all india prelims test series - 2020 - tnl-uploads.s3.ap ... · power of the state legislature is...

1 AIPTS 2020 (REV - 1) (E) Answer Key Byju’s Classes: 9873643487

ALL INDIA PRELIMS TEST SERIES - 2020 REVESION TEST - 1

ANSWER KEY 1. Ans. : (a)

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct.

The constitutional emergency is referred to the

President's rule, which can be proclaimed

when the government of the state cannot be

carried on in accordance with the provisions of

the Constitution.

The state executive is dismissed, and the state

legislature is either suspended or dissolved.

The President's rule does not affect the

Fundamental Rights of the citizens.

Statement 2 is incorrect.

During a national emergency, the legislative

power of the state legislature is not

suspended, but it becomes subject to the

overriding power of the Parliament.

The President can proclaim a national

emergency only after receiving a written

recommendation from the cabinet.

The 44th amendment act of 1978 introduced

this safeguard to eliminate any possibility of

the Prime Minister alone taking a decision in

this regard.

2. Ans. : (a)

Explanation:

Ocean currents are like river flow in oceans.

They represent a regular volume of water in

a definite path and direction. They can be

surface currents or deep water currents based on

the depth. On the other hand, they can also be

warm or cold based on the temperature of the

current.

Statement 1 is correct : It is true. For example,

relatively warm waters of the North Atlantic

Drift causes moderating effect on the climate of

British.

Statement 2 is correct : The mixing of warm

and cold currents provide favorable conditions

for the replenishment of the oxygen and

favour the growth of plankton, which is

the primary food for fish population. The best

fishing grounds of the world exist mainly in these

mixing zones. Mixing of warm Kuroshio and cool

Oyashio currents provide best fishing grounds for

Japan.

Statement 3 is incorrect : Neap tides refers to a

period of moderate tides when the sun and moon

are at right angles to each other. Hence it is

nothing to do with regular flow of ocean water i.e.

ocean currents.


3. Ans. : (c)

Explanation :

Through the UWIN card, government wants to

provide social security to all those people who are

not covered either by Employees‘ Provident Fund

Organisation (EPFO) or Employees‘ State

Insurance Corporation (ESIC)

Additional Information :

A ten-digit UWIN to every worker and include

details of both nuclear and extended families of

unorganized workers.

4. Ans. : (b)

Explanation :

Statement 1 is incorrect : The SC scrapped the

use of NOTA in Rajya Sabha elections.

Statement 2 is correct : MPs and MLAs have the

right not to exercise their franchise.

Statement 3 is correct : MLAs have to show their

ballot paper to an authorised party agent before

putting it in the ballot box

Additional Information : The EC is of the opinion

that NOTA should be made available in Rajya

Sabha elections

5. Ans. : (c)

Explanation :

Most Asokan inscriptions were in the Prakrit

language while those in the northwest of the

subcontinent were in Aramaic and Greek. Most

Prakrit inscriptions were written in the Brahmi

script; however, some, in the northwest, were

written in Kharosthi. The Aramaic and Greek

scripts were used for inscriptions in Afghanistan

Additional Information

Sanskrit evolved after Prakrit though the Vedas

were composed before the age of the

Mahajanapadas. Vedas were transmitted orally

and written down in Sanskrit only later.

Parthian was spoken in ancient Iran. Iran was not

part of Ashoka‘s empire.

6. Ans. : (a)

Explanation :

There are four major causes for biodiversity loss.

These four causes are termed as ‗Evil Quartet‘ .

Causes for forest fire or Population Explosion are

not termed as Evil Quartet. Four greenhouse gas

emitting countries are also not termed as Evil

Quartet.

Four Major cause for biodiversity loss are :

1. Habitat loss and fragmentation

2. Over-exploitation

3. Alien species invasions

4. Co-extinctions

7. Ans. : (d)

Explanation :

Statement 1 is incorrect as Fostering Effective

Energy Transition report is part of the World

Economic Forum‘s System Initiative on Shaping

the Future of Energy. The report summarizes

insights from the ―Energy Transition Index‖, which

builds upon the previous series of ―Global Energy

Architecture Performance Index‖ by adding a

forward looking element of country readiness for

energy transition .

Statement 2 is incorrect as India is an

associate member of this agency . India is not a

full time member of the International Energy

Agency(IEA).

Statement 3 is incorrect

The IEA was born with the 1973-1974 oil crisis,

when industrialised countries found they were not

adequately equipped to deal with the oil embargo

imposed by major producers that pushed prices to

historically high levels.

The IEA was established as the main international

forum for energy co-operation on a variety of

issues such as security of supply, long-term policy,

information transparency, energy efficiency,

sustainability, research and development,

technology collaboration, and international energy

relations.

8. Ans. : (a)

Explanation:

The Constitution of India has borrowed most of its

provisions from the constitution of various other

countries. Dr. Ambedkar produly acclaimed that

the Constitution of India has been framed after

ransacking all the known Constitutions of the

world.

Statement 1 is correct : Appointment of state

governors by the centre is a feature borrowed from

the Canadian Constitution

Statement 2 is incorrect : Nomination of

members to Rajya Sabha is a feature borrowed

from the Irish Constitution. DPSP and method of

election of President is also borrowed from the

same.

Statement 3 is incorrect : Election of members of

Rajya Sabha is a feature borrowed from the South

African Constitution. Procedure for amendment of

the Constitution is also borrowed from the same.

9. Ans. : (c)

Explanation:


It was constituted in November 1946 under

the scheme formulated by the Cabinet Mission

Plan.


It rejected the idea of two Constituent

Assemblies which Muslim League demanded.


The people of India did not directly elect

members of the constituent assembly based on

adult franchise.

But the Assembly comprised representatives of

all sections of Indian society- Hindus,

Muslims, Sikhs, Parsis and Anglo-Indians.

The Assembly included all important

personalities of India at that time, with the

exception of Mahatma Gandhi.


When its meeting was held for the first time on

December 9, 1946, the Muslim League

boycotted it. It insisted on a separate state of

Pakistan.

10. Ans. : (b)

Explanation:

Statement B is correct.

Gulf of Aqaba is at the northern tip of the Red

Sea.

It is located east of the Sinai Peninsula and

west of the Arabian mainland.

11. Ans. : (c)

Explanation:


Commercial livestock ranching is essentially

associated with western cultures and is

practised on permanent ranches.

This is a specialised activity in which only

one type of animal is reared. Rearing of

animals in ranching is organised on a

scientific basis.


In mixed farming equal emphasis is laid on

crop cultivation and animal husbandry.

The crops residues are efficiently utilised by

the farmers to feed animals and animal waste

is used to decompose that results to farm a

FYM (farm yard manures)/ compost. The

manure/compost is then applied to farms as a

fertiliser.

Mixed farming is characterised by high capital

expenditure on farm machinery and extensive

use of chemical fertilisers and green manures

and also by the skill and expertise of the

farmers.

12. Ans. : (c)

Explanation : It is an agreement between

developing countries in the Asia- Pacific.

APTA has five members namely Bangladesh,

China, India, Republic of Korea, Lao People's

Democratic Republic and Sri Lanka.

Additional Information : APTA is a Preferential

Trade Agreement, under which the basket of items

as well as extent of tariff concessions are enlarged

during the trade negotiating rounds which are

launched from time to time

13. Ans. : (b)

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect : The dispute is between

Mauritius and the U.K

Statement 2 is correct : The military facility is

jointly owned by the U.K and the U.S.A

Additional Information : The Chagos islands

are a colonial possession of the U.K. There is

considerable international pressure on the U.K to

concede its rights on the island.

14. Ans. : (b)

Explanation : Hangul/Kashmir Stag is a

subspecies of the European red deer. First

identified by Alferd Wagner in 1844, the species is

believed to have travelled all the way from

Bukhara in Central Asia to Kashmir. It is the only

subspecies of red deer in India.It is the state

animal of Jammu and Kashmir.

Statement 1 is incorrect : Hangul is restricted

to the Dachigam National Park some 15 km

north-west of Jammu & Kashmir‘s summer capital

Srinagar. Traditionally, the hangul is a long-

ranging animal which, in common parlance

means, it travels long distances, and has in the

past been spotted in areas ranging from the upper

meadows of Kishtwar in the Chenab Valley to

Gurez‘s Tulail and Dras in Kargil.

Statement 2 is correct : There is a female-biased

ratio of 23 males to every 100 females. The female-

biased ratio and the low fawn to female ratio

of 30:100 are the two main reasons for

the declining numbers of Kashmir‘s Hangul.

Habitat fragmentation and predation are also

reasons.

Statement 3 is incorrect : It is classified as

'critically endangered' by the International Union

for Conservation of Nature (IUCN)

Additional Information : The 30-year-long

insurgency and border conflict between India

and Pakistan is another major threat to its

survival. Militant and Indian Army movements,

often with dogs accompanying a patrol party, are

chasing the hangul away from its natural habitats

and into human populated areas even in

Dachigam.


15. Ans. : (d)

Explanation :

Statement 1 is incorrect: Several tribal or kin-

based assemblies such as the sabha, samiti,

vidatha, and Gana are mentioned in the Rig Veda.

They exercised deliberative, military, and religious

functions. Even women attended the sabha and

vidatha in Rig Vedic times. The sabha and the

samiti mattered a great deal in early Vedic times,

so much so that the chiefs or the kings showed an

eagerness to win their support.

Statement 2 is incorrect: The institution of gotra

appeared in later Vedic times. Literally, it means

the cow pen or the place where cattle belonging to

the entire clan are kept, but in course of time it

signified descent from a common ancestor. People

began to practise gotra exogamy. No marriage

could take place between persons belonging to the

same gotra or having the same lineage. Gotra

exogamy was the norm.

16. Ans. : (c)

Explanation :

We have a list of 104 excavated megalithic and

black-and-red ware sites of the early Iron Age or

early historic period. Though some of them are

found in Maharashtra, MP, and UP, most of them

are located in south India.

Option 1 is correct: The megalithic people in the

southern districts of Tamil Nadu had certain

noteworthy characteristics. They buried the

skeletons of the dead in urns made of red pottery

in pits. In many instances, these urns were not

surrounded by stone circles, and there were not

many grave goods. The practice of urn burial was

different from that of cist burial or pit burial

surrounded by stone circles, that prevailed in the

Krishna–Godavari valley.

Option 2 is correct: The megalithic people used

various types of pottery, including red ware, but

black-and-red ware seems to have been popular

with them. It was so widespread and important

that initially black-andred ware was called

megalithic ware by archaeologists.

Option 3 is correct: In the early centuries of the

Christian era, the megalithic phase persisted at

some places. The south Indian rulers benefited

from trade between the coastal parts of south

India and the eastern dominions of the Roman

empire, especially Egypt. Arretine pottery, which is

regularly found in south India, appears neither in

central or western India nor in Afghanistan.

Evidently these places did not receive popular

western articles, which have been found mostly

south of the Vindhyas in the Satavahana kingdom

and further south. Thus the kingdoms of both the

Satavahanas and the Kushans profited from trade

with the Roman empire, although the largest profit

seems to have accrued to the Satavahanas.

Option 4 is incorrect: Later Vedic texts were

compiled in the upper Gangetic basin in c. 1000–

500 BC. During the same period and in the same

area, digging and exploration have brought to light

nearly 700 inhabited sites. These are called

Painted Grey Ware (PGW) sites because they were

inhabited by people who used earthen bowls and

dishes made of painted grey pottery. They are not

associated with megalithic culture.

17. Answer (c)

Explanation: An Overseas Citizen of India

Cardholder shall not be entitled to the following

rights, which are conferred on a citizen of India-

Statement 1 is correct: They shall not be

entitled to the right to equality of opportunity in

matters of public employment.

Statement 2 is correct: They shall not be eligible

for election as President and Vice-President.

Statement 3 is correct: They shall not be entitled

to register as a voter.

Statement 4 is incorrect: Right against

exploitation under Article 23 and 24 are entitled to

all foreigners, including the overseas citizen of

India cardholder.

18. Ans. : (b)

Explanation: The Preamble of the Indian

Constitution includes:

Adopting entities as the people of India.

Nature of Indian state is of a sovereign,

socialist, secular democratic and republican

polity.

Fundamental values of the constitution in

terms of justice, equality, liberty and unity and

integrity of India.

Declaration of Independence with the

declaration of being a sovereign country.

Sir Alladi Krishnaswami Iyer, a member of the

Constituent Assembly, said that the Preamble

expresses what the constitution makers had

thought or dreamt for so long. Thus, it also

contains the vision of the constituent

assembly.

It doesn‘t contain the purpose of foreign policy.

19. Ans. : (b)

Explanation :

Unemployment occurs when a person who is

actively searching for employment is unable to find

work. Unemployment is often used as a measure of

the health of the economy. The most frequent

measure of unemployment is the unemployment

rate, which is the number of unemployed people

divided by the number of people in the labor force.


Statement 1 is incorrect : Frictional

unemployment refers to the state of joblessness

which is prevalent when people are in between

jobs. Also covered under this type are those kind

who spend some time in order to specialize in a

newer talent. The unemployment which occurs

due to the periodic downturn of the economy is

called cyclical unemployment.

Statement 2 is correct : Structural

unemployment comes about through technological

change in the structure of the economy in which

labor markets operate. Technological change such

as automation of manufacturing or the

replacement of horse-drawn transport by

automobiles, led to unemployment among workers

displaced from jobs that are no longer needed.

This eventually brings out a mismatch between

the requirements that the job demands and the

skill that the worker possesses.

Statement 3 is correct : Cyclical unemployment

is due to the downturn in the economy. When the

economy is going through a downward spiral,

people are left jobless and as soon as the economy

turns bullish, the workers find employment in the

different sectors. This is one of the key types of

unemployment plaguing India currently.

Statement 4 is incorrect : Disguised

unemployment is not due to the paucity of labour

force but an excess of it. It is a kind of

unemployment whereby there are more people

employed in a particular work than the demands

of that job.

20. Ans. : (a)

Explanation: Inflation is a quantitative measure of

the rate at which the average price level of a

basket of selected goods and services in an

economy increases over a period of time.

Statement 1 is correct: Rise in population is a

demand pull factor responsible for inflation. It

increases the demand of the goods and services,

leading to the increase in price of products. Thus,

reduction in population can help in controlling

inflation.

Statement 2 is incorrect: Excessive government

revenue expenditure is a demand pull factor

responsible for Inflation. The Union government‘s

revenue expenditure comprises money spent on

revenue accounts such as salary, pension,

subsidies, loans, etc. All these increases the

purchasing power of the public and money supply

in the economy. Thus, it leads to inflation, and not

help in reduction of inflation.

Statement 3 is correct: Infrastructure

bottlenecks are the cost push factors responsible

for inflation, as it increases the production and

distribution costs. Thus, improved infrastructure

can reduce the inflation by reducing the

production and distribution cost, resulting in

lower prices of the product.

Statement 4 is correct: Rise in Minimum

Support Price (MSP) is a cost push factor

responsible for inflation. Rise in MSP of a product

reduces the supply of that product in the market.

Thus, it leads to an increase in the market price of

a product. Conversely, reduction in MSP increases

the supply of a product in the market, and thus

reduces its market price. Thus, it can help in

reducing inflation.

Statement 5 is incorrect: GST is an indirect tax,

and rise in indirect tax directly increases the price

of the goods and service. Thus, it leads to inflation,

and not help in reduction of inflation.

21. Ans. : (a)

Explanation : Electrostatic precipitators, Catalytic

converters and scrubbers are used to remove

pollutants from the gaseous emissions of thermal

power plants, automobiles, industries etc.

Smokestacks of thermal power plants, smelters

and other industries release particulate and

gaseous air pollutants together with harmless

gases, such as nitrogen, oxygen, etc. These

pollutants must be separated/ filtered out before

releasing the harmless gases into the atmosphere.

Statement 1 is incorrect : Electrostatic

precipitators are used to remove over 99 percent

particulate matter present in the exhaust from a

thermal power plant. It has electrode wires that

are maintained at several thousand volts, which

produce a corona that releases electrons. These

electrons attach to dust particles giving them a net

negative charge. The collecting plates are grounded

and attract the charged dust particles. The velocity

of air between the plates must be low enough to

allow the dust to fall.

Statement 2 is correct : Catalytic converters,

having expensive metals namely platinum-

palladium and rhodium as the catalysts, are fitted

into automobiles for reducing emission of

poisonous gases. As the exhaust passes through

the catalytic converter, unburnt hydrocarbons are

converted into carbon dioxide and water, and

carbon monoxide and nitric oxide are changed to

carbon dioxide and nitrogen gas, respectively.

Motor vehicles equipped with catalytic converters


should use unleaded petrol because lead in the

petrol inactivates the catalyst.

Statement 3 is correct : A scrubber can remove

gases like sulphur dioxide. In a scrubber, the

exhaust is passed through a spray of water or

lime.

22. Ans. : (c)

Explanation :

Statement 1 is correct : Upanishadic thinkers

were concerned with understanding and

expressing the nature of the ultimate reality.

Statement 2 is correct : In Buddhism, there is no

relevance for god or soul. According to Buddhist

philosophy, the world is transient (anicca) and

constantly changing; it is also soulless (anatta) as

there is nothing permanent or eternal in it. Within

this transient world, sorrow (dukkha) is intrinsic

to human existence. It is by following the path of

moderation between severe penance and self-

indulgence that human beings can rise above

these worldly troubles. In the earliest forms of

Buddhism, whether or not god existed was

irrelevant.

23. Ans. : (c)

Explanation :

Statement 1 is correct

GSAT-11, described by ISRO as a giant

satellite, is the heaviest ever built by ISRO. (Its

next biggest is the GSAT-17, weighing 3,477

kg and which was also launched for ISRO in

June 2017 by the same European launch

operator Arianespace.)

It will meet most of the requirements of

providing broadband connectivity to rural and

inaccessible village panchayats under Bharat

Net which is part of the Digital India initiative


GSAT-11 is a geostationary satellite.

Geostationary orbit is a circular orbit, 35,785

km (22,236 miles) above Earth‘s Equator in

which a satellite‘s orbital period is equal to

Earth‘s rotation period of 23 hours and 56

minutes. From the center of the Earth, this is

approximately 42,164 kilometers.


It is one in the large high-throughput satellite

(HTS) fleet, along with two smaller HTS satellites

GSAT-19 and GSAT-29 launched earlier (by ISRO

from Sriharikota). They will kick off effective

satellite-based broadband services in remote,

hitherto uncovered rural areas of the country.

These and a few more upcoming HTS fleet will also

innovatively enable the use of the superior and

efficient Ka frequency band.


The new satellite adds 40 more transponders, 32

in the Ku band and eight in the Ka band being

introduced for the first time in an Indian satellite.

24. Ans. : (c)

Explanation:

Art is an expression of all characteristics of the

human mind aesthetically. These characteristics,

i.e. the varied human emotions, are known as

‗RAS‘. ‗Ras/Rasa‘ in Indian arts depicts aesthetic

flavour of any visual, literary or musical work that

evokes an emotion or feeling in the reader or

audience. Hence statement 1 is correct.

Human emotions can be categorized into nine sub-

headings or ‗navras‘. They are: 1. Hasya —

laughter 2. Bhayanak — evil Shringar — aesthetics

3. Rudra — chivalrous 4. Karun — pathos 5. Vir —

courage 6. Adbhut — astonishing 7. Vibhatsa —

terrifying glory 8. Shaanti — peace 9. Shringaar —

decorating one‘s self.

Statement 2 is correct: ‗Karun‘ rasa/ras depicts

feeling of empathy or even sadness.

25. Ans. : (b)

Explanation: The six orthodox schools are called

as shatdarshanas and include Nyaya, Sankhya,

Yoga, Vaisheshika, Purva Mimamsa and Uttara

Mimamsa (Vedanta Philosophy).

Statement 1 is correct: Sankhya is the oldest of

all philosophies put forth by the sage Kapila. It is a

dualistic philosophy with Purusha (soul) and

Prakriti (nature) in it.

Statement 2 is incorrect: Advaita Vedanta

derives its base from Sankhya School, and not

from the Vaisheshika.

Statement 3 is correct: Mimamsa, one of the six

schools of philosophy is basically the analysis of

interpretation, application and the use of the text

of the Samhita and Brahmana portions of the

Veda. According to Mimamsa philosophy Vedas are

eternal and possess all knowledge, and religion

means the fulfilment of duties prescribed by the

Vedas. This philosophy encompasses the Nyaya-

Vaisheshika systems and emphasizes the concept

of valid knowledge.

https://www.britannica.com/science/orbit-astronomy

https://www.britannica.com/place/Earth

https://www.britannica.com/place/Equator

https://www.britannica.com/science/satellite


Its main text is known as the Sutras of Gaimini

which were written during the third century BC.

The names associated with this philosophy are

Sabar Swami and Kumarila Bhatta. The essence of

the system according to Jaimini is Dharma which

is the dispenser of fruits of one‘s actions, the law

of righteousness itself. This system lays stress on

the ritualistic part of Vedas. Hence statement 3

is also correct.

26. Ans. : (d)

Explanation: The GDP deflator, also called implicit

price deflator, is a measure of inflation.

Option (a) and (b) are correct: The GDP deflator

shows the extent of price changes on GDP by first

establishing a base year, and secondly, comparing

current prices to prices in the base year. Thus, it

reflects the extent of Inflation within an economy.

Option (c) is correct: GDP price deflator

measures the difference between real GDP and

nominal GDP. Nominal GDP differs from real GDP

as the former doesn‘t include inflation, while the

latter does.

Option (d) is incorrect: The GDP deflator covers

the entire range of goods and services produced in

the economy, as against the limited commodity

baskets for the wholesale or consumer price

indices. Therefore, it is a more comprehensive

measure of inflation than CPI or WPI.

27. Ans. : (d)

Explanation: In Fourth generation biofuels, there

is a focus on carbon capture and storage (CCS).

Both at the level of the feedstock and/or the

processing technology, there is a focus on carbon

capture. The feedstock is tailored not only to

improve the processing efficiency, but it is also

designed to capture more carbon dioxide, as the

crop grows in cultivation. The processing methods

(mainly thermochemical) are also coupled to

―carbon capture and storage‖ technologies which

funnels off the carbon dioxide generated into

geological formations (geological storage, for

example, in exhausted oil fields) or through

mineral storage (as carbonates).

Extra Information

First generation of Biofuels: First generation

biofuels" use food-based feedstocks (like corn,

sugar cane or soybean) as raw material, and utilize

processing technologies like fermentation (for

ethanol) and trans-esterification (for biodiesel).

Second generation biofuels: These are produced

from non-food feedstocks, like lignocellulosic plant

biomass (switchgrass, poplar) and non-edible

oilseeds (Jatropha) through the conventional

method mentioned above and by thermochemical

routes (for the production of liquid ―synthetic

biofuels‖).

Third generation biofuels: It uses similar

production methods on specifically designed or

―tailored‖ bioenergy crops (often by molecular

biology techniques) to improve biomass-to-biofuel

conversions. An example is the development of

―low-lignin‖ trees, which reduce pre-treatment

costs and improve ethanol production, or corn

with embedded cellulase enzymes.

28. Ans. : (a)

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: Under this programme,

vulnerable landholding farmer families will be

provided direct income support at the rate of

₹6,000 per year. But the scheme now includes all

landholder farmers families in the country for the

PM-Kisan Scheme, except those covered under the

exclusion criteria. This income support will be

transferred directly into the bank accounts of

beneficiary farmers, in three equal instalments of

₹2,000 each.

Statement 2 is incorrect: Agriculture census

2015-16 is done by the central government, and

for this scheme the entire responsibility of

identification of beneficiary farmer families rests

with the State/UT Governments. Different states

have different sources for identification of the

beneficiaries.

Statement 3 is incorrect: The cash transfers are

not indexed to local inflation, which is a drawback

of the scheme.

Extra Information

The scheme will benefit about 12 crore small

and marginal farmers and will come into effect

retrospectively from December 1, 2018.

The provision of direct income support to

farmers will enable them to purchase the

inputs needed for a technological upgrading of

farm operation.

The merit of cash transfers over loan waivers

and subsidies lies in their potential greater

efficiency in enabling poor households to

directly purchase the required goods and

services as well as enhance their market

choices.

29. Ans. : (a)

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct as There is more solar

energy available in the tropics, which contributes

to higher productivity; this in turn might

contribute indirectly to greater diversity. In

temperate regions availability of solar energy is

less. So these regions have less productivity and

diversity.


Statement 2 is incorrect as Tropical

environments, unlike temperate ones, are less

seasonal, relatively more constant and predictable.

Such constant environments promote niche

specialisation and lead to a greater species

diversity.

Statement 3 is incorrect as Speciation is

generally a function of time, unlike temperate

regions subjected to frequent glaciations in

the past, tropical latitudes have remained

relatively undisturbed for millions of years and

thus, had a long evolutionary time for species

diversification.

30. Ans. : (c)

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct as Ecological

Pyramid assumes a simple food chain, something

that almost never exists in nature; it does not

accommodate a food web. It is one of the

limitations of the Ecological Pyramid.

Statement 2 is correct as saprophytes are

not given any place in ecological pyramids

even though they play a vital role in the ecosystem.

It is one of the limitations of the Ecological

Pyramid.

Statement 3 is incorrect as it does not take into

account the same species belonging to two or more

trophic levels. It is one of the limitations of the

Ecological Pyramid.

31. Ans. : (b)

Explanation:

Statement b is correct:

India and the Netherlands launched the

second phase of the LOTUS-HR (Local

Treatment of Urban Sewage streams for

Healthy Reuse plant ) as a part of joint

collaboration.

The project was initiated in July 2017 and

aims to demonstrate a novel holistic (waste)

water management approach that will

produce clean water which can be reused for

various purposes.

The LOTUS-HR project is jointly supported

by the Department of Biotechnology, Ministry

of Science and Technology, Government of

India and Netherlands Organization for

Scientific Research /STW, Government of

Netherlands.

This plant can convert 10 lakh litre of sewage

into clean water

32. Ans. : (d)

Explanation:

Assertion: Not the parliament, but the

Comptroller and Auditor-General of India is

considered as a guardian of the public purse, as it

audits the accounts of the Central and state

governments and comments on the legality and

propriety of government expenditure.

Reason: It is true that no amount can be

withdrawn from the Consolidated Fund of India

without the authorisation from the Parliament, but

the guardian looks after the use and misuse of

public funds and that task is done by the CAG.

33. Ans. : (c)

Explanation :

Statement 1 is incorrect: The Indo-Greeks were

the first to issue gold coins in India, and these

increased in number under the Kushans. The

Guptas issued the largest number of gold coins,

but Kushanas issued gold coins for the first time

in India in the 1st century C.E.

Statement 2 is correct: Fa Hien visited India

during the rule of the Guptas.

Statement 3 is incorrect: The Guptas learnt the

use of the saddle, reins, buttoned coats, trousers,

and boots from the Kushans. All these gave them

mobility and made them excellent horsemen.

34. Ans. : (c)

Explanation: Earthquake waves are basically of

two types — body waves and surface waves.

Further, there are two types of body waves. They

are called Primary and Secondary waves. P-waves

move faster and are the first to arrive at the

surface. They are S-waves arrive at the surface

with some time lag. P-waves move faster and are

the first to arrive at the surface.

Statement 1 is correct : Body waves are

generated due to the release of energy at the focus

and move in all directions travelling through the

body of the earth. Hence, the name body waves.

The body waves interact with the surface rocks

and generate new set of waves called surface

waves. These waves move along the surface.

Statement 2 is incorrect : P-waves vibrate

parallel to the direction of the wave. This exerts

pressure on the material in the direction of the

propagation. As a result, it creates density

differences in the material leading to stretching

and squeezing of the material. The direction of

vibrations of S-waves


is perpendicular to the wave direction in the

vertical plane. Hence, they create troughs and

crests in the material through which they pass.

Statement 3 is correct : Surface waves are

considered to be the most damaging waves.

Statement 4 is correct : There exist some specific

areas where the waves are not reported. Such a

zone is called the ‗shadow zone‘. From the

empirical studies it was found that the shadow

zone of Secondary waves is higher that the Primary

waves.

35. Ans. : (a)

Explanation :

Statement 1 is incorrect as under such a rule

there is provision for expansion of the

jurisdiction of applicability from the municipal

area to rural areas, because plastic has reached

rural areas also. So Its applicability is not limited

to municipal areas

Statement 2 is correct as One of the objectives

of such rule is To bring in the responsibilities of

producers and generators, both in plastic waste

management system and to introduce collect back

system of plastic waste by the producers/brand

owners, as per extended producers responsibility

Statement 3 is incorrect as It aims To promote

use of plastic waste for road construction as per

Indian Road Congress guidelines or energy

recovery, or waste to oil etc. for gainful utilization

of waste and also address the waste disposal

issue;

To entrust more responsibility on waste

generators, namely payment of user charge as

prescribed by local authority, collection and

handing over of waste by the institutional

generator, event organizers.

36. Ans. : (b)

Explanation:

Statement 1 is incorrect: It is a tool used by

RBI to enhance liquidity in the system through

which as much as $5 billion is bought from the

banks in a swap deal that could inject nearly

35,000 crores into the system.This could

potentially increase inflation.

Statement 2 is correct: Under the new swap, RBI

wants to buy dollars from banks instead of bonds,

but wants to return these dollars at the end of

three years for a ‗forward‘ premium. Forward

premium is the price paid for hedging by buying

dollars in the forward market.

Statement 3 is correct: According to bankers, the

move is seen to lower the dependence on open

market operations which have been a significant

amount of the overall borrowing.

Extra Information

Banks would be required to park dollar funds

with the RBI with a deal to buy it back from

the RBI after three years(swap).

A similar kind of swap was used in 2013 for

banks to swap their dollars received in the

FCNR (B) scheme but that was at a fixed rate.

This scheme is through an auction.

37. Ans. : (c)

Explanation: Wholesale Price Index, or WPI,

measures the changes in the prices of goods sold

and traded in bulk by wholesale businesses to

other businesses.

Statement 1 is correct: The WPI takes into

account certain hidden costs like shipping,

transport, other logistics cost, and taxes, fees, etc.

Thus, it neither provides a clear picture of original

price at producer‘s end nor the final cost for

consumers, which is one of its limitations.

Statement 2 is incorrect: The Producer Price

Index (PPI) measures price movements from the

seller's point of view. Conversely, the consumer

price index (CPI), measures cost changes from the

viewpoint of the consumer. In other words, these

index tracks change to the cost of production. On

the other hand, WPI can neither track the changes

from producer‘s end nor it can track the changes

to consumer‘s end. Thus, WPI is Incongruent with

global standards as most of the nations either use

CPI or PPI.


Statement 3 is incorrect: WPI shows the

combined price of a commodity basket comprising

676 items, but CPI shows the combined price of a

commodity basket comprising 260 commodities.

Thus, the commodity basket of WPI is more

comprehensive than that of CPI.

38. Ans. : (c)

Explanation:

Both shruti and smriti represent categories of texts

that are used to establish the rule of law within

the Hindu tradition. Hence statement 1 is

correct.

Shruti is solely of divine origin and contains no

specific concepts of law. Because of the divine

origin, it is preserved as a whole instead of verse

by verse. With sruti, the desire is more towards

recitation and preservation of its divine attributes

and not necessarily towards understanding and

interpreting the oral tradition like that found in

smriti.


The Vedas are the world's oldest literature. They

are referred to as shruti (hearing) which is eternal,

self-evident and divinely revealed. The sages had

seen and perceived the Vedic mantras while in a

stage of meditation and contemplation. The entire

Vedic literature is shruti. On the other hand, we

have several human creations in literature which

are known as smriti (recollection). The Ramayana,

the Mahabharata including the Bhagavad Gita, the

Upanishads and Dharmashastras represent the

finest examples of the smriti tradition. Many

scholars view the Upanishads also as a part of

shruti.

Hence statement 3 is also incorrect.

39. Ans. : (c)

Explanation:

Painting as an art form has flourished in India

from very early times as is evident from the

remains that have been discovered in the caves,

and the literary sources. The history of art and

painting in India begins with the prehistoric rock

painting at Bhimbetka caves (M.P.) where we have

drawings and paintings of animals. The cave

paintings of Narsinghgarh (Maharashtra) show

skins of spotted deer left drying. Thousands of

years ago, paintings and drawings had already

appeared on the seals of Harappan civilization.

Both Hindu and Buddhist literature refer to

paintings of various types and techniques for

example, Lepyacitras, lekhacitras and

Dhulitcitras. The first was the representation of

folklore, the second one was line drawing and

painting on textile while the third one was

painting on the floor.

Hence Pair 1 and 3 are not correctly matched.

The Buddhist text Vinayapitaka (4th–3rd century)

describes the existence of painted figures in many

royal buildings. The play Mudrarakshasa (5th

Century A.D.) mentions numerous paintings or

Patas. The 6th Century AD text on aesthetics-

Kamasutra by Vatsyayana has mentioned painting

amongst 64 kinds of arts and says that it was

based on scientific principles. The

Vishnudharmottara purana (7th century A.D.) has

a section on painting called Chitrasutra which

describes the six organs of painting like variety of

form, proportion, lustre and portrayal of colour

etc. Thus, archaeology and literature testify to the

flourishing of painting in India from prehistoric

times. The best specimens of Gupta paintings are

the ones at Ajanta. Their subject was animals and

birds, trees, flowers, human figures and stories

from the Jataka.

Pair 4 is correctly matched as Mural paintings

are done on walls and rock surfaces like roofs

and sides. Cave no. 9 depicts the Buddhist monks

going towards a stupa. In cave no. 10 Jataka

stories are depicted. But the best paintings were

done in the 5th – 6th centuries AD during the

Gupta age. The murals chiefly depict religious

scenes from the life of the Buddha and the

Buddhist Jataka stories but we also have secular

scene. Here we see the depiction of all aspects of

Indian life. We see princes in their palaces, ladies

in their chambers, coolies with loads over their

shoulders, beggars, peasants and ascetics,

together with all the many beasts, birds and

flowers of India.

40. Ans. : (a)

Explanation :

Statement 1 is correct as It is headed by the

Finance Minister.

Statement 2 is incorrect as It is a non

statutory body. The Financial Stability and

Development Council is an apex-level body

constituted by the Government of India. It was

constituted through Executive decision and not

through an Act of parliament.

Statement 3 is incorrect as Drawing from the

idea of Raghuram Rajan Committee (2008) to

create a super-regulatory body for the financial

sector, in 2010 it was decided to set up Financial

Stability and Development Council (FSDC), an

autonomous body dealing with macroprudential

and financial regularities in the entire financial

sector of India.

Responsibilities of FSDC

1. Bringing about stability in the financial sector

2. Development of Financial Sector

3. Inter-regulatory coordination


4. Promoting financial literacy

5. Ensuring financial inclusion

6. Macroprudential supervision of the economy

including the functioning of large financial

conglomerates.

7. Coordinating India‘s international interface

with financial sector bodies like the Financial

Action Task Force (FATF), Financial Stability

Board (FSB) and any such body as may be

decided by the Finance Minister from time to

time.

41. Ans. : (c)

Explanation :

The components of the ecosystem are seen to

function as a unit when you consider the following

aspects: (i) Productivity; (ii) Decomposition; (iii)

Energy flow; and (iv) Nutrient cycling.

Decomposers break down complex organic matter

into inorganic substances like carbon dioxide,

water and nutrients and the process is called

decomposition.

Dead plant remains such as leaves, bark, flowers

and dead remains of animals, including fecal

matter, constitute detritus, which is the raw

material for decomposition.

The important steps in the process of

decomposition are fragmentation, leaching,

catabolism, humification and mineralisation.

Detritivores (e.g., earthworm) break down detritus

into smaller particles. This process is called

fragmentation.

By the process of leaching, water soluble inorganic

nutrients go down into the soil horizon and get

precipitated as unavailable salts.

Bacterial and fungal enzymes degrade detritus into

simpler inorganic substances. This process is

called catabolism.

Humification and mineralisation occur during

decomposition in the soil. Humification leads to

accumulation of a dark coloured amorphous

substance called humus that is highly resistant to

microbial action and undergoes decomposition at

an extremely slow rate. Being colloidal in nature it

serves as a reservoir of nutrients. The humus is

further degraded by some microbes and release of

inorganic nutrients occur by the process known as

mineralisation.


Detritus is converted to inorganic substances by

bacteria and fungi by the process called

catabolism. (Building up is anabolism and

breaking down is catabolism)


Humification is the natural process of changing

organic matter into humic substances (humus,

humate, humic acid, fulvic acid, and humin) by

geo-microbiological mechanisms. Therefore,

microbes are responsible for humification.

Earthworms break down the detritus into smaller

particles. This process is called fragmentation.


The humus is further degraded by some microbes

and release of inorganic nutrients occur by the

process known as mineralisation.


Decomposition is largely an oxygen-requiring

process. Warm and moist environment favour

decomposition whereas low temperature and

anaerobiosis inhibit decomposition resulting in

build up of organic materials.

42. Ans. : (a)

Explanation :


Kalam SAT is a communication satellite with a life

span of two months. It is named after former

Indian president Dr APJ Abdul Kalam and was

built by an Indian high school student team.It is

the world‘s lightest and first ever 3D-printed

satellite


Kalamsat will be the first to use the rocket‘s

fourth stage as an orbital platform. The fourth

stage will be moved to higher circular orbit so as to

establish an orbital platform for carrying out

experiments


Kalam SAT is a 10cm cube weighing 1.2 kg. It is a

nano satellite.

A microsatellite weighs more than 10 kg. A

nanosatellite weighs more than a kg.

43. Ans. : (d)

Explanation:


Article 22 grants protection to persons who are

arrested or detained. Under Article 22, the

grounds for arrest should be communicated to

the detainee even if arrested under preventive

detention.

However the facts considered to be against the

public interest need not be disclosed.

The detenu should be afforded an opportunity

to make a representation against the detention

order.


Right against preventive detention comes

under Article 22 (Protection against arrest and

detention). Right against preventive detention

falls under the purview of Right to Freedom. It

grants protection to persons who are arrested

or detained.


Right against exploitation deals with

Prohibition of traffic in human beings and

forced labour and prohibition of employment

of children in factories.


The Parliament has exclusive authority to

make a law of preventive detention for reasons

connected with defence, foreign affairs and the

security of India.

Both the Parliament and the state legislatures

can concurrently make a law of preventive

detention for reasons connected with the

security of a state, maintenance of essential

services and maintenance of public order.

44. Ans. : (c)

Explanation:

The Constitution of India provides for its

amendment in order to adjust itself to the

changing conditions and needs. Article 368 in Part

XX of the Constitution deals with powers of

Parliament to amend the Constitution and its

procedure.


A bill to amend the constitution can be

introduced both by a minister or by a private

member.


A bill to amend the constitution can be

introduced without prior permission of the

President.


The President must give his assent to the bill.

He can neither withhold his assent nor return

the bill for reconsideration of the Parliament.

45. Ans. : (c)

Explanation:

Statement (a) is correct:

In general, land absorbs or dissipates the heat

more rapidly than that of the ocean surface.

Statement (b) is correct:

Isotherms are lines joining places having equal

temperature. Hence as the gap between the

isotherms increases one can experience the same

temperature in a given area as compared to that of

a narrowly spaced isotherms area.

Statement (c) is incorrect:

In january, it will be winter in the Northern

hemisphere. Hence, sun apparently moves from

the north pole to the south pole. So, one can

witness northward extension of isotherms on the

ocean surface and southward extension of

isotherms on the land surface (as we discussed in

the statement A).

Statement (d) is correct:

In the Southern hemisphere, due to the absence of

huge landmass contrary to Northern hemisphere,

one can see isotherms parallel to latitudes.

46. Ans. : (b)

Explanation:


It is an irregular oscillation of sea-surface

temperature, in which the Western Indian

Ocean becomes alternately warmer and colder

than the eastern part of the ocean.


Positive IOD is beneficial for the Indian

monsoon because the African coast becomes

unusually warm, which adds more moisture to

incoming monsoon winds.


In negative IOD, eastern equatorial Indian

Ocean off Sumatra in Indonesia becomes

abnormally warm while the western tropical

part of the ocean near the African coast

becomes relatively colder.

47. Ans. : (b)

Explanation


It causes avian influenza


H5N1 is called so Every time a new flu virus is

identified, it is named for two proteins,

hemagglutinin and neuraminidase, that are on the

surface of the virus. Hence the H and the N

abbreviation.


The antiviral medicine oseltamivir can reduce the

severity of illness and prevent death, and should

be used in all cases


Almost all cases of H5N1 infection in people have

been associated with close contact with infected

live or dead birds, or H5N1-contaminated

environments. The virus does not infect humans

easily, and spread from person to person appears

to be unusual. There is no evidence that the

disease can be spread to people through properly

prepared and thoroughly cooked food.

48. Ans. : (c)

Explanation


The Sudarshana lake was an artificial reservoir

built during the Mauryan period


We know about it from a rock inscription (c.

second century CE) in Sanskrit, composed to

record the achievements of the Shaka ruler


Rudradaman. The inscription mentions that the

lake, with embankments and water channels, was

built by a local governor during the rule of the

Mauryas. However, a terrible storm broke the

embankments and water gushed out of the lake.

Rudradaman, who was then ruling in the area,

claimed to have got the lake repaired using his

own resources, without imposing any tax on his

subjects.

49. Ans. : (b)

Explanation :

Option 1 is incorrect

Shudras were part of the Brahmanical society.

Option 2 is correct

Given the diversity of the subcontinent, there were,

and always have been, populations whose social

practices were not influenced by Brahmanical

ideas. When they figure in Sanskrit texts, they are

often described as odd, uncivilised, or even

animal-like. In some instances, these included

forest-dwellers – for whom hunting and gathering

remained an important means of subsistence.

Categories such as the nishada, to which Ekalavya

is supposed to have belonged, are examples of

this.

Option 3 is correct

The term rakshasa is used to describe people

whose practices differed from those laid down in

Brahmanical texts.

Option 4 is correct

Rulers, such as the Shakas who came from

Central Asia, were regarded as mlechchhas.


While the Brahmanas considered some people as

being outside the system, they also developed a

sharper social divide by classifying certain social

categories as ―untouchable‖.The Manusmriti laid

down the ―duties‖ of the chandalas. They had to

live outside the village, use discarded utensils, and

wear clothes of the dead and ornaments of iron.


Others who were viewed with suspicion included

populations such as nomadic pastoralists, who

could not be easily accommodated within the

framework of settled agriculturists. Sometimes

those who spoke non-Sanskritic languages were

labelled as mlechhas. There was nonetheless also

a sharing of ideas and beliefs between these

people. The nature of relations is evident in some

stories in the Mahabharata.

50. Ans. : (b)

Explanation:

Base rate is the minimum rate set by the Reserve

Bank of India below which banks are not allowed

to lend to its customers.

Statement 1 is incorrect as Base rate was not

introduced to curb the black money from Indian

Banking Sector. The base rate was designed to

replace the flawed benchmark prime lending rate

(BPLR), which was introduced in 2003 to price

bank loans on the actual cost of funds. It was not

primarily introduced to curb the black money

from Indian Banking Sector.

Statement 2 is correct as Base rate

was introduced to enhance the transparency in

lending rate of banks. Benchmark Prime lending

rate(BPLR) was an opaque system. Under this

system, banks were subsidising corporate loans by

charging high interest rates from retail and small

and medium enterprise customers. To remove

such discrepancy, Base rate system was

introduced. Under the Base Rate system , Banks

were directed to announce their base rates on

their Websites, in keeping with the objective of

making lending rates more transparent.

Statement 3 is correct as the Base rate was

able to enhance the better assessment of

transmission of monetary policy. As under Base

rate system, there was transparency in deciding

the lending rate. So banks had to decide lending

rate as per monetary Policy . So it would provide

better assessment of transmission of monetary

policy.

51. Ans. : (b)

Explanation:

Nationalisation of Banks

The government through the Banking

Companies (Acquisition and Transfer of

Undertakings) Ordinance, 1969 and

nationalised the 14 largest commercial banks

on 19 July 1969. Nationalisation of Banks

Nationalisation of banks means that

ownership should be changed from private to

public. After the nationalisation of banks ,

banks will be owned and operated by the

government.

Statement 1 is incorrect as to prevent the loss

of the private sector banks was not the objective

of Nationalisation of banks. The core objective for

nationalisation was to energise priority sectors at a

time when the large businesses dominated credit

profiles.

Statement 2 is correct as Increasing the access

of banking services for the masses was one of the

primary objectives of Nationalisation of Banks. It

enhanced financial inclusion in the economy. One

of the objectives of nationalisation of banks was

rapidly expand the banking network to the

unbanked regions, especially rural areas and

deliver institutional credit to the farmers, small

businesses and other weaker sections of society.


Statement 3 is incorrect as One of the

objectives of Nationalisation of banks was to

decentralise economic power. The loans by

commercial banks to industry nearly doubled

between 1951-1968 from 34 to 68 per cent, even

as the agriculture received less than 2 per cent. So

there was centralisation of economic power for

industry. One of the objective of nationalisation

of banks was to decentralise such tendency and

provide loan to other sector of economy like

Agriculture and rural Area.

Statement 4 is correct as one of the objectives

of Nationalisation of Banks was to ensure the

balanced flow of credit to all the productive

sectors, across various regions and social groups

of the country. Other objectives are to provide

stability to the banking system by preventing bank

failures and speculative activities.

52. Ans. : (b)

Explanation: Forest Right Act 2006 recognizes

and vest the forest rights and occupation in Forest

land in forest Dwelling Scheduled Tribes (FDST)

and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (OTFD) who

have been residing in such forests for generations.

Statement 1 is incorrect; A Community forest

resource (CFR) management committee consists of

members of gram sabha. There is no

representation of forest officials in this committee.

Statement 2 is correct: CFR management

committees (CFRMCs) have complete authority

over collection and sale of non-timber forest

produce.

Extra information

Forest rights act strengthens the conservation

regime of the forests while ensuring livelihood

and food security of the FDST and OTFD. The

act recognizes the four types of rights i.e title

rights, use rights, Relief and development

rights and forest management rights.

Members or community of the Scheduled

Tribes who primarily reside in and who depend

on the forests or forest lands for bona fide

livelihood needs can claim rights under this

act.

These rights can also be claimed by any

member or community who has for at least

three generations (75 years) prior to the 13th

day of December, 2005 primarily resided in

forest land for bona fide livelihood needs.

53. Ans. : (d)

Explanation:


Mudumalai Sanctuary is located on the

northwestern side of Nilgiri Hills. The

Mudumalai National Park and Wildlife

Sanctuary also a declared tiger reserve, lies on

the northwestern side of the Nilgiri Hills (Blue

Mountains), in Nilgiri District, about 150

kilometres (93 mi) north-west of Coimbatore

city in Tamil Nadu.

It shares its boundaries with the states of

Karnataka and Kerala. The sanctuary is

divided into five ranges – Masinagudi,

Thepakadu, Mudumalai, Kargudi and

Nellakota.


Nameri National Park is a national park in the

foothills of the eastern Himalayas in the

Sonitpur District of Assam.

Nameri shares its northern boundary with the

Pakhui Wildlife Sanctuary of Arunachal

Pradesh.

Nameri is also declared as Tiger Reserve in the

year 1999-2000, which is the 2nd Tiger

reserve of Assam after Manas Tiger Reserve


Mount Abu wildlife Sanctuary is located on

the hills of Aravallis.

It was declared as a Wildlife Sanctuary in

1960.

54. Ans. : (d)

Explanation: In October 2018, the Supreme Court

allowed bursting of low-emission crackers relaxing

the 'complete ban. Green crackers were researched

and developed by scientists at CSIR-NEERI as per

the court's directions.


It doesn't contain banned chemicals such as

lithium, arsenic, barium and lead. They are

called Safe Water Releaser (SWAS), Safe

Thermite Cracker (STAR) and Safe Minimal

Aluminium (SAFAL) crackers.


Green crackers release water vapour and don't

allow the dust particles to rise. They are

designed to have 30% less particulate matter

pollution.

Green' crackers have a small shell size

compared to traditional crackers. They are

produced using less harmful raw materials

and have additives which reduce emissions by

suppressing dust.

55. Ans. : (b)

Explanation:

Statement 1 is incorrect:

Crust is the outermost solid part of the earth. It is

brittle in nature. The thickness of the crust varies

under the oceanic and continental areas.

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Sonitpur

https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/tamil-nadu/green-crackers-short-on-sound-and-light-high-on-confusion/article29747151.ece



https://www.thehindu.com/todays-paper/tp-national/green-crackers-will-reduce-pollution/article29607446.ece

https://www.thehindu.com/todays-paper/tp-national/green-crackers-will-reduce-pollution/article29607446.ece

https://www.thehindu.com/news/cities/Delhi/expect-more-light-less-noise-this-diwali/article29720111.ece

https://www.thehindu.com/news/cities/Delhi/expect-more-light-less-noise-this-diwali/article29720111.ece

https://www.thehindu.com/news/cities/Delhi/no-diwali-boom-for-green-crackers/article29753760.ece

https://www.thehindu.com/news/cities/Delhi/no-diwali-boom-for-green-crackers/article29753760.ece


Oceanic crust is thinner as compared to the

continental crust. The continental crust is

thicker in the areas of major mountain

systems.

Continental crust is made up of heavier rocks

called basalt. Whereas, Oceanic crust is made

up of lighter rocks called granite. Thus, it is

less dense than the continental crust.

Statement 2 is correct:

Mantle, the portion of the interior beyond the

crust, extends from Moho‘s discontinuity to a

depth of 2,900 km. The upper portion of the

mantle is called the asthenosphere. It is the main

source of magma that finds its way to the surface

during volcanic eruptions.


The core is made up of very heavy material mostly

constituted by nickel and iron. Now, as one goes

into the earth‘s interior, pressure will increase.

Outer core lies above the inner core. Hence the

outer core is not under enough pressure to be

solid, so it is liquid even though it has a

composition similar to the inner core.

56. Ans. : (d)

Explanation:

What are extra tropical cyclones?

The systems developing in the mid and high

latitude, beyond the tropics are called the middle

latitude or extra tropical cyclones. These form

along the polar fronts.


They cover a larger area and can originate over the

land and sea.


Coriolis force is an effect whereby a mass moving

in a rotating system experiences a force acting

perpendicular to the direction of motion and to the

axis of rotation. It makes objects to deflect to the

right side of the movement in the Northern

hemisphere and left side in the Southern

hemisphere.

Nonetheless, this force is necessary for the

formation of anti clockwise or clockwise movement

of air mass. Hence it is needed for the formation of

extra tropical cyclones.


The extra tropical cyclones move from west to

east but tropical cyclones, move from east to

west.

Statement 4 is correct:

Extra tropical cyclones bring rainfall in parts of

North and North western parts of India in the form

of western disturbances in winter seasons.

57. Ans. : (a)

Explanation:


It provided for the establishment of a

public service commission. Hence a Central

public service commission was set up in 1926

for recruiting civil servants.


It introduced for the first time, bicameralism

and direct elections in the country.

Hence the Indian Legislative Council was

replaced by a bicameral legislature consisting

of an Upper House (Council of State) and a

Lower House (Legislative Assembly). The

majority members of both the houses were

chosen by direct elections.


The Government of India Act 1935 abolished

dyarchy in the provinces and introduced

provincial autonomy.

The provinces were allowed to act as

autonomous units of administration in their

defined spheres.

58. Ans. : (d)

Explanation:


Prohibition is issued by a higher court to a

lower court to prevent the latter from

exceeding its jurisdiction.

This writ can be issued only against judicial

and quasi-judicial authorities.


A higher court issues certiorari to a lower

court or tribunal on the grounds of excess of

its jurisdiction or lack of jurisdiction or error

of law.


Habeas Corpus is an order issued by the

court to a person who has detained another

person, to produce the body of the latter before

it.

It can be issued against both public

authorities and private individuals.



It is issued by the court to a public official

asking him to perform his official duties that

he has failed or refused to perform.

It cannot be issued against the Chief Justice of

High Court acting in judicial capacity.

59. Ans. : (b)

Explanation:

The Rhine river flows through six countries -

Switzerland, Liechtenstein, Austria, Germany,

France and the Netherlands before flowing into

the North Sea at Rotterdam.

The rhine river is the best developed inland

waterway of Europe. It is navigable for a

distance of about 700 Km from Rotterdam in

Netherlands to Zurich in Switzerland. It serves

the highly industrialised and most densely

populated parts of Europe.

It forms the natural boundary between

Switzerland and Austria, and Switzerland and

Liechtenstein.

This is the world‘s most heavily used inland

waterway. Each year more than 20,000 ocean

going ships and 2,60,000 inland vessels

change their cargo. Rotterdam and Antwerp in

the Netherlands are important sea ports on

the upper Rhine.

Avalon Waterways

60. Ans. : (c)

Explanation:

An epoch is a subdivision of the geologic

timescale that is longer than an age but shorter

than a period.


On May 21, 2019, 29 of the 34-member

Anthropocene Working Group (AWG), voted in

favour of starting the new epoch.

Anthropocene Epoch will be the first time that

the beginning of an epoch would be based on

human activity and not the consequences of

changes brought about by nature.

The move signals the end of the Holocene

epoch, which began 12,000 to 11,600 years

ago.


The International Commission on Stratigraphy

(ICS)—which oversees the geological time chart

has yet to approve the new term.

61. Ans. : (a)

Explanation :


It is one of the four noble truths of Buddhism


The most important idea in Jainism is that the

entire world is animated: even stones, rocks and

water have life. Non-injury to living beings,

especially to humans, animals, plants and insects,

is central to Jaina philosophy.


Ajivikas have often been described as fatalists:

those who believe that everything is

predetermined.


Lokayatas, described as materialists, did not attest

to anything that can‘t be perceived.

62. Ans. : (b)

Explanation :

Option 1 is correct

The tradition of building artificial caves was an old

one.This tradition evolved through various stages

and culminated much later – in the eighth century

– in the carving out of an entire temple, that of

Kailashnatha (a name of Shiva).

Option 2 is correct

The Trimurthi sculpture is carved in a cave in

Elephanta


It is a free standing temple made of stone and

bricks

Option 4 is correct

Panchapandava Cave Temple is a monument at

Mahabalipuram, in the Kancheepuram district of

the state of Tamil Nadu, India. It was built by the

Pallavas


The early cave structures were residences of

monks

63. Ans. : (c)

Explanation:

MCLR (Marginal cost of funds based Lending

rate)

The marginal cost of funds based lending rate

(MCLR) refers to the minimum interest rate of

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Mahabalipuram

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Kancheepuram_district

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Tamil_Nadu

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/India


a bank below which it cannot lend, except in

some cases allowed by the RBI.

It is an internal benchmark or reference rate

for the bank. MCLR actually describes the

method by which the minimum interest rate

for loans is determined by a bank - on the

basis of marginal cost or the additional or

incremental cost of arranging one more rupee

to the prospective borrower.

Statement 1 is correct as MCLR (Marginal cost

of funds based Lending rate) will help in

transmission of policy rate into lending rates of

banks . MCLR rates are based on the marginal

cost of funds. So it is more sensitive to changes in

the policy rates.

Statement 2 is correct as it will help the banks

to become more competitive . Prior to the MCLR

system, different banks were following different

methodology for calculation of base rate

/minimum rate – that is either on the basis of

average cost of funds or marginal cost of funds or

blended cost of funds. MCLR provides the common

methodology for deciding the lending rates. So it

would help in increasing the competition among

the banks.

Statement 3 is incorrect as MCLR was mainly

introduced for transmission of policy rate into

lending rates of banks. The policy rate

transmission was not intended directly to achieve

social equality or reduction in income inequality

64. Ans. : (c)

Explanation:

What is ARC (Asset Reconstruction Companies)

ARCs are in the business of buying bad loans

from banks.

It is a specialized financial institution that

buys the NPAs or bad assets from banks and

financial institutions so that the latter can

clean up their balance sheets.

ARCs clean up the balance sheets of banks

when the latter sells these to the ARCs. This

helps banks to concentrate on normal banking

activities.

Banks rather than going after the defaulters

by wasting their time and effort, can sell the

bad assets to the ARCs at a mutually agreed

value.

Statement 1 is correct as ARCs are in the

business of buying bad loans from banks. ARCs

clean up the balance sheets of banks when the

latter sells these to the ARCs. This helps banks to

concentrate on normal banking activities.

Statement 2 is incorrect as They were formed

under the provisions of The Securitization and

Reconstruction of Financial Assets and

Enforcement of Security Interest (SARFAESI) Act,

2002 . The SARFAESI Act helps reconstruction of

bad assets without the intervention of courts. This

act provides the legal basis for setting up ARCs in

India. Section 2 (1) of the Act explains the meaning

of Asset Securitization. Similarly, ARCs are also

elaborated under Section 3 of the Act.

Statement 3 is incorrect as these companies

are regulated by the Reserve Bank Of India. These

companies are registered with RBI which has got

the power to regulate the ARCs

65. Ans. : (b)

Explanation: Through an amendment in the

Wildlife Protection Act, 1972 in 2002, the National

Board for wildlife was constituted in place of

Indian Board of wildlife. Primary function of the

board is to promote the conservation and

development of wildlife and forests. It has power to

review all wildlife-related matters and approve

projects in and around national parks and

sanctuaries

Statement 1 is correct: It is headed by India‘s

Prime Minister and vice-chairman is Minister of

Environment.

Statement 2 is incorrect: It was constituted

under the Wildlife Protection Act, 1972 .

Statement 3 is incorrect: No alteration of

boundaries in national parks and wildlife

sanctuaries can be done without approval of the

NBWL.

66. Ans. : (c)

Explanation :


Dampa tiger reserve forms the boundary between

India And Bangladesh. Dampa Tiger Reserve or

Dampha Tiger Reserve is a tiger reserve of

western Mizoram, India. It was declared a tiger

reserve in 1994 and is part of Project Tiger


Valmiki Tiger Reserve is located at the India-Nepal

border in the West Champaran district of Bihar,

India on the bank of river Gandak.It is the only

Tiger Reserve in Bihar


Manas tiger reserve forms the boundary

between India and Bhutan.

It is a national park, UNESCO Natural World

Heritage site, a Project Tiger reserve, an

elephant reserve and a biosphere reserve in

Assam, India.

Located in the Himalayan foothills, it is

contiguous with the Royal Manas National

Park in Bhutan.


Jim Corbett Tiger Reserve is the oldest

national park in India and was established in

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/National_park


1936 as Hailey National Park to protect the

endangered Bengal tiger.

It is located in Nainital district and Pauri

Garhwal district of Uttarakhand and was

named after Jim Corbett, a well known hunter

and naturalist. The park was the first to come

under the Project Tiger initiative. It does not

share a boundary with Nepal.

67. Ans. : (b)

Explanation:

Statement b is correct.

Dubbed the Gafa tax – an acronym for Google,

Apple, Facebook and Amazon – the French

parliament approved the legislation which will

impose a 3% levy on the total annual revenues

of the largest technology firms providing

services to French consumers.

It aims to stop multinationals from avoiding

taxes by setting up headquarters in low-tax

European Union countries.

Although France failed to persuade European

Union (EU) partners to impose a Europe-wide

tax on online giants, it pushes for an

international deal with member countries of

Organization for Economic Cooperation and

Development (OECD).

68. Ans. : (c)

Explanation:


The doctrine of sovereignty of Parliament is

associated with the British Parliament. The

Parliament cannot change the basic structure

of the Constitution and the Supreme Court

through its power of Judicial review can

declare the Parliamentary laws as

unconstitutional and strike it down. Thus the

Parliament does not enjoy complete

sovereignty.


Though the Indian Constitution is federal in

structure, Article 1 describes India as the

Union of states.

This is because of two reasons: one, the Indian

Federation is not the result of an agreement by

the states;

Two, no state has no right to secede from the

federation.


Indian Parliamentary form of government is

based on the principle of cooperation and

coordination between the legislative and

executive organs.

The presidential system is based on the

doctrine of separation of powers where there is

complete separation between the legislative

and executive organs of the government.

69. Ans. : (c)

Explanation:

Article 368 in Part XX of the Constitution defines

the power of parliament to amend the constitution

and its procedure. Under its procedure, those

provisions of the Constitution which are related to

federal structure of the polity can only be amended

after approval by a special majority of Parliament

and consent of half of state legislatures by a

simple majority.

The following provisions can be amended in this

way:

1. Election of the President and its manner.

2. Extent of the executive power of the Union and

the states.

3. Supreme Court and high courts.

4. Distribution of legislative powers between the

Union and the states.

5. Any of the lists in the Seventh Schedule.

6. Representation of states in Parliament.

7. Power of Parliament to amend the Constitution

and its procedure (Article 368 itself).


Provisions related to Supreme Court and High

Courts can only be amended after approval by

a special majority of Parliament and consent of

half of states.


Sixth schedule can be amended by a simple

majority of the two houses of Parliament.


Article 368 can only be amended after

approval by a special majority of Parliament

and consent of half of states


Fundamental Rights is amended by a special

majority of the Parliament.

70. Ans. : (a)

Explanation:


Tundra is where low temperatures and

precipitation levels hinder tree growth.


The tundra is characterized by permafrost—

soil that is frozen for two or more years.

This permafrost keeps moisture near the soil‘s

surface, promoting vegetation growth even in

the extreme Arctic conditions of the tundra.


The alpine tundra has more precipitation and

higher annual average temperatures than the

polar tundra.

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Jim_Corbett

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Project_Tiger


The characteristic of the Alpine is similar to

polar tundra in that it has no trees, has

annual temperatures that are recorded to be

very low, and most animals migrate to these

regions only during the productive summer

periods.

71. Ans. : (d)

Explanation:


Many urban and suburban areas experience

elevated temperatures compared to their

outlying rural surroundings; this difference in

temperature is what constitutes an urban heat

island.


Surface urban heat islands are typically

present day and night but tend to be strongest

during the day when the sun is shining.


Atmospheric UHI may be small or non-existent

during the day and becomes most intense at

night or pre-dawn.

The absence of solar heating leads to the

decrease of atmospheric convection and the

stabilization of urban boundary layer. If

enough stabilization occurs, an inversion layer

is formed. This traps urban air near the

surface, and keeps surface air warm from the

still-warm urban surfaces, resulting in warmer

nighttime air temperatures.

72. Ans. : (a)

Explanation :

Severe Cyclonic Storm Gaja originated as a low-

pressure system over the Gulf of Thailand. The

weak system intensified into a depression over the

Bay of Bengal on November 10 and further

intensified to a cyclonic storm on November 11,

being named 'Gaja'. Cyclone Gaja made landfall in

South India, at Vedaranyam, Tamil Nadu. At the

time of the landfall of the cyclone, 100-120 kmph

speed was experienced. The highest sustained

speed was recorded in Adirampattinam at 165

kmph and 160 kmph at Muthupet. The cyclone

Gaja affected 08 districts of Tamil Nadu, namely,

Nagapattinam, Thanjavur, Thiruvarur, Pudukottai,

Karaikal, Cuddalore, Trichy and

Ramanathapuram.


It originated in the gulf of Thailand in South east

Asia.


It made landfall on Tamil Nadu Coast. Cyclone

Gaja made landfall between Nagapattinam and

Vedaranyam on November 16,2018. It took a toll of

at least 45 lives. Tamil Nadu is historically one of

the most vulnerable States to tropical cyclones.

Some of the tropical cyclones that hit Tamil Nadu

are Gaja (2018), Ockhi (2017), Vardha (2016),

Nilam (2012), Thane (2011), Jal (2010) and Nisha

(2008). .


It did pass to the Arabian Sea but dissipated

causing no harm.


Cyclones are named by various warning centres to

provide ease of communication between

forecasters and the general public.

73. Ans. : (b)

Explanation :


Trade flourished as the Central Asian rulers of

north western India controlled the on land silk

route.


A buddhist council was called to set down the

fundamentals of Mahayana Buddhism


Gold coins were issued which facilitated trade


The widespread use of gold coins indicates the

enormous value of the transactions that were

taking place.

74. Ans. : (c)

Explanation:

CAR (capital adequacy ratio)

The capital adequacy ratio (CAR) is a

measurement of a bank's available capital

expressed as a percentage of a bank's risk-

weighted credit exposures.

The capital adequacy ratio, also known as

capital-to-risk weighted assets ratio (CRAR), is

used to protect depositors and promote the

stability and efficiency of financial systems

around the world.

Statement 1 is correct as capital adequacy ratio

(CAR) helps to prevent bank failure. It makes

sure that banks have enough cushion to absorb a

reasonable amount of losses before they become

insolvent and consequently lose depositors‘ funds.

The capital adequacy ratios ensure the efficiency

and stability of a nation‘s financial system by

lowering the risk of banks becoming insolvent.

Statement 2 is correct as The amount of capital

affects returns for the owners (equity holders) of

the bank. As Capital Adequacy Ratio is high,

return for owners will be less. Investment in the

high risk asset will be less to maintain the capital

adequacy ratio. Due to less investment in these

assets, return will be less for owners (equity

holders).

https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/tamil-nadu/cyclone-gaja-live-updates-tamil-nadu-on-high-alert/article25501983.ece

https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/tamil-nadu/cyclone-gaja-live-updates-tamil-nadu-on-high-alert/article25501983.ece

https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/tamil-nadu/cyclone-gaja-toll-rises-to-45/article25530882.ece

https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/tamil-nadu/cyclone-gaja-toll-rises-to-45/article25530882.ece


Statement 3 is incorrect as It is the limitation

of capital adequacy ratio that it does not provide

an accurate account for expected losses during a

bank run on financial crisis. One limitation of the

CAR is that it fails to account for expected losses

during a bank run or financial crisis that can

distort a bank's capital and cost of capital. Some

Economists argue that economic capital measure

to be a more accurate and reliable assessment of a

bank's financial soundness and risk exposure than

the capital adequacy ratio.

75. Ans. : (c)

Explanation: The National Institution for

Transforming India, also called NITI Aayog, was

formed via a resolution of the Union Cabinet on

January 1, 2015. NITI Aayog is the premier policy

‗Think Tank‘ of the Government of India, providing

both directional and policy inputs.

Statement 1 is correct: Foster cooperative

federalism through structured support initiatives

and mechanisms with the States on a continuous

basis, recognizing that strong States make a

strong nation.

Statement 2 is correct: To develop mechanisms

to formulate credible plans at the village level and

aggregate these progressively at higher levels of

government. Thus, promoting bottom-up approach

of planning.

Statement 3 is correct: Provide advice and

encourage partnerships between key stakeholders

and national and international like-minded Think

tanks, as well as educational and policy research

institutions.

Statement 4 is correct: Offer a platform for

resolution of inter-sectoral and inter departmental

issues in order to accelerate the implementation of

the development agenda.

Statement 5 is incorrect: It only actively

monitors and evaluates the implementation of

programmes and initiatives, including the

identification of the needed resources so as to

strengthen the probability of success and scope of

delivery. However, allocation of funds is not under

the purview of NITI Ayog, It is done by the Finance

Ministry.

76. Ans. : (d)

Explanation:

Option a is incorrect

Raising awareness among people regarding the

purity of the gold hallmarking campaign was

launched. Hallmarking has a direct correlation

with consumer trust, and confidence. Currently,

hallmarking of gold is optional and can be

voluntarily opted for by jewellers. As per the

government, Hallmarking of gold jewellery and

artefacts will be made mandatory across the

nation from January 15, 2020. The hallmarking

sign will provide the buyer of the purity of the gold.

Option b is incorrect

Promotion of Awareness regarding food

adulteration is not factored in within the purview

of The Standards & Labeling Programme.

Option c is incorrect

Ecomark or Eco mark is a certification mark

issued by the Bureau of Indian Standards (the

national standards organization of India) to

products conforming to a set of standards aimed at

the least impact on the ecosystem. The marking

scheme was started in 1991. One of the purposes

of the mark is increasing awareness among the

consumers towards reducing environmental

impact. The mark is issued to various product

categories and the development of standards for

more products is in progress.it Is a statutory body

Option d is correct

The Standards & Labeling Programme is one of

the major thrust areas of the Bureau of Energy

Efficiency (BEE). A key objective of this scheme is

to provide the consumer an informed choice about

the energy saving and thereby the cost saving

potential of the relevant marketed product. The

scheme targets display of energy performance

labels on high energy end use equipment &

appliances and lays down minimum energy

performance standards.

77. Ans. : (b)

Explanation :

Atal Bhujal Yojana will be implemented in seven

states – Gujarat, Haryana, Karnataka, Madhya

Pradesh, Maharashtra, Rajasthan and UP over five

years from 2020-21 to 2024-25. It is expected that

it will benefit about 8,350 gram panchayats in 78

districts. According to Jal Shakti Ministry sources,

if the scheme meets its objectives in water-stressed

areas, it will be extended to other parts of the

country. At present it is not implemented at pan

India level but it will be implemented in seven

states.

Statement 1 is incorrect as Of the Rs 6,000

crore total cost of the project , Rs 3,000 crore will

be contributed by the World Bank as loan while

the other half will be provided by the central

government in the form of central assistance. All of

it — the World Bank component and central

assistance — will be given to the states as grants.

Statement 2 is correct as It's one of the

objectives is to bring about behavioral changes at

the community level for sustainable groundwater

resource management in seven States


78. Ans. : (b)

Explanation:


The children of foreign diplomats posted in

India cannot acquire Indian citizenship by

birth.


Deprivation - it is a compulsory termination

of Indian citizenship by the Central

Government.

If he/she has shown disloyalty to the

Constitution of India, then the Central

Government can deprive Indian citizenship.

79. Ans. : (c)

Explanation:

The Madras High Court ruled that the L-G of

Puducherry could not interfere with the day-to-day

administration of the Union Territory when an

elected government was in place. The court said

continuous interference from the L-G would

amount to running a ―parallel government.‖

Similar judgement was given by SC in the case of

conflict between Delhi government and LG.


L-G has to either act on the ‗aid and advice‘ of

the Council of Ministers or refer to the

President for a decision on any matter on

which there is a difference with the Ministry

but has no independent decision-making

powers.


The Delhi Legislature can make laws on any

subject of the State List (except public order,

police and land ) and the Concurrent List.

The legislative assembly of Puducherry can

make laws on any subject of the State List and

the Concurrent List.


Puducherry legislature is the creation of a

parliamentary law, based on an enabling

provision in Article 239A of the Constitution.

Whereas the National Capital Territory

legislature has been created by the

Constitution itself under Article 239AA.

80. Ans. : (b)

Explanation:

Deltas form as rivers empty their water and

sediment into another body of water, such as an

ocean, lake, or another river.


A delta is triangular in outline and mainly

formed by an enormous volume of deposition

of finer particles near the mouth of the river.

At the final stage of the river the slowing

velocity of the river favours deposition of finer

particles. Coarse and heavy sediments are

deposited at the youth stage itself where the

velocity of stream is relatively high.


The distributaries are wide, shallow,

choked with silt and clay and extremely

sluggish.

Distributary is a stream that branches

off and flows away from a main stream

channel.

81. Ans. : (a)

Explanation:


All processes that move, elevate or build up

portions of the earth‘s crust come under

diastrophism. It includes orogeny and

epeirogeny.


In the process of orogeny, the crust is severely

deformed into folds. Due to epeirogeny, there

may be simple deformation.

Orogeny is a mountain building process

whereas epeirogeny is a continental building

process.

82. Ans. : (d)

Explanation : Minimum reserve System :

The reserve system provides guidelines for the

issue of new currencies.

In India, currencies are issued by the RBI

with the backing of reserves comprised of

gold and foreign exchange (foreign currencies).

For the issue of currencies, the RBI follows the

Minimum Reserve System at present. The

Minimum Reserve System (MRS) is followed

from 1956 onwards.

Under the Minimum Reserve System, the RBI

has to keep a minimum reserve of Rs 200

crore comprising of gold coin and gold bullion

and foreign currencies.

The minimum reserve is a token of confidence

and doesn‘t have any practical connection

with the amount of new currencies issued by

the RBI. Under the Minimum Reserve System,

the RBI can issue unlimited amounts of

currency by keeping the reserve.

Under this system, the Central bank can issue

currency to any extent by keeping minimum

reserve of gold and foreign currencies. So option

(d) is correct.


83. Ans. : (a)

Explanation : Reserve Money

Reserve money represents the base level for

money supply or it is the high powered

component of money supply.

Gross amount of the following segments of money

at any point of time is known as Reserve Money.

1. RBI‘s net credit to the Government

2. RBI‘s net credit to the banks

3. RBI‘s net credit to the commercial banks

4. Net forex reserve with the RBI

5. Government‘s currency liabilities to the Public.

Net Non monetary liabilities of the RBI are not

part of Reserve Money.

RBI’s net credit to the Government

‗Net Reserve Bank credit to Government‘

includes the Reserve Bank‘s credit to Central

as well as State Governments. It includes ways

and means advances and overdrafts to the

Governments, the Reserve Bank‘s holdings of

Government securities, and the Reserve

Bank‘s holdings of rupee coins less deposits of

the concerned Government with the Reserve

Bank.

It is part of Reserve Money.

RBI’s net credit to the banks

The Reserve Bank‘s claims on banks include

loans to the banks including NABARD. It is

part of Reserve Money.

Net Non monetary liabilities of the RBI

These are not part of the reserve money of the

economy.

Net non-monetary liabilities (NNML) of the

Reserve Bank‘ are liabilities which do not have

any monetary impact. These comprise items

such as the Reserve Bank‘s paid-up capital

and reserves, contribution to National Funds

(NIC-LTO Fund and NHC-LTO Fund), RBI

employees‘ PF and superannuation funds, bills

payable, compulsory deposits with the RBI,

RBI‘s profit held temporarily under other

deposits, amount held in state Governments

Loan Accounts under other deposits, IMF

quota subscription and other payments and

other liabilities of RBI less net other assets of

the RBI. Similarly, NNML of banks include

items such as their capital, reserves,

provisions, etc. NNML of the banking sector

includes NNML of the Reserve Bank and that

of other banks.

So Option (a) is correct.

84. Ans. : (a)

Explanation :

Statement 1 is incorrect as the Rate of

Secondary Succession is faster than the Primary

Succession . Secondary succession begins in areas

where natural biotic communities have been

destroyed such as in abandoned farm lands,

burned or cut forests, lands that have been

flooded. Since some soil or sediment is present,

succession is faster than primary succession.

Statement 2 is incorrect as In primary

succession in water, the small phytoplanktons are

examples of pioneer Species. In primary

succession in water, the pioneers are the small

phytoplanktons, which are replaced with time by

rooted-submerged plants, rooted-floating

angiosperms followed by free-floating plants, then

reed-swamp, marsh-meadow, scrub and finally the

trees. It is not an example of Climax Community.

Statement 3 is correct as In primary succession

on rocks, Lichens are the example of pioneer

Species.

85. Ans. : (b)

Explanation:


Suo Moto cases are instances wherein the

High Courts and the Supreme court of India

using their inherent powers initiate a hearing

by taking cognizance of any matter on its own,

without anybody filing any appeal or writ

petition.

Under Article 32 and Article 226 of the Indian

Constitution enable the Supreme Court and

High Courts respectively to issue any

directions to do or refrain from doing an act

ensuring constitutional remedies.


The Supreme Court can issue writs only for

the enforcement of fundamental rights

whereas a high court can issue writs not only

for the enforcement of Fundamental Rights

but also for any other purpose. The expression

‗for any other purpose‘ refers to the

enforcement of an ordinary legal right.

Since the judiciary includes both SC and HC,

the statement is incorrect.


The Supreme Court enjoys original jurisdiction

for the enforcement of the fundamental right

It is not exclusive. It is concurrent with the

jurisdiction of the High Court under Article

226.

86. Ans. : (c)

Explanation:


Supreme Court in a reference made by the

President in 1960 held that the power of

Parliament to diminish the area of a state

(under article 3) does not cover cession of the

Indian territory to a foreign country.


Hence Indian territory can be ceded to a

foreign territory only by amending the

Constitution under Article 368. Consequently,

9th Constitutional Amendment Act (1960) was

enacted to cede Indian territory.


Supreme Court in 1969 ruled that, settlement

of a boundary dispute between India and

another country does not require a

constitutional amendment.

It can be done by executive action as it does

not involve cessation of Indian territory to a

foreign country.

87. Ans. : (b)

Explanation:


Drumlins are smooth oval shaped ridge-like

features whose long axes are parallel to the

direction of ice movement. So they give an

indication of the direction of glacier movement.

Drumlins are composed mainly of glacial till

with some masses of gravel and sand.

Eskers are casts of subglacial tunnels or ice-

walled canyons near to an ice margin. It does

not give an indication of the direction of glacier

movement.


Moraines are long ridges of deposits of glacial

till. The unassorted coarse and fine debris

dropped by melting glaciers is called glacial

till.

Terminal moraines are long ridges of debris

deposited at the end of the glaciers. Lateral

moraines form along the sides parallel to the

glacial valleys.

88. Ans. : (b)

Explanation:


The surface waves usually termed R (Rayleigh)

waves move along the earth‘s surface. Its

intensity decreases rapidly with depth.

They are low frequency transverse vibrations

with a long wavelength. It is created close to

the epicenter and can only travel through the

outer part of the crust.


The point where energy is released is called

the focus or hypocentre. It is generally located

at the depth of 60 km.

This causes a release of energy, and the energy

waves travel in all directions.

The point on the surface of the earth which

is vertically above the focus is called

epicentre. It is the first place to experience the

waves.

89. Ans. : (c)

Explanation :

Commercial Banks : All commercial banks

including branches of foreign banks functioning in

India, local area banks and regional rural banks

are insured by the DICGC. Primary cooperative

societies are not insured by the DICGC. So

Option(C) is Correct.

Deposit Insurance and Credit Guarantee

Corporation (DICGC)

It is a wholly owned subsidiary of the Reserve

Bank of India. It was established on 15 July

1978 under the Deposit Insurance and Credit

Guarantee Corporation Act, 1961 for the

purpose of providing insurance of deposits and

guaranteeing of credit facilities.

DICGC insures all bank deposits, such as

saving, fixed, current, recurring deposit for up

to the limit of Rs. 100,000 of each deposits in

a bank

The Local Area Banks (LABs)

These are small private banks, conceived as

low cost structures which would provide

efficient and competitive financial

intermediation services in a limited area of

operation, i.e., primarily in rural and semi-

urban areas, comprising three contiguous

districts.

LABs were required to have a minimum capital

of Rs. 5 crore.

Regional Rural Bank

Regional Rural Banks (RRBs) are financial

institutions which ensure adequate credit for

agriculture and other rural sectors . Regional

Rural Banks were set up on the basis of the

recommendations of the Narasimham Working

Group (1975), and after the legislations of the

Regional Rural Banks Act, 1976.

The equity of a regional rural bank is held by

the Central Government, concerned State

Government and the Sponsor Bank in the

proportion of 50:15:35.

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Indian_rupee


90. Ans. : (c)

Explanation:

Annual financial statement of the government has

two parts i.e Revenue part and Capital Part. The

Revenue Part is recurring in nature and for a

shorter period. The revenue Part has sub section

i.e Tax and Non Tax receipts. The Capital part is of

longer duration. As for Example Disinvestment.


Dividend and Profits are examples of non tax

revenue sources.


Interest Payments are part of non tax revenue

sources.


External Grants are part of non tax revenue

sources.


Divestments are part of capital Receipts. As these

are of longer duration and not recurring in nature.


Spectrum Allocation is part of non tax revenue

sources.


Fines, Fees and Penalties are part of non tax

revenue sources.

91. Ans. : (a)

Explanation:


The rights conferred on minorities under

Article 30 is only to ensure equality with the

majority and not intended to place minorities

in a more advantageous position.

Thus there is no reverse discrimination in

favour of minorities.


Article 27 lays down no person shall be

compelled to pay any taxes for the promotion

or maintenance of any particular religion or

religious denomination.

This provision prohibits the State from

favouring, patronising and supporting one

religion over the other.

This provision prohibits only levy of a tax and

not a fee.

92. Ans. : (c)

Explanation:

Pyrenees is a range of mountains in southwest

Europe that forms a natural border between

Spain and France.

The range separates the Iberian Peninsula

from the rest of continental Europe.

93. Ans. : (a)

Explanation :

Statement 1 is incorrect as It is not used as an

instrument to control inflation. These are

designed to protect investors from inflationary

forces which eat away their savings.

Statement 2 is incorrect as At present, It is

indexed to CPI.The principal and interest

payments of these bonds are usually linked to an

inflation index such as WPI or CPI. It was in

the year 1997 that inflation-linked bonds (IIB) in

the name of Capital Indexed Bonds (CIBs) were

first issued. These provided protection only

to principal and not to interest payment.

In 2013, new bonds by the name of inflation-

indexed bonds (IIBs) were issued which

provided protection to both principal and interest

payments. These IIBs were linked to the WPI. At

present. Inflation Indexed Bonds is indexed to

CPI.

Statement 3 is correct as the objective of this

bond is to increase the financial savings instead of

buying gold. As during inflationary trends in the

economy, interest rates become less than inflation

rate like CPI. So in such a situation people prefer

to invest in gold rather than banks‘ saving

instruments. To tackle such a situation, inflation

indexed bonds were launched so that people get

more return in financial savings. It will help in

decreasing the investment in Gold as financial

savings such as inflation-indexed bonds (IIBs) are

more attractive .

Statement 4 is correct as it ensures that

price rise does not erode the value of savings.

As Inflation Indexed Bond (IIB) are linked to CPI.

So if there is an increase in inflation rate, the

people get proportionate returns. It will not erode

the value of savings.


94. Ans. : (b)

Explanation: Basel is a city in Switzerland. It is

the headquarters of the Bureau of International

Settlement (BIS), which fosters cooperation among

central banks with a common goal of financial

stability and common standards of banking

regulations. Basel guidelines refer to broad

supervisory standards formulated by a group of

central banks called the Basel Committee on

Banking Supervision (BCBS).

Statement 1 is correct: G-SIBs are the banks

whose systemic risk profile is considered to be of

such importance that its failure could result in a

wider financial crisis, threatening the global

economy.

Statement 2 is correct: The list of G-SIBs is

identified annually by the Basel Committee on

Banking Supervision (BCBS) based on both

quantitative indicators and qualitative indicators.

Statement 3 is incorrect: On the line of G-SIBs,

RBI also announces Domestic Systemically

Important Banks (D-SIBs), which means that these

banks are too big to fail. RBI has currently

announced only SBI, ICICI, and HDFC Bank as

Domestic Systemically Important Banks (D-SIBs).

95. Ans. : (b)

Explanation:


During the day, air along the mountain slopes

is heated more intensely than air at the same

elevation over the valley floor. This warmer air

glides up along the mountain slope and

generates a valley breeze.

Valley breeze can often be identified by the

isolated cumulus clouds that develop over the

adjacent mountain peaks.


Mountain and valley breeze are local winds

that are created due to differences in the

heating and cooling of earth surfaces.

During night time, rapid radiation heat loss

along the mountain slopes cools the air, which

drains into the valley below and causes a

mountain breeze.

96. Ans. : (b)

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: The primary objective of

monetary policy is to maintain price stability while

keeping in mind the objective of growth. Price

stability is a necessary precondition to sustainable

growth.

Statement 2 is incorrect: The MPC is entrusted

with the responsibility of deciding the different

policy rates including MSF, Repo Rate, Reverse

Repo Rate, and Liquidity Adjustment Facility.

Statement 3 is correct: In May 2016, the Reserve

Bank of India (RBI) Act, 1934 was amended to

provide a statutory basis for the implementation of

the flexible inflation targeting framework. Prior to

the amendment in the RBI Act in May 2016, the

flexible inflation targeting framework was governed

by an Agreement on Monetary Policy Framework

between the Government and the Reserve Bank of

India of February 20, 2015.

97. Ans. : (c)

Explanation :

The Fifteenth Finance Commission was

constituted on 27 November 2017 against the

backdrop of the abolition of Planning Commission

(as also of the distinction between Plan and non-

Plan expenditure). The commission was scheduled

to table its report by October 2019, which has

been extended to November 2020. Among other

things the Finance commission also submits

observations regarding augmentation of resources

for the Panchayats and Municipalities in a state

based on the recommendations of the State

Finance Commission.

Statement 1 is incorrect: Amongst the terms of

reference, one of them is to determine

the principles which should govern the grants-in-

aid of the revenues of the States out of the

Consolidated Fund of India and the sums to be

paid to the States by way of grants-in-aid of their

revenues under Article 275 of the Constitution.

Statement 2 is incorrect: The award of the

recommendation is for the period of five years

starting 1st April 2020. An interim report for 2020-

21 has recently been submitted. The other report

which is supposed to come by the later part of

2020, shall be covering the other years included in

the award.

Statement 3 is correct: The terms include the

provision to look into the demand on the

resources of the Central Government particularly

on account of defence, internal security,

infrastructure, railways, also on the issue of

climate change.

Statement 4 is correct : The Commission may

consider proposing measurable performance-based

incentives for States, at the appropriate level of

government, in following areas: (i) Efforts made by

the States in expansion and deepening of tax net

under GST; (ii) Efforts and Progress made in

moving towards replacement rate of

population growth; (iii) Achievements in

implementation of flagship schemes of Government

of India, disaster resilient infrastructure,

sustainable development goals, and quality of

expenditure; (iv) Progress made in increasing

capital expenditure, eliminating losses of power

sector, and improving the quality of such

expenditure in generating future income streams.


98. Ans. : (c)

Explanation:

The Rubʿ al-Khali is the largest uninterrupted

sand desert in the world. It holds roughly half

as much sand as Africa‘s Sahara desert, even

though it is 15 times smaller in size.

It covers an area larger than France across

Saudi Arabia, Oman, UAE and Yemen.

99. Ans. : (a)

Explanation :

The government has since 2017, launched a new

regular employment - unemployment survey which

is known as the Periodic Labour Force Survey. It

shall give an updated information as compared to

the earlier quinquennial (once in every five years)

Employment and Unemployment surveys of NSSO.

The PLFS has been launched with an objective of

measuring quarterly changes of various labour

market statistical indicators in urban areas as well

as generating annual estimates of these indicators

both for rural and urban areas, which can be used

for policy making.

Statement 1 is correct : This survey is brought

out by the National Sample Survey Organization

(NSSO) under the Ministry of Statistics and

programme implementation.

Statement 2 is incorrect : Unemployment rate

was 5.8 per cent among males and 3.8 per cent

among females in rural areas, while the rates were

7.1 per cent among males and 10.8 per cent

among females in urban areas

Statement 3 is incorrect : See explanation of

statement 2.

100. Ans. : (c)

Explanation: The term ‗law‘ in Article 13 has been

given a wide connotation so as to include the

following:

Permanent laws enacted by the Parliament or

the state legislatures.

Temporary laws like ordinances issued by the

president or the state governors. Hence,

statement 1 is correct.

Statutory instruments in the nature of

delegated legislation (executive legislation) like

order, bye-law, rule, regulation or notification.

Hence, statement 2 and 3 are correct.

Non-legislative sources of law that is, custom

or usage having the force of law. Hence,

statement 4 is correct.

Article 13 declares that a constitutional

amendment is not a law under this Article.

Hence, statement 5 is incorrect.

all india prelims test series - 2020 - tnl-uploads.s3.ap ... · power of the state legislature is...

Documents