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JOINT FIRE SUPPORT MULTIPLE QUESTION FILE
The JFS MQF is intended to replace the skill level FIST test, the MQF will not be administered
by skill level. This will be the only test used for 13F/13A certifications. All Soldiers are
authorized to maintain a copy of the MQF. When testing is required for certifications or training,
50 questions from the MQF will be selected by the senior 13F/13A. The 50 question test should
encompass all references. The MQF supplies Soldiers with the question but not the answer, it
is the responsibility of the individual to research and study the correct answer.
Joint Fire Support MQF references validated as of 05 June 2017
References:
ATP 3-09.30 Techniques for Observed Fire August 2013
ATP 3-09.32 Joint Application of Firepower (JFIRE) January 2016
FM 3-09 Field Artillery Operations and Fire Support April 2014
JP 3-09.3 Close Air Support November 2014
1. ________________ is fires that directly support land, maritime, amphibious, and special
operations forces to engage enemy forces, combat formations, and facilities in pursuit of
tactical and operational objectives (Joint Publication [JP] 3-09.3). It requires close
coordination and integration with maneuver forces. Effective fire support requires an
observer that understands the tasks to accomplish and how these tasks support the
overall operation. The observer must be able to accurately locate targets, understand
which targets to attack, and effectively communicate what he sees to the rest of the fire
support community.
a. Joint Effects
b. Fire Support
c. Detailed Integration
d. Coordinated Fires
REF: ATP 3-09.30 AUG2013, Chapter 1, page 1-1
2. True/False: There are five requirements for achieving accurate first-round fire for effect.
These five requirements for accurate predicted fires are: accurate target location and
size, firing unit location, weapon and ammunition information, meteorological
information, and computational procedures. The observer is solely responsible for the
first requirement.
a. True
b. False
REF: ATP 3-09.30 AUG2013, Chapter 1, page 1-1
3. The _____________ and its elements integrate the fires warfighting function in operations. It has resources to plan for future operations from the main command post and to support current operations from the tactical command post (when deployed). Additionally it has the limited capability to provide coverage to the command group and the deputy command group when deployed. The _____________ is the centerpiece of the targeting architecture, focused on both lethal and nonlethal target sets. The __________ thus collaboratively plans, coordinates and synchronizes fire support, to include Joint Fires. a. Joint Effects Cell b. Fire Direction Center c. Fire Support Element d. Fires Cell
REF: ATP 3-09.30 AUG2013, Chapter 1, page 1-1
4. The ________________ has the responsibility to integrate fire support with the scheme of maneuver. He provides the commander’s intent for an operation and issues guidance, including guidance for fire support. The ________ translates the guidance into fire support tasks. Each fire support task and purpose directly supports a maneuver task and purpose. Then assigns responsibility of tasks in the Fire Support Plan, assets, and priority of fires, to the observers using all available assets. Ensures dissemination of FS products to all supporting assets. a. Maneuver Commander / FSO b. Brigade FSO / Battalion FSO c. Brigade Commander / Brigade FSO d. DIVARTY Commander / FIST
REF: ATP 3-09.30 AUG2013, Chapter 1, page 1-6
5. A target identified too late, or not selected for action in time, to be included in deliberate targeting that, when detected or located, meets criteria specific to achieving objectives and is processed using dynamic targeting. a. Target b. Time Sensitive Target c. Target of Opportunity d. Unplanned Target
REF: ATP 3-09.30 AUG2013, Chapter 1, page 1-6
6. A ______________ is a target that is known to exist in the operational environment, upon which actions are planned using deliberate targeting, creating effects which support commander’s objectives. a. Established Target b. Approved Target c. Priority Target d. Planned Target
REF: ATP 3-09.30 AUG2013, Chapter 1, page 1-7
7. A _____________ is a planned target upon which fires or other actions are scheduled for prosecution at a specified time. a. Scheduled Target b. Specified Target c. Time Sensitive Target d. Priority Target
REF: ATP 3-09.30 AUG2013, Chapter 1, page 1-7
8. A ___________ target is a planned target upon which fires or other actions are determined using deliberate targeting and triggered, when detected or located, using dynamic targeting. a. Scheduled Target b. On-call Target c. Deliberate Target d. Dynamic Target
REF: ATP 3-09.30 AUG2013, Chapter 1, page 1-7
9. A _______________ is a target on which the delivery of fires takes precedence over all the fires for the designated firing unit or element. a. Priority Target b. Immediate Suppression c. Final Protective Fire d. On-call Target
REF: ATP 3-09.30 AUG2013, Chapter 1, page 1-7
10. ________________ is an immediately available prearranged barrier of fire designed to impede enemy movement across defensive lines or areas. a. On-call Target b. Final Protective Fire c. Immediate Suppression d. Defensive Fires
REF: ATP 3-09.30 AUG2013, Chapter 1, page 1-7
11. A __________________ consists of two or more targets on which fire is desired simultaneously. a. Collective Target Set b. Series of Targets c. Multiple Target d. Group of Targets
REF: ATP 3-09.30 AUG2013, Chapter 1, page 1-11
12. A ____________________ is a number of targets and/or group(s) of targets planned to be fired in a predetermined sequence to support a maneuver operation. a. Sequential Targets b. Series of Targets
c. Collective Target Set d. Program of Targets
REF: ATP 3-09.30 AUG2013, Chapter 1, page 1-12
13. A _______________ consists of a number of planned targets of a similar nature that are planned for sequential attack. a. Sequential Targets b. Series of Targets c. Group of Targets d. Program of Targets
REF: ATP 3-09.30 AUG2013, Chapter 1, page 1-12
14. ___________________ is accomplished using targeting and the running estimate. It
includes developing integrated fire plans (target lists, fire support execution/fire support
task matrix, scheme of fires, and overlays) and determining forward observer control
options that support the commander's scheme of maneuver.
a. Fires Coordination
b. Indirect Fires Execution
c. Fire Support Planning
d. Fire Support Coordination
REF: ATP 3-09.30 AUG2013, Chapter 2, page 2-2
15. _______________________ is the planning and executing of fire so that targets are
adequately covered by a suitable weapon or group of weapons (JP 3-09).The FIST must
maintain situational understanding at all times and monitor voice requests for fire support
within the maneuver element to prevent fratricide as the result of friendly fire support.
The FIST must advise the commander on any fire support coordination measures
(FSCM) in effect.
a. Fire Support Coordination
b. Indirect Fires Execution
c. Fire Support Planning
d. Joint Fires Coordination
REF: ATP 3-09.30 AUG2013, Chapter 2, page 2-2
16. True / False: In order to develop an effective fire support plan, the FSO must understand
the fires planning process and address all the essential elements of a fire support plan.
To help ensure all considerations are addressed, the FSO uses the memory aid FA-
PARCA, which means—
F-Fire support tasks, described in terms of a clear task, purpose, and effect
A-Allocation of assets/targets to subordinate units
P-Positioning guidance for fire support assets and observers
A-Assault Instructions
R-Resources Available
C-Coordinating instructions
A-Assessment (measure of performance, measure of effectiveness)
a. True
b. False
REF: ATP 3-09.30 AUG2013, Chapter 2, page 2-3
17. True / False: When occupying an observation post using SLOCTOP; A reconnaissance
security sweep should be made 180 degrees forward of the OP.
a. True
b. False
REF: ATP 3-09.30 AUG2013, Chapter 2, page 2-10
18. Occupying an observation post using SLOCTOP; Identify the item that is not part of L-
Location.
a. Select a position that is not sky lined or easily identifiable as an observation post
(military crest, 2/3 up, on nondescript high ground).
b. Send the team location to the fires cell, artillery/mortar fire direction center (FDC) and
supported maneuver organization.
c. Select a position on the highest terrain in order to quickly detect enemy forces
(provides the best observation).
d. The team should prepare its observed fire (OF) fan for use, begin its terrain sketch
using reference points within its area of observation, and develop its visibility
diagrams.
REF: ATP 3-09.30 AUG2013, Chapter 2, page 2-10
19. Occupying an observation post using SLOCTOP; what is the number one priority for the
team?
a. Observation
b. Communication
c. Targeting
d. Security
REF: ATP 3-09.30 AUG2013, Chapter 2, page 2-10
20. Occupying an observation post using SLOCTOP; Identify the item that is not part of T-
targeting.
a. Locate targets using the most accurate and expedient means available, incorporate
the targets into the terrain sketch.
b. Conceal the laser rangefinder/designator and operate all lasing devices within safety
parameters.
c. Affix the night sight to the laser rangefinder/designator as soon as possible.
(Although it may be daylight, the night sight may be able to see through smoke and
other obscurations.)
d. Refine company/troop targets and those assigned by higher headquarters.
REF: ATP 3-09.30 AUG2013, Chapter 2, page 2-10
21. True / False: Occupying an observation post using SLOCTOP; during O-observation
ensure all team members are proficient in friendly/threat forces recognition.
a. True
b. False
REF: ATP 3-09.30 AUG2013, Chapter 2, page 2-10
22. Occupying an observation post using SLOCTOP; what does the P stand for?
a. Position Occupation
b. Precision Targeting
c. Precision Refinement
d. Position Improvement
REF: ATP 3-09.30 AUG2013, Chapter 2, page 2-11
23. What is the preferred method of establishing accurate target location?
a. Precision Target Location Tools
b. LLDR
c. Map, Compass, and Binoculars
d. PFED
REF: ATP 3-09.30 AUG2013, Chapter 3, page 3-1
24. An observer must be able to self-locate to within ______ meters or ________ meters if
degraded by lack of position locating systems or other navigational aids.
a. 1 or 150
b. 10 or 150
c. 10 or 100
d. 100 or 250
REF: ATP 3-09.30 AUG2013, Chapter 3, page 3-2
25. _______________is the process of measurement of a feature or location on the earth to
determine an absolute latitude, longitude, and elevation.
a. Targeting
b. Mensuration
c. Accuracy
d. Orienting
REF: ATP 3-09.30 AUG2013, Chapter 3, page 3-3
26. What are three base (reference) directions or azimuths?
a. North, Magnetic, Map
b. Mils, Degrees, Cardinals
c. True, Grid, Magnetic
d. True, Map, Magnetic
REF: ATP 3-09.30 AUG2013, Chapter 3, page 3-3
27. ____________ is the interior angle formed at the target by the intersection of the
observer-target and the gun-target lines with its vertex at the target.
a. OT Factor
b. Angle T
c. Vertex Angle
d. Vertical Angle
REF: ATP 3-09.30 AUG2013, Chapter 3, page 3-5
28. If angle T is ___________ or greater, the FDC should tell the observer. If the observer is
told that angle T is _________ or greater, at first he continues to use his OT factor to
make his deviation corrections. If he sees that he is getting more of a correction than he
asked for, he should consider cutting his corrections to better adjust rounds onto the
target.
a. 500 mils
b. 600 mils
c. 600 meters
d. 100 meters
REF: ATP 3-09.30 AUG2013, Chapter 3, page 3-5
29. The M22/M24 binocular reticle pattern is divided into increments of _______ with shorter
hash marks at _________ increments.
a. 100 meters and 10 meters
b. 10 meters and 5 meters
c. 100 mils and 50 mils
d. 10 mils and 5 mils
REF: ATP 3-09.30 AUG2013, Chapter 3, page 3-5
30. Select the correct Hand Measurement of Angular Deviation. ANSWER C
REF: ATP 3-09.30 AUG2013, Chapter 3, page 3-7
31. Using a declinated M2 or a lensatic7 compass on a tripod or other stable platform, the
observer can measure direction to an accuracy of ____________. Take care when using
a compass around electronic devices such as radios and computers, or large
concentrations of metal such as vehicles. Observers should move about ____________
away from vehicles to avoid incorrect readings.
a. 1 mil and 100 meters
b. 10 mils and 50 meters
c. 1 mil and 50 meters
d. 10 mils and 100 meters
REF: ATP 3-09.30 AUG2013, Chapter 3, page 3-7
32. In artillery and mortar calls for fire, the observers will always convert direction to
__________ direction in the CFF request.
a. True North
b. Magnetic
c. Lensatic
d. Grid
REF: ATP 3-09.30 AUG2013, Chapter 3, page 3-7
33. Using a protractor, the observer can scale direction from a map to an accuracy of
_________ mils.
a. 20
b. 10
c. 100
d. 1
REF: ATP 3-09.30 AUG2013, Chapter 3, page 3-7
34. Laser range finders are the preferred means of determining the observer-target distance.
When a laser range finder is used, distance may be determined to the nearest
__________ meters.
a. 10
b. 5
c. 1
d. 100
REF: ATP 3-09.30 AUG2013, Chapter 3, page 3-8
35. Using flash to bang, the observer counts the number of seconds between the time the
round impacts (flash) and the time the sound reaches the observer (bang) and multiply
by _________ meters/second. The answer is the approximate number of meters
between the observer and the round.
a. 350
b. 400
c. 450
d. 250
REF: ATP 3-09.30 AUG2013, Chapter 3, page 3-8
36. If there is a significant difference in vertical shift (greater than or equal to _________
meters in altitude between the observer's position or known point and the target), the
observer includes the vertical shift in his target location (expressed to the nearest
_______ meters).
a. 30, 10
b. 50, 10
c. 35, 5
d. 5, 5
REF: ATP 3-09.30 AUG2013, Chapter 3, page 3-13
37. The terrain sketch is a panoramic sketch as precise as possible of the terrain by the
observer of his area of responsibility. It aids in target location in a static environment.
What should the terrain sketch also provide?
a. A call for fire cheat card
b. Means of orienting relief personnel
c. Code words to deceive enemy if lost
d. Fires net frequency
REF: ATP 3-09.30 AUG2013, Chapter 3, page 3-14/15
38. What is the purpose of DA Form 5429-R?
a. Requesting CAS
b. Recording Fire Mission Data
c. Requesting Ammunition
d. Equipment Maintenance
REF: ATP 3-09.30 AUG2013, Chapter 4, page 4-2
39. True / False : The three transmissions of a fire mission are
- Observer ID and warning order
- Target location and target description
- Method of engagement and method of fire and control
a. True
b. False
REF: ATP 3-09.30 AUG2013, Chapter 4, page 4-2
40. The warning order clears the net for the fire mission. The warning order consists of
a. Type of adjustment, callsign, and method of target location
b. Mission type, type of adjustment, and the size of element to FFE
c. Callsign, type of adjustment, and the method of target location
d. Type of mission, the size of the element to FFE, and the method of target location
REF: ATP 3-09.30 AUG2013, Chapter 4, page 4-2
41. Normally, _________________ missions are fired on planned targets, and a length of
time to continue firing (duration) is associated with the call for fire.
a. Final Protective Fire
b. Suppression
c. FFE
d. Immediate Suppression or Immediate Smoke
REF: ATP 3-09.30 AUG2013, Chapter 4, page 4-2
42. When engaging a planned target or target of opportunity that has taken friendly
maneuver or elements under fire, the observer announces __________________
(followed by the target location).
a. Final Protective Fire
b. Suppression
c. FFE
d. Immediate Suppression or Immediate Smoke
REF: ATP 3-09.30 AUG2013, Chapter 4, page 4-2
43. True / False: When conducting an immediate suppression or immediate smoke mission
the CFF is sent in three transmissions.
a. True
b. False
REF: ATP 3-09.30 AUG2013, Chapter 4, page 4-3
44. True / False: The methods of target location are grid, polar plot, and shift from known
point.
a. True
b. False
REF: ATP 3-09.30 AUG2013, Chapter 4, page 4-3
45. Using the laser grid method of target location during an adjust fire mission; how are the
corrections sent?
a. same as a standard grid mission
b. deviation correction, range correction, height of burst correction
c. in the form of a grid to the burst location
d. sent only as refinement
REF: ATP 3-09.30 AUG2013, Chapter 4, page 4-3
46. True / False: In a polar plot mission the FDC only needs to know the target location.
a. True
b. False
REF: ATP 3-09.30 AUG2013, Chapter 4, page 4-3
47. In a polar plot mission a _____________ tells the FDC how far, in meters, the target is
located above or below the observer's location.
a. Altitude
b. Elevation
c. Angle T
d. Vertical Shift
REF: ATP 3-09.30 AUG2013, Chapter 4, page 4-3
48. True / False: In a shift from known point mission the range shift is in relation to the
observer’s location.
a. True
b. False
REF: ATP 3-09.30 AUG2013, Chapter 4, page 4-4
49. What is the purpose of the target description in a call for fire?
a. so the FDC can determine the amount and type of ammunition to use
b. so the commander can approve the target engagement
c. to determine the priority on the High Payoff Target List (HPTL)
d. so the ground commander can make a Tactical Risk Assessment (TRA)
REF: ATP 3-09.30 AUG2013, Chapter 4, page 4-4
50. The method of engagement consists of
a. type of mission, ammunition, danger close, attitude, and mark
b. warning order, type of mission, trajectory, danger close, and mark
c. warning order, type of mission, trajectory, attitude, distribution, and mark
d. type of adjustment, trajectory, ammunition, distribution, danger close, and mark
REF: ATP 3-09.30 AUG2013, Chapter 4, page 4-5
51. True / False: The type of adjustment that may be employed is area fire or precision fire.
a. True
b. False
REF: ATP 3-09.30 AUG2013, Chapter 4, page 4-5
52. True / False: Precision fire is used for Final Protective Fires (FPF) and destruction
missions.
a. True
b. False
REF: ATP 3-09.30 AUG2013, Chapter 4, page 4-5
53. Danger close for artillery and mortars is ______ and naval gunfire is_______.
a. 600 / 750
b. 600 / 1000
c. 600 / 700
d. 600 / 500
REF: ATP 3-09.30 AUG2013, Chapter 4, page 4-5
54. True / False: MARK is included in the method of engagement to indicate that the
observer is going to call for rounds for either of the following reasons
-to orient themselves in zone of observation
-to indicate targets to ground troops, aircraft, or other observers
-to mark the Illumination optimal height of burst
a. True
b. False
REF: ATP 3-09.30 AUG2013, Chapter 4, page 4-5
55. During a call for fire an observer wants to indicate a change in the type of ammunition,
what term would be used?
a. Ammunition
b. Volume of fire
c. Followed by
d. Projectile
REF: ATP 3-09.30 AUG2013, Chapter 4, page 4-6
56. If target length, or length and width are given, the observer must also give __________.
a. Depth
b. Attitude
c. Radius
d. Altitude
REF: ATP 3-09.30 AUG2013, Chapter 4, page 4-7
57. If the observer wishes to control the time of delivery of fire, they would include
_____________ in the method of control. This method of control is also useful when
sending the call for fire to the FDC prior to receiving clearance to fire.
a. At my command
b. Time on target
c. Time to target
d. Duration
REF: ATP 3-09.30 AUG2013, Chapter 4, page 4-7
58. In the initial call for fire the observer should announce ______________ to indicate the
observer cannot see the target (because of vegetation, terrain, weather, intensity of the
conflict, or smoke).
a. Unobserved
b. Lost
c. Lost line of sight
d. Cannot observe
REF: ATP 3-09.30 AUG2013, Chapter 4, page 4-7
59. True / False: The FDC announces “SPLASH” to the observer 5 seconds prior to round
impact. The observer then announces SPLASH out, the observer does not wait to see
the impact to announce SPLASH out.
a. True
b. False
REF: ATP 3-09.30 AUG2013, Chapter 4 and 5, page 4-8, 4-11, and 5-9
60. The observer normally uses __________ for suppression and smoke missions.
______________ will tell the FDC the total time to engage a target.
a. Time on target
b. Duration
c. Time
d. Interval
REF: ATP 3-09.30 AUG2013, Chapter 4, page 4-9
61. A __________ is the observer's determination of the location of the burst, or the mean
point of impact (MPI) of a group of bursts, with respect to the adjusting point as observed
along the observer-target line.
a. Spotting
b. Correction
c. Impact
d. Adjusting point
REF: ATP 3-09.30 AUG2013, Chapter 5, page 5-1
62. True / False: The sequence of spottings is height of burst, range, and deviation.
a. True
b. False
REF: ATP 3-09.30 AUG2013, Chapter 5, page 5-1
63. True / False: The three HOB spottings are air, graze, and mixed.
a. True
b. False
REF: ATP 3-09.30 AUG2013, Chapter 5, page 5-2
64. A spotting of ________ is a round whose location cannot be determined by sight or
sound.
a. Doubtful
b. Unobserved
c. Lost
d. Cannot observe
REF: ATP 3-09.30 AUG2013, Chapter 5, page 5-2
65. A spotting of __________ is a round not observed but known to have
Impacted.
a. Doubtful
b. Unobserved
c. Lost
d. Cannot observe
REF: ATP 3-09.30 AUG2013, Chapter 5, page 5-2
66. A _______________ is the angular measurement from the adjusting point to the burst as
seen from the observer's position.
a. HOB spotting
b. Correction
c. Range spotting
d. Deviation spotting
REF: ATP 3-09.30 AUG2013, Chapter 5, page 5-3
67. True / False: A spotting of “LINE” is a round that impacts on line with the adjusting point
as seen by the observer (on the observer-target line).
a. True
b. False
REF: ATP 3-09.30 AUG2013, Chapter 5, page 5-3
68. During adjustments of a fire mission an observer spots round burst left of the target
along the OT line. The observer measures the angular deviation as 70 mils. His
deviation spotting is _______________.
a. Left 70
b. Depends on OT factor
c. Right 70
d. 70 left
REF: ATP 3-09.30 AUG2013, Chapter 5, page 5-3
69. What spotting would an observer make if the round was a dud (nonfunctioning fuze),
resulting in no visual or audible identification.
a. Unobserved
b. Lost
c. Dud
d. Doubtful
REF: ATP 3-09.30 AUG2013, Chapter 5, page 5-4
70. During subsequent corrections the observer sends the observer-target direction if it has
not been sent previously or if the observer-target direction changes by more than
____________ from the previously announced direction.
a. 10 mils
b. 50 mils
c. 20 mils
d. 100 mils
REF: ATP 3-09.30 AUG2013, Chapter 5, page 5-7
71. If a burst correction is desired during an immediate suppression mission what should be
transmitted before the correction?
a. Altitude
b. Target description
c. Number of rounds
d. Repeat
REF: ATP 3-09.30 AUG2013, Chapter 5, page 5-9
72. Which adjustment technique mathematically ensures FFE rounds will be within 50
meters of the target.
a. Creeping fire
b. One round adjust
c. Precision fire
d. Successive bracketing
REF: ATP 3-09.30 AUG2013, Chapter 5, page 5-9
73. _________________________ is best when responsive fires are required and the
observer is experienced in the adjustment of fire.
a. Creeping fire
b. One round adjust
c. Hasty bracketing
d. Successive bracketing
REF: ATP 3-09.30 AUG2013, Chapter 5, page 5-9
74. __________________ is best used on danger close missions and other missions
requiring the observer to make small adjustments to bring fires onto the target in order to
minimizing collateral damage.
a. Creeping fire
b. One round adjust
c. Hasty bracketing
d. Successive bracketing
REF: ATP 3-09.30 AUG2013, Chapter 5, page 5-9
75. Normally, the observer using successive bracketing requests FFE when they split a
______ meter bracket. Under certain conditions when the PER of the weapon is _____
meters or larger, an observer is justified in calling for FFE when a _____ meter bracket
is split.
a. 50, 38, 100
b. 100, 25, 200
c. 50, 25, 100
d. 100, 38, 200
REF: ATP 3-09.30 AUG2013, Chapter 5, page 5-12
76. The objective of impact registration is to get spottings of _________________________
along the observer-target line from rounds fired with the same data or from rounds fired
with data 25 meters apart.
a. 2 rounds, 1 over and 1 short
b. 2 rounds, target hit or range correct
c. 4 rounds, target hit or range correct
d. 4 rounds, 2 over and 2 short
REF: ATP 3-09.30 AUG2013, Chapter 5, page 5-14
77. True / False: If PER is greater than or equal to 25 meters the objective of impact
registration is to get spottings of four rounds (two overs and two shorts) along the
observer-target line from rounds fired with the same data or from rounds fired with data
50 meters apart.
a. True
b. False
REF: ATP 3-09.30 AUG2013, Chapter 5, page 5-14
78. During a registration mission spottings of target hit or range correct count as spottings
of _______________________.
a. Both over and short
b. Target
c. Line
d. Accurate and sufficient
REF: ATP 3-09.30 AUG2013, Chapter 5, page 5-14
79. During impact registration the observer spots the rounds for deviation to the nearest one
mil and brings the rounds onto the observer-target line before ____________________.
a. Splitting 400 meter bracket
b. Adding or dropping
c. Splitting 200 meter bracket
d. Corrections are made
REF: ATP 3-09.30 AUG2013, Chapter 5, page 5-14
80. During impact registration when the 50 meter range bracket has been established,
_____ rounds are fired with data 25 meters in the direction opposite that of the last
range spotting.
a. 1
b. 2
c. 4
d. FFE
REF: ATP 3-09.30 AUG2013, Chapter 5, page 5-14
81. True / False: During impact registration range refinement, if the registration point is
nearer the last round(s) fired, no range refinement is necessary to move the impact
toward the registration point.
a. True
b. False
REF: ATP 3-09.30 AUG2013, Chapter 5, page 5-15
82. If the registration point is equidistant between the two sets of rounds, the observer
determines the range refinement to be ADD _____ or DROP _____ from the last data
fired.
a. 50
b. 25
c. 10
d. 20
REF: ATP 3-09.30 AUG2013, Chapter 5, page 5-15
83. If the registration point is nearer the pair of rounds at the opposite end of the bracket,
(instead of the last round) the observer determines the range refinement to be ADD
____ or DROP _____.
a. 25
b. 20
c. 10
d. 50
REF: ATP 3-09.30 AUG2013, Chapter 5, page 5-15
84. What form would an observer use to keep track of the rounds and spottings in relation to
the registration point?
a. DA 5429-R
b. DA 4187-R
c. DA 2185-R
d. Shell Report
REF: ATP 3-09.30 AUG2013, Chapter 5, page 5-16
85. In registration, deviation refinement is determined by adding the deviation spottings of
the rounds establishing the two over and two short (this may include two, three, or four
deviation spottings). Then ____________ the total of the deviation spottings by the
number of rounds (two, three, or four) to get an average deviation. Express the result to
the nearest mil. The average deviation multiplied by the observer-target factor equals the
correction, which the observer expresses to the nearest _____________.
a. Multiply, 10 mils
b. Divide, 10 meters
c. Subtract, 1 meter
d. Add, 1 mil
REF: ATP 3-09.30 AUG2013, Chapter 5, page 5-16/17
86. Upon achieving the objective of registration the observer has recorded the following
usable deviation spottings. What should the observer send to the FDC for deviation
refinement?
Round Spotting OT Factor
6 7 Right 2
7 15 Right
8 5 Left
9 3 Right
a. Left 20
b. Right 20
c. Right 10
d. Left 10
REF: ATP 3-09.30 AUG2013, Chapter 5, page 5-16/17
87. Mortar registration procedures are identical to the impact registration procedures for
artillery. The exception is that once a ___ meter range bracket has been split and the
last round fired is within ___ meters of the target, the observer sends refinement
corrections to the FDC and ends the mission. Make range corrections to the nearest 25
meters. Only ___ round over and ___ round short are required.
a. 50, 25, 2, 2
b. 100, 50, 2, 2
c. 50, 25, 1, 1
d. 100, 50, 1, 1
REF: ATP 3-09.30 AUG2013, Chapter 5, page 5-17
88. In the event the Excalibur projectile does not acquire adequate GPS signal, or
experiences a reliability failure in flight, the round is designed to
a. Continue its flight path to the target un-armed and impact as a dud
b. Continue to target as a non-PGM and function as a standard HE round
c. Continue its trajectory to the ballistic impact point without arming and dud
d. Continue its trajectory to the ballistic impact point and function as a standard HE
round
REF: ATP 3-09.30 AUG2013, Chapter 6, page 6-2
89. What munition is available to utilize with the 120mm mortar that minimizes collateral
damage and reduces the number of rounds required to defeat targets?
a. XM 982
b. APKWS
c. APMI
d. Copperhead
REF: ATP 3-09.30 AUG2013, Chapter 6, page 6-3
90. What fuze can be added to 155mm HE M795 to provide near precision?
a. APKWS
b. Excalibur
c. PGK
d. APMI
REF: ATP 3-09.30 AUG2013, Chapter 6, page 6-4
91. PGK incorporates a safe arm function. During the last few seconds of flight, PGK
performs a “should hit vs. will hit” test. If the “will hit” grid is more than _______ meters
away from the “should hit” grid, PGK will fail safe (not arm) and will not detonate on
impact.
a. 50
b. 150
c. 100
d. 30
REF: ATP 3-09.30 AUG2013, Chapter 6, page 6-4
92. The illumination shell is a base ejection projectile containing a flare attached to a
parachute. What is NOT a use of Illumination?
a. Illuminate areas of suspected threat activity
b. Provide illumination for night adjustment of fires
c. Mark friendly location for CAS attacks
d. Harass threat positions
REF: ATP 3-09.30 AUG2013, Chapter 6, page 6-13/14
93. What is the initial height of burst for 155mm M485A2 Illumination?
a. 600
b. 500
c. 550
d. 750
REF: ATP 3-09.30 AUG2013, Chapter 6, page 6-14
94. What is the initial height of burst for 105mm Illumination?
a. 600
b. 500
c. 550
d. 750
REF: ATP 3-09.30 AUG2013, Chapter 6, page 6-14
95. What is the initial height of burst for 120mm Illumination?
a. 600
b. 500
c. 550
d. 750
REF: ATP 3-09.30 AUG2013, Chapter 6, page 6-14
96. Use the ____________________ pattern when an area requires more illumination than
can be furnished by one gun illumination.
a. Two gun illumination range spread
b. Two gun illumination
c. Multi-gun illumination
d. Two gun GTL spread
REF: ATP 3-09.30 AUG2013, Chapter 6, page 6-15
97. Which illumination pattern is fired perpendicular to the observer target line?
a. Two gun illumination range spread
b. Two gun illumination lateral spread
c. Multi-gun illumination
d. Two gun illumination
REF: ATP 3-09.30 AUG2013, Chapter 6, page 6-15
98. In order for an observer to achieve as few as possible shadows during an illumination
mission they should request ___________________ in the call for fire.
a. Two gun illumination
b. Illumination lateral spread
c. Illumination OTL and GTL spread
d. Illumination range and lateral spread
REF: ATP 3-09.30 AUG2013, Chapter 6, page 6-16
99. Illumination range and deviation correction of less than ________ meters should not be
made.
a. 100
b. 50
c. 30
d. 200
REF: ATP 3-09.30 AUG2013, Chapter 6, page 6-17
100. What is the minimum illumination HOB correction?
a. 10 meters
b. 5 meters
c. 50 meters
d. 100 meters
REF: ATP 3-09.30 AUG2013, Chapter 6, page 6-17
101. During an ILLUM mission if the flare burns out 60 mils above the ground and the OT
factor is 2, what correction should the Observer send for HOB?
a. Down 150
b. Down 120
c. Down 100
d. Down 50
REF: ATP 3-09.30 AUG2013, Chapter 6, page 6-17
102. During an ILLUM mission your round burns on the ground for 13 seconds. You are
observing 155mm M485A2 illumination and the rate of decent is 5 meters per second.
What HOB correction do you send?
a. Up 100
b. Up 50
c. No refinement
d. Up 150
REF: ATP 3-09.30 AUG2013, Chapter 6, page 6-17
103. True / False: The four types of smoke are obscuring, marking, incendiary, and
deception.
a. True
b. False
REF: ATP 3-09.30 AUG2013, Chapter 6, page 6-20
104. __________ is a smoke curtain used on the battlefield between threat observation
points and friendly units to mask friendly forces, positions, and activities.
a. Signaling smoke
b. Obscuring smoke
c. Screening smoke
d. Signaling smoke
REF: ATP 3-09.30 AUG2013, Chapter 6, page 6-20
105. ____________ is placed on or near the threat to suppress threat observers and to
minimize their vision.
a. Deception smoke
b. Obscuring smoke
c. Screening smoke
d. Masking smoke
REF: ATP 3-09.30 AUG2013, Chapter 6, page 6-20
106. Use the quick smoke mission to obscure areas from ____ meters up to ____ meters
wide.
a. 600 to 1500
b. 150 to 500
c. 600 to 1000
d. 150 to 600
REF: ATP 3-09.30 AUG2013, Chapter 6, page 6-29
107. True / False: A quick smoke mission requires the observer to send length, attitude,
maneuver target direction, wind direction, and duration in the call for fire.
a. True
b. False
REF: ATP 3-09.30 AUG2013, Chapter 6, page 6-29/31
108. During a quick smoke mission with shell smoke (HC) use HE in adjustment until a
____ meter bracket is split. The observer then requests shell smoke. Fire one smoke
round, and make any necessary corrections. Then request FFE.
a. 100
b. 200
c. 400
d. 50
REF: ATP 3-09.30 AUG2013, Chapter 6, page 6-30
109. Final protective fires may be any distance from the friendly position, but is normally
within _____ to ______ meters of friendly positions.
a. 200 to 400
b. 200 to 600
c. 400 to 600
d. 100 to 400
REF: ATP 3-09.30 AUG2013, Chapter 7, page 7-4
110. True / False: The observer adjusts only the center weapon onto the center grid of the
FPF when adjusting for an automated FDC that uses muzzle velocity variations and
special corrections.
a. True
b. False
REF: ATP 3-09.30 AUG2013, Chapter 7, page 7-6
111. True / False: During multiple missions the observer should use the assigned target
number followed by corrections.
a. True
b. False
REF: ATP 3-09.30 AUG2013, Chapter 7, page 7-7
112. A linear irregularly shaped target requires the observer to send target description,
length, width, and ________ in the third transmission of the call for fire.
a. Direction
b. Elevation
c. Attitude
d. Radius
REF: ATP 3-09.30 AUG2013, Chapter 7, page 7-8
113. Attitude is sent to the nearest _______ and less than 3200 mils.
a. 1 mil
b. 10 mils
c. 20 mils
d. 100 mils
REF: ATP 3-09.30 AUG2013, Chapter 7, page 7-8
114. What is the max range of the M777 155mm standard HE?
a. 18200
b. 37500
c. 22500
d. 21700
REF: ATP 3-09.32 JFIRE JAN2016 page 31
115. What is the max range of the M224 60mm mortar?
a. 3500
b. 3489
c. 3600
d. 3689
REF: ATP 3-09.32 JFIRE JAN2016 page 32
116. What is the max range of the M252 81mm mortar?
a. 5800
b. 4800
c. 4600
d. 5400
REF: ATP 3-09.32 JFIRE JAN2016 page 32
117. What is the max range of the M120 120mm mortar?
a. 5800
b. 7200
c. 7400
d. 6700
REF: ATP 3-09.32 JFIRE JAN2016 page 32
118. What is the max range of M982 Excalibur?
a. 44,000
b. 24,500
c. 22,200
d. 37,500
REF: ATP 3-09.32 JFIRE JAN2016 page 34
119. A _____ operation is a coordinated attack using a combination of FW and Army RW
assets normally supported by artillery or NSFS. Electronic warfare (EW), air defense
artillery, and intelligence, surveillance, and reconnaissance assets also may support.
To maximize the effectiveness of a ______, fires are integrated, mutually supportive,
and synergistic, not simply deconflicted.
a. JARN Joint Air Reconnaissance Network
b. JAAT Joint Air Attack Team
c. JAAF Joint Aviation Assault Force
d. JAST Joint Air and Surface Team
REF: ATP 3-09.32 JFIRE JAN2016 page 53
120. Size, activity, location, time, remarks (SALT-R) is the standard format for passing
BDA information. Minimum requirements include _______________________.
a. Good effects, damage, and time
b. Good bombs, no need for re-attack
c. End of mission
d. Successful, unsuccessful, or unknown
REF: ATP 3-09.32 JFIRE JAN2016 page 53
121. JTACs and FAC(A)s can use ________ to develop and correlate targeting data, mark
targets, and provide terminal guidance operations.
a. LLDRs
b. Digitally aided CAS
c. Ground burst illumination
d. JFOs
REF: ATP 3-09.32 JFIRE JAN2016 page 55
122. What is line 8 of the JFO target brief?
a. Mark type
b. Location of nearest friendlies
c. Target location
d. Egress
REF: ATP 3-09.32 JFIRE JAN2016 page 57
123. True / False: When communicating direct to a CAS platform and a JTAC or FAC(A) is
not available the observer must state “I am not a JTAC” or “I am a JFO”.
a. True
b. False
REF: ATP 3-09.32 JFIRE JAN2016 page 58
124. True / False: After receiving the army attack aviation call for fire from the ground
forces, the aircrews are not required to identify the location of the friendly element and
the target prior to conducting an engagement.
a. True
b. False
REF: ATP 3-09.32 JFIRE JAN2016 page 62
125. True / False: Army Attack Aviation and Special Operations Forces (SOF) gunship
use the same call for fire format
a. True
b. False
REF: ATP 3-09.32 JFIRE JAN2016 page 63
126. How would an observer maintain positive control of SOF Gunship or Army Attack
Aviation during engagement?
a. State “I am not a JTAC”
b. State “cleared hot”
c. State “check fire”
d. State “at my command”
REF: ATP 3-09.32 JFIRE JAN2016 page 63
127. True / False: Clearance to fire is the transmission of the Aviation/SOF gunship call for
fire unless “at my command” or “danger close” has been stated.
a. True
b. False
REF: ATP 3-09.32 JFIRE JAN2016 page 63
128. If “danger close” has been announced in an Aviation/SOF gunship call for fire what
else must be passed to the attacking aircraft?
a. Grid to nearest friendlies
b. Ground commanders risk assessment
c. Ground commanders initials
d. At my command
REF: ATP 3-09.32 JFIRE JAN2016 page 63
129. What fixed wing aircraft is equipped with 30mm, 105mm, and small diameter bombs?
a. F16
b. B-1B
c. F/A-18
d. AC-130W
REF: ATP 3-09.32 JFIRE JAN2016 page 77
130. Which fixed wing aircraft can be equipped with 20mm, 2.75 inch rockets, AGM 65,
GBU, and GP bombs?
a. B-52
b. F-16
c. F-15E
d. F-35
REF: ATP 3-09.32 JFIRE JAN2016 page 77/78
131. True / False: The AH-64 is equipped with 30mm, 2.75 inch rockets, and AGM-176
Hellfire.
a. True
b. False
REF: ATP 3-09.32 JFIRE JAN2016 page 81
132. What UAS can be equipped with GBU and Hellfire?
a. MQ-1C
b. MQ-9
c. MQ-5B
d. Predator
REF: ATP 3-09.32 JFIRE JAN2016 page 83
133. What brevity term is sighting of a FRIENDLY aircraft or ground position?
a. Contact
b. Spot
c. Eyes on
d. Visual
REF: ATP 3-09.32 JFIRE JAN2016 page 89
134. What brevity term acknowledges sighting a specified reference point (either visually or
via sensor)?
a. Visual
b. Spot
c. Contact
d. Joy
REF: ATP 3-09.32 JFIRE JAN2016 page 89
135. What brevity term is sighting a target, non-friendly aircraft, or enemy position?
a. Tally
b. Contact
c. Bogey
d. Squirter
REF: ATP 3-09.32 JFIRE JAN2016 page 89
136. Brevity: Acquisition of laser designation or the platform is laser spot tracker (LST)
capable.
a. Capture
b. Spot
c. Contact
d. Acquire
REF: ATP 3-09.32 JFIRE JAN2016 page 89
137. Brevity: The laser designator system is inoperative
a. Dead eye
b. Blind
c. No joy
d. Terminated
REF: ATP 3-09.32 JFIRE JAN2016 page 89
138. Brevity: Mark / marking a target by infrared (IR) pointer.
a. Snake
b. Pulse
c. Lasing
d. Sparkle
REF: ATP 3-09.32 JFIRE JAN2016 page 90
139. Brevity: Oscillate an IR pointer in a figure eight about a target.
a. Pulse
b. Snake
c. Sparkle
d. Rope
REF: ATP 3-09.32 JFIRE JAN2016 page 90
140. Brevity: Once the aircrew sees the IR energy and is able to discern between the
friendly and target end of the pointer, a ____________________ call may be made.
a. Tally
b. Match sparkle
c. Cease sparkle
d. Contact sparkle
REF: ATP 3-09.32 JFIRE JAN2016 page 91
141. Brevity: Specified surface target or object has been acquired and is being tracked
with an onboard sensor.
a. Track
b. Captured
c. Spot
d. Contact
REF: ATP 3-09.32 JFIRE JAN2016 page 95
142. Brevity: FRIENDLY air-to-surface missile launch.
a. One away
b. Remington
c. Rifle
d. Winchester
REF: ATP 3-09.32 JFIRE JAN2016 page 96
143. Brevity: No ordnance remaining.
a. Remington
b. Winchester
c. Rifle
d. Browning
REF: ATP 3-09.32 JFIRE JAN2016 page 96
144. ___________ is the unintentional or incidental injury or damage to persons or objects
that are not lawful military targets.
a. Fratricide
b. Collateral damage
c. Error probability
d. Retrograde
REF: ATP 3-09.32 JFIRE JAN2016 page 115
145. True / False: Regardless of friendly force posture, commanders, JTACs, and aircrew
will refer to the Standing posture column and use this distance to determine when
danger close procedures apply.
a. True
b. False
REF: ATP 3-09.32 JFIRE JAN2016 page 131
146. The mission of the Field Artillery is to __________________ the enemy with
integrated fires to enable maneuver commanders to dominate in unified land
operations.
a. Destroy, suppress, or neutralize
b. Destroy, deter, or defeat
c. Destroy, defeat, or disrupt
d. Destroy, deny, or disrupt
REF: FM 3-09 APR2014, Chapter 1, page 1-1
147. Field artillery contributes to unified land operations by ___________ in space and time
on single or multiple targets with precision, near-precision, and area fire capabilities.
a. Massing fire
b. Placing indirect fire
c. Denying enemy
d. Converging fires
REF: FM 3-09 APR2014, Chapter 1, page 1-1
148. Actions executed to deliberately mislead adversary military, paramilitary, or violent
extremist organization decision makers, thereby causing the adversary to take
specific actions (or inactions) that will contribute to the accomplishment of the friendly
mission.
a. Defeat
b. Deceive
c. Delay
d. Destroy
REF: FM 3-09 APR2014, Chapter 1, page 1-2
149. Tactical mission task that occurs when an enemy force has temporarily or
permanently lost the physical means or the will to fight.
a. Defeat
b. Deceive
c. Delay
d. Destroy
REF: FM 3-09 APR2014, Chapter 1, page 1-2
150. Slow the time of arrival of enemy forces or capabilities or alter the ability of the enemy
or adversary to project forces or capabilities.
a. Suppress
b. Defeat
c. Deceive
d. Delay
REF: FM 3-09 APR2014, Chapter 1, page 1-2
151. Tactical mission task that physically renders an enemy force combat-ineffective until it
is reconstituted.
a. Destroy
b. Defeat
c. Deceive
d. Neutralize
REF: FM 3-09 APR2014, Chapter 1, page 1-3
152. Tactical mission task in which a commander integrates direct and indirect fires,
terrain, and obstacles to upset an enemy’s formation or tempo, interrupt the enemy’s
timetable, or cause enemy forces to commit prematurely or attack in a piecemeal
fashion.
a. Divert
b. Disrupt
c. Defeat
d. Deceive
REF: FM 3-09 APR2014, Chapter 1, page 1-3
153. The act of drawing the attention and forces of an enemy from the point of the principal
operation; an attack, alarm, or feint that diverts attention.
a. Divert
b. Deceive
c. Defeat
d. Delay
REF: FM 3-09 APR2014, Chapter 1, page 1-3
154. Tactical mission task that results in rendering enemy personnel or materiel incapable
of interfering with a particular operation.
a. Delay
b. Neutralize
c. Disrupt
d. Suppress
REF: FM 3-09 APR2014, Chapter 1, page 1-4
155. Tactical mission task that results in temporary degradation of the performance of a
force or weapons system below the level needed to accomplish the mission.
a. Neutralize
b. Delay
c. Disrupt
d. Suppress
REF: FM 3-09 APR2014, Chapter 1, page 1-4
156. Activity that neutralizes, destroys, or temporarily degrades surface-based enemy air
defenses by destructive and/or disruptive means.
a. Immediate suppression
b. Destruction mission
c. Suppression of enemy air defense
d. Offensive task
REF: FM 3-09 APR2014, Chapter 1, page 1-4
157. A ______________ is a tactical plan for using the weapons of a unit or formation so
that their fire will be coordinated.
a. Scheme of maneuver
b. Fire plan
c. Annex D
d. Offensive plan
REF: FM 3-09 APR2014, Chapter 1, page 1-4
158. A ______________________ is a target whose loss to the enemy will significantly
contribute to the success of the friendly course of action.
a. High value target
b. High value individual
c. High payoff target
d. High yield target
REF: FM 3-09 APR2014, Chapter 1, page 1-5
159. A _______________ is a target the enemy commander requires for the successful
completion of the mission.
a. High payoff target
b. High yield target
c. High value individual
d. High value target
REF: FM 3-09 APR2014, Chapter 1, page 1-5
160. ________________ is normally a high volume of fires delivered over a short period of
time to maximize surprise and shock effect.
a. Suppression fire
b. Offensive fire
c. Destruction fire
d. Preparation fire
REF: FM 3-09 APR2014, Chapter 1, page 1-5
161. ____________________ is an offensive task that is designed to develop the situation
or regain contact.
a. Preparation fires
b. Deliberate contact
c. Movement to contact
d. Scheme of maneuver
REF: FM 3-09 APR2014, Chapter 1, page 1-7
162. ___________________ is an offensive task that destroys or defeats enemy forces,
seizes and secures terrain, or both.
a. Movement to contact
b. Exploitation
c. Attack
d. Deliberate attack
REF: FM 3-09 APR2014, Chapter 1, page 1-8
163. ______________ is an offensive task that usually follows the conduct of a successful
attack and is designed to disorganize the enemy in depth.
a. Deep fires
b. Attack
c. Disruption
d. Exploitation
REF: FM 3-09 APR2014, Chapter 1, page 1-10
164. _____________ is an offensive task designed to catch or cut of a hostile force
attempting to escape, with the aim of destroying it.
a. Exploitation
b. Neutralize
c. Movement to contact
d. Pursuit
REF: FM 3-09 APR2014, Chapter 1, page 1-10
165. A ____________________ is a task conducted to defeat an attacking enemy force,
retain key terrain, gain time, economize forces, and develop conditions favorable for
offensive or stability tasks.
a. Defensive task
b. Offensive task
c. Concept of fires
d. Scheme of maneuver
REF: FM 3-09 APR2014, Chapter 1, page 1-16
166. _______________ is a defensive task that concentrates on denying enemy forces
access to designated terrain for a specific time rather than destroying the enemy
outright.
a. Terrain denial
b. Specified defense
c. Terrain defense
d. Area defense
REF: FM 3-09 APR2014, Chapter 1, page 1-19
167. __________________ is a defensive task that concentrates on the destruction or
defeat of the enemy through a decisive attack by a striking force.
a. Area defense
b. Deception defense
c. Mobile defense
d. Mobile strike
REF: FM 3-09 APR2014, Chapter 1, page 1-19
168. ______________________ is a defensive task that involves organized movement
away from the enemy.
a. Retrograde
b. Retreat
c. Recession
d. Reconnoiter
REF: FM 3-09 APR2014, Chapter 1, page 1-20
169. _______________ are those operations undertaken by a commander to provide early
and accurate warning of enemy operations, to provide the force being protected with
time and maneuver space within which to react to the enemy, and to develop the
situation to allow the commander to effectively use the protected force.
a. Passage of lines
b. Security operations
c. Signaling operations
d. Force protection
REF: FM 3-09 APR2014, Chapter 1, page 1-24
170. _____________________ is an operation in which a force moves forward or rearward
through another force’s combat positions with the intention of moving into or out of
contact with the enemy.
a. Forward passage of lines
b. Movement to contact
c. Position exploitation
d. Passage of lines
REF: FM 3-09 APR2014, Chapter 1, page 1-25
171. ____________________ occurs when a unit passes through another unit’s positions
while moving toward the enemy.
a. Hasty attack
b. Movement to attack
c. Forward passage of lines
d. Enemy passage of lines
REF: FM 3-09 APR2014, Chapter 1, page 1-25
172. _________ is a tactical mission task in which the unit employs all available means to
break through or establish a passage through an enemy defense, obstacle, minefield
or fortification.
a. Breach
b. Clear
c. Attack
d. Offense
REF: FM 3-09 APR2014, Chapter 1, page 1-27
173. _____________________ is the act of designing an operating force, support staff, or
sustainment package of specific size and composition to meet a unique task or
mission.
a. Retrograde
b. Task organizing
c. Coordinating fires
d. Mission organizing
REF: FM 3-09 APR2014, Chapter 1, page 1-30
174. ______________ is assigned to and forming an essential part of a military
organization as listed in its table of organization for the Army, Air Force, and Marine
Corps, and are assigned to the operating forces for the Navy.
a. Assign
b. Task organized
c. Operational
d. Organic
REF: FM 3-09 APR2014, Chapter 1, page 1-31
175. __________ is to place units or personnel in an organization where such placement is
relatively permanent, and/or where such organization controls and administers the
units or personnel for the primary function, or greater portion of the functions, of the
unit or personnel.
a. Assign
b. Organic
c. Attach
d. Task
REF: FM 3-09 APR2014, Chapter 1, page 1-31
176. ______________________ is the authority to perform those functions of command
over subordinate forces involving organizing and employing commands and forces,
assigning tasks, designating objectives, and giving authoritative direction necessary
to accomplish the mission.
a. Tactical control
b. Operational control
c. Organizational control
d. Positive control
REF: FM 3-09 APR2014, Chapter 1, page 1-31
177. ________________ is the authority over forces that is limited to the detailed direction
and control of movements or maneuvers within the operational area necessary to
accomplish missions or tasks assigned.
a. Positive control
b. Operational control
c. Organizational control
d. Tactical control
REF: FM 3-09 APR2014, Chapter 1, page 1-31
178. ____________________ is a support relationship requiring a force to support another
specific force and authorizing it to answer directly to the supported force’s request for
assistance.
a. General support
b. Operational support
c. Reinforcing
d. Direct support
REF: FM 3-09 APR2014, Chapter 1, page 1-33
179. _____________________ is a support relationship requiring a force to support
another supporting unit.
a. General support reinforcing
b. Reinforcing
c. Indirect support
d. General support
REF: FM 3-09 APR2014, Chapter 1, page 1-33
180. ______________ is that support which is given to the supported force as a whole and
not to any particular subdivision thereof.
a. General support
b. General support reinforcing
c. Direct support
d. Close support
REF: FM 3-09 APR2014, Chapter 1, page 1-33
181. ____________ is the delivery technique of applying accurately computed corrections
(not determined by firing) to standard firing data for all nonstandard conditions
(weather, weapon, ammunition, rotation of the earth) to deliver accurate surprise,
nuclear, or nonnuclear fire on any known target in any direction from any weapon
limited only by the characteristics of the weapon and ammunition used.
a. Accurate fire
b. Predetermined fire
c. Responsive fire
d. Predicted fire
REF: FM 3-09 APR2014, Chapter 1, page 1-40/41
182. ___________________ is the specific targeting of enemy indirect fire systems
including their command and control, sensors, platforms, and logistics before they
engage friendly forces.
a. Counterfire
b. Reactive counterfire
c. Proactive counterfire
d. Deliberate counterfire
REF: FM 3-09 APR2014, Chapter 1, page 1-46
183. ____________________ provides immediate indirect fires to neutralize, destroy, and
suppress enemy indirect fire weapons once acquired.
a. SEAD mission
b. Reactive counterfire
c. Immediate suppression
d. Proactive counterfire
REF: FM 3-09 APR2014, Chapter 1, page 1-47
184. _____________________ is the related tasks and systems that provide collective and
coordinated use of Army indirect fires, air and missile defense, and joint fires through
the targeting process.
a. Offensive fires
b. Deliberate targeting
c. Fires warfighting function
d. Joint fire support
REF: FM 3-09 APR2014, Chapter 2, page 2-1
185. What is NOT a method in which to achieve responsive fires?
a. Rehearsals
b. Planning fire support requirements in advance
c. Streamlining the call for fire by shortening the number of transmissions
d. Continually training observers in all aspects of fire support
REF: FM 3-09 APR2014, Chapter 2, page 2-2
186. The goal of the Field Artillery is to achieve ____________________. This enables
greater effectiveness and a reduced logistical footprint. It requires that all five of the
requirements for accurate fire are consistently being met.
a. Accurate and sufficient fires
b. Lasting operational effects
c. First round fire for effect
d. Fires that support the scheme of maneuver
REF: FM 3-09 APR2014, Chapter 2, page 2-2
187. The ___________________ is an Army coordination organization that provides
selected operational functions between the Army and the air component commander.
Its mission is to provide Army forces liaison at the joint air operations center. They
provide the critical and continuous coordination between the air and land
commanders.
a. Ground liaison detachment
b. Battlefield coordination detachment
c. Fires and effects coordination cell
d. Joint fires cell
REF: FM 3-09 APR2014, Chapter 2, page 2-4
188. The __________________ plans, coordinates, integrates, synchronizes and
deconflicts the employment and assessment of fires for both current and future
operations. They’re generally organized with a fire support officer and assistants, an
air defense airspace management element (ADAM), an electronic warfare element, a
targeting element, and digital systems operators.
a. Battalion fires cell
b. Joint fires cell
c. Division fires cell
d. Brigade fires cell
REF: FM 3-09 APR2014, Chapter 2, page 2-6
189. A _____________________ is a subordinate operational component of a tactical air
control system designed to provide air liaison to land forces and for the control of
aircraft.
a. Joint Fires Observer
b. Tactical Air Control Party
c. Joint Terminal Attack Cell
d. Terminal Attack Control Element
REF: FM 3-09 APR2014, Chapter 2, page 2-7
190. ________________ is the detection, identification, and location of a target in sufficient
detail to permit the effective employment of weapons.
a. Target acquisition
b. The targeting process
c. Attack guidance
d. Target exploitation
REF: FM 3-09 APR2014, Chapter 2, page 2-16
191. ______________ typically neutralize or incapacitate a target or modify adversarial
behavior without causing permanent injury, death, or gross physical destruction. At
times a target may return to pre-engagement functionality as part of the desired
effect. Assessment of this effect is usually measured by time and level of effort
required for recovery of the target.
a. Nonlethal effects
b. Suppression effects
c. Influencing effects
d. Nonkinetic effects
REF: FM 3-09 APR2014, Chapter 2, page 2-20
192. ________________is a clear and concise expression of the purpose of the operation
and the desired military end state that supports mission command, provides focus to
the staff, and helps subordinate and supporting commanders act to achieve the
commander’s desired results without further orders, even when the operation does
not unfold as planned.
a. Operations Order
b. Commander’s intent
c. Scheme of maneuver
d. Concept of operations
REF: FM 3-09 APR2014, Chapter 3, page 3-1
193. The _____________ is the detailed, logical sequence of targets and fire support
events to find and engage targets to accomplish the supported commander’s intent.
It’s planned to support the commander’s scheme of maneuver and is built on the fire
support tasks developed by the FSCOORD/FSO.
a. Commanders intent
b. Concept of maneuver
c. Concept of fires
d. Scheme of fires
REF: FM 3-09 APR2014, Chapter 3, page 3-1
194. ______________ is the commander’s guidance to his staff, subordinate commanders,
fire support planners, and supporting agencies to organize and employ fire support in
accordance with the relative importance of the unit’s mission.
a. Scheme of fires
b. Priority of fires
c. High payoff target list
d. Concept of fires
REF: FM 3-09 APR2014, Chapter 3, page 3-2
195. _________________ is the continuing process of analyzing, allocating, and
scheduling fires to describe how fires are used to facilitate the actions of the
maneuver force.
a. Fire support planning
b. Targeting
c. Fires processing
d. Fires synchronization
REF: FM 3-09 APR2014, Chapter 3, page 3-2
196. A _______________________ is a plan that addresses each means of fire support
available and describes how Army indirect fires, joint fires, and target acquisition are
integrated with maneuver to facilitate operational success.
a. Concept of operations
b. Scheme of fires
c. Fire support plan
d. Fire support execution matrix
REF: FM 3-09 APR2014, Chapter 3, page 3-2
197. _____________ is the planning and executing of fire so that targets are adequately
covered by a suitable weapon or group of weapons.
a. Fire support coordination
b. Fire support planning
c. Joint fires coordination
d. Fire support execution
REF: FM 3-09 APR2014, Chapter 3, page 3-4
198. _____________ is the process of selecting and prioritizing targets and matching the
appropriate response to them, considering operational requirements and capabilities.
a. Proactive counterfire
b. Target execution
c. Target prosecution
d. Targeting
REF: FM 3-09 APR2014, Chapter 3, page 3-6
199. ______________ are criteria applied to enemy activity (acquisitions and battlefield
information) used in deciding whether the activity is a target.
a. Target selection standards
b. Attack guidance matrix
c. Target synch matrix
d. Task execution
REF: FM 3-09 APR2014, Chapter 3, page 3-7
200. _________ is the first step in the targeting process. It begins with the military
decision-making process (MDMP). It does not end when the plan is completed; the
decide function continues throughout the operation.
a. Detect
b. Assess
c. Decide
d. Attack
REF: FM 3-09 APR2014, Chapter 3, page 3-7
201. The second step of the targeting process, ___________, directs how and which target
acquisition assets find the specified targets to the requisite level of accuracy.
a. Detect
b. Assess
c. Decide
d. Deliver
REF: FM 3-09 APR2014, Chapter 3, page 3-8
202. ______________ occurs throughout the operations process. Targeting is
continuously refined and adjusted between the commander and staff as the operation
unfolds. Combat assessment measures how effectively attack systems and munitions
functioned, effects on the target, and a recommendation as to whether the target
should be reattacked.
a. Tactical risk assessment
b. Assess
c. Measure of effectiveness
d. Decide
REF: FM 3-09 APR2014, Chapter 3, page 3-9
203. _________________is the geographical area where high-value targets can be
acquired and engaged by friendly forces.
a. Target area of interest
b. Named area of interest
c. Known area of interest
d. Series of targets
REF: FM 3-09 APR2014, Chapter 3, page 3-9
204. The ______________ is the operation that directly accomplishes the mission.
a. Shaping operation
b. Direct engagement
c. Decisive operation
d. Strategic operation
REF: FM 3-09 APR2014, Chapter 3, page 3-17
205. A _______________ is a criterion used to assess friendly actions that is tied to
measuring task accomplishment.
a. Collateral damage estimate
b. Measure of performance
c. Effects assessment
d. Measure of effectiveness
REF: FM 3-09 APR2014, Chapter 3, page 3-18
206. A ____________________ is a criterion used to assess changes in system behavior,
capability, or operational environment that is tied to measuring the attainment of an
end state, achievement of an objective, or creation of an effect.
a. Assessment
b. Measure of effectiveness
c. Measure of performance
d. Patterns of life
REF: FM 3-09 APR2014, Chapter 3, page 3-19
207. ________________________ is the process by which the supported commander
ensures that fires or their effects will have no unintended consequences on friendly
units or the scheme of maneuver.
a. Collateral damage estimation
b. Fire support coordination measures
c. Airspace coordinating measure
d. Clearance of fires
REF: FM 3-09 APR2014, Chapter 4, page 4-1
208. Permissive fire support coordination measures ____________ the attack of targets by
reducing the coordination necessary for the clearance of fires.
a. Restrictive
b. Redundant
c. Increase
d. Facilitate
REF: FM 3-09 APR2014, Chapter 4, page 4-2
209. True / False: Restrictive fire support coordination measures are those that provide
safeguards for friendly forces and noncombatants, facilities, or terrain.
a. True
b. False
REF: FM 3-09 APR2014, Chapter 4, page 4-7
210. A _______________ is a line that delineates surface areas for the purpose of
facilitating coordination and deconfliction of operations between adjacent units,
formations, or areas (JP 3-0). It divides up areas of operation and define responsibility
for clearance of fires. It is both permissive and restrictive in nature. a. Coordinated fire line
b. Phase line
c. Fire support coordination line
d. Boundary
REF: FM 3-09 APR2014, Chapter 4, page 4-13
211. A ___________________ is an area assigned to an artillery unit where individual
artillery systems can maneuver to increase their survivability.
a. Free fire area
b. Position area for artillery
c. Firing point
d. Firing area
REF: FM 3-09 APR2014, Chapter 4, page 4-14
212. A _______________ is an area, usually a friendly unit or location which the maneuver
commander designates as critical to the protection of an asset whose loss would
seriously jeopardize the mission.
a. Critical friendly zone
b. Censor zone
c. Artillery target intelligence zone
d. Call for fire zone
REF: FM 3-09 APR2014, Chapter 4, page 4-15
213. A _______________ is an area from which radar is prohibited from reporting
acquisitions. Normally placed around friendly weapon systems to prevent them from
being acquired by friendly radars.
a. Artillery target intelligence zone
b. Call for fire zone
c. Critical friendly zone
d. Censor zone
REF: FM 3-09 APR2014, Chapter 4, page 4-17
214. A ______________ is a line beyond which conventional, indirect, surface fire support
means may create effects at any time within the boundaries of the establishing HQ
without additional coordination.
a. Fire Support Coordination Line
b. Coordinated Firing Line
c. Restrictive Firing Line
d. Boundary
REF: JP 3-09.3 NOV2014, page III-63
215. ______________ facilitate the expeditious engagement of targets of opportunity
beyond the coordinating measure. It applies to all fires of air, land, and maritime-
based weapon systems using any type of munition against surface targets.
a. Coordinated Firing Line
b. Free Fire Area
c. Fire Support Coordination Line
d. Phase Line
REF: JP 3-09.3 NOV2014, page III-63
216. A ______________________ is a specific designated area into which any weapon
system may fire without additional coordination with the establishing HQ. It is used to
expedite joint fires and to facilitate emergency jettison of aircraft munitions.
a. Restrictive Fire Area
b. Coordinated Firing Area
c. Coordinated Firing Line
d. Free Fire Area
REF: JP 3-09.3 NOV2014, page III-65
217. A __________ is a three-dimensional area used to facilitate the integration of joint
fires and airspace.
a. Kill Box
b. Airspace Coordination Area
c. Free Fire Area
d. No Fire Area
REF: JP 3-09.3 NOV2014, page III-65
218. A _____________ is a land area designated by the appropriate commander into
which fires or their effects are prohibited.
a. No Fire Area
b. Free Fire Area
c. Restrictive Fire Area
d. Impact Area
REF: JP 3-09.3 NOV2014, page III-65
219. A ___________ is an area in which specific restrictions are imposed and into which
fires (or the effects of fires) that exceed those restrictions will not be delivered without
coordination with the establishing HQ.
a. Restricted Area
b. No Fire Area
c. Restrictive Fire Area
d. Restrictive Firing Line
REF: JP 3-09.3 NOV2014, page III-66
220. The _____________ is a line established between converging friendly forces — one
or both may be moving — that prohibits joint fires or the effects of joint fires across
the line without coordination with the affected force. The purpose of the line is to
prevent friendly fire and duplication of engagements by converging friendly forces.
a. Restrictive Firing Line
b. Coordinated Firing Line
c. Phase Line
d. Boundary
REF: JP 3-09.3 NOV2014, page III-66
221. A three-dimensional block of airspace in a target area, established by the appropriate
commander, in which friendly aircraft are reasonably safe from friendly surface fires. It
is normally established using lateral, altitude, or time separation, or a combination
thereof.
a. Airspace Coordination Area
b. Kill Box
c. Air Corridor
d. Airspace Coordinating Measure
REF: JP 3-09.3 NOV2014, page III-66
222. What format would an observer use when the decision has been made to attack a
target using CAS?
a. CAS 9 Line
b. CAS Brief
c. JFO Target Brief
d. Joint Tactical Air Strike Request
REF: JP 3-09.3 NOV2014, page V-63
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