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VVT COACHING CENTRE ADYAR, CHENNAI-20

Time: 3:00 Hrs NEET MODEL GRAND TEST - 3 Max. Marks:720

IMPORTANT INSTRUCTIONS: 1. There are four parts in the question paper A, B, C and D consisting of Botany, Zoology, Physics and Chemistry having

45 questions in each part of equal weight age. Each question is allotted 4 (four) marks for each correct response.

2. Candidates will be awarded marks as stated above in instruction for correct response of each question. 1/4 (one fourth)

marks will be deducted for indicating incorrect response of each question. No deduction from the total score will be

made if no response is indicated for an item in the answer sheet.

3. There is only one correct response for each question. Filling up more than one response in each question will be

treated as wrong response and marks for wrong response will be deducted accordingly as per instruction.

BOTANY

1. Which is true of the following

a)Sub – aerial stems helps in Vegetative Propagation

b)In all underground stems the food material is stored in the stem

c)In all xerophytes leaves are modified in to spines

d)All aquatic plants have off sets

2. For the complete reduction of Four molecules of Nitrogen, the number of electrons Hydrogen Ions and

ATP required respectively during symbiotic nitrogen fixation in the root nodule of Glycine max

a) 8 ,8 ,16c H ATP b) 16 ,16 ,36c H ATP

c) 32 ,32 ,64c H ATP d) 32 ,32 ,72c H ATP

3. Non mineral essential elements found in Chlorophyll

A) Iron B) Magnesium C) Hydrogen D) Carbon

a) A and B b) B and C c) C and D d) A and D

4. There are 20% Thymine among the bases in a DNA fragment measuring 6.8 nm in length, the number

of glycosidic bond phosphodiester bond and hydrogen bond in this DNA fragment respectively.

a) 40, 38, 52 b) 20, 18, 48 c) 52, 36, 40 d) 40, 40, 52

5. The heteropolymers are

I) cellulose II) Glycogen III. Inulin IV) Protein V) Nucleic Acid

a) I and II b) II and III c) IV and V d) III, IV and V

6. Find the incorrect combination

a) Colletotrichum – imperfect fungi b) Lycoperdon – Puff bull

c) Yeast – Sac algae d) Bread mould – Algal fungi

7. Identify the correct pair of primitive vascular plant which are heterosporous

a) Sequoia – Ginkgo b) Pinus – Cedrus c) Sesbania – Butea d) Selaginella – salvinia

8. Select the Mis – Match

a) Perigynous – Plum b) Epigynous flower – Guava

c) Hypogynous flower – Pisum d) Superior ovary – Hibiscus

9. Diagnostic character of angiospermic family to which petunia belongs are all except

a) Gamopetalous corolla b) Swollen placenta c) Basal placentation d) Endospermic seeds

10. When P.S. II is excited with the light of wavelength less than 680 nm photophosporlasation occurs

due to Non cyclic flow of electrons , results in synthesis of

a) NADPH H and ATP b) Only NADPH H c)Only ATP d) NADH and ATP

11. Match the following (Column I with Column II)

a) Parasitic fungi on mustard (i) Puccinia

b) Bread mould (ii) Rhizopus

c) Unicellular fungi (iii) Saccharomyces

d) Rust fungi (iv) Albugo

The correct match is a) a (iv), b – (ii), c- (iii), d- (i) b) a – (iv), b – (iii), c- (ii), d- (i) c) a – (ii), b – iv, c- I, d- iii) d) a- iii, b – I, c- ii, d- iv

12. In Agaricus, the A are B produced on the C

a) A - Conidia, B - Exogenously ,C - Conidiophores

b) A - Basidiopores , B - Endogeneously , C - Basidium

c)A – Basidiospores, B – Exogenously, C – Basidium

d)A- Sporungiospores, B – Endogenously, C – Sporangium

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13. Which statement is incorrect w.r.t. given figure

a) It is a figure of Equisetum

b) A represents the strobilus

c) B and C represents node and internode respectively

d) D is underground stem called corm

14. Which of the following statement is correct ?

a) No, microbes exhibit metabolism

b) Metabolism is defining feature of some living organisms

c) Only some organism can sense and respond to environment clues

d) All plants exhibit metabolism

15. The Angiospermic plants which shows the largest and smallest flowers respectively are

a) Rafflesia, Lilium b) Lilium, wolffia c) Rafflesia, wolffia d) Lilium lotus

16. Type of stem found in the members of Liliacae which shows protogyny

a) Rhizome b) Corm c) Bulb d) Aerial Stem

17. Set of arborescent habit of Liliacae

a) Agave, Aloe, Allium b) Dracaena, Yucca, Agave

c) Yucca, gloriosa, smilax d) Asparagus, Allium, Aloe

18. Go through the below given columns and Identify correct matching

Column – I ( Cellular components) Column – II ( Compound function)

A. Cytoplasm (i) Hydrolytic enzymes

B. Cell membrane and Vacoules (ii) Seatof metabolism

C. Ribosomes (iii) Osmo regulation

D. Lysosomes (iv) Structural and catalytic RNA

(v) Photorespiration

)

A B C D

a II III V I

)

A B C D

b II III IV I

)

A B C D

c II IV I V

)

A B C D

d II I IV V

19. In apoplast movement of water in plants water passes through

a) Plasmodesmata b) Cell membrane c) Tonoplast d) Intercellular spaces and cell wall

20. Atlas 66 is a variety of with high protein content

a) maize b) Rice c) Barley d) Wheat

21. Select the incorrect match

a) Statin - Monascus b) Cyclosporin A - Trichoderma

c) Clot Buster - Staphylococci d) Vinegar - Acetobacter

22. The smallest living organism

a) Has a cell wall made up of peptidoglycan b) is highly pleomorphic

c) is Pathogenic in cattles only d) Lacks RNA and ribosomes

23. Which of the following plant can live in soil but is dependent on water for sexual reproduction ?

a) pinus b) Marchantia c) Eucalyptus d) Nostoc

24. R. Q of germinating Fatty seed is

a) more than one b) infinite c) Less than one d) unity

25. Match the following (w.r.t one turn of TCA)

Correct – I Column – II

a) No of decarboxy lation (i) 1

b) No of oxidation (ii) 2

c) No of FADH2 formed (iii) 4

d) No of S.L.P (iv) 3

(v) 1

a) a- (ii), b – (iii), c- (v), d- (i) b) a- (iii), b – (ii), c – (v) , d- (i)

c) a – (iii), b – (ii), c- (i), d- (v) d) a-(i), b – (ii), c- (iii), d – (iv)

26. Biennials plants like ----- need to exposed to low temperature so as to hasten flowering later in life.

This treatment is known as ------

a) Cabbage, Stratification b) Winter wheat Varieties, springification

c) Sugar beet and vernalisation d) Both 2 and 3

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27. Cladophora was placed in a suspension of aerobic bacteria and irradiated to mono chromatic light

wavelength. This bacteria were found to be accumulated mainly in the region of

a) Violet and Red wavelength b) Green and red wavelength

c) Blue and red wavelength d) Only in red wavelength

28. Mark the Mis – matched pair

a) NAA ---- Synthetic auxins b) ABA --- Derivative of chlorophyil

c) Kinetin ---- 6N Fur furyl amino Purine d) Gibberlic acid ---Terpenes

29. Choose incorrect option w.r.t plasmolysis

a) Water is lost first from vacuoles and then from cell cytoplasm

b) Completely plasmolysed cell can not regain its turgidity when placed in hypotonic solution

c) External solution occupies the space between shrunken protoplast and cell wall

d) Water move out of the cell through diffusion

30. Substances that have a hydrophilic moiety can move across the cell

a) Actively but are non – specific w.r.t the carrier protein

b) Using transport proteins and are not affected by protein inhibitor

c) with the help of protein carrier

d) Along the conc. gradient using ATP

31. Identify the correct set w.r.t to basic amino acids richly present in Histone protein

a) Lysine and alanine b) Leucine and Arginine

c) Glutumic acid and valine d) Lysine and Arginine

32. RNA is labile and easily degradable due to

a) Presence of thymine in place of uracil b) Absence of '3 OH group and presence of

'2 OH group

c) presence of '2 OH group d) More than one option is correct

33. Study of number of chromosomes for resolving difficulties in Classification used in

a) chemotaxonomy b) Morphotaxomy c) Cytotaxonomy d) Biochemical taxonomy

34. Mark the mis – matched pair w.r.t Bryophyte

a) Leafy stage of moss – Multi cellular and branched rhizoids

b) Protonema of moss – Frequently filamentous stage

c) Gemmae – Multicelluar sexual bud

d) Capsule – Contain spores

35. Read the following features Properly

1) Free – living 2) Mostly photosynthetic 3) Parasitic 4) Inconspicuous 5) Unicellular

How many of the given features are correct for prothallus of most of pteridophytes

a)Three b) Five c) Four d) Two

36. In which of the following plant primary root is short lived and new roots originate from the base of stem

a) Wheat b) Banyan tree c) Mango c) Rhizophora

37. Which of the following is a small pore on seed coat

a) Testa b) Tegmen c) Hilium d) micropyle

38. Which ingredient was present in high concentrations in genetically modified (GM) rice as compared to

the usual rice?

a) Protein & Fe b) Carbohydrates & Fe c) Vitamin A & Na d) Vitamin A& Fe

39. Transgenic potato plants are resistance to

a) Fungus-Agaricus b) Virus- Polysiphoniac) Fungus –Phytopthora d)Bacterium- Pseudomonas

40. Genetically modified food can be harmful because it can cause

a)Risk of changing the fundamental nature of vegetables b) Allergies and toxicity.

c) Disturbance in metabolism due to enzyme for antibiotic resistance d) All the above

41. Statement – (S. I) Frequency of crossing over is useful in designing chromosome map

Statement (S.II) Recombination frequencies are directly proportional of the distance between genes

a)Both S.I and S.II are correct

b) S- I is correct but S- II is incorrect

c) S- I is incorrect but S- II is correct

d)Both S- I and S- II are incorrect

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42. Select the option which correctly fills up the blanks in statements

(i) The method of producing thousands of plants by tissue culture is called ------ A------

(ii) The capacity to generate a whole plant from any cell / explant is called -------- B ---------

(iii) Isolated protoplast can be fused to form --------- C ---------

BLANK A BLANK B BLANK C

a) Micropropagation Totipotency Somatic Hybrid

b) Totipotency Tissue culture Somaclones

c) Micropropagation Somaclones Totipotency

d) Micropropagation Pomato Totipotency

43. Suspended hydrophytes leading insectivorous life is

a) Nepenthes b) Utricularia c) Drosera d) Ceratophyllum

44. Find out the incorrect combination

a) Lichen – Pioneer in lithosere b) Honey bee - Most important pollinator

c) Salvia – Free – floating hydrophytes d) Phytoplankton – Pioneers in Hydrosere

45. Male sterility is induced by genetic engineering in

a) Carica Papaya b) Brassica napus c) Lycopersicon d) Brassica nigra

ZOOLOGY

46. Which animals belongs to the largest phylum and the second largest phylum of animalia respectively

a) Pila and Apis b) Aedes and Loligo c) Locusta and Pheretima d) Nereis and Octopus

47. Vitamin – K – Scientific name

a) Tocopherol b) Phylloquinone c) Calciferol d) Ascorbic acid

48. A special neural center in the …….. x……, can moderate cardiac function through …….. y ….

a) ‘X’ is not CNS, ‘Y’ is not PNS b) ‘X’ is CNS, ‘Y’ is medulla oblongata

c) ‘X’ is medulla oblongata, ‘ Y’ is CNS d) ‘X’ is medulla oblongata, ‘Y’ is ANS

49. Blood group of children would never be same, as those of blood groups of parents when the parents

possess

a) A and B b) B and AB c) AB and O d) A and O

50. How many informations are correct about the given animal leech diagram

a) Triploblastic, bilateral symmetry

b) Metamerically segmented and coelomate animal

c) Dioecious

d) Closed circulatory system

e) Lateral appendages parapodia present

a) Five b) four c) Two d) Three

51. Match the column – I with column – II and Find out correct answer

Column – I Column – II

A) Spongocoel I. Arthropoda

B) Dorso – ventrally Flattened body II. Cnidaria

C) Coelenteron III. Porifera

D) Chitinous exoskeleton IV. Platyhelminthes

a)A- III, B – IV, C- I, D- II b) A- IV, B – III, C- II, D – I

c)A – III, B – IV, C – II, D – I d) A- II, B – IV, C- III, D – I

52. Each eye of cockroach consists of

a) 2000 pentagonal ommatidia b) 2000 octogonial ommatidia

c) 2000 hexagonal ommatidia d) 1000 hexagonal ommatidia

53. Which of following statement is not correct about submucosal layer of alimentary canal

a) It is made up of loose areolar connective tissue b) It contains myenteric plexus of nerve net

c) It is richly supplied with blood capillaries and lymph capillaries d) Both 1 and 3

54. Which is the correct sequence of the air passage in man

a) Nasal cavity pharynx trachea larynx bronchi bronchioles alveoli

b) Nasal cavity Pharynx larynx trachea bronchi bronchioles alveoli

c) Nasal cavity larynx trachea bronchi pharynx bronchioles alveoli

d) Nasal cavity trachea pharynx larynx bronchi bronchioles alveoli

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55. Atrio – ventricular septum

a) made up of thick fibrous tissue

b) Separater same side of atria and ventricle

c) Provide with an opening through which two chambers of side are connected

so how many statements are correct

a) A, B b) ABC c) BC d) B

56. Blood clotting requires

a) Na and K

b) Na and prothrombin c) Ca

and Prothrombin d) Ca and Na

57. Which condition causes more Na in blood plasma

a) low level of ADH b) low level of aldosterone c) more level of ANF d) high level of angiotensin

58. In man number of false ribs

a) equal to the thoracic vertebrae b) More than skull bones c) Less than facial bones d) Seven pairs

59. Choose the incorrect match w.r.t the hormone, its source and function

Hormone Source Function

a) ADH Supra optic nuclei Water reabsorption in nephrons

b) ANF Heart Promote Na excretion in urine

c) Insulin Acinar cells of pancreas Glucose transport inside liver

d) Erythropoietin Kidney Promote erythropoiesis

60. Chemo – sensitive area is

a) Can increase the duration of inspiration b) It present in medulla oblongata

c) It is also called Pneumotaxic center d) It is not moderate the functions of respiratory rhythm centre

61. About 70% of total global carbon is found in

a) oceans b) forests c) Grasslands d) Agro ecosystems

62. One molecule of antibody contains – antigen binding sites

a) Two b) One c) Three d) Four

63. Read the following

1) Sympathetic nerves 2) Parasympathetic nerves 3) Adrenalin 4) Nor-Adrenalin

Which of the above decreases the cardiac out put

a) A,C,D b) Only A & C c) ABC d) Only B

64. Male Heterogamy and female heterogamy are respectively

a) Human, Honey bee b) reptiles Birds c) Drosophila, birds d) Honey bee, Reptiles

65. Satellite DNA is useful tool in

a) Organ transplantation b) Sex determination c) Forensic science d) Genetic engineering

66. The world summit on sustainable development held in Johannesburg in

a) 2002 b) 1992 c) 1997 d) 1982

67. Cancerous cells can easily be destroyed by radiations due to

a) Rapid cell division b) Lack of Nutrition c) Fast mutation d) Lack of oxygen

68. Tadpole larva Tail, 2 – chambered Heart, Ammonia, Gills, etc… these are Indicates amphibians are

origin from fish,This example is relate with

a) Ernst Haeckel b) Lindmann c) Darwin d) Robert Koch

69. An increase in blood pressure / volume will not cause the release of

a) Aldosterone b) ADH c) Renin d) All the above

70. Read the following statements

S1 – Tropic harbors more species than temperate

S2- Columbia located near the equator has 1400 species of birds

S3 – India has less than 105 species of birds

a)S1 and S2 are correct b) S1, S2, S3 are incorrect c) S2, S3 are incorrect d) S1, S3 are correct

71. 1) Neutrophil 2) Monocytes 3) T – Lympocytes 4) Natural killer cells 5) Antibody

How many of the above given components are not the part of innate Immunity

a) Three b) Two c) Four d) Five

72. Which of the following formula can be used to find a value of vital capacity of lungs

a) IRV + ERV + TV b) IC + ERV c) EC+ IRV d) All of the above correct

73. MTP is considered relatively safe during

a) First trimester b) Second trimester c) Third trimester d) Any time of pregnancy

74. Match the following

Column-I Column-II

A) Visceral pericardium - 1)Epicardium

B) Cardiac muscle - 2) Myocardium

C) Endothelium - 3) Endocardium

a) A – 1, B –2, C –3 b) A – 1, B – 3, C – 2 c) A- 2, B – 1, C- 3 d) A- 3, B – 2, C –1

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75. Identify correctly matched pair

a) Vomiting centre – medulla oblongata b) Thermo regulatory centre - cerebellum

c)Respiratory centre – Hypothalamus d) Hunger centre - Olfactory lobe

76. A population splits into two or more groups and these groups occupy the different ecological zones and

they are new species is know as

a) Allopatric speciation b) Sympatric speciation c) Ecological speciation d) Autotomy

77. Layers of ovum from inner to outside

a) Corona radiata, zona pellucida, vitelline membrane b) zona pellucida, corona radiata, vitelline membrane

c) Vitelline membrane, zona pellucida, corona radiata d) zona pellucida, vitelline membrane, corona radiata

78. Phases of menstrual cycles in order

a) Luteal phase, ovulatory phase, follicular, menstrual b) Menstrual, luteal phase, ovulatory, follicular

c) Menstral, Follicular, ovulatory, luteal phase d) Menstral, Follicular, luteal phase, ovulatory

79. More binding of 2O with haemoglobin occurs in

a) Tissues when 2PO is high PCO2 is low b) Lungs when PO2 is high, PCO2 is low

c) Lungs when 2PO is low, PCO2 is high d) Tissues when

2PO is low, PCO2 is high

80. Vasa recta receive blood from

a) Afferent arterioles of cortical nephrons b) Afferent Arteriolers of Juxta medullary nephrons

c) Efferent arterioles of cortical nephrons only d) Efferent arterioles of juxta medullary nephrons

81. Choose the correctly matched pair

a) Wall of the blood vessel – Cuboidal epithelium

b) Tendon – Dense regular connective tissue

c) Biceps – A typical muscle provide with fusiform muscle fibres

d) Cartilage – Solid, Non pliable and resists compression

82. Glenoid forms socket for ball and socket joint of

a) Shoulder joint b) Knee joint c) Hip joint d) Elbow joint

83. Nephridiopores of Earthworm not occur in segments

a) All segments b) All segments except first two

c) All segments except first two and last d) Clitellum, First two segment and last segment

84. Common feature found in reptiles, aves , mammals

a)Air sacs b) Amnion c) Regulators d) Conformers

85. Barr bodies are present in

a) Monocytes b) Lymphocytes c) Basophils d) Neutrophils

86. Symmetry of diploblastics

a) Radial b) Spherical b) Asymmetrical d) Bilateral

87. Thermo regulators among the following

a) Pavo and Psittacula b) Aptenodytes and Pristis

c) Trygon and Pterophyllum d) Dalphinus and salamandra

88. Choose the incorrect one

a) logistic growth curve – more realistic growth curve

b) r-value – more flour beetle than Norway rat

c) Carrying capacity – A population is stable as no births and deaths occur

d) Bamboo – breed only once in life

89. In frog sinus venosus

a) On dorsal side of heart b) Carry oxygenated blood to aorta

c) Carry deoxygenated blood to aorta d) Carry mixed blood to aorta

90. Darwin Intra specific competition in for

a) food b) shelter c) reproduction d) all the above

PHYSICS

91. The figure shows two NAND gates followed by a NOR gate. The system is equivalent to the following

logic gate

a) OR b) AND

c) NAND d) None of these

92. In the figure shown the potential drop across the series resistor is

a) 30V b) 60V

c) 90V d) 120V

A

B

C

X

Y

Z

90V

2KW

2KW120V

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93. In a common emitter amplifier the load resistance of the output circuit is 792 times the resistance of the

input circuit. If 0.99a = the voltage gain is

a) 79200 b) 39600 c) 7920 d) 3960

94. The focal length of objective and eye lens of a astronomical telescope are respectively 20cm and 5cm.

Final image is formed at least distance of distinct vision. The magnifying power will be

a) -4.8 b) -4.0 c) 4.8 d) 4.0

95. The separation L between the objective ( )0 0.5f cm= and the eye piece ( )5ef cm= of a compound

microscope is 7.0cm. where should a small object be placed so that the eye is least strained

a) 0.5cm b) 3

2cm c)

2

3cm d)

1

3cm

96. A ray of light is incident normally on one of the faces of a prism of apex angles 030 and refractive index

2 . The angle of deviation of the ray is

a) 030 b)

040 c) 010 d)

015

97. In young’s double slit experiment let t be the fringe width and 0I be the intensity at the central bright

fringe. At a distance ‘d’ from the central bright fringe, the intensity will be

a) 2

0 cosx

Ib

æ ö÷ç ÷ç ÷÷çè ø

b) 2

0 cosx

Ip

b

æ ö÷ç ÷ç ÷÷çè ø

c) 2

0 cosd

It

pæ ö÷ç ÷ç ÷çè ø

d) 2

0 cosd

It

æ ö÷ç ÷ç ÷çè ø

98. The equation 4sin 20025

xy tp

æ ö÷ç= - ÷ç ÷çè ø

represents a transverse wave that travels in a stretched wire,

where x,y are in cm and t in second. Its wavelength and velocity are

a) 0.5m, 25 m/s b) 0.5m, 50 1ms- c) 1m, 50 m/s d) 1m, 25

1ms-

99. 25 tuning forks are arranged in decreasing order of frequency. Any two successive forks produce 3

beats/sec. If the frequency of the first tuning fork is the octave of last then frequency of 21st fork is

a) 72 Hz b) 288 Hz c) 84 Hz d) 87 Hz

100. The displacement of a particle executing SHM is given by 10sin 33

y t mpæ ö÷ç= + ÷ç ÷çè ø

and t is in seconds. The

initial displacement and maximum velocity of the particle are respectively

a) 5 3 ,30 /m m s b) 2 3 ,20 /m m s c) 7 3 ,10 /m m s d) 2 ,30 /m m s

101. The work function of a substance is 4.0 ev. The longest wavelength of light that can cause photo electric

emission from this substance is approximately

a) 220 nm b) 310 nm c) 540 nm d) 400 nm

102. If the radius of first Bohr’s orbit ix x , then de-Broglie wavelength of electron in 3rd orbit is nearly

a) 2 xp b) 6 xp c) 9 x d) x /3

103. A radioactive nucleus undergoes a series of decays according to the sequence

1 2 3A A A Ab a a¾ ¾® ¾ ¾® ¾ ¾® If the mass number and atomic number of 3A are 172 and 69

respectively, then the mass number and atomic number of A is

a) 56,23 b) 180,72 c) 120,52 d) 84,38

104. Point charges of 93 10 C-´ are situated at each of three corners of a square whose side is 15cm. The

magnitude and direction of electric field at the vacant corner of the square is

a) 2296 v/m long the diagonal b) 9622 v/m c) 22 v/m along the diagonal d) zero

105. n charges Q,4Q,9Q,16Q…. are placed at distances of 1,2,3… metre from a point ‘O’ on the same

straight line. The electric intensity at ‘O’ is

a) 2

04

Q

npe b)

04

Q

npe c) Infinity d)

04

nQ

pe

106. A charge Q is distributed over two concentric hollow spheres of radii ‘r’ and R (>r) such that the

surface densities are equal. Find the potential at the common centre

a) ( )

( )2 20

1

4

Q R r

R rpe

+

+ b)

( )2 20

1

4

Q

R rpe + c) ( )2 2

0

1

4R r

pe+ d)

( )0

1

4

Q

R rpe +

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107. The equivalent capacitance of the network given below is 1 Fm . The valence of C is

a) 3 Fm b) 1.5 Fm

c) 2.5 Fm d) 1 Fm

108. The equivalent resistance between points A and B of an infinite network of resistance each of 1W

connected as shown is

a) 1 5

2

+ b)

2 5

4

+

c) 3 5

2

+ d)

1 3

3

+

109. In an experiment with potentiometer to measure the internal resistance of a cell, when the cell is

shunted by 5W, the null point is obtained at 2m. When cell is shunted by 20W the null point is

obtained at 3m. The internal resistance of cell is

a) 2W b) 4W c) 6W d) 8W

110. The period of a thin magnet in a magnetic field is 2s. It is cut into four equal parts by cutling it along

length and breadth. The period of each of them in the same field is

a) 1s b) 2s c) 3s d) 4s

111. When a current of ( )2.5 0.5± ampere flows through a wire, it develops a potential difference of

( )20 1± volt, the resitance of the wire is

a) ( )8 2± W b) ( )10 3± W c) ( )18 4± W d) ( )20 4± W

112. The work done W by a body varies with displacement ‘x’ as

( )2

BW Ax

c x= +

-. The dimensional

formula for B is

a) 2 2ML T -é ù

ê úë û b)

4 2ML T -é ùê úë û

c) 2MLT -é ù

ê úë û d)

2 4ML T -é ùê úë û

113. A freely falling body passes through two points A and B in time intervals of 1t and

2t from the start

then the distance between the two points A and B is

a) ( )2 2

2 12

gt t- b) ( )2 2

1 22

gt t- c) ( )2 2

2 1

1

2t t- d) ( )2 2

1 2

1

2t t-

114. If q is the angle between unit vectors Aur

and Bur

, then 1 .

1 .

A B

A B

æ ö- ÷ç ÷ç ÷ç ÷÷ç +è ø

ur ur

ur ur is equal to

a) 2tan / 2q b)

2sin / 2q c) 2cot / 2q d)

2cos / 2q

115. The horizontal and vertical displacements of a projectile are given as x=at and y=bt-ct2. Then velocity

of projection is

a) 2 2a b+ b)

2 2b c+ c) 2 2a c+ d)

2 2b c-

116. A circular hole of radius ‘r’ is made in a disk of radius ‘R’ and of uniform thickness at a distance ‘a’

from the centre of the disk. The distance of the new centre of mass from the original centre of mass is

a) 2

2 2

aR

R r- b)

2

2 2

ar

R r-

c) ( )2 2

2

a R r

r

- d) ( )2 2

2

a R r

R

-

117. Three rings each of mass ‘m’ and radius R are arranged as shown in the figure. The moment of inertia

of the system about AB is

a) 23MR b)

23

2MR

c) 25MR d)

27

2MR

Q

C

1.5 Fm

3 Fm3 Fm

P

1W 1W 1W

1W 1W 1W

A

B

R ra

A

B

9 | P a g e

118. If 484J of energy is spent in increasing the speed of a wheel from 60 rpm to 360 rpm, the M.I of the wheel is

a) 1.6 kg m2 b) 0.3 kg m2 c) 0.7 kg m2 d) 1.2 kg m2

119. A sphere of mass ‘M’ and radius r rolls on a horizontal plane without slipping with a speed u . Now it

rools up vertically, then maximum height it would be attain will be

a)

23

4

u

g b)

25

2

u

g c)

27

10

u

g d)

2

2

u

g

120. If ˆˆ ˆ2 3 4F i j k= + +ur

acts on a body and displaces it by ˆˆ ˆ3 2 5S i j k= + +ur

then the work done by the force is

a) 12 J b) 20 J c) 32 J d) 64 J

121. A 6kg mass travelling at 2.5 m/s collides head on with a stationary 4kg mass. After the collision the 6kg

mass travels in its original direction with a speed of 1m/s. The final velocity of 4kg mass is

a) 1 m/s b) 2.25 m/s c) 2 m/s d) 0 m/s

122. A liquid of mass m and specific heat c is heated to a temperature T. Another liquid of mass 2

m and

specific heat 2c is heated to a temperature 2T. If these two liquids are mixed, the resulting temperature

of the mixture is (Assume no change in state of liquids)

a) (2/3) T b) (8/5) T c) (3/5) T d) (3/2) T

123. The P-V plots for two gases during adiabatic processes are shown in the figure. The graphs 1 and 2

should correspond respectively to

a) 2O and He b) He and

2O

c) 2O and CO d)

2N and 2O

124. An engine has an efficiency of 1/6. When the temperature of sink is reduced by 062 C , its efficiency is

doubled, then the temperature of source is

a) 062 C b)

099 C c) 037 C d)

0124 C

125. The ratio of the densities of the two bodies is 3:4 and the ratio of specific heat is 4:3. Find the ratio of

their thermal capacities for unit volume

a) 1:2 b) 1:1 c) 2:3 d) 16:9

126. A vehicle of mass ‘m’ is moving on a rough horizontal road with momentum P. If the coefficient of

friction between the tyres and the road be m , the stopping distance is

a) 2

P

mgm b)

2

2

P

mgm c)

22

P

m gm d)

2

22

P

m gm

127. If in a wire Young’s modules Y, longitudinal strain X is produced then the potential energy stored in its

unit volume will be

a) 20.5YX b)

20.5Y X c) 22YX d)

2YX

128. In the given loop the magnetic field at the centre O is

a) 0 1 2

1 24

i r r

r r

m æ ö+ ÷ç ÷ç ÷ç ÷çè ø out of the page b) 0 1 2

1 24

i r r

r r

m æ ö+ ÷ç ÷ç ÷ç ÷çè ø into the page

c) 0 1 2

1 24

i r r

r r

m æ ö- ÷ç ÷ç ÷ç ÷çè ø out of the page d) 0 1 2

1 24

i r r

r r

m æ ö- ÷ç ÷ç ÷ç ÷çè ø into the page

129. A conducting ring of radius ‘r’ is rolling without slipping with a constant angular velocity w (figure).

If the magnetic field strength is B and is directed into the page then the emf induced across PQ is

a) 2B rw b)

2

2

B rw

c) 24B rw d)

2 2 2

8

r Bp w

(0,0)

P

V2

1

i 2r

1r

w

Q

´ ´ ´ ´ ´

´ ´ ´ ´ ´

´ ´ ´ ´ ´

´ ´ ´ ´ ´

´ ´ ´ ´ ´

´ ´ ´ ´ ´

P

10 | P a g e

130. An alternating voltage of ( )200 2 sin 100E t V= is connected to a condenser of 1 Fm through an A.C

ammeter. The reading of the ammeter will be

a) 10mA b) 40 mA c) 80 mA d) 20 mA

131. Two masses 1m and

2m are accelerated uniformly on a friction less surface as shown in figure. The

ratio of the tensions 1

2

T

T is

a) 1

2

m

m b) 2

1

m

m c) 1 2

2

m m

m

+ d) 1

1 2

m

m m+

132. A body of mass m is suspended by two strings making angles a and b with the horizontal. Tensions in

the two strings are

a) ( )

1 2

cos

sin

gT T

m b

a b= =

+ b)

( )1 2

sin

sin

mgT T

b

a b= =

+

c) ( ) ( )

1 2

cos cos,

sin sin

mg mgT T

b a

a b a b= =

+ + d) None of these

133. A rod of mass ‘m’ and length ‘ l ’ is made to stand at an angle of 060 with the vertical. Potential energy

of the rod in this position

a) mgl b) 2

mgl

c) 3

mgl d)

4

mgl

134. The universal law of gravitation is the force law also known as the

a) triangular law b) square law c) inverse square law d) parallelogram law

135. An incompressible liquid flows through a horizontal tube as shown in the following figure. Then the

velocity v of the fluid is

a) 3 m/s b) 1.5 m/s

c) 1 m/s d) 2.25 m/s

CHEMISTRY

136. Asprin has the formula 9 8 4C H O . How many atoms of oxygen are there in a tablet weighting 360 mg

a) 231.204 10´ b)

221.08 10´ c) 241.204 10´ d)

214.81 10´

137. The ionisation potential for the electron in the ground state of the hydrogen atom is 13.6eV. atom-1.

What would be the ionisation potential for the electron in the first excited state of 2Li +

a) 3.4 eV b) 10.2 eV c) 30.6 eV d) 6.8 eV

138. Incorrect order of size

a) Zn Cu Ni> > b) 2O F Na- - +> > c)

2 2O Cl S- - -> > d) I Br Cl- - -> >

139. The maximum number of electrons that can be associated with the following set of quantum numbers

3, 1n l= = and 1m = -

a) 6 b) 4 c) 2 d) 3

140. At identical temperature and pressure, the rate of diffusion of hydrogen is 3 3 times that of a gaseous

hydrocarbon having molecular formula 2 2n nC H -

, the value of ‘n’ is

a) 1 b) 4 c) 3 d) 8

141. A metal form high spin and low spin complex. If difference between number of unpaired electrons is two

then the metal ion is

a) 2Co

b) 2Mn

c) 2Fe

d) 2Ni

l

030

060m

2

1 3 /Am V m sAm

2

V 2=1.5 m

/s

1.5 Am 2, V

2T1T

1T2T

mg

ab

11 | P a g e

O

O

Br

Br

O

Br

OBr

O

Br

N

H

& N

3CH

C &

O

NH C

O

2NH

HO

OH OH

O

N

3CH

&

O

3CH

NH

OH

C &

OC

O

O O

142. 3.0 mol of 5PCl kept in 1L closed vessel was allowed to attain equilibrium at 380 K. If 1.80CK = , then

calculate equilibrium concentrations of 3 2&PCl Cl respectively

a) 1.59 M, 1.59M b) 2.28M, 2.28M c) 3M, 3M d) 2.28M, 3M

143. Two complex compounds have same chemical formula one shows optical isomerism and other do not

show optical isomerism. Which kind of isomers these are

a) Ionisation b) Linkage c) geometrical d) None of these

144. Following P Vs V curve is plotted. The relation between 1 2,T T and

3T is

a) 1 2 3T T T= =

b)

1 2 3T T T> >

c) 1 2 3T T T< <

d) None of these

145. For the reaction, ( ) ( ) ( )3 2FeCO S FeO S CO g® + , 82.8H KJD = at 025 C , what is UD at

025 C

a) 82.8 KJ b) 80.32 KJ c) -2394.77 KJ d) 85.28 KJ

146. For an element having Z = 71, in which orbital the last electron will enter

a) 6s b) 5d c) 9f d) 6d

147. 2 2 2H O H O< order is correct for

a) Boiling point b) acidic nature c) dipole moment d) All of the above are correct

148. 3NaNO on heating gives which gas

a) 2O b)

2NO c) 2 2NO O+ d) NOH

149. Which of the following species iso structural planar and non polar

a) 3 3 3, ,ClF BrF XeO b)

2 3

4 4 4, ,ClO SO PO- - - c)

2

3 3 3, ,I XeF S+ + - d)

3 2 2, ,I HgCl XeF-

150. Correct order of solubility in water

a) LiOH NaOH KOH RbOH> > > b) NaF KF RbF CsF> > >

c) 2 2 2 2MgF CaF SrF BeF< < < d) LiCl NaCl KCl RbCl< > >

151. HBr¾ ¾® product. In above reaction product is

a) b) c) d)

152. Which of the following pair are metamers

a)

b)

c) d)

153. Structure of 3,4-dimethyl pent-1-en-3-ol is

a) b) c) d)

P

V

T1

T2T3

12 | P a g e

+

-

154. The major product (c) of the following reaction is

ClBr2 ./ .Br HvNa ether AlC KOHA B C

a) b) c) d)

155. Aromatic compound among the following is

a) b) c) d)

156. Green house effect is related to

a) Cultivation of green plants b) Cultivation of vegetables c) Global warming d) Global green algae

157. Two liquids X and Y form an ideal solution at 300 k, vapour pressure of solution containing 1 mol of

‘X’ and 3 mol of ‘Y’ is 550 mm of Hg. At the same temperature, if 1 mol of ‘Y’ is further added to this

solution. Vapour pressure of the solution increased by 10 mm of Hg. Vapour pressure of X and Y in

pure states will be respectively (in mm of Hg)

a) 300 and 400 b) 400 and 600 c) 500 and 600 d) 200 and 300

158. Which set of following characteristics for Zns Crystal is correct ?

a) Coordination number ( 4 : 4) ; ccp ; 2Zn

ion in all tetrahedral voids

b) Coordination number ( 6 :6) ; hcp : 2Zn

ion in all tetrahedral voids

c) Co ordination number ( 6 : 4) ; hcp ; 2Zn

ion in all octahedral voids

d) Coordination number ( 4 : 4); ccp ; 2Zn

ion in alternative tetrahedral voids

159. Given the electrode potentials

3 2 0, 0.771Fe e Fe E V

0

2 2 2 ,E 0.536I e I V

0

CellE for the cell reaction 3 2

22 2 2Fe I Fe I is

a) 1. 006V b) 0. 503V c) 0. 235 V d) - 0. 235 V

160. How many atoms of calcium will be deposited from a solution of 2CaCl by a current of 25 mA flowing

for 60 seconds ?

a) 184.68 10 b)

154.68 10 c) 124.68 10 d)

94.68 10

161. For a first order reaction A P , the temperature (T) dependent rate constant (K) was found to

follow the equation log k = - (2000) 1

T + 6.0. The pre-exponential factor A and the activation energy

aE , respectively are

a) 6 1 11.0 10 9.2s and KJ mol b)

1 16.0 16.6s and KJ mol

c) 6 1 11.0 10 16.6s and KJ mol d)

6 1 11.0 10 38.3s and KJ mol

162. In friendlich adsorption isotherm, the value of 1

n is

a) between 0 and 1 in all cases b) between 2 and 4 in all cases

c) 1 in case of physical adsorption d) 1 in case of chemisorptions

163. When copper are is mixed with silica in a reverberatory furnace copper matte is produced. The

copper matte contains

a) Sulphides of copper (II) and Iron (II) b) Sulphides of copper (I) and Iron (III)

c) Sulphides of copper (I) and Iron (II) d) Sulphides of copper (I) and Iron (III)

164. In the compounds of type 3POX , P atoms show multiple bonding of the type is

a) p b) d d c) p d d) None of these

13 | P a g e

OH 2CH OH

OH

2CH OH

H

O

OH Cl 3CH

ONa ; B HCOOHA=3CH ; B HCOONaA=

2CH OHA HCOONa ; B COONa3A CH OH ; B

165. Sulphuric acid reacts with 5PCl to give

a) Thionyl chloride b) Sulphuryl chloride c) Sulphur monochloride d) Sulphur tetrachloride

166. 6XeF on reaction with KF yields

a) 7[XeF ]K

b) 2 2

4 3[ ] [ ]XeF KF c)

1

5 2[ ] [KF ]XeF d) None of these

167. Half – life of a zero order reaction is 250 sec. 75%t ,

100t of the reaction respectively in sec are

a) 500, 375 b) 375, 500 c) 300, 575 d) 575, 200

168. The correct order of increasing bond angles in the following species are

a) 2 2 2Cl O ClO ClO b)

2 2 2ClO Cl O ClO c) 2 2 2Cl O ClO ClO d)

2 2 2ClO Cl O ClO

169. Which is not a true statement ?

a) - carson of - amino acid is asymmetric

b) All proteins are found in L – form

c) Human body can synthesize all proteins they need

d) At 7Hp both aminot acid carboxylic groups exist I ionissed form

170. Which of the following is not a condensation polymer

A Melamine b) Glyplol c) Dacron d) Neoprene

171. The correct order of 2

0

/MME values with negative sign for four successive elements Cr, Mn, Fe and Co is

a) Cr> Mn > Fe > Co b) Mn > Cr > Fe > Co c) Fe > Mn > Cr > Co d) Cr > Fe > Mn > Co

172. Which of the following is not true ?

a) Amplicillin is not a natural antibiotic b) Vancomycin is a broad spectrum antibiotic

c) Erythromycin is a bacteriostic antibiotic d) Prontosil is not converted into sulphonilamide in the body

173. 2

/HCHO H

H O

X, Where ‘X’ is

a) b) c) d)

174.

a) 3 – methyl butan – 2 - ol b) 2 – methyl butan – 3 - ol

c) 2 – methyl butan – 2 - ol d) Pentan – 2 - ol

175. Which of the following will be most easily attacked by an electrophilic?

a) b) c) d)

176. With two different aldehydes when one of them is formaldehyde on treatment with 50% NaOH solution

then A and B are formed. Where A and B are

CHO50%

NaOHHCHO A B

a) b)

c) d)

3

3 ;H OEtherCH MgBr A B

'B'IUPAC nameof is

14 | P a g e

2NH

N

H

N

H

2NH

2 2 2

4

/

,278

Br H O NaNo

HBF KA B C , Where 'C' is

177. The reagent which does not react with both, acetone and benzaldehyde?

a) Sodium hydrogen sulphite b) Phenyl hydrazine c) Fehling’s solution d) Grignard reagent

178.

2 4N BF

BrBr

Br

BrBr

Br

Br

Br

F

Br

2NH

BrBra) b) c) d)

F

179. The major product of the following is

OH

2NH

02

0 ,

NaNO HCl

C OH

?

OH

N N

ONa

2N Cl

OHN N OH

Cl

a) b)c) d)

180. Among the following amines, the strongest bransted base is

a)3NH b) c) d)

15 | P a g e

NEET MODEL GRAND TEST – 3 KEY

1) a 2) c 3) c 4) a 5) c 6) c 7) d 8) c 9) c 10) a

11) a 12) c 13) d 14) d 15) c 16) b 17) b 18) b 19) d 20) d

21) c 22) b 23) b 24) c 25) a 26) c 27) c 28) b 29) a 30) c

31) d 32) c 33) a 34) c 35) a 36) a 37) d 38) d 39) c 40) d

41) a 42) a 43) b 44) c 45) b 46) b 47) b 48) d 49) c 50) c

51) c 52) c 53) b 54) b 55) b 56) c 57) d 58) c 59) c 60) b

61) a 62) a 63) d 64) c 65) c 66) a 67) a 68) a 69) d 70) a

71) b 72) a 73) a 74) a 75) a 76) a 77) c 78) c 79) b 80) c

81) b 82) a 83) d 84) b 85) d 86) a 87) a 88) c 89) a 90) d

91) b 92) a 93) a 94) a 95) c 96) d 97) c 98) b 99) c 100) a

101) b 102) b 103) b 104) a 105) d 106) a 107) b 108) a 109) b 110) a

111) a 112) b 113) a 114) a 115) a 116) b 117) d 118) c 119) c 120) c

121) b 122) d 123) a 124) b 125) b 126) d 127) a 128) b 129) a 130) d

131) d 132) c 133) d 134) c 135) c 136) d 137) c 138) c 139) c 140) b

141) a 142) a 143) c 144) b 145) b 146) b 147) d 148) a 149) d 150) c

151) b 152) c 153) a 154) c 155) a 156) c 157) b 158) d 159) a 160) a

161) d 162) a 163) c 164) c 165) b 166) a 167) b 168) d 169) b 170) d

171) b 172) d 173) d 174) a 175) b 176) c 177) c 178) b 179) a 180) c