A&P I 2015 Exam 2B

1) Which tissue lines the small intestine and the stomach? A) simple squamous epithelium B) simple cuboidal epithelium C) simple columnar epithelium D) pseudostratified ciliated columnar epithelium E) stratified squamous epithelium

2) Cells that are specialized for secretion A) have a free surface that is flat. B) have a small nucleus. C) are usually squamous. D) exhibit polarity. E) are found only in the digestive system.

3) Blood is which type of tissue? A) mesenchymeB) nerve C) epithelialD) muscle E) connective

4) Cells that engulf bacteria or cell debris within loose connective tissue are A) fibroblasts. B) macrophages. C) adipocytes. D) mast cells. E) melanocytes.

5) A tissue with a gel matrix and cells inside lacunae is A) areolar connective tissue. B) cartilage. C) bone. D) epithelium. E) dense regular connective tissue.

6) Microscopic examination of a tissue reveals a loose framework of fibers embedded in a large volume of fluid ground substance and adipocytes and mast cells fibers. This tissue would most likely have come from the A) inner wall of a blood vessel. B) lungs. C) spleen. D) superficial fascia between skin and muscle. E) bony socket of the eye.

7) Which of the following refers to the dense connective tissue that surrounds a muscle and blends with the tendon? A) superficial fascia B) hypodermis C) deep fascia D) subserous fascia E) subcutaneous layer

1

8) The muscle tissue that shows no striations is ________ muscle. A) skeletalB) cardiac C) smooth D) voluntary E) multinucleated

9) Tissue that is specialized for the conduction of electrical impulses is ________ tissue. A) connective B) neural C) areolar D) osseous E) epithelial

10) A herniated disc is an injury of the pads of cartilage between the vertebrae in which the cartilage bulges from normal position. What type of cartilage is affected? A) mesenchymalB) fibrousC) elasticD) hyalineE) articular

11) The three kinds of formed elements in blood are erythrocytes, leukocytes, and A) lymphocytes.B) platelets.C) phagocytes.D) plasma cells.E) mast cells.

12) The epithelium that lines the body cavities is known as A) perithelium.B) myothelium.C) intrathelium.D) endothelium.E) mesothelium.

13) ________ support, protect, and nourish nerve cells. A) Nurse cellsB) NeurogliaC) NeuronsD) NurturonsE) Nutrient cells

14) The body's first tissue response to any injury is A) fever.B) inflammation. C) bleeding.D) shivering.E) All the above.

15) Accumulations of fluid within the epidermis or between the epidermis and the dermis is/are called A) keloids.B) scabs. C) blisters.D) scars.E) pus.

2

16) The pigment found in vegetables that can make the skin appear orange or yellow is called A) cadmium.B) caroteneC) hemoglobin.D) keratin.E) melanin.

17) Melanin is produced by melanocytes within the stratum A) corneum.B) lucidum.C) granulosum.D) spinosum.E) basale.

18) Four signs useful for determining if a suspicious mark on the skin is melanoma follow the ABCD mnemonic. Which pairing is incorrect? A) A - asymmetryB) B - borderC) C - circumferenceD) D - diameterE) They are all correct

19) Epidermal growth factor exerts which of these effects on the epidermis?A) promotes cell divisionB) stimulates keratin synthesisC) accelerates tissue repairD) speeds up glandular functionE) All of the answers are correct.

20) The layer of the skin that contains the blood vessels and nerves that are closest to the surface of the skin is the ________ layer. A) papillaryB) reticular C) epidermal D) subcutaneous E) hypodermal

21) Skin inflammation that primarily involves the papillary layer is termed A) papillitis. B) dermatitis. C) epidermatitis. D) superficialis. E) melanocytis.

22) A surgical incision parallel to the lines of cleavage A) closes and heals with relatively little scarring. B) has a tendency to reopen. C) heals slower than incisions made perpendicular to the lines of cleavage. D) does not affect the healing process. E) requires no sutures.

3

Figure 5-1 The Components of the Integumentary System

Use Figure 5-1 to answer the following questions:

23) From what structure does sensible perspiration occur? A) 6 B) 7 C) 8 D) 9 E) 10

24) Which layer is the primary barrier against environmental hazards? A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 E) 5

25) Which layer contains most of the accessory structures?A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 E) 5

4

26) Adipose tissue is a major component of the region labeledA) 1.B) 2.C) 3.D) 4.E) 5.

27) Which tissue is located in the region labeled "2"? A) stratified squamous epithelium B) areolar connective tissue C) adipose tissue D) cartilage and blood E) reticular connective tissues

28) Variations in hair color reflect differences in the pigment produced by A) keratinocytes. B) melanocytes. C) dermal papillae. D) soft keratin. E) carotene cells.

29) The cuticle around a nail is theA) eponychium.B) hyponychium. C) free edge. D) perinychium.E) lunula.

30) Which of the following are not components of the skeletal system?A) tendonsB) bonesC) ligamentsD) cartilageE) other tissues that connect bones

31) The carpal bones are examples of ________ bones.A) longB) short C) flat D) irregular E) sesamoid

32) Which of the following labels best matches osteocyte?A) stem cellB) dissolves matrixC) mature bone cellD) secretes organic matrixE) immature bone cell

33) The type of bone that is adapted to withstand stresses that arrive from many directions is ________ bone. A) spongy B) osteon C) compact D) lamellar E) irregular

5

34) Which of the following is a characteristic of bone? A) The bone matrix is very dense and contains deposits of calcium salts. B) The matrix of the bone contains osteoclasts and chondroblasts. C) Narrow channels pass through the matrix to allow for muscle attachment. D) The matrix of bone is mostly collagen with very little calcium. E) For strength, compact bone is organized into a meshwork of matrix called trabeculae.

Figure 6-1 The Structure of Compact Bone

Use Figure 6-1 to answer the following questions:

35) Which structure is called an osteon? A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 E) 5

36) Which structure is characteristic of spongy bone? A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 E) 5

6

37) The structure labeled "3" is the result of which process? A) bone cells adding matrix between existing osteons B) surface growth of bone C) remodeling of compact boneD) remodeling of spongy bone E) osteoporosis

38) Identify the structures labeled "4." A) concentric lamellaeB) circumferential lamellae C) interstitial lamellae D) trabeculae E) periosteum

39) What lines the structure labeled "7"?A) the endosteumB) blood vesselsC) the central canalD) spongy boneE) trabeculae

40) When stress is applied to a bone, A) the minerals in the bone produce a weak electrical field that attracts osteoblasts. B) osteoclast activity increases and osteoblast activity decreases. C) the bone becomes thin and brittle and ultimately fractures. D) the bone compensates by becoming thinner in the region of stress. E) blood supply through the nutrient artery diminishes and thus remodeling proceeds at a much slower rate.

41) The hormone calcitonin functions to A) stimulate osteoclast activity. B) decrease the rate of calcium excretion. C) decrease the rate of calcium absorption. D) decrease the level of calcium ion in the blood. E) stimulate osteoblasts and inhibit osteoclasts.

42) A condition in which bone becomes riddled with holes is calledA) osteopenia. B) osteoporosis. C) osteomyelitis. D) osteitis. E) osteomalacia.

43) If a tumor secretes high levels of osteoclast-activating factor, which of the following would you expect to occur as a result of this condition? A) increases in blood levels of calcium B) bone fragility C) decreased bone density D) increased osteoclast activityE) All of the answers are correct.

7

44) Mary is 50 years old and has entered menopause. During a checkup, a bone scan reveals the beginnings of osteoporosis. Her physician suggests nutritional therapy. What might she recommend for Mary? A) vitamin C B) vitamin D C) calcium supplements D) dairy productsE) All of the answers are correct.

45) How many bones make up the axial skeleton?A) 50B) 60C) 70D) 80E) 90

46) Which of the following is a function of the axial skeleton? A) provides an attachment for muscles that move the appendicular skeleton B) provides an attachment for muscles that move the head, neck, and trunk C) provides an attachment for muscles involved in respiration D) provides protection for the brain and spinal cord E) All of the answers are correct.

47) Which of the following is not part of the axial skeleton? A) skull B) false ribs C) sternum D) hyoid E) pelvic girdle

48) The hard palate of the roof of the mouth is mostly formed by the A) palatine process of the maxillae. B) sphenoid bone. C) nasal bones.D) zygomatic process. E) palatine bones.

8

Figure 7-1 Floor of the Cranial Cavity

Use Figure 7-1 to answer the following questions:

49) Identify the sphenoid bone. A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 E) 5

50) Identify the internal occipital crest. A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 E) 5

51) Which structure encloses the pituitary gland? A) 4 B) 5 C) 6 D) 7 E) 8

52) What is the name of the structure labeled "7"? A) optic canal B) foramen spinosum C) foramen rotundum D) foramen lacerum E) foramen ovale

9

53) The paranasal sinuses are located in all of the following bones except the A) frontal. B) ethmoid. C) sphenoid. D) maxillae. E) zygomatic.

54) The role(s) of the sinuses include(s)A) making the skull lighter. B) production of mucus that moistens and cleans the air. C) increasing surface area for gas exchange. D) extra source of air and increasing surface area for gas exchange. E) making the skull lighter and production of mucus that moistens and cleans the air.

55) The role(s) of the sinuses include(s)A) making the skull lighter. B) production of mucus that moistens and cleans the air. C) increasing surface area for gas exchange. D) extra source of air and increasing surface area for gas exchange. E) making the skull lighter and production of mucus that moistens and cleans the air.

56) While volunteering in an outpatient clinic for underprivileged families in your neighborhood, you observe the nurse assessing an infant. The mother had complained about the baby not eating and having several episodes of diarrhea lasting 3 days. You know the nurse suspects possible dehydration when she A) checks the anterior fontanel for depression. B) points out the dryness of the infant's diaper. C) checks the infant's reflexes. D) questions the mother about normal feeding habits. E) weighs the infant.

57) The part of the vertebrae that transfers weight along the axis of the vertebral column is the A) vertebral arch. B) vertebral body. C) articular processes. D) intervertebral space. E) transverse process.

10

Figure 7-2 Typical Vertebra (inferior view)

Use Figure 7-2 to answer the following questions:

58) Identify the structure labeled "7." A) transverse process B) lamina C) pedicle D) vertebral body E) spinous process

59) Identify the structure labeled "3." A) lateral process B) spinous process C) lamina D) transverse process E) pedicle

60) The tissue that always has an apical and a basal surface is ________ tissue.A) epithelial B) connective C) muscle D) basal E) apical

11

Extra Credit (1 point each)

1) The permanent replacement of normal tissue by fibrous tissue is calledA) inflammation.B) apoptosis.C) fibrosis.D) cystosis.E) necrosis.

2) A deficiency disease that illustrates the effect of integumentary system function on the structure of the skeletal system is A) osteoporosis.B) seborrheic dermatitis.C) decubitus ulcers.D) rickets.E) beriberi.

3) While on a school skiing trip in Colorado, Heidi falls and breaks her tibia and fibula in a Pott's fracture. What would you expect as a prominent part of her clinical assessment several hours after the fall? A) hypertension B) tachycardia C) erythema D) hematoma E) cyanosis

4) Your friend Greg is hit in the jaw and when looking at him, his face looks misaligned. You immediately take him to the emergency room and are not surprised to learn that he has a broken A) temporal bone. B) zygomatic bone. C) mandible. D) external auditory meatus. E) clavicle.

5) The Pap test for cervical cancer utilizes A) histology. B) physiology. C) anatomy. D) embryology. E) exfoliative cytology.

12