agile scrum foundation exin 2014 227 q + a

1. In affinity estimating you:

I. quickly categorize user stories

II. apply estimates to these categories of user stories.

a. I is correct

b. II is correct

c. Both are correct

d. None is correct.

2. The Agile Manifesto values:

I. Individuals and interactions over processes and tools

II. Working software over comprehensive documentation

III. Customer collaboration over contract negotiation

IV. Responding to change over following a plan

a. All are correct

b. None is correct

c. I and II are correct

d. III and IV are correct

3. Commitment:

I. Means making an active, conscious effort to work with new methods and to abandon old habits

II. At both an individual level and at an organizational level is critical to agile transition success.

a. I is correct

b. II is correct

c. None is correct

d. Both are correct

4. Daily scrum is also known as:

I. Daily huddle

II. Daily standup

a. I is correct

b. II is correct

c. Both are correct

d. None is correct

5. Definitions of done usually include:

I. Developed

II. Tested

III. Integrated

IV. Documented

a. I and III are correct

b. II and IV are correct

c. None of the above are correct

d. All of the above are correct.

6. An escaped defect is:

I. A defect that was not found by the quality assurance team

II. A defect that escaped from the quality assurance team

III. A defect that is found by end users

a. None of the above are correct

b. I and II are correct

c. II and III are correct

d. All of the above are correct

7. Extreme programming approaches are:

I. Coding is the core activity

II. XP teams do lots of testing

III. Communication between customer and programmer is direct

IV. For complex systems, some level of overall design, beyond any specific function, is necessary.





8. An ideal hour is:

I. an hour of work where you can solely focus on the task at hand without any interruptions like phone calls, emails, or chat messages

II. six ideal hours (for an eight hour working day) is the default capacity for every team member

a. Both are correct

b. I is correct

c. II is correct

d. Neither I nor II is correct.

9. An information radiator is/can/shows:

I. A tool that physically displays information to the scrum team and anyone else in the scrum team’s work area.

II. Include Kanban boards, white boards, bulletin boards, burndown charts.

III. The iteration’s status and any other sign with details about the project, the product, or the scrum team

a. I is correct

b. II is correct

c. III is correct

d. None of the above are correct

e. All of the above are correct

10. A Niko-Niko calendar is:

I. A mood board

II. An information radiator

III. Is Japanese for smiley

a. I and II are correct

b. All of the above are correct



11. Pair programming:

I. is another extreme programming practice

II. developers work in groups of two

III. both developers sit at the same computer and work as a team to create one product requirement

IV. increases quality by providing instant error checks and balances

a. I, II and III are correct

b. All of the above are wrong

c. All of the above are correct

d. IV is correct

12. Planning in Agile has 7 stages and the correct order is:

I. Sprint retrospective, Vision, Release planning, Daily scrum, Product roadmap, Sprint review, Sprint planning

II. Vision, Product roadmap, Release planning, Sprint planning, Daily scrum, Sprint review, Sprint retrospective

III. Vision, Product roadmap, Release planning, Sprint planning, Daily scrum, Sprint retrospective, Sprint review.

IV. Vision, Product roadmap, Release planning, Daily scrum, Sprint planning, Sprint retrospective, Sprint review.

a. I is correct

b. II is correct

c. III is correct

d. IV is correct

13. The product owner:

I. Is responsible for bridging the gap between the customer, business stakeholders and development team.

II. Is an expert on the product and the customer’s need and priorities.

III. Is a member of the scrum team

a. I is correct

b. II is correct

c. III is correct

d. I, II and III are correct

14. A user story is finished when:

a) The conditions of satisfaction are achieved b) Design, coding, unit testing and testing tasks of this story are finished c) The team Done definition criteria are satisfied d) The Product Owner reviews it in the iteration review meeting

15. The product owner is responsible of which of the following activities:

1. Represent the Customer/users community

2. Prioritize features according to business value 3. Ensure that the team is fully functional and productive 4. Make scope/schedule tradeoff decisions 5. Protects the team from external conflicts and interferences

a) 1, 2, 3, 4 b) 1, 2, 4 c) 2, 4, 5 d) All the above

16. The implementation details of a user story are discovered:

a) During the story writing workshops with the Product Owner b) During the iteration review meeting with Product Owner c) As the team progresses towards the end of the release d) During the iteration where this user story is developed

17. One of the basic benefits on using continuous integration is:

a) The elimination of integration bugs b) Ensuring release is free of bugs c) Early detection of integration problems d) Ensuring baselines are correctly taken

18. The primary role of the Scrum Master in Planning Poker estimation meeting is to: a) Facilitate the discussions among the team members and make sure they are following the steps of planning poker properly b) Participate in the estimation and challenge the team estimates to make sure they are estimating correctly c) Make sure that everyone is estimating by himself/herself without being influenced by others d) Make sure that the Product Owner estimates don't influence the team estimates

19. In Agile software development, the best measure of progress is: a) Percentage of resolved bugs b) Working software c) Phase completion d) Release burn charts

20. The purpose of the daily standup meeting is: a) Track the remaining effort of the daily team tasks b) Analyze the daily issues as soon as they emerge c) Track the team's daily progress and highlight any pending issues d) Track the team's daily progress and solve any pending issues

21. An iteration is over when:

a) The iteration tasks are completed b) The stories are completed according to the Done definition c) The timebox expires

d) The iteration review meeting and retrospective are conducted

22. A scrum master is responsible for:

I. supporting the development teamII. clearing organizational roadblocksIII. keeping processes true to agile principles

a. I is correctb. II is correctc. III is correctd. none of the above are correcte. all of the above are correct

23. Winston Royce defined the next phases in the waterfall method: Requirements, Design, Development, Integration, Testing and Deployment.

A. TrueB. False

24. The Agile Manifesto values:

I. Individuals and interactions over processes and toolsII. Working software over contract negotiationIII. Customer collaboration over comprehensive documentationIV. Responding to change over following a plan.

A. I and II are correctB. All are correctC. None of the above are correctD. I and IV are correct

25. Agile approaches are based on an empirical control method. Empirical control requires:

I. Transparency, Frequent inspection, AdaptationII. A Scrum master, a development team, a Product ownerIII. Daily scrum, backlog, sprint review and sprint retrospective

A. I is correctB. II is correctC. III is correctD. None of the above are correct

26. The three most popular agile approaches are: Lean, Extreme Programming and Scrum.

A. TrueB. False

27. What kind of software development projects can be executed by Scrum Project Management Framework?

Choice-1: Complete software packages

Choice-2: Customer projects

Choice-3: Sub-systems, components or parts of bigger systems

Choice-4: All kinds of software development projects

Choice-5: None of the given answers

28. What does NOT belong to cornerstones of the agile manifesto?

Choice-1: Individuals and interactions over processes and tools

Choice-2: Working software over comprehensive documentation

Choice-3: Processes over people

Choice-4: Customer collaboration over contract negotiation

Choice-5: Responding to change over following a plan

29. What is defined by the Scrum Framework?

A) Rules & RolesB) Document guidelinesC) Artifacts and events

Choice-1: A

Choice-2: B

Choice-3: C

Choice-4: A, B, C

Choice-5: A, C

30. Where are the customer requirements stored?

Choice-1: In the Scrum Backlog

Choice-2: In the Sprint Backlog

Choice-3: In a database

Choice-4: In a Scrum Product Requirement Specification

Choice-5: Nowhere. The Scrum Product Owner knows them

31. Which ones of the following main roles are defined by Scrum Framework?

A) Scrum TesterB) The Scrum TeamC) Scrum ManagerD) Scrum MasterE) Scrum Product Owner

Choice-1: A, B, C, D, E

Choice-2: B, C, D, E

Choice-3: B, D, E

Choice-4: A, B, D, E

Choice-5: A, B, C, D

32. Which ones of the following main events are defined by Scrum Framework?

A) Sprint Planning MeetingB) Sprint Retrospective MeetingC) Sprint Review MeetingD) Mid-Sprint Status Review MeetingE) Daily Scrum Meeting

Choice-1: A, B, C, D, E


Choice-3: A, C, D, E

Choice-4: A, B, C, E

Choice-5: A, C, E

33. Which concept is NOT defined in the Scrum Framework?

Choice-1: Scrum Master

Choice-2: Project Manager

Choice-3: Scrum Product Owner

Choice-4: Daily Scrum

Choice-5: Scrum Product Burndown

34. What is important in all Scrum projects?

A) Self-organizationB) Clear hierarchies in the companyC) CommunicationD) Continuous improvement


Choice-2: A, C, D

Choice-3: A, D

Choice-4: A

Choice-5: A, B

35. In software engineering what are the disadvantages of the classical waterfall model?

A) End-Product has to be fully anticipated beforehand.B) Some requirements are implemented as defined in the beginning of the project, and yet they are not really needed by the customer.C) Each phase is strictly separated.

Choice-1: A

Choice-2: B

Choice-3: C

Choice-4: A, B

Choice-5: A, B, C

36. What are the advantages of the Scrum Framework?

Choice-1: Fine-grained requirements are only defined when they are really needed.

Choice-2: All activities to design, build and test a certain functionality are kept together in one phase.

Choice-3: Changes are expected and welcomed by Scrum team.

Choice-4: All of the given answers

Choice-5: None of the given answers

37. A line in the Agile Manifesto reads, "____________ over following a plan". Please select which option best completes the statement.

A. Communicating frequentlyB. Completing requirementsC. Asking the customerD. Responding to change

38. _____________ can change the priority of items in the _________ backlog at any time.

A. The Product Owner(s); SprintB. The Team; ProductC. The Product Owner(s); ProductD. The Scrum Master; Sprint

39. ________________ constitute the Sprint Backlog and are often estimated in hours.

A. StoriesB. Use CasesC. FeaturesD. Tasks

Answer: D

40. _________________ is an agile development methodology which is intended to improve software quality and responsiveness to changing customer requirements by executing frequent "releases" in short development cycles (timeboxing), by programming in pairs or conducting extensive code reviews, by unit testing all code, and by maintaining a flattened management structure.

A. ScrumB. LeanC. Agile ModellingD. XP

41. A _____________________ is created during the first half of the Sprint planning meeting and a _________________ is created during the second half of the Sprint planning meeting?

A. Sprint Backlog, collection of tasksB. Product Backlog, collection of tasksC. Sprint Goal, Sprint BacklogD. Product Backlog, Sprint Backlog

42. Means that the increment/deliverable could be released to a customer. The product owner decides when to release.

a. Potentially Shippable

b. Product owner

c. Product Backlog

d. Burndown Chart

43. Ensures that the team is functional and productive

a. Potentially Shippable

b. Sprint Planning

c. Daily Scrum

d. Scrum Master

44. They self organize to get the work done.

a. Scrum Master

b. Burndown Chart

c. Sprint Reviews

d. Team

45. The team meets each day to share struggles and progress

a. Product Backlog

b. Sprint Reviews

c. Daily Scrum

d. Burndown Chart

46. The team meets with the product owner to choose a set of work to deliver during a sprint

a. Scrum Master

b. Product owner

c. Sprint Planning

d. Burn-down Chart

47. A negotiated set of items from the product backlog that a team commits to complete during the time-box of a sprint.

a. Sprint Backlog

b. Sprint Planning

c. Potentially Shippable

d. Product Backlog

48. Person responsible for the business value of the project.

a. Product owner

b. Sprint Planning

c. Sprint Reviews

d. Burndown Chart

49. At-a-glance look at the work remaining.

a. Daily Scrum

b. Sprint Backlog

c. Sprint Retrospectives

d. Burndown Chart

50. The team looks for ways to improve the product and the process

a. Daily Scrum

b. Scrum Master

c. Sprint Backlog

d. Sprint Retrospectives

51. The Team demonstrates to the product owner what it has completed during the sprint

a. Sprint Reviews

b. Product owner

c. Scrum Master

d. Sprint Backlog

52. It's dynamic - items may be deleted or added at any time during the project. It is prioritized and progressively refined.

a. Team

b. Potentially Shippable

c. Product Backlog

d. Burndown Chart

53. The three roles in scrum are:

a. Product owner, scrum master and development team

b. Project manager, product owner and development team

c. Project manager, product owner and scrum master

d. Agile mentor, project manager and product owner

54. The three artifacts in scrum are:

a. Sprint planning, daily scrum, sprint review

b. Product owner, scrum master and development team

c. Product backlog, sprint backlog, product increment

55. Scrum has four events:

a. Product owner, scrum master, project manager and development team

b. Sprint planning, daily scrum, sprint review, sprint retrospective

c. Product backlog, sprint backlog, product increment

56. Which of the next abbreviations are correct:

I. CSD = Certified Scrum Developer

II. CSM = Certified Scrum Master

III. CSPO = Certified Scrum Product Owner

IV. ACP = Agile Certified Practioner

a. All of the above are wrong


c. II and IV are correct

d. All are correct

57. EVM means Earned Value Management.

a. True

b. False

58. in INVEST, V means Valuable.

a. True

b. False

59. TDD means Test Driven Development.

a. True

b. False

60. Satir’s curve illustrates the process of teams’ excitement, chaos and finally adjustment to new processes.

a. True

b. False

61. XP was created by:

I. Kent Beck

II. Ward Cunningham

III. Ron Jeffries

a. I is correct.

b. II is correct

c. III is correct

d. I, II and III are correct

62. Grady Booch, a OO programming guru articulated the “spiral development method” in the 1980’s.

a. True

b. False

63. Alistair Cockburn is one of the Agile Manifesto signatories.

a. True

b. False

64. Esther Derby:

I. is author of “Agile retrospectives”

II. Is co-author of Diana Larsen

a. I is correct

b. II is correct

c. All of the above are wrong


65. James P Womack, Daniel T Jones and Daniel Roos:

I. wrote the “Machine that changed the world”

II. coined the term “lean” in the 1990’s.

a. I is correct

b. II is correct

c. All of the above are wrong


66. Albert Mehrabian, professor at UCLA, has shown that communication effectiveness is due to communication fidelity – the degree of accuracy between the meaning intended and the meaning interpreted.

a. True

b. False

67. The backlog:

I. is the list of all user stories associated with the project

II. is created and maintained by the product owner

III. is prioritized by the scrum master

IV. is used by the scrum team during the project

a. All of the above are correct

b. I, II and IV are correct

c. None of the above are correct

d. III is correct

68. Jeff Sutherland describes three models of distributed scrum teams:

I. Isolated scrums

II. Distributed scrum of scrums

III. Integrated scrums



c. III is correct


69. Geoffry Moore:

I. defined an guide to define the overall product vision statement

II. wrote the book “Crossing the Chasm”

a. I is correct

b. II is correct

c. All of the above are correct


70. Gold-plating is adding unnecessary frivolity – and effort- to a feature, task, document, meeting, or anything else

A. True

B. False

71. Ken Schwaber:

I. is one of the signatories on the Agile manifesto

II. called a new approach: scrum

III. works together with Jeff Sutherland

a. I and II are correct

b. II and III are correct

c. I and III are correct


e. All of the above are correct

72. Planning poker is the same as estimation poker.

A. True

B. False

73. Dr Royce conceptualizes short cycle projects as a way to improve quality. His method is known as PDSA (Plan-Do-Study-Act)

A. True

B. False

74. Larry Spears identified ten characteristics of a servant leader in his paper “The Understanding and Practice of Servant-Leadership”.

A. True

B. False

75. Jonathan Spira published a report called “The Cost of Not Paying Attention: How Interrruptions Impact Knowledge Worker Productivity”.

A. True

B. False

76. The INVEST approach is described by Bill Wake.

A. True

B. False

77. Which of the next definitions are correct:

I. Project management: The processes used to complete a project

II. Requirements: The list of product features desired from a project

III. Development: The stage where product features are created

IV. Scope: Everything included in a project

A. I and II are correct

B. All of the above are correct

C. III and IV are correct

D. None of the above are correct

78. Scope bloat is the introduction of unnecessary product features in a project.

A. True

B. False

79. The key areas where agile approaches are superior to traditional project management methods are:

I. Project success rate

II. Scope creep

III. Inspecting and adaptation

A. None of the above are correct

B. I and II are correct

C. II and III are correct

D. All of the above are correct

80. The leaders of the Agile Manifesto constructed the following:

I. The Agile Manifesto

II. The Agile Principles

III. The Scrum Guide

IV. The Agile Alliance

A. All of the above are correct

B. I, II and IV are correct

C. I, II and III are correct

D. I, III and IV are correct

81. Which of these statements are correct/incorrect:

I. Traditional approaches emphasize a rigid plan, avoiding change, documenting everything, a hierarchal-based control

II. The Manifesto focuses on people, communications, the product and flexibility

A. I is correct

B. II is correct

C. None of the above are correct

D. Both are correct

82. Which of the following is an Agile manifesto principle?

A. Welcome changing requirements, early in development. Agile processes handle changes for the customer’s competitive advantage.

B. Welcome changing requirements, early in development. Agile processes harness change for the customer’s competitive advantage.

C. Welcome changing requirements, even late in development. Agile processes handle changes for the customer’s competitive advantage.

D. Welcome changing requirements, even late in development. Agile processes harness change for the customer’s competitive advantage.

83. When using a Kanban board to manage work in progress, which of the following best summarizes the philosophy behind the approach?

A) It is a sign of the work being done and should be maximized to boost performance.

B) It is a sign of the work being done and should be limited to boost performance.

C) It is a sign of the work queued for quality assurance, which should not count toward velocity.

D) It is a sign of the work queued for user acceptance, which should not count toward velocity.

84. An agile team is beginning a new release. Things are progressing a little slower than they initially estimated. The project manager is taking a servant leadership approach. Which of the following actions is the project manager most likely to do?

A) Create a high-level scope statement and estimates.

B) Intervene in nonproductive team arguments.

C) Do administrative activities for the team.

D) Demonstrate the system to senior executives.

85. What do risk burn down graphs show?

A) The impacts of project risks on the project schedule

B) The impacts of project risks on the project budget

C) The cumulative risk severities over time

D) The cumulative risk probabilities over time

86. To ensure the success of our project, in what order should we execute the work, taking into account the necessary dependencies and risk mitigation tasks?

A) The order specified by the project management office (PMO)

B) The order specified by the business representatives

C) The order specified by the project team

D) The order specified by the project architect

87. Individuals and interactions over processes and tools have the following pros:

I. Communication is clear and effective

II. Development team members must have the capacity to be involved, responsible and innovative

III. Communication is quick and efficient

IV. People may need to let go of ego to work well as members of a team

A. I and III are pros

B. None of the above are pros

C. II and IV are pros.

D. All of the above are pros.

88. The definition of done means at least: developed, tested, integrated and documented.

A. True

B. False

89. Which of the following statements are correct:

I. Waterfall: fixed requirements, estimated resources, estimated time, guess driven

II. Agile: fixed resources, fixed time, estimated features, priority driven

A. I is correct

B. II is correct

C. Both are wrong

D. Both are correct


I. The waterfall project cycle is a linear methodology

II. Agile approaches have an iterative project cycle

A. I is correct

B. II is correct

C. Both are wrong

D. Both are correct

91. Agile PROJECT teams are made up of;

I. development teams

II. stakeholders

III. a product owner

IV. a scrum master

A. I, III and IV are correct

B. II, III and IV are correct

C. I, II and III are correct


92. Planning game, coding standards, collective code ownership, pair programming, simple design, continuous integration and small releases are practices of:

A. Lean

B. XP

C. Scrum

93. Which of the statements on communication effectiveness are correct:

I. Audiotape over paper

II. Videotape over audiotape

III. 2 people on phone over 2 people on e-mail

IV. 2 people at white board over 2 people on phone

A. I and III are correct

B. II and IV are correct

C. All of the above are correct

D. II, III and IV are correct


I. The development team, the product owner and the scrum master together make up the scrum team.

II. The scrum team, together with the stakeholders make up the project team.

A. I is correct

B. II is correct

C. None of the above are correct.

D. I and II are correct

95. Which of the following statements is/are correct:

I. Barely sufficient means that a task, document, meeting, or almost anything on a project includes only what it needs to achieve the goal.

II. Gold-plating means adding unnecessary frivolity and effort to a feature, task, document, meeting or anything else.

A. II is correct

B. I is correct

C. I and II are correct


96. Which of the following documents are NOT supporting product development:

I. Project schedule created with expensive project management software, complete with Gantt chart.

II. Requirements documentation

III. Product technical specifications

IV. Weekly status report

V. Detailed project communication plan

A. I, IV and V.

B. II and III

C. All of the above

D. I and III

97. Refactoring consists of improving the internal structure of an existing program's source code, while preserving its external behavior.

A. True

B. False

98. In Scrum, a product backlog item ("PBI", "backlog item", or "item") is a unit of work small enough to be completed by a team in one Sprint iteration. Backlog items are decomposed into one or more tasks.

A. True

B. False

99. The Sprint Backlog is the set of Product Backlog items selected for the Sprint plus a plan for delivering the product Increment and realizing the Sprint Goal. The Sprint Backlog is a forecast by the Development Team about what functionality will be in the next Increment and the work needed to deliver that functionality.

A. True

B. False

100. Which is the right order of planning in agile:

A. Sprint planning, Daily scrum, Sprint review, Sprint retrospective, Release planning, Product roadmap, Vision

B. Vision, Product roadmap, Release planning, Sprint planning, Daily scrum, Sprint retrospective, Sprint review

C. Vision, Release planning, Sprint planning, Daily scrum, Sprint retrospective, Sprint review

D. Daily scrum, Sprint retrospective, Sprint planning, Vision, Sprint review, Release planning, Product roadmap, Vision

101. Put the next steps for creating a product vision statement in the correct order:

I. Create a draft vision statement

II. Validate the vision statement with product and project stakeholders

III. Finalize the vision statement

IV. Develop the product objective

A. IV, I, II, III

B. I, II, III, IV

C. II, I, III, IV

D. The steps are incomplete

102. Historical project management approaches usually involve customers at three key points; project start, any time scope changes during the project, end of a project.

A. False

B. True

103. The 12 principles can be organized in the following groups:

I. Customer satisfaction

II. Quality

III. Teamwork

IV. Project management

V. Communication

A. I, III and V

B. II and IV

C. I, II, III and IV

D. I, II, III and V

104. If my sprint is this long ….., my sprint planning should last no more than …

I. one week, two hours

II. two weeks, for hours

III. three weeks, six hours

IV. for weeks, eight hours


B. I and II are correct

C. II and III are correct


105. Which are correct:

I. The user story is a simple description of a product requirement in terms of what that requirement must accomplish for whom.

II. A user story will have at a minimum the following parts: Title: <a name for the user story> As a <user or person> I want to <take this action> so that <I get this benefit>.

A. I is correct

B. II is correct

C. Both are correct.

D. None of the above are correct.

106. Why is 7 plus or minus 2 an optimal size of an Agile team?

A To make sure the whole team can fit into an average room.B To make sure daily stand ups can be completed in 15 minutes or less.C To ensure effective communication and collaboration.D Teams of that size are easy to control.

107. The Agile Manifesto, it says we aim to produce Working Software over:

A Comprehensive testing.B Comprehensive documentation.C Cost savings.D Developer satisfaction.

108. What would you do with an Agile team that is 40 people strong?

A Divide it into an analysis team, development team and testing team.B Divide it into smaller cross-functional teams, each with all necessary skills.C Leave it as is and observe its behaviour and outputs over time.D Increase the number of team meetings and reports to improve communication.

109. What does the agile manifesto say we SHOULD do with changing requirements?

A Welcome changing requirements, except late in development.B Welcome changing requirements, even late in development.C Reject all changes during the current development.D Reject all changes until the next iteration.

110. What does “V” in the User Story “INVEST” acronym stand for?

A Verifiable.B Validated.C Valuable.D Variable.

111. One of the roles of a Scrum Master is to:

A Hold the vision.B Remove impediments.

C Determine who does the work.D Sign off work as done.

112. Which one of the following is NOT one of the pillars of the empirical process?

A Control.B Inspection.C Adaptation.D Transparency.

113. Which of the following statements is correct in the context of Agile Planning?

A Detailed up-front analysis and design is essential.B No planning is required for an Agile project.C Stick to the original plan and you will be successful.D Plans change, frequent re-planning is essential.

114. Refactoring is a process to:

A Remove software defects.B Improve the code quality without altering its behaviour.C Make code as perfect as possible.D Change a sprint backlog.

115. One of the roles of a Scrum Product Owner is to:

A Decide who does the work.B Decide how to do the work.C Facilitate meetings.D Define the priority of work.

116. Which one of the following is NOT covered in the User Story?

A The need (“what”).B The person/role that has the need (“who”).C How the need will be satisfied / implemented (“how”).D The expected benefit (“why”).

117. How would you manage a project where there is a belief that the application is toocomplex to deliver working functionality in a sprint?

A Complex environments do not suit agile well; following a waterfall approach is moreappropriate.B Engage the stakeholders and the team to find ways to break the project down intosmaller manageable features.C Work with the architect to reduce complexity in the system by refactoringcomplexities.D Propose a complete review of the application to reconsider redevelopment.

118. In Agile we normally fix 3 project constraints at the start of a project, which ones arethese?

A Time, cost & scope.B Scope, quality & time.C Quality, cost & time.

D Quality, scope & cost.

119. Velocity is a measure of...

A The average amount of overtime required to complete the work committed to in thesprint goal within the sprint timelines.B The speed at which automated testing can execute tests, measured in number oftests per second.C The amount of story points a team can achieve during a sprint based on evidencefrom previous sprints.D The number of story points the team has committed to undertake during the sprint,measured in total number of story pointer per day in the sprint.

120. It is sometimes perceived that agile projects do not work across multiple locations.How can agile projects communicate better across multiple locations?

A By making use of communications and collaboration tools that aim to reduce theimpact of physical distance between the team members.B Teams must be collocated. Distributed teams can't achieve any agility.C Email and well-written documents are the best means of communication in distributedenvironments.D By placing project managers at each location to coordinate the communicationsbetween teams.

121. During a daily stand-up, a Scrum team realises that they will not be able to completethe stories included in their sprint. What SHOULD the team do next?

A Quietly schedule a few late nights hoping to finish the work on time.B Approach the Product Owner and negotiate the scope of the lowest priority stories.C Bring in a few extra people into the team to help them complete all of the stories.D Decide to de-scope the lowest priority stories.

122. Which one of the following BEST describes the empirical process?

A Fully understand everything before moving to the next stage.B A process with strict gates between stages.C A process focused on completing lots of empirical testing.D A process that offers frequent opportunities to inspect and adapt.

123. What would be the response to a Test Manager who insists 'It will take too much timeto test continuously, it would be better to test once at the end of the project'?

A Ask them to test at least the most important features.B Explain to them the cost of finding defects at the end of a project can be massive andoutweigh the cost of testing incrementally throughout the project.C Accept this and have the development team test the project themselves.D Accept this and add a few sprints at the end of the project for testing and bug fixing.

124. What would be a concern if business users are not actively engaged with thedevelopers?

A The wrong products may be developed.B The products may not meet requirements.C There will be lack of trust between developers and the business users.D All of the above.

125. Which of the following is an Agile Manifesto principle?

A) Welcome changing requirements, early in development. Agile processes handle changes for the customer's competitive advantage.B) Welcome changing priorities, early in development. Agile processes harness change for the customer's competitive advantage.C) Welcome changing priorities, even late in development. Agile processes handle changes for the customer's competitive advantage.D) Welcome changing requirements, even late in development. Agile processes harness change for the customer's competitive advantage.

126. When managing an agile software team, engaging the business in prioritizing the backlog is an example of:

A) Technical risk reduction B) Incorporating stakeholder values C) Vendor management D) Stakeholder story mapping

127. Which of the following items is not a benefit associated with product demonstrations?

A) Learn about feature suitability B) Learn about feature usability C) Learn about feature estimatesD) Learn about new requirements

128. Choose the correct combination of XP practice names from the following options:

A) Test-driven design, refactoring, pair programming B) Test-driven development, reforecasting, peer programming C) Test-driven development, refactoring, pair programmingD) Test-driven design, refactoring, peer programming

129. An agile team is planning the tools they will use for the project. They are debating how they should show what work is in progress. Of the following options, which tool are they most likely to select?

A) User story backlog B) Product roadmap C) Task board D) Work breakdown structure

130. Which of the following is not true of how burn up charts that also track total scope differ from burn down charts?

A) Burn up charts separate out the rate of progress from the scope fluctuations B) Burn up charts and burn down charts trend in opposite vertical directions C) Burn up charts can be converted to cumulative flow diagrams by the addition of WIP

D) Burn down charts indicate whether rate of effort changes are due to changes in progress rates or scope

131. As part of stakeholder management and understanding, the team may undertake customer persona modeling. Which of the following would a persona not represent in this context?

A) Stereotyped users B) Real people C) Archetypal description D) Requirements

132. An agile team is beginning a new release. Things are progressing a little slower than they initially estimated. The project manager is taking a servant leadership approach. Which of the following actions is the project manager most likely to do?

A) Create a high-level scope statement and estimates. B) Intervene in nonproductive team arguments. C) Do administrative activities for the team. D) Demonstrate the system to senior executives.

133. The PMO has asked you to generate some financial information to summarize the business benefits of your project. To best describe how much money you hope the project will return, you should show an estimate of:

A) Internal rate of return (IRR) B) Return on investment (ROI) C) Gross domestic product (GDP) D) Net present value (NPV)

134. The Agile Manifesto value “customer collaboration over contract negotiation” means that:

A) Agile approaches encourage you not to focus too much on negotiating contracts, since most vendors are just out for themselves anyway. B) Agile approaches focus on what we are trying to build with our vendors, rather than debating the details of contract terms. C) Agile approaches prefer not to use contracts, unless absolutely necessary, because they hamper our ability to respond to change requests. D) Agile approaches recommend that you only collaborate with vendors who are using agile processes themselves.

135. Incremental delivery means that:

A) We deliver nonfunctional increments in the iteration retrospectives. B) We release working software only after testing each increment. C) We improve and elaborate our agile process with each increment delivered. D) We deploy functional increments over the course of the project.

136. In Scrum, the definition of “done” is created by everyone EXCEPT:

A) Development team

B) Product owner C) Scrum Master D) Process owner

137. When working with a globally distributed team, the most useful approach would be to:

A) Bring the entire team together for a diversity and sensitivity training day before starting the first iteration. B) Bring the entire group together for a big celebration at the end of the project C) Bring the entire group together for a get-to-know-you session before starting the first iteration. D) Gather the entire team for a kickoff event and keep them working together for at least the first iteration.

138. Why is 7 plus or minus 2 an optimal size of an Agile team?

A To make sure the whole team can fit into an average room.B To make sure daily stand ups can be completed in 15 minutes or less.C To ensure effective communication and collaboration.D Teams of that size are easy to control.

139. The Agile Manifesto, it says we aim to produce Working Software over...

A Comprehensive testing.B Comprehensive documentation.C Cost savings.D Developer satisfaction.

140. What does the agile manifesto say we SHOULD do with changing requirements?

A Welcome changing requirements, except late in development.B Welcome changing requirements, even late in development.C Reject all changes during the current development.D Reject all changes until the next iteration.

141. One of the roles of a Scrum Master is to...

A Hold the vision.B Remove impediments.C Determine who does the work.D Sign off work as done.

142. Which one of the following is NOT one of the pillars of the empirical process?

A Control.B Inspection.C Adaptation.D Transparency.

143. Refactoring is a process to...

A Remove software defects.B Improve the code quality without altering its behaviour.C Make code as perfect as possible.

D Change a sprint backlog.

144. Which one of the following is a generic benefit of Agile over traditional methods?

A Increased customer satisfaction through regular feedback.B You can complete the same work with fewer developers.C Agile gives instant benefit.D No planning is required.

145. During a daily stand-up, a Scrum team realises that they will not be able to completethe stories included in their sprint. What SHOULD the team do next?

A Quietly schedule a few late nights hoping to finish the work on time.B Approach the Product Owner and negotiate the scope of the lowest priority stories.C Bring in a few extra people into the team to help them complete all of the stories.D Decide to de-scope the lowest priority stories.

146. What advantage does Agile have over Waterfall projects?

A Agile projects do not use any planning.B Agile can cope with complex changing environments.C Agile can cope with a chaotic or disordered environments.D Agile removes the need for documentation.

147. What would be the response to a Test Manager who insists 'It will take too much timeto test continuously, it would be better to test once at the end of the project'?

A Ask them to test at least the most important features.B Explain to them the cost of finding defects at the end of a project can be massive andoutweigh the cost of testing incrementally throughout the project.C Accept this and have the development team test the project themselves.D Accept this and add a few sprints at the end of the project for testing and bug fixing.

148. What would be a concern if business users are not actively engaged with thedevelopers?

A The wrong products may be developed.B The products may not meet requirements.C There will be lack of trust between developers and the business users.D All of the above.

149. There are several misconceptions that surround agile approaches. All of the below are Agile Myths except:

A. Agile has no planning

B. Agile has no schedule or budget control

C. Agile recommends just in time documentation

D. Agile only works for trivial projects

150. Agile offers several benefits except:

A. Faster time to market

B. Detailed upfront plan which rarely needs to undergo a change

C. More Business value

D. Improved stakeholder satisfaction

151. Which of the following statements best describes the reason Agile methods endorse change in requirements even late in development?

A. Embracing change will curb uncontrolled changes in the requirement

B. Embracing change improves software quality

C. Embracing change provides competitive advantage to customers

D. Self-organizing teams can quickly adapt to the changing requirements

152. Which of the following truly reflect one of the values from Agile Manifesto?

A. Following a plan over responding to change

B. Working software over processes and tools

C. Individuals and interactions over comprehensive documentation

D. Customer collaboration over contract negotiation

153. As per the principles of Agile Manifesto, all the following statements are incorrect except:

A. Business people and developers must work together daily throughout the project

B. Business people and developers must work together regularly throughout the project

C. Business people and developers must work together during later stages of the project

D. Business people and developers must work together during the initial stages of the project

154. All of the following are in line with Agile principles except:

A. Incremental product delivery

B. Fixed scope

C. Fixed cost

D. Technical excellence and good design

155. The Agile manifesto was authored by the founding members of:

A. Scrum Alliance

B. Agile Project Leadership Network

C. Association of Agile Practitioners

D. Agile Alliance

156. Which of the following statements correctly represents Agile Manifesto:

A. Agile projects require no documentation

B. There is no need for planning in agile projects

C. Agile projects leverage close interaction with the customer

D. Agile projects heavily rely on processes and tools

157. Agile methods are more amenable to an environment that is:

A. Uncertain and people-oriented

B. Uncertain and process-oriented

C. Certain and people-oriented

D. Certain and process-oriented

158. Which of the following Agile Manifesto philosophy endorses team empowerment?

A. Individuals and interactions over process and tools

B. Customer collaboration over contract negotiations

C. Responding to change over following a plan

D. Working software over comprehensive documentation

159. In Agile Manifesto, what is valued more than comprehensive documentation:

A. Customer collaboration

B. Individuals and interactions

C. Responding to change

D. Working software

160. Which of the following Agile Manifesto philosophy supports delivering business value to customer?

A. Individuals and interactions over processes and tools

B. Customer collaboration over contract negotiation

C. Working software over comprehensive documentation

D. Responding to change over following a plan

161. In the Agile Manifesto what is on the higher side of the value chain than following a plan driven approach?


B. Responding to change

C. Individuals and interactions

D. Working software

162. As per Agile Manifesto, what is on the lower side of the value chain for the customer?


B. Responding to change

C. Processes and tools

D. Working software

163. Agile Project aim to satisfy customers through:

A. Welcoming changes in requirements even in later stages of the project

B. Early and continuous delivery

C. Face-2-face discussion

D. Technical excellence and good design

164. Which of the following is not a myth about agile projects?

A. Agile teams have free run and have no control

B. Agile teams are motivated and self-organized

C. Agile teams do not plan their work

D. Agile teams burn out fast

165. In the Agile Manifesto, what is valued more than contract negotiation?


B. Individuals and interaction

C. Responding to change

D. Working software

166. All of the following statements represents Agile Manifesto correctly except:

A. Agile projects require bare minimum documentation

B. Working software is the measure of progress

C. Agile projects value customer collaboration

D. There is no need for planning in agile projects as change is welcome in agile

167. The best architectures, requirements and designs emerge from:


B. Processes and tools

C. Self-organizing teams

D. Incremental delivery

168. Which Agile principle has close resemblance to Lean principle of eliminating waste?

A. Continuous attention to technical excellence and good design enhances agility

B. Simplicity – the art of maximizing the amount of work not done – is essential

C. At regular intervals, the team reflects on how to become more effective, then tunes and adjusts its behavior accordingly.

D. Working software is the primary measure of progress

169. How long is a Sprint Review in a one month Sprint?

A. 1 hour

B. 2 hours

C. 3 hours

D. 8 hours

E. It is not time-boxed (as long as needed)

170. A Scrum Master has a list of open impediments which is growing without proper resolutions. The Scrum Master consults with the Development Team on the problem. Is it right?

A. Yes

B. No

171. A Development Team realizes that it has over committed itself for a Sprint, and it’s needed to have a meeting to review and adjust the Sprint work. Who should attend this meeting?

A. Only the Development Team

B. Only the Product Owner

C. Only the Scrum Master

D. The Development Team and the Product Owner

E. The Development Team and the Scrum Master

F. The Product Owner and the Scrum Master

G. All three roles

172. A Product Owner has the authority to replace an item in the Sprint Backlog.

A. True

B. False

173. Osmotic communication means that information flows into the background hearing os members of the team, so that they pick up relevant information as though by osmosis.

A. TrueB. False

174. Osmostic communication is normally accomplished by seating the team members in the same room.

A. TrueB. False

Sprint length Sprint planning Sprint review Sprint retrospectiveOne week Two hours (A) One hour (E) 45 minutes (I)Two weeks Four hours (B) Two hours (F) 1,5 hours (J)

Three weeks Six hours (C ) Three hours (G) 2, 25 hours (K)Four weeks Eight hours (D) Four hours (H) 3 hours (L)

175. From the time-boxes stated in the table above:

A. A, F and K are wrong

B. All are wrong

C. All are correct

D. I, J, K and L are wrong

176. Waterfall:

1. Is a traditional style of project management

2. Relies on completing work in distinct stages like requirements, design, development, testing and deployment.

3. In waterfall projects, you do not start one stage until you have completed the previous stage


B. 2 is correct

C. 3 is correct


177. Waterfall falls short on the following aspects:

1. The team must know all requirements up front to estimate time, budgets, team members and resources.

2. The customers and stakeholders may not be available to answer questions during the development period, because they may assume that they provided all the information needed during the requirements-gathering and design phases.

3. The product owner can stop the project once he or she deems that the product has sufficient functionality to fulfill project goals.


B. 1 and 2 are correct

C. 3 is correct


178. Compared to waterfall the agile framework offers:

1. Earlier and more frequent opportunities to detect failure

2. An assessment and action opportunity every few weeks

3. Reduction in failure costs

A. 1 and 2 are correct


C. 1 and 3 are correct


179. What is the recommended size for a Development Team (within the Scrum Team)?

A) Minimal 7

B) 3 to 9

C) 7 plus or minus 2

D) 9

180. Scrum Master is a "management" position?

A) True

B) False

181. An optimal Development Team has at least 5 members:

A) To have enough coverage in case of illness or emergency

B) To ensure high productivity

C) To increase the reliability of their estimates

D) This is not required as long as the overall team maturity is high

E) This is not required in Scrum.

182. The Product Backlog is ordered by:

A) Small items at the top to large items at the bottom.

B) Safer items at the top to riskier items at the bottom.

C) Least valuable items at the top to most valuable at the bottom.

D) Items are randomly arranged.

E) Whatever is deemed most appropriate by the Product Owner.

183. What is the maximum length of a Sprint?

A) Not so long that the risk is unacceptable to the Product Owner.

B) Not so long that other business events can't be readily synchronized with the development work.

C) No more than one calendar month.

D) All of these answers are correct.

184. Which statement best describes Scrum?

A. A management process B. A framework for development of complex products in complex environments C. A set of best practices for software development D. A complete project management methodology on software development

185. Who is required to attend the Daily Scrums?

A. Product Owner B. Scrum Master C. Development Team D. Scrum Master and Development Team E. Product Owner and Development Team F. The whole Scrum Team

186. What happens to the definition of “Done” when multiple Development Teams are working on a single project?

A. Each team defines its own “Done”, and communicates it with others so that everyone knows what it means when a team claims that they are Done with something B. Each team defines its own “Done”, in a way that the integration of their work results in a definition of “Done” that is potentially releasable C. They all use the same definition of “Done” D. Any of the above answers, based on the nature of the project and the environment of the organization

187. A sprint is a consistent iteration of time in which the development team creates a specific group of product capabilities from start to finish.

A. True

B. False

188. Each sprint includes the following:

1. Sprint planning at the beginning of the sprint

2. Daily scrum meetings

3. Development time – the bulk of the sprint

4. A sprint review and a sprint retrospective at the end of the sprint





189. What are the critical items to start a Scrum Project?

A. Scrum Team and Stakeholders

B. Scrum Team, Product Backlog, Scrum Master

C. Product Backlog, Scrum Team, Scrum Master, and Product Owner

D. Time, Scope, Budget, and Quality

190. Who is the most important member of the Scrum Team?

A. The Scrum Master.

B. The Team.

C. The Stakeholder.

D. The Product Owner.

191. Who defines the Sprint Backlog scope?

A. Product Owner.

B. Scrum Team.

C. Scrum Master.

D. Stakeholders.

192. The creation of a release plan is done in which stage of the roadmap to value?

A. Stage 3

B. Stage 1

C. Stage 5

D. Stage 2

193. Put the steps to create a release plan in the right order:

1. Get the development team’s buy-in and commitment for the first release.

2. Establish the release goal

3. If you haven’t done so already, refine the user stories in your release goal.

4. Review the product backlog and the product roadmap to determine the highest-priority user stories that support your release goal.

5. Determine a date for the release.

A. 2, 4, 5, 3, 1

B, 1, 2, 3, 4, 5

C. 5, 4, 3, 2, 1

D. 2, 4, 1, 3, 5

194. Release planning involves completing two key activities:

1. Revising the product backlog

2. Release plan

A. 1 is correct

B. 2 is correct

C. Both are correct


195. Which statement best describes the Sprint Review?

A) It is a review of the team's activities during the Sprint.

B) It is when the Scrum Team and stakeholders inspect the outcome of the Sprint and figure out what

to do in the upcoming Sprint.

C) It is a demo at the end of the Sprint for everyone in the organization to provide feedback on the

work done.

D) It is used to congratulate the Development Team if it did what it committed to doing, or to punish

the Development Team if it failed to meet its commitments.

196. A story point:

1. Is a relative score to represent the value and effort for each requirement

2. The Fibonacci sequence is often used for story points

A. 1 is correct

B. 2 is correct

C. None of the above are correct

D. Both are correct

197. On a project the customer may be defined in a number of ways:

1. The person or group paying for the project

2. A client external to the organization

3. A stakeholder or stakeholders within the organization

4. The person who ends up using the product





198. The ROI is significantly enhanced using agile approaches for the following reasons:

1. Software is delivered to the marketplace earlier

2. Product quality is higher

3. Revenue opportunity can be accelerated

4. Projects can self-fund





199. Popular agile approaches are:

1. Lean

2. Extreme programming

3. Scrum



C. 2 is correct


200. Lean principles are:

1. Optimize the whole

2. Eliminate waste

3. Build quality in

4. Learn constantly

5. Deliver fast

6. Engage everyone

7. Keep getting better

A. True

B. False

201. Common distractions are:

1. Multiple projects

2. Multitasking

3. Over-supervising

4. Outside influences

5. Management


B. 1, 3 and 5 are correct



202. On an agile project, the development team is:

1. Directly accountable for creating project deliverables

2. Self-organizing and self-managing

3. Cross-functional

4. Ideally dedicated to one project for the duration of the project

5. Ideally collocated

A. True

B. False

203. The primary tool for communication in agile projects should be face-to-face conversation.

A. True

B. False

204. The layers of the planning onion are: Strategy, Portfolio, Product, Release, Iteration and Day.

A. True

B. False

205. Who should define the business value of a Feature within an Agile project?

A. The individual end-users B. The Product Owner C. The Business Analyst D. The Business Sponsor

206. Which one of the following is a key feature of documentation that you would expect to find in an Agile project?

A. System documentation created at the end of each increment, at the start of the deployment B. User Stories held in a spreadsheet or specialist database, where full details of user conversations are recorded for future purposes, like handover to maintenance or support C. User Story cards containing only enough detail for planning and development, which will need to be supplemented by further face-to-face conversations D. No written documentation, as all good communication is face-to-face

207. When estimating is done for a project, the developers should:

A. Be fully involved in the estimating process B. Be in total control of the estimating process C. Be consulted after the Team Leader (Scrum Master) has made the estimates for the team’s work D. Not make estimates unless velocity is already known

208. During an iteration (sprint) (timebox) the developers should be:

A. Able to contact the customer to clarify aspects of the work B. Completely uninterrupted by the customer C. In twice-daily contact with the customer D. Able to work without needing to disturb the customer

209. An Agile team …

A. Is self-organizing, with each member having the same technical skills B. Collaborates and supports its team members C. Ensures that weak members of the team are allocated the simpler tasks D. Ensures blame is allocated fairly

210. In Agile projects, we plan to “learn as we go” because…

A. It creates a better relationship between the developers and customer representatives B. Many projects are evolutionary, and a better solution emerges this way C. It is time-consuming to analyse everything at the beginning of a project D. It prevents late delivery of the project

211. The customer in an Agile project ….

A. Has no control over the prioritization of delivered features B. Has total control over the prioritization of features

C. Collaborates with the developers over prioritization of features, but the developers have the final decision D. Collaborates with the developers over prioritization of features, but the business has the final decision

212. Once a project is underway, the approach to planning is: A. Plans should never be changed B. It is normal to need to plan and re-plan as the project progresses C. Plans should only be changed with full approval of all stakeholders D. Plans are not required as Agile is incremental

213. What is one difference in responsibility between a Project Manager and a Scrum Master (Team Leader) in an Agile project? A. None. It's basically the same. Scrum Master (or Team Leader) is just a better term than Project Manager in an Agile project B. The Project Manager creates the detailed delivery plans while the Team Leader monitors execution within the team C. Project Manager communicates with project governance authorities when necessary D. The Project Manager monitors the realisation of benefits in the business case.

214. The Development Team should not be interrupted during the Sprint. The Sprint Goal should

remain intact. These are conditions that foster creativity, quality and productivity. Based on this,

which of the following is false?

A) The Product Owner can help clarify or optimize the Sprint when asked by the Development Team.

B) The Sprint Backlog and its contents are fully formulated in the Sprint Planning meeting and do not

change during the Sprint.

C) As a decomposition of the selected Product Backlog Items, the Sprint Backlog changes and may

grow as the work emerges.

D) The Development Team may work with the Product Owner to remove or add work if it finds it has

more or less capacity than it expected.

215. During the Daily Scrum, the Scrum Master's role is to:

A) Lead the discussions of the Development Team.

B) Make sure that all 3 questions have been answered.

C) Manage the meeting in a way that each team member has a chance to speak.

D) Teach the Development Team to keep the Daily Scrum within the 15 minute timebox.

E) All of the above.

216. If the product effort is estimated to be 1000 hours, what is the time that is recommended for release planning.

A. 100 hours.

B. 50% of the effort.

C. 1000 hours.

D. 15-20% of the effort.

217. Who is ultimate responsible for the Product Backlog item estimates?

A. Scrum Master.

B. Product Owner.

C. The Scrum Team.

D. Stakeholders.

218. What is the Sprint Burndown?

A. The item completed from the Sprint Backlog.

B. A graph indicating the items completed by the Scrum Team.

C. A measure of the remaining Sprint Backlog across the time of the Sprint plan.

D. The last item remaining to be completed on the Sprint Backlog.

219. The Scrum Team is most productive if it is not interrupted during a Sprint. As a result of...

A. The Spring Backlog emerges to reflect the work to develop the committed Product Backlog items.

B. The Spring Backlog can only change with approval from the product owner.

C. The Sprint Backlog is devised during the Sprint Planning and should not need changing thereafter.

D. The Sprint Backlog is never changed.

220. What part of the Sprint Backlog is used for the Sprint burndown chart?

A. The percentage of work completed by each Team member.

B. The number of Product Backlog items completed by all the Team members.

C. The actual time spent on each task by each team member.

D. The remaining time required to complete each task by each team member.

221. Assuming a 2-week Sprint, What is the Time-box for the Sprint Review?

A. 2 hours at the end of every sprint.

B. 15 minutes.

C. However long is needed.

D. 4 hours.

222. Which of the following is one of the scrum artifacts?

A. Action Item List

B. Burn up chart

C. Increment

D. Impediment list

223. Which type of risk analysis agile team uses to rank risks by evaluating their probability of occurrence and impact?

A. Risk Burndown Chart

B. Assumptions analysis

C. Qualitative analysis

D. Quantitative analysis

224. Arun was working on a story which requires certain changes in the existing module; he realized that this module is really bad. It’s going to be very hard to make any changes to it going forward, but refactoring this also needs significant effort, what should he do?

A. Create a task in sprint backlog for refactoring the module and start working on it

B. Change the time estimate for the current task and start refactoring the module

C. Discuss with the Product Owner and get Technical debt product backlog item added in product backlog

D. Just focus on current story and finish it smartly

225. During agile coaching, you are having discussions with the Product Owner explaining him the goal and process of release planning. You explain to him that before getting into release planning meeting Product Owner should collect required inputs. Which of the following is not input information for the release planning?

A. Velocity

B. Product Backlog

C. Project length / release length

D. Acceptance Test Criteria

226. Who is responsible for analysing the project performance and identifying the preventive actions?

A. Scrum Master

B. PO

C. Team

D. Sponsor

227. Which of the following is a product backlog item?

A. The payment interface may get delayed because of the dependency

B. Create UI for Search Job User Story

C. Move to the latest version of Oracle

D. Create database scripts for Search job User Story

1. c

2. a

3. d

4. c

5. d

6. d

7. d

8. a

9. e

10. b

11. c

12. b

13. d

14. c

15. b

16. d

17. c

18. a

19. b

20. c

21. c

22. e

23. a

24. d

25. a

26. a

27. Choice 4

28. Choice 3

29. Choice 5

30. Choice 1

31. Choice 3

32. Choice 4

33. Choice 2

34. Choice 2

35. Choice 5

36. Choice 4

37. d

38. c

39. d

40. d

41. c

42. a

43. d

44. d

45. c

46. c

47. a

48. a

49. d

50. d

51. a

52. c

53. a

54. c

55. b

56. d

57. a

58. a

59. a

60. a

61. d

62. a

63. a

64. d

65. d

66. a

67. b

68. d

69. c

70. a

71. e

72. a

73. b

74. a

75. a

76. a

77. b

78. a

79. d

80. b

81. d

82. d

83. b

84. c

85. c

86. b

87. a

88. a

89. d

90. d

91. d

92. b

93. c

94. d

95. c

96. a

97. a

98. a

99. a

100. b

101. a

102. b

103. c

104. d

105. c

106. c

107. b

108. b

109. b

110. c

111. b

112. a

113. d

114. b

115. d

116. c

117. b

118. a

119. c

120. a

121. b

122. d

123. b

124. d

125. d

126. b

127. c

128. c

129. c

130. d

131. d

132. c

133. b

134. b

135. d

136. d

137. d

138. c

139. b

140. b

141. b

142. a

143. b

144. a

145. b

146. b

147. b

148. d

149. c

150. b

151. c

152. d

153. a

154. b

155. d

156. c

157. a

158. a

159. d

160. c

161. b

162. c

163. b

164. b

165. a

166. d

167. c

168. b

169. c

170. a

171. d

172. b

173. a

174. a

175. c

176. d

177. b

178. d

179. b

180. a

181. e

182. e

183. d

184. b

185. c

186. b

187. a

188. d

189. b

190. d

191. b

192. a

193. a

194. c

195. b

196. d

197. a

198. a

199. d

200. a

201. d

202. a

203. a

204. a

205. b

206. c

207. a

208. a

209. b

210. b

211. d

212. b

213. c

214. b

215. d

216. d

217. c

218. c

219. b

220. d

221. a

222. c

223. c

224. a

225. d

226. c

227. d

agile scrum foundation exin 2014 227 q + a

Business

hour of work

quality assurance team

team member

direct iv

integrated iv

daily scrum

product requirement

scrum teams