WITH IT. (Note: Items A through E may be used more than once.)

A. fibula B. tibia C. humerus D. ulna E. scapula

10. Linea aspera.11. Olecranon fossa.12. Radial notch.13. Coronoid fossa.14. Coracoid process.15. Lesser tubercle.16. Capitulum.17. Lesser trochanter.18. Coronoid process.19. Acromion.20. Lateral malleolus.21. Infraspinous fossa.22. Trochlear notch.

MATCHING:ARTICULATIONS. (Note: Items A through E may be used more than once.)

A. Symphysis B. suture C. syndesmosis D. pivot E. hinge.

23. Intervertebral joints24. Knee joint.25. Joint between the atlas and axis26. Joints between the cranial bones.27. Joints between the distal and middle bones of the phalanges.28. Joint between the distal ends of the tibia and fibula.29. Joint between the right and left pubic bones (or pubes).30. Joint between the proximal ends of the radius and ulna.31. Joint between the distal ends of the radius and ulna.

TRUE OR FALSE: TRUE= A; FALSE = B.

32. Slow-twitch muscles are sometimes called red fibers.33. Cardiac muscle fibers are located in the myocardium of the heart wall.34. In vitro means within the body.35. Smooth muscles in the GI tract are single-unit muscle cells.36. Flattened sheath-like tendons are called aponeuroses.37. Unlike multi-unit smooth muscles, single-unit smooth muscles need nerve stimulation.

MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the best answer.

38. Each myofibril in skeletal muscle:

A. is made up of many myofilamentsB. is made up of many sarcomeresC. contains a sarcoplasmic reticulumD. answers A, B, and CE. answers A and B.

39. The motor unit is defined as:

A. many myofibrils within the sarcolemmaB. the functional filaments within a muscle fiberC. many motor endplates within the neuromuscular functionD. a motor neuron and the muscle fibers innervated by itE. answers A and B.

40. The layer of connective tissue surrounding a skeletal muscle fiber is called the:

A. perimysium B. endomysium C. epimysium D. apomysium E. none of the preceding.

41. At the neuromuscular junction, synaptic vesicles contain:

A. calcium B. troponin C. acetylcholine D. ADP E. ATP.

42. If you were to extract protein molecules from the A-band, which of the following molecules would be found in the extract?

A. myosin B. actin C. troponin D. tropomyosin E. all of the preceding.

THE FOLLOWING STRUCTURES SERVE AS AN ORIGIN FOR CERTAIN SKELETAL MUSCLES. MATCH THE MUSCLES WITH THEIR POINTS OF ORIGIN. (Note: Items A through E may be used more than once.)

A. Sphenoid bone B. scapula C. iliac crest D. ischial tuberosity E. sternum.

45. Medial pterygoid44. Internal oblique45. Coracobrachialis46. Teres major47. Deltoid48. Quadratus lumborum49. Pectoralis major50. Biceps femoris51. Semimembranosus52. Lateral pterygoid53. Semitendinosus

MATCH THE FOLLOWING ACTIONS WITH THE APPROPRIATE MUSCLE. (Note: Items A through E may be used more than once.)

A. extends head at neckB. adducts the scapulaC. elevates the mandibleD. flexes head at neckE. abducts the thigh.

54. Gluteus medius.55. Masseter.56. Splenius capitis (acting, together).57. Sternocleidomastoid (acting, together).58. Medial pterygoid.59. Semispinalis capitis (acting together).60. Gluteus minimus.61. Rhomboideus major.62. Temporalis.63. Longissimus capitis (acting together).

MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the best answer.

64. There are three posterior thigh muscles which are antagonistic to the quadriceps femoris muscle. These muscles are known as the hamstring and they are as follows: the semimembranosus, semitendinosus, and the:

A. biceps femoris B. triceps femoris C. rectus femoris D. transversus femoris E. none of the preceding

65. The quadriceps femoris is actually a composite of four distinct muscles that have separate origins but a common insertion. The four muscles are the: vastus lateralis, vastus intermedius and the vastus medialis, and the:

A. biceps femoris B. triceps femoris C. rectus femoris D. transversus femoris E. none of the preceding.

66. When smooth muscle contracts, calcium bonds to :

A. phosphocreatine B. tropomyosin C. calmodulin D. acetylcholine E. myosin heads

67. Slow twitch muscles:

A. are sometimes called Type I muscle fibersB. have numerous mitochondriaC. have a high concentration of myoglobinD. have many capillariesE. all of the above.

68. The most movable attachment of a muscle is its:

A. insertion B. fulcrum C. origin D. none of the preceding.

THE FOLLOWING STRUCTURES SERVE AS AN INSERTION FOR CERTAIN SKELETAL MUSCLES. MATCH THE STRUCTURES WITH THE APPROPRIATE MUSCLES. (Note: Items A through E may be used more than once.)

A. lesser trochanter of the femurB. mastoid process of the temporal boneC. humerusD. xiphoid processE. tibia.

69. Sartorius.70. Rectus abdominis.71. Coracobrachialis.72. Sternocleidomastoid.73. Iliacus.74. Gracilis.

75. Semitendinosus.76. Deltoid.77. Longissimus capitis.78. Latissimus dorsi.79. Pectoralis major.80. Semimembranosus.

MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the best answer.

81. Immediately following the arrival of a threshold stimulus at a skeletal muscle cell, there is a short period called the:

A. relaxation period B. indecisive period C. latent period D. contraction period E. refractory period.

82. When a muscle exerts tension without shortening, the contraction is termed:

A. isometric B. graded C. summated D. isotonic E. none of the preceding.

83. Sarcoplasmic reticulum is another name for:

A. Golgi apparatus B. reticular connective tissue C. cell membrane D. cytoplasm E. none of the preceding

84. The delicate cell membrane surrounding each skeletal muscle fiber is called the:

A. epimysium B. sarcolemma C. sarcoplasm D. sarcoplasmic reticulum E. none of the preceding.

85. The science or study of muscles and their parts is called:

A. sarcology B. osteology C. myology D. dermatology E. none of the preceding.

FACIAL MUSCLES: MATCH THE ACTIONS WITH THE APPROPRIATE MUSCLE.

A. smile B. close the eye C. raise the eyebrows D. pucker the lips E. tighten or compress the cheeks

86. Orbicularis oculi.87. Zygomaticus.88. Frontalis portion of the epicranius.89. Orbicularis oris.90. Buccinator.

TRUE OR FALSE: True =A; False = B.

91. Ciliary muscles in the eyeball change the shape of the lens.

92. Smooth muscles in the sperm ducts and uterine tubes are single-unit muscles.93. The abbreviation ATP stands for alanine tripentose.94. Embryonic cells that form skeletal muscle cells are called myoblasts.95. The sartorius takes its origin on the posterior superior iliac spine.96. The sagittal suture is an example of a synostosis type of joint.97. Joints called synarthroses are freely movable joints.98. Contraction of the tibialis anterior causes planter flexion of the foot.99. Smooth muscle fibers are uninucleated, involuntary and nonstriated.100. Cardiac muscle fibers are uninucleated, involuntary and striated.

BIOLOGY 2740 - UNIT 2 - PRACTICE TEST - ANSWERS

This site provides the correct answers for the Unit 2 test questions. To fully take advantage of this practice test we recommendthat you look carefully at the incorrect answers as well. Determining why answers are incorrect will increase your understanding of the material - often as much as finding the information that supports the correct answer.

Question# Answer Question# Answer Question# Answer Question # Answer

1 E 26 B 51 D 76 C

2 E 27 E 52 A 77 B

3 D 28 C 53 D 78 C

4 D 29 A 54 E 79 C

5 C 30 D 55 C 80 E

6 E 31 C 56 A 81 C

7 B 32 A 57 D 82 A

8 A 33 A 58 C 83 E

9 A 34 B 59 A 84 B

10 B 35 A 60 E 85 C

11 C 36 A 61 B 86 B

12 D 37 B 62 C 87 A

13 C 38 E 63 A 88 C

14 E 39 D 64 A 89 D

15 C 40 B 65 C 90 E

16 C 41 C 66 C 91 A

17 B 42 E 67 E 92 A

18 D 43 A 68 A 93 B

19 E 44 C 69 E 94 A

20 A 45 B 70 D 95 B

21 E 46 B 71 C 96 B

22 D 47 B 72 B 97 B

23 A 48 C 73 A 98 B

24 E 49 E 74 E 99 A

25 D 50 D 75 E 100 A

1. Endothelium is a:

A. simple columnar epitheliumB. stratified squamous epitheliumC. transitional epitheliumD. simple squamous epitheliumE. none of the preceding.

2. A thrombus (blood clot) in the first branch of the aortic arch would affect the flow of blood to

A. left side of the head and neckB. myocardium of the heartC. left shoulder and armD. superior surface of the diaphragmE. right side of the head, neck, right shoulder and right arm.

3. Fenestrated capillaries are found in:

A. renal glomeruli (kidney)B. intestinal villiC. endocrine glandsD. all of the precedingE. none of the preceding.

4. All arteries in the body carry oxygen-rich blood with the exception of:

A. the hepatic arteriesB. the pulmonary arteriesB. the pulmonary arteriesC. the renal arteriesD. the coronary arteries.

5. In the fetus, partially oxygenated blood is shunted from the through the foremen ovale.

A. left atrium to right atriumB. right atrium to right ventricleC. right ventricle to left ventricle

D. right atrium to left atriumE. left atrium to left ventricle.

6. The "lub" or first heart sound, is produced by closing of:

A. the aortic semilunar valveB. the pulmonary semilunar valveC. the tricuspid valveD. the bicuspid valveE. both atrioventricular valves.

7. The QRS wave of an EKG (=ECG) is produced by:

A. depolarization of the atriaB. repolarization of the atriaC. depolarization of the ventriclesD. repolarization of the ventriclesE. answers A and C.

8. Cardiac output is:

A. (CR + SV) B. (SV-CR) C. (CR x SV) D. (SP x SV) E. (SP - DP)

MATCHING: (Items A through E may be used more than once.)

A. Great saphenous vein B. cephalic vein C. basilic vein D. brachial vein E. subclavian vein.

9. Drains the lateral side of the arm10. Receives blood from the vertebral vein11. Receives lymphatic fluid.12. Deep vein in the brachium13. Drains the medial aspect of the leg and thigh14. Received blood from the external jugular vein15. Drains the medial aspect of the arm16. Receives blood from the medial cubital vein17. Longest vein in the body18. Joins the internal jugular vein to form the brachiocephalic vein19. Receives blood from the ulnar and radial veins20. Drains into the femoral vein21. Receives blood from the axillary vein

Multiple Choice. Choose the best answer.

22. During the phase of isovolumetric contraction of the ventricles, the pressure in the ventricles is:

A. rising B. falling C.constant D.none of the preceding.

23. Which of the following fetal structures contains the most oxygen-rich blood?

A. left atrium B. umbilical arteries C. foramen ovale D. umbilical vein E. right atrium.

24. Stimulated sympathetic nerve endings in the musculature of the atria and ventricles will cause:

A. an increase in the rate of heart contractionB. an increase in the time spent in systole when the cardiac rate is highC. a decrease in the rate of heart contractionD. answers B and C.

25.Stroke volume strength is regulated by:

A. EDVB. ventricular contraction strengthC. mean arterial pressureD. all of the preceding

26.Which of the following structures does not drain directly into the inferior vena cave?

A. hepatic veins B. renal veins C.inferior mesenteric vein D. common iliac veins E. right gonadal vein.

MATCHING. (Items A through D may be used more than once).

A. Arteries B. veins C. both A & B D. neither A nor B.

27. Generally have a more collapsed appearance in tissue sections28. Classified by size29. May contain circular skeletal muscle in the tunica media30. Lumen is lined with a simple columnar epithelium31. Always carry blood away from the heart32. May carry blood with a high oxygen content33. May possess fenestrations in their walls34. Large vessels may contain a vase vasorum

Multiple Choice. Choose the best answer.

35. A positive chronotropic effect on the heart will cause:

A. an increase in strength of contractilityB. a decrease in cardiac rateC. an increase in cardiac rate

D. a decrease in strength of contractilityE. none of the above are chronotropic effects.

36. Edema may result from:

A. low arterial pressureB. leakage of blood proteins into the interstitial fluidC. increased plasma protein concentration in the bloodD. all of the above.

37. The secretion of ADH occurs as neurons in the hypothalamus respond to an:

A. increase in blood pressureB. increase in osmotic pressureC. increase in hydrogen ion concentrationD. all of the above.

38. Which of the following is not directly associated with extrinsic regulation of blood flow?

A. ADH B.norepinephrine C. angiotensin II D. adenosine E. answers A and C.

39. The sounds of Korotkoff are produced by:

A. closing of the semilunar valvesB. closing of the AV valvesC. turbulent flow of blood through an arteryD. elastic recoil of the aortaE. none of the preceding.

40. Lysosomes are common in:

A. tears B. sweat C. saliva D. answers A, B, and C E. phagocytes.

TRUE OR FALSE: True=A; False=B

41. The carotid body contains baroreceptors which monitor blood pressure.42. Mean arterial pressure is systolic pressure plus one third pulse pressure.43. A heart rate greater than 100 beats/minute is termed tachycardia44. Arterioles in skeletal muscle receive cholinergic sympathetic fibers which release ACh.45. The umbilical arteries in the fetus arise from the abdominal aorta.46. Extrinsic regulation of blood flow refers to control by the ANS and the endocrine system.47. Vasopressin has a vasodilator effect at high concentrations.48. Active hyperemia occurs as a result of increased metabolism.49. The vasomotor control center is located in the postcentral gyrus of the parietal lobe.50. The walls of lymphatic capillaries are less permeable than are the walls of blood capillaries.

MATCHING: (Items A through E may be used more than once.)

A. celiac arteryB. inferior mesenteric arteryC. axillary arteryD. superior mesenteric arteryE. aorta.

51. Empties into the brachial artery.52. Supplies the small intestine and the ascending colon.53. Traverses or runs through the armpit region.54. First major, unpaired branch off the abdominal aorta.55. Largest artery in the body.56. Second unpaired branch of the abdominal aorta.57. Supplies the descending colon of the large intestine

Multiple Choice. Choose the best answer.

58. When blood flow and pressure are reduced in the renal artery, a group of cells called the -----secretes the enzyme----- into the blood.

A. juxtaglomerular apparatus / angiotensin IB. osmoreceptors / reninC. carotid sinus / angiotensinogenD. juxtaglomerular apparatus / reninE. suprarenal body / angiotensin II

59. Localized chemical conditions that promote vasodilation include:

A. decreased oxygen concentrationB. increased carbon dioxide concentrationC. decreased tissue pHD. increased potassium concentrationE. all of the preceding

60. Lymph in the thoracic duct:

A. could have originated from the right legB. will enter the right subclavian veinC. both of the precedingD. none of the preceding

61. Which class of antibodies is abundant in body secretions?

A. IgM B. IgA C. IgG D. IgE E. IgD.

MATCHING: (Items A through D may be used more than once.)

A. Delayed hypersensitivity B. immediate hypersensitivity C. both A and B D. neither A nor B

62. B lymphocytes are involved.63. IgE antibodies are involved.64. Contact dermatitis, such as to poison ivy65. Occurs within a period of 1 to 3 days66. Fibroblasts involved67. T lymphocytes are involved68. Therapy - corticosteroids, such as cortisone69. Allergic reactions, hay fever and asthma70. Therapy - antihistamines and adrenergic drugs71. An example of passive immunity72. The antigens are called allergens.

Multiple Choice. Choose the best answer.

73. In response to endotoxins released by certain bacteria, leukocytes may release:

A. antibodies B. interferon C. antigens D. haptens E. endogenous pyrogens.

74. Lymphoid organs include:

A. spleen B. adrenal gland C. thyroid gland D. pancreas E. all of the preceding.

75. Mast cell secretion during an immediate hypersensitivity reaction is stimulated when antigens combine with antibodies.

A. IgG B. IgE C. IgM D. IgA E. none of the preceding.

76. Active immunity may be produced by:

A. contracting a diseaseB. receiving a vaccineC. receiving gamma globulin injectionD. both A and BE. both B and C.

77. Which of the following structures is not associated with a lymph node?

A. germinal center B. hilus (=hilum) C. capsule D. canaliculi E. afferent lymphatic vessels

78. B- lymphocytes combat bacterial and viral infections by secreting antibodies into the blood and lymph, providing what type of immunity?

A. humoral B. nonspecific C. antigenic D. cell-mediated E. none of the preceding.

MATCH THE CELL TYPE WITH ITS SECRETION.

A. killer T cells B. mast ceils C. plasma cells D. macrophages

79. Antibodies80. Perforins81. Lysosomal enzymes82. Histamine.

Multiple Choice: Select the best answer.

83. Antibody molecules are composed of ----- chains and ----- light chains

A. one /one B. one/two C. two / one D. two / two E. two / three.

84. A transplant between individuals belonging to different species is called a(n):

A. homograft B. xenograft C. isograft D. autograft

85. A new-boom infant who receives IgA from its mother's milk develops:

A. naturally acquired active immunityB. artificially acquired active immunityC. naturally acquired passive immunityD. artificially acquired passive immunity.

86. Which of the following is not true of the spleen?

A. it consists of red and white pulpB. afferent lymphatic vessels enter on the convex sideC. it destroys old, and fragile red blood cellsD. located in the upper left portion of the abdominal cavil

87. Antibodies belong to a group of proteins called:

A. albumins B. complement C. interferons D. alpha globulins E. none of the preceding.

88. Helper and suppressor T lymphocytes:

A. attack invaders directlyB. help regulate the specific immune systemC. activate thymosinD. may specialize into memory and plasma cells, respective!

89. Examples of immediate hypersensitivity are:

A. conjunctivitus B. allergic rhinitis C. allergic asthma D. atopic dermatitis E. all of the preceding

TRUE OR FALSE: True=A False=B

90. The graft least likely to be successful is the isograft91. Large lymphatic nodes located in the wall of the ileum are called Peyer's patches92. The tonsillar ring consists of the lingual, palatine, and pharyngeal tonsils93. The thymus gland gradually enlarges after puberty94. Poison ivy and poison oak can cause contact dermatitis95. Oncology is the study of allergies96. In an autoimmune disease, the immune system fails to recognize and tolerate self-antigens97. In the study of allergies, antibodies are often called allergens98. Interferons are polypeptides99. Macrophages in the connective tissues are derived from neutrophils100. Fill in the "B" circle

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BIOLOGY 2740 - UNIT 2 - PRACTICE TEST - ANSWERS

This site provides the correct answers for the Unit 2 test questions. To fully take advantage of this practice test we recommendthat you look carefully at the incorrect answers as well. Determining why answers are incorrect will increase your understanding of the material - often as much as finding the information that supports the correct answer.

Question# Answer Question# Answer Question# Answer Question # Answer

1 D 26 C 51 C 76 D

2 E 27 B 52 D 77 D

3 D 28 C 53 C 78 A

4 B 29 D 54 A 79 C

5 D 30 D 55 E 80 A

6 E 31 A 56 D 81 D

7 C 32 C 57 B 82 B

8 C 33 D 58 D 83 D

9 B 34 C 59 E 84 B

10 E 35 C 60 A 85 C

11 E 36 B 61 B 86 B

12 D 37 B 62 B 87 E

13 A 38 D 63 B 88 B

14 E 39 C 64 A 89 E

15 C 40 E 65 A 90 B

16 C 41 B 66 D 91 B

17 A 42 B 67 A 92 A

18 E 43 A 68 A 93 B

19 D 44 A 69 B 94 A

20 A 45 B 70 B 95 B

21 E 46 A 71 D 96 A

22 A 47 B 72 C 97 B

23 D 48 A 73 E 98 A

24 A 49 B 74 A 99 B

25 D 50 B 75 B 100 B